CLAT Mock Test- 21


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 21


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 21 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 21 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 21 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 21 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 21 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The first visible change to the body—occurring 15 to 20 minutes after death—is pallor mortis, in which the body begins to pale. Pallor mortis occurs because blood stops moving through the capillaries, the smallest of the body’s blood vessels. This process is identical for all people, but it’s less immediately apparent on people with darker skin. Meanwhile, the body cools, decreasing in temperature about 1.5 °F (0.84 °C) per hour. But even when the body is cold, it’s still full of life. Damaged blood cells pour out of their broken vessels and trigger discoloration on the skin’s surface. Though this discoloration begins to set in about an hour after death, it usually isn’t visible until a few hours later. In death, chemical bridges gradually form between the actin and the myosin, so the muscles contract and stay that way till the bridges break down. This stiffness, known as rigor mortis, occurs about two to six hours after death. Rigor mortis adds to the difficulty of performing an autopsy or preparing a body for a funeral, as the body loses the flexibility it had during life. Among the living things in the human body are bacteria. While the body is alive, they are concentrated in the gut but are mostly kept out of other internal organs by the immune system. After death, though, these bacteria are free to “feed” on the whole body. First, they digest the intestines and nearby tissue. Then they expand their reach, entering the capillaries and making their way into the heart and brain to feast.

Decomposition takes time. How much time may depend on such factors as the cause of death, the environmental conditions, or even the clothing on the body. Decomposition is “a continuous process,” explained forensic scientist M. Lee Goff to Medical News Today, “beginning at the point of death and ending when the body has been reduced to a skeleton.” To slow that arguably gruesome process, humans have devised various practices for preserving the body. A well-preserved body has long been a chief mortuary concern, especially when it will be displayed during a period of mourning. Embalming is one way of preserving a body after death. A wide variety of substances—including vinegar, wine, brandy, and honey—have been used to “pickle” corpses and thus delay putrefaction. In the modern procedure of embalming, blood is drained from the veins, and another fluid, usually based on a solution of formaldehyde in water, is injected into a major artery. Though this version of embalming isn’t permanent, it serves its purpose—giving the body a lifelike appearance in the days after death when it will be viewed by mourners.

Q. Which of the following is true for Pallor Mortis?

Solution: Paleness, also known as pale complexion or pallor, is an unusual lightness of skin-colour compared with your normal complexion. All the other options are factually inconsistent with the information in the passage.
QUESTION: 2

The first visible change to the body—occurring 15 to 20 minutes after death—is pallor mortis, in which the body begins to pale. Pallor mortis occurs because blood stops moving through the capillaries, the smallest of the body’s blood vessels. This process is identical for all people, but it’s less immediately apparent on people with darker skin. Meanwhile, the body cools, decreasing in temperature about 1.5 °F (0.84 °C) per hour. But even when the body is cold, it’s still full of life. Damaged blood cells pour out of their broken vessels and trigger discoloration on the skin’s surface. Though this discoloration begins to set in about an hour after death, it usually isn’t visible until a few hours later. In death, chemical bridges gradually form between the actin and the myosin, so the muscles contract and stay that way till the bridges break down. This stiffness, known as rigor mortis, occurs about two to six hours after death. Rigor mortis adds to the difficulty of performing an autopsy or preparing a body for a funeral, as the body loses the flexibility it had during life. Among the living things in the human body are bacteria. While the body is alive, they are concentrated in the gut but are mostly kept out of other internal organs by the immune system. After death, though, these bacteria are free to “feed” on the whole body. First, they digest the intestines and nearby tissue. Then they expand their reach, entering the capillaries and making their way into the heart and brain to feast.

Decomposition takes time. How much time may depend on such factors as the cause of death, the environmental conditions, or even the clothing on the body. Decomposition is “a continuous process,” explained forensic scientist M. Lee Goff to Medical News Today, “beginning at the point of death and ending when the body has been reduced to a skeleton.” To slow that arguably gruesome process, humans have devised various practices for preserving the body. A well-preserved body has long been a chief mortuary concern, especially when it will be displayed during a period of mourning. Embalming is one way of preserving a body after death. A wide variety of substances—including vinegar, wine, brandy, and honey—have been used to “pickle” corpses and thus delay putrefaction. In the modern procedure of embalming, blood is drained from the veins, and another fluid, usually based on a solution of formaldehyde in water, is injected into a major artery. Though this version of embalming isn’t permanent, it serves its purpose—giving the body a lifelike appearance in the days after death when it will be viewed by mourners.

Q. What happens when chemical bridges gradually form between the acting and the myosin?

Solution: The muscles contract and stay that way, when the bridge is formed. The passage refers to this as ‘stiffness’.
QUESTION: 3

The first visible change to the body—occurring 15 to 20 minutes after death—is pallor mortis, in which the body begins to pale. Pallor mortis occurs because blood stops moving through the capillaries, the smallest of the body’s blood vessels. This process is identical for all people, but it’s less immediately apparent on people with darker skin. Meanwhile, the body cools, decreasing in temperature about 1.5 °F (0.84 °C) per hour. But even when the body is cold, it’s still full of life. Damaged blood cells pour out of their broken vessels and trigger discoloration on the skin’s surface. Though this discoloration begins to set in about an hour after death, it usually isn’t visible until a few hours later. In death, chemical bridges gradually form between the actin and the myosin, so the muscles contract and stay that way till the bridges break down. This stiffness, known as rigor mortis, occurs about two to six hours after death. Rigor mortis adds to the difficulty of performing an autopsy or preparing a body for a funeral, as the body loses the flexibility it had during life. Among the living things in the human body are bacteria. While the body is alive, they are concentrated in the gut but are mostly kept out of other internal organs by the immune system. After death, though, these bacteria are free to “feed” on the whole body. First, they digest the intestines and nearby tissue. Then they expand their reach, entering the capillaries and making their way into the heart and brain to feast.

Decomposition takes time. How much time may depend on such factors as the cause of death, the environmental conditions, or even the clothing on the body. Decomposition is “a continuous process,” explained forensic scientist M. Lee Goff to Medical News Today, “beginning at the point of death and ending when the body has been reduced to a skeleton.” To slow that arguably gruesome process, humans have devised various practices for preserving the body. A well-preserved body has long been a chief mortuary concern, especially when it will be displayed during a period of mourning. Embalming is one way of preserving a body after death. A wide variety of substances—including vinegar, wine, brandy, and honey—have been used to “pickle” corpses and thus delay putrefaction. In the modern procedure of embalming, blood is drained from the veins, and another fluid, usually based on a solution of formaldehyde in water, is injected into a major artery. Though this version of embalming isn’t permanent, it serves its purpose—giving the body a lifelike appearance in the days after death when it will be viewed by mourners.

Q. To which of the following Mr. Goff, is most likely to agree?

Solution: Mr. Goff says, Decomposition is “a continuous process, beginning at the point of death and ending when the body has been reduced to a skeleton.” Since it is a continuous process, it doesn’t stop until the body if fully broken-down. Option (a) is wrong because it starts as soon as death occurs.
QUESTION: 4

The first visible change to the body—occurring 15 to 20 minutes after death—is pallor mortis, in which the body begins to pale. Pallor mortis occurs because blood stops moving through the capillaries, the smallest of the body’s blood vessels. This process is identical for all people, but it’s less immediately apparent on people with darker skin. Meanwhile, the body cools, decreasing in temperature about 1.5 °F (0.84 °C) per hour. But even when the body is cold, it’s still full of life. Damaged blood cells pour out of their broken vessels and trigger discoloration on the skin’s surface. Though this discoloration begins to set in about an hour after death, it usually isn’t visible until a few hours later. In death, chemical bridges gradually form between the actin and the myosin, so the muscles contract and stay that way till the bridges break down. This stiffness, known as rigor mortis, occurs about two to six hours after death. Rigor mortis adds to the difficulty of performing an autopsy or preparing a body for a funeral, as the body loses the flexibility it had during life. Among the living things in the human body are bacteria. While the body is alive, they are concentrated in the gut but are mostly kept out of other internal organs by the immune system. After death, though, these bacteria are free to “feed” on the whole body. First, they digest the intestines and nearby tissue. Then they expand their reach, entering the capillaries and making their way into the heart and brain to feast.

Decomposition takes time. How much time may depend on such factors as the cause of death, the environmental conditions, or even the clothing on the body. Decomposition is “a continuous process,” explained forensic scientist M. Lee Goff to Medical News Today, “beginning at the point of death and ending when the body has been reduced to a skeleton.” To slow that arguably gruesome process, humans have devised various practices for preserving the body. A well-preserved body has long been a chief mortuary concern, especially when it will be displayed during a period of mourning. Embalming is one way of preserving a body after death. A wide variety of substances—including vinegar, wine, brandy, and honey—have been used to “pickle” corpses and thus delay putrefaction. In the modern procedure of embalming, blood is drained from the veins, and another fluid, usually based on a solution of formaldehyde in water, is injected into a major artery. Though this version of embalming isn’t permanent, it serves its purpose—giving the body a lifelike appearance in the days after death when it will be viewed by mourners.

Q. The modern procedure of embalming is suitable for?

Solution: In the modern procedure of embalming, blood is drained from the veins, and another fluid, usually based on a solution of formaldehyde in water, is injected into a major artery. Though this version of embalming isn’t permanent, it serves its purpose—giving the body a lifelike appearance in the days after death when it will be viewed by mourners.
QUESTION: 5

The first visible change to the body—occurring 15 to 20 minutes after death—is pallor mortis, in which the body begins to pale. Pallor mortis occurs because blood stops moving through the capillaries, the smallest of the body’s blood vessels. This process is identical for all people, but it’s less immediately apparent on people with darker skin. Meanwhile, the body cools, decreasing in temperature about 1.5 °F (0.84 °C) per hour. But even when the body is cold, it’s still full of life. Damaged blood cells pour out of their broken vessels and trigger discoloration on the skin’s surface. Though this discoloration begins to set in about an hour after death, it usually isn’t visible until a few hours later. In death, chemical bridges gradually form between the actin and the myosin, so the muscles contract and stay that way till the bridges break down. This stiffness, known as rigor mortis, occurs about two to six hours after death. Rigor mortis adds to the difficulty of performing an autopsy or preparing a body for a funeral, as the body loses the flexibility it had during life. Among the living things in the human body are bacteria. While the body is alive, they are concentrated in the gut but are mostly kept out of other internal organs by the immune system. After death, though, these bacteria are free to “feed” on the whole body. First, they digest the intestines and nearby tissue. Then they expand their reach, entering the capillaries and making their way into the heart and brain to feast.

Decomposition takes time. How much time may depend on such factors as the cause of death, the environmental conditions, or even the clothing on the body. Decomposition is “a continuous process,” explained forensic scientist M. Lee Goff to Medical News Today, “beginning at the point of death and ending when the body has been reduced to a skeleton.” To slow that arguably gruesome process, humans have devised various practices for preserving the body. A well-preserved body has long been a chief mortuary concern, especially when it will be displayed during a period of mourning. Embalming is one way of preserving a body after death. A wide variety of substances—including vinegar, wine, brandy, and honey—have been used to “pickle” corpses and thus delay putrefaction. In the modern procedure of embalming, blood is drained from the veins, and another fluid, usually based on a solution of formaldehyde in water, is injected into a major artery. Though this version of embalming isn’t permanent, it serves its purpose—giving the body a lifelike appearance in the days after death when it will be viewed by mourners.

Q. “Muscles contract” when we die. Which of the following is not the correct usage of the term ‘contract’?

Solution: Contract means: to enter into a formal and legally binding agreement. But it also means to decrease in size, number, or range. Option (b) should have been Contact lenses, not Contract lenses.
QUESTION: 6

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened. Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a ""trick""-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word ""Climate-gate"" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The ‘gate’ suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about Climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was ""science as a religion."" Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. ""The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history,"" as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analysis, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult- like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication. In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages. Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was ""definitely"" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. In the second paragraph the author mentions "trick" in quotes in order to highlight that the adjusting of data was:

Solution: The author says that the scientists adjusted the data using "trick". This was a mathematical jargon used by the scientist which was misinterpreted by some to be a deception. So, the author puts "trick" in quotes to highlight that the word trick does not literally mean a trick.
QUESTION: 7

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened. Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a ""trick""-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word ""Climate-gate"" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The ‘gate’ suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about Climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was ""science as a religion."" Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. ""The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history,"" as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analysis, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult- like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication. In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages. Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was ""definitely"" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Why did some of the conservative users add the suffix ‘gate’ in Climategate?

Solution: The author mentions that the suffix ‘gate;’ refers to Watergate which was another scandal.
QUESTION: 8

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened. Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a ""trick""-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word ""Climate-gate"" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The ‘gate’ suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about Climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was ""science as a religion."" Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. ""The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history,"" as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analysis, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult- like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication. In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages. Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was ""definitely"" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Why did the climate change deniers use the analogy of science as a religion?

Solution: The author points out a theme used by some of the climate change deniers - "science is religion". They claimed that the climate change had become a faith-based cult which was not based on evidence. So, just like how religion is based on faith and not on evidence, climate change is also not based on evidence.
QUESTION: 9

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened. Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a ""trick""-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word ""Climate-gate"" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The ‘gate’ suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about Climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was ""science as a religion."" Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. ""The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history,"" as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analysis, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult- like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication. In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages. Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was ""definitely"" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Why does the author mention that the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was "definitely" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent?

Solution: The author, in the last paragraph, mentions that in April 2010 an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing. However, the controversy did have a negative impact on public opinion albeit temporarily. To justify that claim, the author presents the data of Feb 2010 that the percentage of British adults who believed that climate change was a reality dropped. Since the data was used to justify the claim that the climate gate changed the public opinion temporarily therefore (b) is correct.
QUESTION: 10

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened. Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a ""trick""-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word ""Climate-gate"" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The ‘gate’ suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about Climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was ""science as a religion."" Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. ""The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history,"" as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analysis, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult- like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication. In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages. Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was ""definitely"" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Which one of the following can replace the phrase "absolute certitude" as used in the fourth paragraph?

Solution: Certitude means absolute conviction or unquestioning belief in something
QUESTION: 11

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened. Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a ""trick""-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word ""Climate-gate"" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The ‘gate’ suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about Climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was ""science as a religion."" Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. ""The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history,"" as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analysis, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult- like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication. In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages. Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was ""definitely"" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Which of the following could be an apposite title to the passage?

Solution: The author has highlighted how the false narrative and selective criticism was made on the valid claims of climate change by various people. Therefore (a) would be an apt title to the passage.
QUESTION: 12

Faith in entities is often an act of personal commitment not amenable to falsification, but trust in a scientific process can be established with confidence-building measures and full disclosure of all relevant data. Any mass campaign that involves voluntary effort on the part of the public can succeed only when transparency and open communication channels are the tools of choice. If the poor rate of uptake of the COVID-19 vaccine in most of the States in the country is any indication, the government has not taken the people of the country along, in what is a purely voluntary exercise, but one vested with great power to retard the pace of the epidemic. For instance, Tamil Nadu, a State perceived to be largely health literate, and relatively well-equipped with health infrastructure, achieved only over 16% of its targeted coverage on the launch day. On the second day of vaccination, the compliance further dropped; in some States, vaccination was suspended. A marked favouring of the Covishield vaccine over Covaxin was also noticed in multiple States.

But none of this is a surprise. The signs, verily, were out there for everyone to see, for a long time indeed. Studies measured high levels of vaccine hesitancy among the general population, and among health-care workers, the first in the line list of people to receive free vaccination. Clearly, vaccine hesitancy was not addressed sufficiently, or not taken seriously enough. With the sequence of events that followed the clearance of Emergency Use Authorisation (in Covaxin, it is emergency use authorisation in ‘clinical trial mode’) — a high-handed announcement with little attempt to put out compelling evidence in the public domain, or answer multiple queries in press conferences — vaccine hesitancy merely dug its heels in deeper. The inability of the government and agencies involved to amicably resolve controversies surrounding the clearance for Covaxin, even before it was able to produce interim data on efficacy from phase-3 trials, has had a direct consequence, as witnessed by poor numbers in its uptake so far. A vaccine, unequivocally, is public good, but the lack of transparency surrounding the roll-out of the COVID vaccines has done little to enhance trust in this experiential principle. This uncommon haste in trying to lunge towards the tape while still some distance from the finish line might have been justified if the state had taken the people along. Vaccinating the nation, however, is less a race than a slow and steady process. Building confidence in the process is crucial to achieving the task at hand. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s oft-repeated mantra, ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas’, is very relevant here. And the Health Ministry must do whatever it takes to make a success of the vaccination drive.

Q. Which of the following could be deduced from the passage?

Solution: A vaccine, unequivocally, is public good, but the lack of transparency surrounding the roll-out of the COVID vaccines has done little to enhance trust in this experiential principle. Vaccinating the nation, however, is less a race than a slow and steady process. The Health Ministry must do whatever it takes to make a success of the vaccination drive.
QUESTION: 13

Faith in entities is often an act of personal commitment not amenable to falsification, but trust in a scientific process can be established with confidence-building measures and full disclosure of all relevant data. Any mass campaign that involves voluntary effort on the part of the public can succeed only when transparency and open communication channels are the tools of choice. If the poor rate of uptake of the COVID-19 vaccine in most of the States in the country is any indication, the government has not taken the people of the country along, in what is a purely voluntary exercise, but one vested with great power to retard the pace of the epidemic. For instance, Tamil Nadu, a State perceived to be largely health literate, and relatively well-equipped with health infrastructure, achieved only over 16% of its targeted coverage on the launch day. On the second day of vaccination, the compliance further dropped; in some States, vaccination was suspended. A marked favouring of the Covishield vaccine over Covaxin was also noticed in multiple States.

But none of this is a surprise. The signs, verily, were out there for everyone to see, for a long time indeed. Studies measured high levels of vaccine hesitancy among the general population, and among health-care workers, the first in the line list of people to receive free vaccination. Clearly, vaccine hesitancy was not addressed sufficiently, or not taken seriously enough. With the sequence of events that followed the clearance of Emergency Use Authorisation (in Covaxin, it is emergency use authorisation in ‘clinical trial mode’) — a high-handed announcement with little attempt to put out compelling evidence in the public domain, or answer multiple queries in press conferences — vaccine hesitancy merely dug its heels in deeper. The inability of the government and agencies involved to amicably resolve controversies surrounding the clearance for Covaxin, even before it was able to produce interim data on efficacy from phase-3 trials, has had a direct consequence, as witnessed by poor numbers in its uptake so far. A vaccine, unequivocally, is public good, but the lack of transparency surrounding the roll-out of the COVID vaccines has done little to enhance trust in this experiential principle. This uncommon haste in trying to lunge towards the tape while still some distance from the finish line might have been justified if the state had taken the people along. Vaccinating the nation, however, is less a race than a slow and steady process. Building confidence in the process is crucial to achieving the task at hand. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s oft-repeated mantra, ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas’, is very relevant here. And the Health Ministry must do whatever it takes to make a success of the vaccination drive.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the tone of the author in the passage?

Solution: The last line of the passage surmises the stance of the author, where it is stated that- “The Health Ministry must do whatever it takes to make a success of the vaccination drive”.
QUESTION: 14

Faith in entities is often an act of personal commitment not amenable to falsification, but trust in a scientific process can be established with confidence-building measures and full disclosure of all relevant data. Any mass campaign that involves voluntary effort on the part of the public can succeed only when transparency and open communication channels are the tools of choice. If the poor rate of uptake of the COVID-19 vaccine in most of the States in the country is any indication, the government has not taken the people of the country along, in what is a purely voluntary exercise, but one vested with great power to retard the pace of the epidemic. For instance, Tamil Nadu, a State perceived to be largely health literate, and relatively well-equipped with health infrastructure, achieved only over 16% of its targeted coverage on the launch day. On the second day of vaccination, the compliance further dropped; in some States, vaccination was suspended. A marked favouring of the Covishield vaccine over Covaxin was also noticed in multiple States.

But none of this is a surprise. The signs, verily, were out there for everyone to see, for a long time indeed. Studies measured high levels of vaccine hesitancy among the general population, and among health-care workers, the first in the line list of people to receive free vaccination. Clearly, vaccine hesitancy was not addressed sufficiently, or not taken seriously enough. With the sequence of events that followed the clearance of Emergency Use Authorisation (in Covaxin, it is emergency use authorisation in ‘clinical trial mode’) — a high-handed announcement with little attempt to put out compelling evidence in the public domain, or answer multiple queries in press conferences — vaccine hesitancy merely dug its heels in deeper. The inability of the government and agencies involved to amicably resolve controversies surrounding the clearance for Covaxin, even before it was able to produce interim data on efficacy from phase-3 trials, has had a direct consequence, as witnessed by poor numbers in its uptake so far. A vaccine, unequivocally, is public good, but the lack of transparency surrounding the roll-out of the COVID vaccines has done little to enhance trust in this experiential principle. This uncommon haste in trying to lunge towards the tape while still some distance from the finish line might have been justified if the state had taken the people along. Vaccinating the nation, however, is less a race than a slow and steady process. Building confidence in the process is crucial to achieving the task at hand. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s oft-repeated mantra, ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas’, is very relevant here. And the Health Ministry must do whatever it takes to make a success of the vaccination drive.

Q. Which of the following is true on the basis of the passage?

1.Vaccine hesitancy has been caused due to the non-transparency with respect to the vaccine

2. All the vaccines being used in India have not even passed the trial stage

3. Tamil Nadu is the only state which has shown hesitancy with respect to the vaccine uptake

Solution: Statement 1 is true, as the author claims that the prime reason behind the hesitancy is that the government has not publicized or disclosed the results of the trials, and some of the vaccines are yet to pass the trial stage and have only been approved to be used for emergency purpose. The state of hesitancy has been found to be in numerous states apart from Tamil Nadu.
QUESTION: 15

Faith in entities is often an act of personal commitment not amenable to falsification, but trust in a scientific process can be established with confidence-building measures and full disclosure of all relevant data. Any mass campaign that involves voluntary effort on the part of the public can succeed only when transparency and open communication channels are the tools of choice. If the poor rate of uptake of the COVID-19 vaccine in most of the States in the country is any indication, the government has not taken the people of the country along, in what is a purely voluntary exercise, but one vested with great power to retard the pace of the epidemic. For instance, Tamil Nadu, a State perceived to be largely health literate, and relatively well-equipped with health infrastructure, achieved only over 16% of its targeted coverage on the launch day. On the second day of vaccination, the compliance further dropped; in some States, vaccination was suspended. A marked favouring of the Covishield vaccine over Covaxin was also noticed in multiple States.

But none of this is a surprise. The signs, verily, were out there for everyone to see, for a long time indeed. Studies measured high levels of vaccine hesitancy among the general population, and among health-care workers, the first in the line list of people to receive free vaccination. Clearly, vaccine hesitancy was not addressed sufficiently, or not taken seriously enough. With the sequence of events that followed the clearance of Emergency Use Authorisation (in Covaxin, it is emergency use authorisation in ‘clinical trial mode’) — a high-handed announcement with little attempt to put out compelling evidence in the public domain, or answer multiple queries in press conferences — vaccine hesitancy merely dug its heels in deeper. The inability of the government and agencies involved to amicably resolve controversies surrounding the clearance for Covaxin, even before it was able to produce interim data on efficacy from phase-3 trials, has had a direct consequence, as witnessed by poor numbers in its uptake so far. A vaccine, unequivocally, is public good, but the lack of transparency surrounding the roll-out of the COVID vaccines has done little to enhance trust in this experiential principle. This uncommon haste in trying to lunge towards the tape while still some distance from the finish line might have been justified if the state had taken the people along. Vaccinating the nation, however, is less a race than a slow and steady process. Building confidence in the process is crucial to achieving the task at hand. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s oft-repeated mantra, ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas’, is very relevant here. And the Health Ministry must do whatever it takes to make a success of the vaccination drive.

Q. Which of the following is not consistent with the passage?

Solution: The passage mentions that Tamil Nadu happens to be the most health literate state and yet witnesses vaccine hesitancy among people. Covidshield is favored by people, and covaxin is a clinical trial stage.
QUESTION: 16

Faith in entities is often an act of personal commitment not amenable to falsification, but trust in a scientific process can be established with confidence-building measures and full disclosure of all relevant data. Any mass campaign that involves voluntary effort on the part of the public can succeed only when transparency and open communication channels are the tools of choice. If the poor rate of uptake of the COVID-19 vaccine in most of the States in the country is any indication, the government has not taken the people of the country along, in what is a purely voluntary exercise, but one vested with great power to retard the pace of the epidemic. For instance, Tamil Nadu, a State perceived to be largely health literate, and relatively well-equipped with health infrastructure, achieved only over 16% of its targeted coverage on the launch day. On the second day of vaccination, the compliance further dropped; in some States, vaccination was suspended. A marked favouring of the Covishield vaccine over Covaxin was also noticed in multiple States.

But none of this is a surprise. The signs, verily, were out there for everyone to see, for a long time indeed. Studies measured high levels of vaccine hesitancy among the general population, and among health-care workers, the first in the line list of people to receive free vaccination. Clearly, vaccine hesitancy was not addressed sufficiently, or not taken seriously enough. With the sequence of events that followed the clearance of Emergency Use Authorisation (in Covaxin, it is emergency use authorisation in ‘clinical trial mode’) — a high-handed announcement with little attempt to put out compelling evidence in the public domain, or answer multiple queries in press conferences — vaccine hesitancy merely dug its heels in deeper. The inability of the government and agencies involved to amicably resolve controversies surrounding the clearance for Covaxin, even before it was able to produce interim data on efficacy from phase-3 trials, has had a direct consequence, as witnessed by poor numbers in its uptake so far. A vaccine, unequivocally, is public good, but the lack of transparency surrounding the roll-out of the COVID vaccines has done little to enhance trust in this experiential principle. This uncommon haste in trying to lunge towards the tape while still some distance from the finish line might have been justified if the state had taken the people along. Vaccinating the nation, however, is less a race than a slow and steady process. Building confidence in the process is crucial to achieving the task at hand. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s oft-repeated mantra, ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas’, is very relevant here. And the Health Ministry must do whatever it takes to make a success of the vaccination drive.

Q. Which of the following is the antonym for the word, confidence?

Solution: Diffident means modest or shy because of a lack of self-confidence.
QUESTION: 17

On a magical Tuesday, India’s cricketing history gained a luminous chapter even as the shadows lengthened at Brisbane’s Gabba. When Rishabh Pant’s winning four aptly concluded a tense pursuit of 328 on a nerve-wracking fifth day of the fourth Test, Ajinkya Rahane’s men seized the series at 2-1 to retain (no of times) the Border-Gavaskar Trophy. As far as role-reversals go, this was stunning in its execution and jaw-dropping in its impact. It was a verdict that seemed improbable after India’s 36, its lowest ever Test score, during the debilitating loss in the first game at Adelaide. But India progressed despite losing personnel to injuries or personal reasons. Skipper Virat Kohli took paternity leave while other regulars had to be benched following a spate of injuries. Yet, Rahane’s men persevered, right from the established Cheteshwar Pujara and R. Ashwin to the latest rookies in the squad — Shubman Gill and Washington Sundar. At various points, the experienced professional and the fresh debutant joined forces and nourished miraculous dreams. The turn-around at Melbourne was followed by the stone-walling at Sydney. Finally, in a long tour that commenced on November 12, last year, a second-wind was found in the climax. India did not have any of its frontline bowlers at Brisbane but Mohammed Siraj astutely helmed the attack and Tim Paine’s men were defeated by three wickets.

Winning a Test series against Australia in its backyard is considered as cricket’s highest benchmark for excellence. This yardstick has lasted for two decades ever since the previous dominant outfit, the West Indies, suffered a decline. Seen in that context, what India has achieved over the course of two tours — in 2018-19 and the just concluded 2020-21 face-off — is nothing short of stupendous. Twice, India has defeated Australia by identical margins (2-1). However, the latest act will rank right up in an all-time list of great Test series ever since the sport’s longest format commenced at Melbourne in 1877. When India last toured Australia, the host was blighted by the ball-tampering scandal and Steve Smith and David Warner were rightly put to pasture. Cut to the present, the visitor was up against a full-strength home unit. These are fraught times due to the pandemic and resultant bio-bubble angst, and even stepping out for a coffee is deemed an offence. To make it worse, India was never at its optimum potential and with every passing day, its list of the walking-wounded grew. There were even wry jokes about how coach Ravi Shastri may be forced to turn out considering his diminishing resources. But India thrived and just like it did at Eden Gardens in 2001, adversity became its springboard for success against an old adversary.

Q. Which of the following could be an appropriate title to the passage?

Solution: The central theme of the passage is how India, sans its frontline team won the test series on the home grounds of Australia, against the host, after the debilitating start in the series. This has set the victory to the highest pedestal in the views of the critics and experts.
QUESTION: 18

On a magical Tuesday, India’s cricketing history gained a luminous chapter even as the shadows lengthened at Brisbane’s Gabba. When Rishabh Pant’s winning four aptly concluded a tense pursuit of 328 on a nerve-wracking fifth day of the fourth Test, Ajinkya Rahane’s men seized the series at 2-1 to retain (no of times) the Border-Gavaskar Trophy. As far as role-reversals go, this was stunning in its execution and jaw-dropping in its impact. It was a verdict that seemed improbable after India’s 36, its lowest ever Test score, during the debilitating loss in the first game at Adelaide. But India progressed despite losing personnel to injuries or personal reasons. Skipper Virat Kohli took paternity leave while other regulars had to be benched following a spate of injuries. Yet, Rahane’s men persevered, right from the established Cheteshwar Pujara and R. Ashwin to the latest rookies in the squad — Shubman Gill and Washington Sundar. At various points, the experienced professional and the fresh debutant joined forces and nourished miraculous dreams. The turn-around at Melbourne was followed by the stone-walling at Sydney. Finally, in a long tour that commenced on November 12, last year, a second-wind was found in the climax. India did not have any of its frontline bowlers at Brisbane but Mohammed Siraj astutely helmed the attack and Tim Paine’s men were defeated by three wickets.

Winning a Test series against Australia in its backyard is considered as cricket’s highest benchmark for excellence. This yardstick has lasted for two decades ever since the previous dominant outfit, the West Indies, suffered a decline. Seen in that context, what India has achieved over the course of two tours — in 2018-19 and the just concluded 2020-21 face-off — is nothing short of stupendous. Twice, India has defeated Australia by identical margins (2-1). However, the latest act will rank right up in an all-time list of great Test series ever since the sport’s longest format commenced at Melbourne in 1877. When India last toured Australia, the host was blighted by the ball-tampering scandal and Steve Smith and David Warner were rightly put to pasture. Cut to the present, the visitor was up against a full-strength home unit. These are fraught times due to the pandemic and resultant bio-bubble angst, and even stepping out for a coffee is deemed an offence. To make it worse, India was never at its optimum potential and with every passing day, its list of the walking-wounded grew. There were even wry jokes about how coach Ravi Shastri may be forced to turn out considering his diminishing resources. But India thrived and just like it did at Eden Gardens in 2001, adversity became its springboard for success against an old adversary.

Q. Which of the following would the author agree with?

Solution: The author has focused upon the circumstances in which the team won the test series. There have been no comparisons made towards the current and past teams of two nations, nor has the author made any remark insinuating the superior captain or a deserving team which should have won the game.
QUESTION: 19

On a magical Tuesday, India’s cricketing history gained a luminous chapter even as the shadows lengthened at Brisbane’s Gabba. When Rishabh Pant’s winning four aptly concluded a tense pursuit of 328 on a nerve-wracking fifth day of the fourth Test, Ajinkya Rahane’s men seized the series at 2-1 to retain (no of times) the Border-Gavaskar Trophy. As far as role-reversals go, this was stunning in its execution and jaw-dropping in its impact. It was a verdict that seemed improbable after India’s 36, its lowest ever Test score, during the debilitating loss in the first game at Adelaide. But India progressed despite losing personnel to injuries or personal reasons. Skipper Virat Kohli took paternity leave while other regulars had to be benched following a spate of injuries. Yet, Rahane’s men persevered, right from the established Cheteshwar Pujara and R. Ashwin to the latest rookies in the squad — Shubman Gill and Washington Sundar. At various points, the experienced professional and the fresh debutant joined forces and nourished miraculous dreams. The turn-around at Melbourne was followed by the stone-walling at Sydney. Finally, in a long tour that commenced on November 12, last year, a second-wind was found in the climax. India did not have any of its frontline bowlers at Brisbane but Mohammed Siraj astutely helmed the attack and Tim Paine’s men were defeated by three wickets.

Winning a Test series against Australia in its backyard is considered as cricket’s highest benchmark for excellence. This yardstick has lasted for two decades ever since the previous dominant outfit, the West Indies, suffered a decline. Seen in that context, what India has achieved over the course of two tours — in 2018-19 and the just concluded 2020-21 face-off — is nothing short of stupendous. Twice, India has defeated Australia by identical margins (2-1). However, the latest act will rank right up in an all-time list of great Test series ever since the sport’s longest format commenced at Melbourne in 1877. When India last toured Australia, the host was blighted by the ball-tampering scandal and Steve Smith and David Warner were rightly put to pasture. Cut to the present, the visitor was up against a full-strength home unit. These are fraught times due to the pandemic and resultant bio-bubble angst, and even stepping out for a coffee is deemed an offence. To make it worse, India was never at its optimum potential and with every passing day, its list of the walking-wounded grew. There were even wry jokes about how coach Ravi Shastri may be forced to turn out considering his diminishing resources. But India thrived and just like it did at Eden Gardens in 2001, adversity became its springboard for success against an old adversary.

Q. Which of the following is true with regards to the Border Gavaskar trophy in accordance to the passage?

Solution: The author recalls the last time India won the trophy with the same margin, and also states that India has retained the trophy. There has been no remark made by the Author regarding the number of times India has won the trophy while being hosted by Australia.
QUESTION: 20

On a magical Tuesday, India’s cricketing history gained a luminous chapter even as the shadows lengthened at Brisbane’s Gabba. When Rishabh Pant’s winning four aptly concluded a tense pursuit of 328 on a nerve-wracking fifth day of the fourth Test, Ajinkya Rahane’s men seized the series at 2-1 to retain (no of times) the Border-Gavaskar Trophy. As far as role-reversals go, this was stunning in its execution and jaw-dropping in its impact. It was a verdict that seemed improbable after India’s 36, its lowest ever Test score, during the debilitating loss in the first game at Adelaide. But India progressed despite losing personnel to injuries or personal reasons. Skipper Virat Kohli took paternity leave while other regulars had to be benched following a spate of injuries. Yet, Rahane’s men persevered, right from the established Cheteshwar Pujara and R. Ashwin to the latest rookies in the squad — Shubman Gill and Washington Sundar. At various points, the experienced professional and the fresh debutant joined forces and nourished miraculous dreams. The turn-around at Melbourne was followed by the stone-walling at Sydney. Finally, in a long tour that commenced on November 12, last year, a second-wind was found in the climax. India did not have any of its frontline bowlers at Brisbane but Mohammed Siraj astutely helmed the attack and Tim Paine’s men were defeated by three wickets.

Winning a Test series against Australia in its backyard is considered as cricket’s highest benchmark for excellence. This yardstick has lasted for two decades ever since the previous dominant outfit, the West Indies, suffered a decline. Seen in that context, what India has achieved over the course of two tours — in 2018-19 and the just concluded 2020-21 face-off — is nothing short of stupendous. Twice, India has defeated Australia by identical margins (2-1). However, the latest act will rank right up in an all-time list of great Test series ever since the sport’s longest format commenced at Melbourne in 1877. When India last toured Australia, the host was blighted by the ball-tampering scandal and Steve Smith and David Warner were rightly put to pasture. Cut to the present, the visitor was up against a full-strength home unit. These are fraught times due to the pandemic and resultant bio-bubble angst, and even stepping out for a coffee is deemed an offence. To make it worse, India was never at its optimum potential and with every passing day, its list of the walking-wounded grew. There were even wry jokes about how coach Ravi Shastri may be forced to turn out considering his diminishing resources. But India thrived and just like it did at Eden Gardens in 2001, adversity became its springboard for success against an old adversary.

Q. Which of the following is the meaning of the word debilitating?

Solution: Debilitating means, something which causes serious impairment of strength or ability to function. To debilitate means to enervate.
QUESTION: 21

On a magical Tuesday, India’s cricketing history gained a luminous chapter even as the shadows lengthened at Brisbane’s Gabba. When Rishabh Pant’s winning four aptly concluded a tense pursuit of 328 on a nerve-wracking fifth day of the fourth Test, Ajinkya Rahane’s men seized the series at 2-1 to retain (no of times) the Border-Gavaskar Trophy. As far as role-reversals go, this was stunning in its execution and jaw-dropping in its impact. It was a verdict that seemed improbable after India’s 36, its lowest ever Test score, during the debilitating loss in the first game at Adelaide. But India progressed despite losing personnel to injuries or personal reasons. Skipper Virat Kohli took paternity leave while other regulars had to be benched following a spate of injuries. Yet, Rahane’s men persevered, right from the established Cheteshwar Pujara and R. Ashwin to the latest rookies in the squad — Shubman Gill and Washington Sundar. At various points, the experienced professional and the fresh debutant joined forces and nourished miraculous dreams. The turn-around at Melbourne was followed by the stone-walling at Sydney. Finally, in a long tour that commenced on November 12, last year, a second-wind was found in the climax. India did not have any of its frontline bowlers at Brisbane but Mohammed Siraj astutely helmed the attack and Tim Paine’s men were defeated by three wickets.

Winning a Test series against Australia in its backyard is considered as cricket’s highest benchmark for excellence. This yardstick has lasted for two decades ever since the previous dominant outfit, the West Indies, suffered a decline. Seen in that context, what India has achieved over the course of two tours — in 2018-19 and the just concluded 2020-21 face-off — is nothing short of stupendous. Twice, India has defeated Australia by identical margins (2-1). However, the latest act will rank right up in an all-time list of great Test series ever since the sport’s longest format commenced at Melbourne in 1877. When India last toured Australia, the host was blighted by the ball-tampering scandal and Steve Smith and David Warner were rightly put to pasture. Cut to the present, the visitor was up against a full-strength home unit. These are fraught times due to the pandemic and resultant bio-bubble angst, and even stepping out for a coffee is deemed an offence. To make it worse, India was never at its optimum potential and with every passing day, its list of the walking-wounded grew. There were even wry jokes about how coach Ravi Shastri may be forced to turn out considering his diminishing resources. But India thrived and just like it did at Eden Gardens in 2001, adversity became its springboard for success against an old adversary.

Q. Which of the following is true on the basis of the passage?

1. David Warner is a debutant in the current series from the Australian Team

2. There has been no experienced player which played the series against Australia

3. The test series was of 4 matches

Solution: The author has mentioned that India won the series by 2-1, in which the matches were played at Adelaide, Sydney, Melbourne and Brisbane. There has been a remark made about Warner being present in the last series, which nullifies the possibility of him being a debutant. The fact that the author stated that the team won the matches under leadership of Rahne by joining the forces of the experienced players and the rookies in the squad ascertains that the team had few experienced players.
QUESTION: 22

Each year, thousands of children die worldwide and the childhoods and development of millions more are scarred by harmful practices perpetrated by parents, relatives, religious and community leaders and other adults.

Violations of children’s rights can legitimately be described as harmful practices, but the common characteristic of the violations is that they are based on tradition, culture, religion or superstition and are perpetrated and actively condoned by the child’s parents or significant adults within the child’s community. Indeed, they often enjoy majority support within communities or whole states.

Many identified practices involve gross and unlawful discrimination against groups of children, including gender discrimination, and discrimination against children with disabilities. The practices are based on tradition and/or superstition, religious belief, false information or beliefs about child development and health. Many involve extreme physical violence and pain, leading in some cases intentionally, to death or serious injury. Others involve mental violence. All are an assault on the child’s human dignity and violate universally agreed international human rights standards.

The continued legality and social and cultural acceptance of a very wide range of these practices in many states illustrates a devastating failure of human rights mechanisms to provoke the necessary challenge, prohibition and elimination. Comprehensive, children’s rights-based analysis and action are needed now. Above all, there must be an assertion of every state’s immediate obligation to ensure all children their right to full respect for their human dignity and physical integrity.

Harmful practices are often committed against very young children or infants, who are clearly lacking the capacity to consent or to refuse consent themselves. Assumptions of parental powers or rights over their children allow the perpetration of a wide range of these practices, either by parents directly, or by others with parents’ consent. Yet the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) favours the replacement of the concept of parental “rights” over children with parental “responsibilities,” ensuring that the child’s best interests are parents’ “basic concern”.

The CRC also upholds the child’s own independent right to religious freedom (Article 14). Children are not born into a religion. Every individual has the right to religious freedom. Thus, parents and others cannot quote their adult religious beliefs to justify perpetrating harmful practices on a child, before she or he has the capacity to provide informed consent.

Q. Which of these are not characteristics of the nature of harmful practices that violate children’s rights?

Solution: All the characteristics are mentioned in the passage.
QUESTION: 23

Each year, thousands of children die worldwide and the childhoods and development of millions more are scarred by harmful practices perpetrated by parents, relatives, religious and community leaders and other adults.

Violations of children’s rights can legitimately be described as harmful practices, but the common characteristic of the violations is that they are based on tradition, culture, religion or superstition and are perpetrated and actively condoned by the child’s parents or significant adults within the child’s community. Indeed, they often enjoy majority support within communities or whole states.

Many identified practices involve gross and unlawful discrimination against groups of children, including gender discrimination, and discrimination against children with disabilities. The practices are based on tradition and/or superstition, religious belief, false information or beliefs about child development and health. Many involve extreme physical violence and pain, leading in some cases intentionally, to death or serious injury. Others involve mental violence. All are an assault on the child’s human dignity and violate universally agreed international human rights standards.

The continued legality and social and cultural acceptance of a very wide range of these practices in many states illustrates a devastating failure of human rights mechanisms to provoke the necessary challenge, prohibition and elimination. Comprehensive, children’s rights-based analysis and action are needed now. Above all, there must be an assertion of every state’s immediate obligation to ensure all children their right to full respect for their human dignity and physical integrity.

Harmful practices are often committed against very young children or infants, who are clearly lacking the capacity to consent or to refuse consent themselves. Assumptions of parental powers or rights over their children allow the perpetration of a wide range of these practices, either by parents directly, or by others with parents’ consent. Yet the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) favours the replacement of the concept of parental “rights” over children with parental “responsibilities,” ensuring that the child’s best interests are parents’ “basic concern”.

The CRC also upholds the child’s own independent right to religious freedom (Article 14). Children are not born into a religion. Every individual has the right to religious freedom. Thus, parents and others cannot quote their adult religious beliefs to justify perpetrating harmful practices on a child, before she or he has the capacity to provide informed consent.

Q. Which of these is true with respect to the government and child rights?

Solution: Mentioned explicitly in the last paragraph.
QUESTION: 24

Each year, thousands of children die worldwide and the childhoods and development of millions more are scarred by harmful practices perpetrated by parents, relatives, religious and community leaders and other adults.

Violations of children’s rights can legitimately be described as harmful practices, but the common characteristic of the violations is that they are based on tradition, culture, religion or superstition and are perpetrated and actively condoned by the child’s parents or significant adults within the child’s community. Indeed, they often enjoy majority support within communities or whole states.

Many identified practices involve gross and unlawful discrimination against groups of children, including gender discrimination, and discrimination against children with disabilities. The practices are based on tradition and/or superstition, religious belief, false information or beliefs about child development and health. Many involve extreme physical violence and pain, leading in some cases intentionally, to death or serious injury. Others involve mental violence. All are an assault on the child’s human dignity and violate universally agreed international human rights standards.

The continued legality and social and cultural acceptance of a very wide range of these practices in many states illustrates a devastating failure of human rights mechanisms to provoke the necessary challenge, prohibition and elimination. Comprehensive, children’s rights-based analysis and action are needed now. Above all, there must be an assertion of every state’s immediate obligation to ensure all children their right to full respect for their human dignity and physical integrity.

Harmful practices are often committed against very young children or infants, who are clearly lacking the capacity to consent or to refuse consent themselves. Assumptions of parental powers or rights over their children allow the perpetration of a wide range of these practices, either by parents directly, or by others with parents’ consent. Yet the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) favours the replacement of the concept of parental “rights” over children with parental “responsibilities,” ensuring that the child’s best interests are parents’ “basic concern”.

The CRC also upholds the child’s own independent right to religious freedom (Article 14). Children are not born into a religion. Every individual has the right to religious freedom. Thus, parents and others cannot quote their adult religious beliefs to justify perpetrating harmful practices on a child, before she or he has the capacity to provide informed consent.

Q. According to the passage, why are harmful practices easy to carry out against young children?

Solution: Since children cannot give consent or refuse consent, the parents assume the right over the children.
QUESTION: 25

Each year, thousands of children die worldwide and the childhoods and development of millions more are scarred by harmful practices perpetrated by parents, relatives, religious and community leaders and other adults.

Violations of children’s rights can legitimately be described as harmful practices, but the common characteristic of the violations is that they are based on tradition, culture, religion or superstition and are perpetrated and actively condoned by the child’s parents or significant adults within the child’s community. Indeed, they often enjoy majority support within communities or whole states.

Many identified practices involve gross and unlawful discrimination against groups of children, including gender discrimination, and discrimination against children with disabilities. The practices are based on tradition and/or superstition, religious belief, false information or beliefs about child development and health. Many involve extreme physical violence and pain, leading in some cases intentionally, to death or serious injury. Others involve mental violence. All are an assault on the child’s human dignity and violate universally agreed international human rights standards.

The continued legality and social and cultural acceptance of a very wide range of these practices in many states illustrates a devastating failure of human rights mechanisms to provoke the necessary challenge, prohibition and elimination. Comprehensive, children’s rights-based analysis and action are needed now. Above all, there must be an assertion of every state’s immediate obligation to ensure all children their right to full respect for their human dignity and physical integrity.

Harmful practices are often committed against very young children or infants, who are clearly lacking the capacity to consent or to refuse consent themselves. Assumptions of parental powers or rights over their children allow the perpetration of a wide range of these practices, either by parents directly, or by others with parents’ consent. Yet the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) favours the replacement of the concept of parental “rights” over children with parental “responsibilities,” ensuring that the child’s best interests are parents’ “basic concern”.

The CRC also upholds the child’s own independent right to religious freedom (Article 14). Children are not born into a religion. Every individual has the right to religious freedom. Thus, parents and others cannot quote their adult religious beliefs to justify perpetrating harmful practices on a child, before she or he has the capacity to provide informed consent.

Q. Fill in the following blank correctly. Over the years, many unlawful practices _____ scarred children.

Solution: Over the years, many unlawful practices have scarred children.
QUESTION: 26

Each year, thousands of children die worldwide and the childhoods and development of millions more are scarred by harmful practices perpetrated by parents, relatives, religious and community leaders and other adults.

Violations of children’s rights can legitimately be described as harmful practices, but the common characteristic of the violations is that they are based on tradition, culture, religion or superstition and are perpetrated and actively condoned by the child’s parents or significant adults within the child’s community. Indeed, they often enjoy majority support within communities or whole states.

Many identified practices involve gross and unlawful discrimination against groups of children, including gender discrimination, and discrimination against children with disabilities. The practices are based on tradition and/or superstition, religious belief, false information or beliefs about child development and health. Many involve extreme physical violence and pain, leading in some cases intentionally, to death or serious injury. Others involve mental violence. All are an assault on the child’s human dignity and violate universally agreed international human rights standards.

The continued legality and social and cultural acceptance of a very wide range of these practices in many states illustrates a devastating failure of human rights mechanisms to provoke the necessary challenge, prohibition and elimination. Comprehensive, children’s rights-based analysis and action are needed now. Above all, there must be an assertion of every state’s immediate obligation to ensure all children their right to full respect for their human dignity and physical integrity.

Harmful practices are often committed against very young children or infants, who are clearly lacking the capacity to consent or to refuse consent themselves. Assumptions of parental powers or rights over their children allow the perpetration of a wide range of these practices, either by parents directly, or by others with parents’ consent. Yet the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) favours the replacement of the concept of parental “rights” over children with parental “responsibilities,” ensuring that the child’s best interests are parents’ “basic concern”.

The CRC also upholds the child’s own independent right to religious freedom (Article 14). Children are not born into a religion. Every individual has the right to religious freedom. Thus, parents and others cannot quote their adult religious beliefs to justify perpetrating harmful practices on a child, before she or he has the capacity to provide informed consent.

Q. Which set of words below contains the correct set of antonyms for all of the following words: perpetrate, condone, universal, devastating

Solution: perpetrate - Synonym - commit, perform, inflict / Antonym - neglect, fail, ruin

condone - Synonym - forgive, excuse, pardon / Antonym - condemn, punish, censure

universal - Synonym - widespread, entire, whole / Antonym - specific, confined, local

devastating - damaging, harmful, destructive / Antonym - fortunate, blessed, constructive

QUESTION: 27

Dieting and weight loss/management has long been a driver of failure more often due to the haze of less or half-knowledge of the subject than lack of motivation. The human brain, after years and years of practice with the social media feeds and in-a-day deliveries of Amazon couriers has, unfortunately but successfully become nonchalant to long-term goals and practices of patience in life. So much so, that now when a person x feels like losing weight and looks it up, this person's brain will automatically only want for him/her to look out for results and plans that don't take much time to achieve. Health related searches on Google and YouTube alone are enough to prove the point, where most searches that started with 'How To Lose Weight' almost mostly ended with the words 'in 1, 2 or 3 Weeks/Months'.

Dieting is one such misconception where a huge chunk of dieters and hopeful followers of a prospectively healthy lifestyle fail to be aware of the simplest of principles in their lives, which is, if you begin your journey towards health by putting your body in a constant position of negative struggle and make it crave what it should be getting in abundance, you can only prolong your agony and finally give up harder than you began.

A common misconception surrounding weight loss is to eat less, and I say 'misconception' for the reason that it's not the principle that's essentially flawed here, it's the false practice of it which makes things go south for most.

When we eat, we eat for taste and we eat for satiation. What we don't do is eat to just survive, that's too ancient for us to even consider at this point in time. So coming back to the first line, we eat for taste which satisfies us, but the important part to look out for here is 'satiation'. Being satiated essentially means to stay satisfied after you eat, till your next meal of course. Satisfaction occurs when we realise that we're full and won't need another round of serving on our plates, but food giants such as Domino's and McDonald's have made it their aspiration and drive in life to erase that line of satiation completely inside our heads, and re-wire, then hard-wire us to binge-eat. Clever marketing and enhanced imagery of food products and competitive pricing through the years have led people to sit and eat way over their point of satiation, which over-time does make their brains believe that their point of satiation lies post-binge rather than mid-binge.

Q. As per the author, humans have become nonchalant to long-term goals and practices of patience in life due to which of the following reasons?

Solution: Only (A) provides reasons for the nonchalance and lack of patience. Option (B) is only a manifestation of the same.
QUESTION: 28

Dieting and weight loss/management has long been a driver of failure more often due to the haze of less or half-knowledge of the subject than lack of motivation. The human brain, after years and years of practice with the social media feeds and in-a-day deliveries of Amazon couriers has, unfortunately but successfully become nonchalant to long-term goals and practices of patience in life. So much so, that now when a person x feels like losing weight and looks it up, this person's brain will automatically only want for him/her to look out for results and plans that don't take much time to achieve. Health related searches on Google and YouTube alone are enough to prove the point, where most searches that started with 'How To Lose Weight' almost mostly ended with the words 'in 1, 2 or 3 Weeks/Months'.

Dieting is one such misconception where a huge chunk of dieters and hopeful followers of a prospectively healthy lifestyle fail to be aware of the simplest of principles in their lives, which is, if you begin your journey towards health by putting your body in a constant position of negative struggle and make it crave what it should be getting in abundance, you can only prolong your agony and finally give up harder than you began.

A common misconception surrounding weight loss is to eat less, and I say 'misconception' for the reason that it's not the principle that's essentially flawed here, it's the false practice of it which makes things go south for most.

When we eat, we eat for taste and we eat for satiation. What we don't do is eat to just survive, that's too ancient for us to even consider at this point in time. So coming back to the first line, we eat for taste which satisfies us, but the important part to look out for here is 'satiation'. Being satiated essentially means to stay satisfied after you eat, till your next meal of course. Satisfaction occurs when we realise that we're full and won't need another round of serving on our plates, but food giants such as Domino's and McDonald's have made it their aspiration and drive in life to erase that line of satiation completely inside our heads, and re-wire, then hard-wire us to binge-eat. Clever marketing and enhanced imagery of food products and competitive pricing through the years have led people to sit and eat way over their point of satiation, which over-time does make their brains believe that their point of satiation lies post-binge rather than mid-binge.

Q. What is the misconception surrounding dieting as per the author?

Solution: Misconception regarding dieting that weight loss is achieved by eating less and subjecting your body to negative struggles and craving.
QUESTION: 29

Dieting and weight loss/management has long been a driver of failure more often due to the haze of less or half-knowledge of the subject than lack of motivation. The human brain, after years and years of practice with the social media feeds and in-a-day deliveries of Amazon couriers has, unfortunately but successfully become nonchalant to long-term goals and practices of patience in life. So much so, that now when a person x feels like losing weight and looks it up, this person's brain will automatically only want for him/her to look out for results and plans that don't take much time to achieve. Health related searches on Google and YouTube alone are enough to prove the point, where most searches that started with 'How To Lose Weight' almost mostly ended with the words 'in 1, 2 or 3 Weeks/Months'.

Dieting is one such misconception where a huge chunk of dieters and hopeful followers of a prospectively healthy lifestyle fail to be aware of the simplest of principles in their lives, which is, if you begin your journey towards health by putting your body in a constant position of negative struggle and make it crave what it should be getting in abundance, you can only prolong your agony and finally give up harder than you began.

A common misconception surrounding weight loss is to eat less, and I say 'misconception' for the reason that it's not the principle that's essentially flawed here, it's the false practice of it which makes things go south for most.

When we eat, we eat for taste and we eat for satiation. What we don't do is eat to just survive, that's too ancient for us to even consider at this point in time. So coming back to the first line, we eat for taste which satisfies us, but the important part to look out for here is 'satiation'. Being satiated essentially means to stay satisfied after you eat, till your next meal of course. Satisfaction occurs when we realise that we're full and won't need another round of serving on our plates, but food giants such as Domino's and McDonald's have made it their aspiration and drive in life to erase that line of satiation completely inside our heads, and re-wire, then hard-wire us to binge-eat. Clever marketing and enhanced imagery of food products and competitive pricing through the years have led people to sit and eat way over their point of satiation, which over-time does make their brains believe that their point of satiation lies post-binge rather than mid-binge.

Q. What does satiation mean as per the author above?

Solution: Both (A) and (B) explain the term satiation.
QUESTION: 30

Dieting and weight loss/management has long been a driver of failure more often due to the haze of less or half-knowledge of the subject than lack of motivation. The human brain, after years and years of practice with the social media feeds and in-a-day deliveries of Amazon couriers has, unfortunately but successfully become nonchalant to long-term goals and practices of patience in life. So much so, that now when a person x feels like losing weight and looks it up, this person's brain will automatically only want for him/her to look out for results and plans that don't take much time to achieve. Health related searches on Google and YouTube alone are enough to prove the point, where most searches that started with 'How To Lose Weight' almost mostly ended with the words 'in 1, 2 or 3 Weeks/Months'.

Dieting is one such misconception where a huge chunk of dieters and hopeful followers of a prospectively healthy lifestyle fail to be aware of the simplest of principles in their lives, which is, if you begin your journey towards health by putting your body in a constant position of negative struggle and make it crave what it should be getting in abundance, you can only prolong your agony and finally give up harder than you began.

A common misconception surrounding weight loss is to eat less, and I say 'misconception' for the reason that it's not the principle that's essentially flawed here, it's the false practice of it which makes things go south for most.

When we eat, we eat for taste and we eat for satiation. What we don't do is eat to just survive, that's too ancient for us to even consider at this point in time. So coming back to the first line, we eat for taste which satisfies us, but the important part to look out for here is 'satiation'. Being satiated essentially means to stay satisfied after you eat, till your next meal of course. Satisfaction occurs when we realise that we're full and won't need another round of serving on our plates, but food giants such as Domino's and McDonald's have made it their aspiration and drive in life to erase that line of satiation completely inside our heads, and re-wire, then hard-wire us to binge-eat. Clever marketing and enhanced imagery of food products and competitive pricing through the years have led people to sit and eat way over their point of satiation, which over-time does make their brains believe that their point of satiation lies post-binge rather than mid-binge.

Q. According to the author, food giants such as Domino's and McDonald's have cast what effect on our satiation levels?

Solution: All the mentioned statements regarding the effect of Domino’s and McDonald’s on our satiation levels are true.
QUESTION: 31

Dieting and weight loss/management has long been a driver of failure more often due to the haze of less or half-knowledge of the subject than lack of motivation. The human brain, after years and years of practice with the social media feeds and in-a-day deliveries of Amazon couriers has, unfortunately but successfully become nonchalant to long-term goals and practices of patience in life. So much so, that now when a person x feels like losing weight and looks it up, this person's brain will automatically only want for him/her to look out for results and plans that don't take much time to achieve. Health related searches on Google and YouTube alone are enough to prove the point, where most searches that started with 'How To Lose Weight' almost mostly ended with the words 'in 1, 2 or 3 Weeks/Months'.

Dieting is one such misconception where a huge chunk of dieters and hopeful followers of a prospectively healthy lifestyle fail to be aware of the simplest of principles in their lives, which is, if you begin your journey towards health by putting your body in a constant position of negative struggle and make it crave what it should be getting in abundance, you can only prolong your agony and finally give up harder than you began.

A common misconception surrounding weight loss is to eat less, and I say 'misconception' for the reason that it's not the principle that's essentially flawed here, it's the false practice of it which makes things go south for most.

When we eat, we eat for taste and we eat for satiation. What we don't do is eat to just survive, that's too ancient for us to even consider at this point in time. So coming back to the first line, we eat for taste which satisfies us, but the important part to look out for here is 'satiation'. Being satiated essentially means to stay satisfied after you eat, till your next meal of course. Satisfaction occurs when we realise that we're full and won't need another round of serving on our plates, but food giants such as Domino's and McDonald's have made it their aspiration and drive in life to erase that line of satiation completely inside our heads, and re-wire, then hard-wire us to binge-eat. Clever marketing and enhanced imagery of food products and competitive pricing through the years have led people to sit and eat way over their point of satiation, which over-time does make their brains believe that their point of satiation lies post-binge rather than mid-binge.

Q. Which of the following results in failure of dieting?

Solution: Clearly inferred from the first paragraph. Though both are given as reasons, (1) is the major reason.
QUESTION: 32

The [X] Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution seeking the inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in Census, 2021. Chief Minister Hemant Soren said the resolution, passed during a special one-day Assembly session on Wednesday, will now be sent to the Centre for approval.

The opposition parties gave a proposal demanding a discussion on the resolution, which Speaker Rabindra Nath Mahato accepted. BJP legislators proposed an amendment to the resolution seeking removal of the oblique from ‘tribal/Sarna’ word in it. Soren said his government is sensitive to people’s sentiments and accepted the amendment, after which all the parties supported the resolution.

Q. What is state [X] mentioned in the passage?

Solution:
  • Jharkhand Assembly unanimously passed a resolution on Sarna Code during a special one-day assembly session on November 11, 2020.

  • The resolution seeks the inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in the 2021 Census. Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren said that the resolution will now be sent to the Centre for approval.

  • The opposition parties had submitted a proposal seeking discussion on the resolution. The proposal was accepted by Jharkhand Assembly Speaker Rabindra Nath Mahato.

QUESTION: 33

The [X] Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution seeking the inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in Census, 2021. Chief Minister Hemant Soren said the resolution, passed during a special one-day Assembly session on Wednesday, will now be sent to the Centre for approval.

The opposition parties gave a proposal demanding a discussion on the resolution, which Speaker Rabindra Nath Mahato accepted. BJP legislators proposed an amendment to the resolution seeking removal of the oblique from ‘tribal/Sarna’ word in it. Soren said his government is sensitive to people’s sentiments and accepted the amendment, after which all the parties supported the resolution.

Q. Which of the following statement is true about Sarna Code?

Solution: Sarna Code: Key Highlights
  • Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren had tabled the proposal seeking the provision of a separate ‘Sarna Code’ for the tribals in the state.

  • The BJP legislators had proposed an amendment to the resolution seeking removal of the oblique from ‘tribal/Sarna’ word in it.

  • The Jharkhand CM said that his government is sensitive to people’s sentiments and accepted the amendment and following this, all the parties supported the resolution.

  • The resolution seeks a special column for followers of the ‘Sarna’ religion in the Census 2021.

Who are Sarna followers?

Sarna followers are worshippers of nature, who do not consider themselves as Hindus and have been fighting for a separate religious identity for decades. They don't have a separate religious entity at present.

QUESTION: 34

The [X] Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution seeking the inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in Census, 2021. Chief Minister Hemant Soren said the resolution, passed during a special one-day Assembly session on Wednesday, will now be sent to the Centre for approval.

The opposition parties gave a proposal demanding a discussion on the resolution, which Speaker Rabindra Nath Mahato accepted. BJP legislators proposed an amendment to the resolution seeking removal of the oblique from ‘tribal/Sarna’ word in it. Soren said his government is sensitive to people’s sentiments and accepted the amendment, after which all the parties supported the resolution.

Q. Name the e-newsletter on health and nutrition which was released by Tribal Affairs ministry.

Solution: Union Minister of Tribal Affairs Arjun Munda inaugurated the first of its kind e-portal “Swasthya”, a tribal health and nutrition portal and Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) also launched e-newsletter on health and nutrition ALEKH and opening of National Overseas Portal and National Tribal Fellowship Portal.Renuka Singh Saruta, MoS for Tribal Affairs released “ALEKH”, the quarterly e-newsletter.
QUESTION: 35

The [X] Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution seeking the inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in Census, 2021. Chief Minister Hemant Soren said the resolution, passed during a special one-day Assembly session on Wednesday, will now be sent to the Centre for approval.

The opposition parties gave a proposal demanding a discussion on the resolution, which Speaker Rabindra Nath Mahato accepted. BJP legislators proposed an amendment to the resolution seeking removal of the oblique from ‘tribal/Sarna’ word in it. Soren said his government is sensitive to people’s sentiments and accepted the amendment, after which all the parties supported the resolution.

Q. Which state has passed an Ordinance against forced religious conversions?

Solution: Uttar Pradesh cabinet on November 24, 2020 passed the UP Prohibition of Unlawful Religious Conversion ordinance that makes forced religious conversions punishable with a jail term between one and 10 years and a fine stretching from Rs 15,000 to Rs 50,000.
QUESTION: 36

The [X] Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution seeking the inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in Census, 2021. Chief Minister Hemant Soren said the resolution, passed during a special one-day Assembly session on Wednesday, will now be sent to the Centre for approval.

The opposition parties gave a proposal demanding a discussion on the resolution, which Speaker Rabindra Nath Mahato accepted. BJP legislators proposed an amendment to the resolution seeking removal of the oblique from ‘tribal/Sarna’ word in it. Soren said his government is sensitive to people’s sentiments and accepted the amendment, after which all the parties supported the resolution.

Q. Which article deals with the right to freedom of religion?

Solution: Article 25 says "all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion subject to public order, morality and health." Further, Article 26 says that all denominations can manage their own affairs in matters of religion.
QUESTION: 37

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Wednesday expanded the ambit of cases pertaining to pollution due to firecrackers beyond the [X] and issued notice to 18 States and Union Territories where the air quality is beyond permissible limits.

A Bench headed by NGT chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel observed that notices had already been issued to the State governments of Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh while Odisha and Rajasthan governments have already issued notices stating ban on firecrackers in the respective States.

The tribunal in its order said: “With respect to non attainment of cities, where air quality as per record maintained by the CPCB is generally beyond norms, which are 122 in number, the tribunal may have to consider direction to prohibit use of firecrackers during the period air quality is beyond a threshold to protect the health of vulnerable groups.

Q. What is [X] mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Wednesday expanded the ambit of cases pertaining to pollution due to firecrackers beyond the National Capital Region and issued notice to 18 States and Union Territories where the air quality is beyond permissible limits.
QUESTION: 38

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Wednesday expanded the ambit of cases pertaining to pollution due to firecrackers beyond the [X] and issued notice to 18 States and Union Territories where the air quality is beyond permissible limits.

A Bench headed by NGT chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel observed that notices had already been issued to the State governments of Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh while Odisha and Rajasthan governments have already issued notices stating ban on firecrackers in the respective States.

The tribunal in its order said: “With respect to non attainment of cities, where air quality as per record maintained by the CPCB is generally beyond norms, which are 122 in number, the tribunal may have to consider direction to prohibit use of firecrackers during the period air quality is beyond a threshold to protect the health of vulnerable groups.

Q. Which city has been ranked as most polluted city in the world as per Air Pollution Data Released by US Air Quality Index?

Solution: According to the Air Pollution Data released by US Air Quality Index Lahore, Pakistan topped the list of World's most polluted cities. New Delhi was ranked second.
QUESTION: 39

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Wednesday expanded the ambit of cases pertaining to pollution due to firecrackers beyond the [X] and issued notice to 18 States and Union Territories where the air quality is beyond permissible limits.

A Bench headed by NGT chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel observed that notices had already been issued to the State governments of Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh while Odisha and Rajasthan governments have already issued notices stating ban on firecrackers in the respective States.

The tribunal in its order said: “With respect to non attainment of cities, where air quality as per record maintained by the CPCB is generally beyond norms, which are 122 in number, the tribunal may have to consider direction to prohibit use of firecrackers during the period air quality is beyond a threshold to protect the health of vulnerable groups.

Q. Which of the following is not true about the NGT order?

Solution:
  • As per the order, in towns and cities where air quality has been moderate or below, only green crackers will be allowed to sold and the timings for the use of crackers will be restricted to two hours during festivals such as New Year, Diwali, Chatt, Christmas, etc. as specified by the state concerned.

  • However, NGT clarified that the restrictions are optional for authorities at other places apart from NCR but added that if there are more strict measures ordered by authorities, the same will prevail. NGTs order of banning firecrackers in Delhi- NCR:

  • The National Green Tribunal noted that in light of increased adverse health impact of the pollution because of the use of firecrackers on Coronavirus, the aggravated risk to health led to the ban of firecrackers in various states by their government, a case has been made out in issuing directions for banning the sale and use of firecrackers in areas where the air quality is poor, very poor and severe.

Suggestion for special drives to contain air pollution:

  • NGT in its order suggested that all the UTs, states, Pollution Control Boards as well as Pollution Control Committees can also initiate special drives for containing the air pollution in view of the rising cases of Coronavirus.

  • The Tribunal also suggested that the state authorities can regularly monitor air quality at this time which can also be uploaded on the concerned website.

QUESTION: 40

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Wednesday expanded the ambit of cases pertaining to pollution due to firecrackers beyond the [X] and issued notice to 18 States and Union Territories where the air quality is beyond permissible limits.

A Bench headed by NGT chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel observed that notices had already been issued to the State governments of Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh while Odisha and Rajasthan governments have already issued notices stating ban on firecrackers in the respective States.

The tribunal in its order said: “With respect to non attainment of cities, where air quality as per record maintained by the CPCB is generally beyond norms, which are 122 in number, the tribunal may have to consider direction to prohibit use of firecrackers during the period air quality is beyond a threshold to protect the health of vulnerable groups.

Q. How is the NGT different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The National Green Tribunal has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government

2. The National Green Tribunal provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts where the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established in 2010 by the National Green Tribunal 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation forests and other natural resources

  • The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is also a statutory organisation constituted in 1974 under the (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under

  • (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 promotes cleanliness of streams and wells in different a the States by prevention,control and abatement of water pollution, and improve the quality of air and to pre control or abate air pollution in the country.

Therefore statement 1 incorrect and statement 2 is correct

QUESTION: 41

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Wednesday expanded the ambit of cases pertaining to pollution due to firecrackers beyond the [X] and issued notice to 18 States and Union Territories where the air quality is beyond permissible limits.

A Bench headed by NGT chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel observed that notices had already been issued to the State governments of Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh while Odisha and Rajasthan governments have already issued notices stating ban on firecrackers in the respective States.

The tribunal in its order said: “With respect to non attainment of cities, where air quality as per record maintained by the CPCB is generally beyond norms, which are 122 in number, the tribunal may have to consider direction to prohibit use of firecrackers during the period air quality is beyond a threshold to protect the health of vulnerable groups.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct about National Green Tribunal (NGT)?

1. Establishment of NGT made National Environment Appellate Authority defunct.

2. Mumbai is one of the place of sitting of Tribunal.

Solution: National Green Tribunal (NGT) became operational with Justice Lokeshwar Singh as first Chairman in 2010.
  • Currently it is chaired by Justice Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel- NGT was established by National Green Tribunal Act 2010.

  • The five places of sitting of Tribunal are at Delhi, Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai.

QUESTION: 42

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Wednesday expanded the ambit of cases pertaining to pollution due to firecrackers beyond the [X] and issued notice to 18 States and Union Territories where the air quality is beyond permissible limits.

A Bench headed by NGT chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel observed that notices had already been issued to the State governments of Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh while Odisha and Rajasthan governments have already issued notices stating ban on firecrackers in the respective States.

The tribunal in its order said: “With respect to non attainment of cities, where air quality as per record maintained by the CPCB is generally beyond norms, which are 122 in number, the tribunal may have to consider direction to prohibit use of firecrackers during the period air quality is beyond a threshold to protect the health of vulnerable groups.

Q. National Green Tribunal was established in the year____?

Solution: National Green Tribunal (NGT) became operational with Justice Lokeshwar Singh as first Chairman in 2010.
  • Currently it is chaired by Justice Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel- NGT was established by National Green Tribunal Act 2010.

  • The five places of sitting of Tribunal are at Delhi, Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai.

QUESTION: 43

The government of [X], in order to give a major boost to the adoption of electric vehicles in the state, has passed an order that allows the 100% exemption of motor vehicle tax for battery-operated vehicles.

As per the order dated November 2, 2020, by the state government, all BOVs, both non-transport and transport have been exempted from the payment of Motor Vehicles Tax from November 3, 2020, to December 31, 2022.

Earlier, the state government had issued orders for the 50% concessional rate of lifetime tax in respect of battery-operated four-wheelers and two-wheelers of non-transport vehicles. However, the transport minister made a request for a 100% exemption.

Q. What is the state [X] mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The government of Tamil Nadu, in order to give a major boost to the adoption of electric vehicles in the state, has passed an order that allows the 100% exemption of motor vehicle tax for battery-operated vehicles.
QUESTION: 44

The government of [X], in order to give a major boost to the adoption of electric vehicles in the state, has passed an order that allows the 100% exemption of motor vehicle tax for battery-operated vehicles.

As per the order dated November 2, 2020, by the state government, all BOVs, both non-transport and transport have been exempted from the payment of Motor Vehicles Tax from November 3, 2020, to December 31, 2022.

Earlier, the state government had issued orders for the 50% concessional rate of lifetime tax in respect of battery-operated four-wheelers and two-wheelers of non-transport vehicles. However, the transport minister made a request for a 100% exemption.

Q. Which of the following steps is not taken by state [X] an attractive centre for electric mobility?

Solution: Tamil Nadu government also announced that the decision to grant a full exemption for all battery-operated vehicles has only been made after careful examination by the authorities.

Efforts to be an attractive centre for electric mobility:

  • Tamil Nadu, after establishing itself as a hub for automotive manufacturing, has made several efforts to establish itself as an attractive centre for electric mobility.

  • In 2019, the state launched a separate policy for Electric Vehicles which paved the way for fresh investments by various players into EV manufacturing and associated areas.

  • The state government in March 2020 also announced that it will plan a futuristic EV Charging station with the use of solar power at the government campus. The station will offer the features of slow and fast charge and depending on the success of it, the government will plan to increase the number of such stations.

QUESTION: 45

The government of [X], in order to give a major boost to the adoption of electric vehicles in the state, has passed an order that allows the 100% exemption of motor vehicle tax for battery-operated vehicles.

As per the order dated November 2, 2020, by the state government, all BOVs, both non-transport and transport have been exempted from the payment of Motor Vehicles Tax from November 3, 2020, to December 31, 2022.

Earlier, the state government had issued orders for the 50% concessional rate of lifetime tax in respect of battery-operated four-wheelers and two-wheelers of non-transport vehicles. However, the transport minister made a request for a 100% exemption.

Q. Which state recently announced a new Electric Vehicle Policy, has offered a 100% exemption in road tax and registration fees for early adopters in EV segments.

Solution: States like Telangana, which recently announced a new Electric Vehicle Policy, has offered a 100% exemption in road tax and registration fees for early adopters in EV segments. While Delhi announced a road tax exemption on all EVs and BOVs.

There has also been a lot of positive news on the EV Policy front from both the state and central governments which has also led to higher confidence among the investors and component suppliers.

QUESTION: 46

The government of [X], in order to give a major boost to the adoption of electric vehicles in the state, has passed an order that allows the 100% exemption of motor vehicle tax for battery-operated vehicles.

As per the order dated November 2, 2020, by the state government, all BOVs, both non-transport and transport have been exempted from the payment of Motor Vehicles Tax from November 3, 2020, to December 31, 2022.

Earlier, the state government had issued orders for the 50% concessional rate of lifetime tax in respect of battery-operated four-wheelers and two-wheelers of non-transport vehicles. However, the transport minister made a request for a 100% exemption.

Q. Which Ministry has released a draft notification which proposed to waive registration charges for electric vehicles?

Solution: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has released a draft notification which proposes to waive registration charges for electric vehicles. The exemption would be applicable to all category of vehicles, including two-wheelers. The move is apparently aimed at promoting electric vehicles (EVs) in India.
QUESTION: 47

The government of [X], in order to give a major boost to the adoption of electric vehicles in the state, has passed an order that allows the 100% exemption of motor vehicle tax for battery-operated vehicles.

As per the order dated November 2, 2020, by the state government, all BOVs, both non-transport and transport have been exempted from the payment of Motor Vehicles Tax from November 3, 2020, to December 31, 2022.

Earlier, the state government had issued orders for the 50% concessional rate of lifetime tax in respect of battery-operated four-wheelers and two-wheelers of non-transport vehicles. However, the transport minister made a request for a 100% exemption.

Q. Which Indian PSU signed MoU with Energy Efficiency Service Limited (EESL) for installing 1000 public Electrical Vehicle charging stations?

Solution: State-owned Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) has signed an MoU with BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited) for installing 1000 public charging stations for Electric Vehicles.
QUESTION: 48

The government of [X], in order to give a major boost to the adoption of electric vehicles in the state, has passed an order that allows the 100% exemption of motor vehicle tax for battery-operated vehicles.

As per the order dated November 2, 2020, by the state government, all BOVs, both non-transport and transport have been exempted from the payment of Motor Vehicles Tax from November 3, 2020, to December 31, 2022.

Earlier, the state government had issued orders for the 50% concessional rate of lifetime tax in respect of battery-operated four-wheelers and two-wheelers of non-transport vehicles. However, the transport minister made a request for a 100% exemption.

Q. Which of the following state/UT also launched its ambitious Electric Vehicle Policy?

Solution: The Delhi government launched its ambitious Electric Vehicle Policy, which aims to boost the city’s economy, reduce pollution levels and generate employment in the transport sector.
QUESTION: 49

In a first, [X] Indian beaches have been awarded the prestigious Blue Flag certification. Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar shared the news through a post on Twitter on October 11, 2020.

The Union Minister tweeted saying that it is a proud moment for India, as all 8 beaches recommended by the Indian government have been given the coveted International Blue Flag Certification.

The Union Minister further stated that the Blue Flag certification was accorded to India's [X] beaches, , spread across five states and two union territories, by an international jury comprising eminent members including the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

Q. How many beaches in India are awarded with Blue Flag certification?

Solution:
  • Blue Flag Beaches in India: In a first, eight Indian beaches have been awarded the prestigious Blue Flag certification. Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar shared the news through a post on Twitter on October 11, 2020.

  • The Union Minister tweeted saying that it is a proud moment for India, as all 8 beaches recommended by the Indian government have been given the coveted International Blue Flag Certification.

  • The Union Minister further stated that the Blue Flag certification was accorded to India's 8 beaches, , spread across five states and two union territories, by an international jury comprising eminent members including the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

  • The Minister stated that the blue flag certification of Indian beaches is also a global recognition of India’s conservation and sustainable development efforts.

QUESTION: 50

In a first, [X] Indian beaches have been awarded the prestigious Blue Flag certification. Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar shared the news through a post on Twitter on October 11, 2020.

The Union Minister tweeted saying that it is a proud moment for India, as all 8 beaches recommended by the Indian government have been given the coveted International Blue Flag Certification.

The Union Minister further stated that the Blue Flag certification was accorded to India's [X] beaches, , spread across five states and two union territories, by an international jury comprising eminent members including the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

Q. What is not true about Blue Flag certification?

Solution: "Blue Flag Programme: Background
  • The Blue Flag concept was first adopted as a pilot scheme in France in 1985 when French coastal municipalities were awarded the Blue Flag based on criteria of covering sewage treatment and bathing water quality.

  • In 1987, the Foundation for Environmental Education in Europe (FEEE) presented the concept of the Blue Flag to the European Commission and then it was agreed to launch the Blue Flag Programme as one of the Commission's several ""European Year of the Environment"" activities in the Community that year

  • The French concept of the Blue Flag was further expanded to include other areas of environmental management such as waste management and coastal planning and protection. Beaches and marinas also became eligible for the Blue Flag under the programme.

  • In 2001, FEEE rules were changed to permit non-European national organisations, which share the objectives of FEEE, to become members of the foundation. This led the foundation to drop Europe from its name, becoming the Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

QUESTION: 51

In a first, [X] Indian beaches have been awarded the prestigious Blue Flag certification. Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar shared the news through a post on Twitter on October 11, 2020.

The Union Minister tweeted saying that it is a proud moment for India, as all 8 beaches recommended by the Indian government have been given the coveted International Blue Flag Certification.

The Union Minister further stated that the Blue Flag certification was accorded to India's [X] beaches, , spread across five states and two union territories, by an international jury comprising eminent members including the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

Q. Which country has highest number of Blue flag beaches?

Solution: Spain with 578 Blue Flag Beaches has the highest number of Blue Flag beaches in the world, followed by Turkey that has 436 Blue Flag Beaches. Greece stands third with 395 Blue Flag Beaches, closely followed by France that has 394 Blue Flag beaches and then Italy that has 342 Blue Flag Beaches.
QUESTION: 52

In a first, [X] Indian beaches have been awarded the prestigious Blue Flag certification. Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar shared the news through a post on Twitter on October 11, 2020.

The Union Minister tweeted saying that it is a proud moment for India, as all 8 beaches recommended by the Indian government have been given the coveted International Blue Flag Certification.

The Union Minister further stated that the Blue Flag certification was accorded to India's [X] beaches, , spread across five states and two union territories, by an international jury comprising eminent members including the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

Q. Which of the following is not part of criteria for blue flag certification?

Solution: The criteria for Blue Flag Certification include standards for safety, quality, environmental education and information along with the provision of services and general environmental management criteria. The Blue Flag certification is accorded to beaches, marinas and sustainable boating tourism operators. The certification indicates their high environmental and quality standards.
QUESTION: 53

In a first, [X] Indian beaches have been awarded the prestigious Blue Flag certification. Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar shared the news through a post on Twitter on October 11, 2020.

The Union Minister tweeted saying that it is a proud moment for India, as all 8 beaches recommended by the Indian government have been given the coveted International Blue Flag Certification.

The Union Minister further stated that the Blue Flag certification was accorded to India's [X] beaches, , spread across five states and two union territories, by an international jury comprising eminent members including the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

Q. Which of the following is not among 'X' beaches received blue flag certification?

Solution: The Minister stated that the blue flag certification of Indian beaches is also a global recognition of India’s conservation and sustainable development efforts.

Following are the eight beaches that have received Blue Flag Certification in India:

  • Blue Flag Beaches in India

  • Beach Name

  • State/ UT

  • Shivrajpur Dwarka-Gujarat

  • Ghoghla Diu

  • Kasarkod Karnataka

  • Padubidri Karnataka

  • Kappad Kerala

  • Rushikonda Andhra Pradesh

  • Golden Beach/ Puri Beach Odisha

  • Radhanagar Andaman & Nicobar Islands

QUESTION: 54

Reliance Industries Ltd., controlled by Asia’s richest man, toppled ExxonMobil Corp. to become the world’s largest energy company after [X], as investors piled into the conglomerate lured by the Indian firm’s digital and retail forays.

Reliance, which manages the biggest refinery complex, gained 4.3% in Mumbai on Friday adding $8 billion to take its market value to $189 billion, while Exxon Mobil erased about $1 billion. Reliance’s shares have jumped 43% this year compared with a 39% drop in Exxon’s shares as refiners across the globe struggled with a plunge in fuel demand. Aramco with a market capitalization of $1.76 trillion is the world’s biggest energy company. Globally, [X] has the highest market cap of $1.75 trillion, followed by Apple ($1.6 trillion), Microsoft ($1.5 trillion), Amazon ($1.48 trillion), and Alphabet ($1.03 trillion).

Reliance is the 10th highest m-cap company in Asia. China's [Y] Group is ranked seventh globally. Ambani’s dealmaking has lured investments from Google to Facebook Inc. into his digital platform in recent months. The 63-year-old tycoon has identified technology and retail as future growth areas in a pivot away from the energy businesses he inherited from his father who died in 2002.

Q. What is the largest company in the world in terms of market capitalization? [X] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Globally, Saudi Aramco has the highest market cap of $1.75 trillion, followed by Apple ($1.6 trillion), Microsoft ($1.5 trillion), Amazon ($1.48 trillion), and Alphabet ($1.03 trillion).
QUESTION: 55

Reliance Industries Ltd., controlled by Asia’s richest man, toppled ExxonMobil Corp. to become the world’s largest energy company after [X], as investors piled into the conglomerate lured by the Indian firm’s digital and retail forays.

Reliance, which manages the biggest refinery complex, gained 4.3% in Mumbai on Friday adding $8 billion to take its market value to $189 billion, while Exxon Mobil erased about $1 billion. Reliance’s shares have jumped 43% this year compared with a 39% drop in Exxon’s shares as refiners across the globe struggled with a plunge in fuel demand. Aramco with a market capitalization of $1.76 trillion is the world’s biggest energy company. Globally, [X] has the highest market cap of $1.75 trillion, followed by Apple ($1.6 trillion), Microsoft ($1.5 trillion), Amazon ($1.48 trillion), and Alphabet ($1.03 trillion).

Reliance is the 10th highest m-cap company in Asia. China's [Y] Group is ranked seventh globally. Ambani’s dealmaking has lured investments from Google to Facebook Inc. into his digital platform in recent months. The 63-year-old tycoon has identified technology and retail as future growth areas in a pivot away from the energy businesses he inherited from his father who died in 2002.

Q. Which Company in Asia is the largest in terms of market capitalisation? [Y] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Alibaba becomes most valuable Asian company as market cap tops $500bn.
QUESTION: 56

Reliance Industries Ltd., controlled by Asia’s richest man, toppled ExxonMobil Corp. to become the world’s largest energy company after [X], as investors piled into the conglomerate lured by the Indian firm’s digital and retail forays.

Reliance, which manages the biggest refinery complex, gained 4.3% in Mumbai on Friday adding $8 billion to take its market value to $189 billion, while Exxon Mobil erased about $1 billion. Reliance’s shares have jumped 43% this year compared with a 39% drop in Exxon’s shares as refiners across the globe struggled with a plunge in fuel demand. Aramco with a market capitalization of $1.76 trillion is the world’s biggest energy company. Globally, [X] has the highest market cap of $1.75 trillion, followed by Apple ($1.6 trillion), Microsoft ($1.5 trillion), Amazon ($1.48 trillion), and Alphabet ($1.03 trillion).

Reliance is the 10th highest m-cap company in Asia. China's [Y] Group is ranked seventh globally. Ambani’s dealmaking has lured investments from Google to Facebook Inc. into his digital platform in recent months. The 63-year-old tycoon has identified technology and retail as future growth areas in a pivot away from the energy businesses he inherited from his father who died in 2002.

Q. Exxon Mobil belongs to which country?

Solution: Exxon Mobil Corporation, doing business as ExxonMobil, is an American multinational oil and gas corporation headquartered in Irving, Texas. It is the largest direct descendant of John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil, and was formed on November 30, 1999 by the merger of Exxon and Mobil.
QUESTION: 57

Reliance Industries Ltd., controlled by Asia’s richest man, toppled ExxonMobil Corp. to become the world’s largest energy company after [X], as investors piled into the conglomerate lured by the Indian firm’s digital and retail forays.

Reliance, which manages the biggest refinery complex, gained 4.3% in Mumbai on Friday adding $8 billion to take its market value to $189 billion, while Exxon Mobil erased about $1 billion. Reliance’s shares have jumped 43% this year compared with a 39% drop in Exxon’s shares as refiners across the globe struggled with a plunge in fuel demand. Aramco with a market capitalization of $1.76 trillion is the world’s biggest energy company. Globally, [X] has the highest market cap of $1.75 trillion, followed by Apple ($1.6 trillion), Microsoft ($1.5 trillion), Amazon ($1.48 trillion), and Alphabet ($1.03 trillion).

Reliance is the 10th highest m-cap company in Asia. China's [Y] Group is ranked seventh globally. Ambani’s dealmaking has lured investments from Google to Facebook Inc. into his digital platform in recent months. The 63-year-old tycoon has identified technology and retail as future growth areas in a pivot away from the energy businesses he inherited from his father who died in 2002.

Q. Who is the world's First centibillionaire?

Solution: Founder-CEO of Amazon, Jeff Bezos, tops the list with a net worth of USD 187 Billion. Bezos was the first centi-billionaire on the Forbes wealth index and has retained the title of World Richest man since 2017.
QUESTION: 58

Reliance Industries Ltd., controlled by Asia’s richest man, toppled ExxonMobil Corp. to become the world’s largest energy company after [X], as investors piled into the conglomerate lured by the Indian firm’s digital and retail forays.

Reliance, which manages the biggest refinery complex, gained 4.3% in Mumbai on Friday adding $8 billion to take its market value to $189 billion, while Exxon Mobil erased about $1 billion. Reliance’s shares have jumped 43% this year compared with a 39% drop in Exxon’s shares as refiners across the globe struggled with a plunge in fuel demand. Aramco with a market capitalization of $1.76 trillion is the world’s biggest energy company. Globally, [X] has the highest market cap of $1.75 trillion, followed by Apple ($1.6 trillion), Microsoft ($1.5 trillion), Amazon ($1.48 trillion), and Alphabet ($1.03 trillion).

Reliance is the 10th highest m-cap company in Asia. China's [Y] Group is ranked seventh globally. Ambani’s dealmaking has lured investments from Google to Facebook Inc. into his digital platform in recent months. The 63-year-old tycoon has identified technology and retail as future growth areas in a pivot away from the energy businesses he inherited from his father who died in 2002.

Q. Google and Facebook recently invested in which arm of Reliance Industries?

Solution: Alphabet Inc.’s Google will invest $4.5 billion for a 7.7% stake in Jio Platforms, the tech and telecom business of Reliance Industries, announced Mukesh Ambani. The Jio investments started with a bang on April 22, when social networking giant Facebook agreed to acquire close to 10% for $5.7 billion.
QUESTION: 59

China has launched its first rover mission to Mars. The six-wheeled robot, encapsulated in a protective probe, was lifted off Earth by a Long March 5 rocket from the Wenchang spaceport on Hainan Island at 12:40 local time (04:40 GMT). It should arrive in orbit around the Red Planet in February. Called [X], or "Questions to Heaven", the rover won't actually try to land on the surface for a further two to three months.

This wait-and-see strategy was used successfully by the American Viking landers in the 1970s. It will allow engineers to assess the atmospheric conditions on Mars before attempting what will be a hazardous descent. [X] is one of three missions setting off to Mars in the space of 11 days. On Monday, The [Y] launched its Hope satellite towards the Red Planet. And in a week from now, the US space agency (Nasa) aims to despatch its next-generation rover, [Z].

This clumping of launches is dictated by orbital dynamics; Earth and Mars line up properly for interplanetary missions for just a few weeks once every 26 months. (The European-Russian ExoMars rover was supposed to join the launch party this summer, but it suffered technical issues and now must wait until 2022.)

Q. What is the name of the China's mission to Mars, [X] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Tianwen-1 is an interplanetary mission to Mars by the China National Space Administration to send a robotic spacecraft, which consists of an orbiter, a lander and a rover.
QUESTION: 60

China has launched its first rover mission to Mars. The six-wheeled robot, encapsulated in a protective probe, was lifted off Earth by a Long March 5 rocket from the Wenchang spaceport on Hainan Island at 12:40 local time (04:40 GMT). It should arrive in orbit around the Red Planet in February. Called [X], or "Questions to Heaven", the rover won't actually try to land on the surface for a further two to three months.

This wait-and-see strategy was used successfully by the American Viking landers in the 1970s. It will allow engineers to assess the atmospheric conditions on Mars before attempting what will be a hazardous descent. [X] is one of three missions setting off to Mars in the space of 11 days. On Monday, The [Y] launched its Hope satellite towards the Red Planet. And in a week from now, the US space agency (Nasa) aims to despatch its next-generation rover, [Z].

This clumping of launches is dictated by orbital dynamics; Earth and Mars line up properly for interplanetary missions for just a few weeks once every 26 months. (The European-Russian ExoMars rover was supposed to join the launch party this summer, but it suffered technical issues and now must wait until 2022.)

Q. Which country from the Arab region launched its first mission to Mars, [Y] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The Emirates Mars Mission is a United Arab Emirates Space Agency uncrewed space exploration mission to Mars. The Hope orbiter was launched on 19 July 2020 at 21:58:14 UTC. The mission design, development, and operations are led by the Mohammed bin Rashid Space Centre.
QUESTION: 61

China has launched its first rover mission to Mars. The six-wheeled robot, encapsulated in a protective probe, was lifted off Earth by a Long March 5 rocket from the Wenchang spaceport on Hainan Island at 12:40 local time (04:40 GMT). It should arrive in orbit around the Red Planet in February. Called [X], or "Questions to Heaven", the rover won't actually try to land on the surface for a further two to three months.

This wait-and-see strategy was used successfully by the American Viking landers in the 1970s. It will allow engineers to assess the atmospheric conditions on Mars before attempting what will be a hazardous descent. [X] is one of three missions setting off to Mars in the space of 11 days. On Monday, The [Y] launched its Hope satellite towards the Red Planet. And in a week from now, the US space agency (Nasa) aims to despatch its next-generation rover, [Z].

This clumping of launches is dictated by orbital dynamics; Earth and Mars line up properly for interplanetary missions for just a few weeks once every 26 months. (The European-Russian ExoMars rover was supposed to join the launch party this summer, but it suffered technical issues and now must wait until 2022.)

Q. What is the name of the rover being launched by NASA to Mars?

Solution: Mars 2020 is a Mars rover mission by NASA's Mars Exploration Program that includes the Perseverance rover and the Ingenuity helicopter drone. It was launched on 30 July 2020 at 11:50 UTC, and will touch down in Jezero crater on Mars on 18 February 2021.
QUESTION: 62

China has launched its first rover mission to Mars. The six-wheeled robot, encapsulated in a protective probe, was lifted off Earth by a Long March 5 rocket from the Wenchang spaceport on Hainan Island at 12:40 local time (04:40 GMT). It should arrive in orbit around the Red Planet in February. Called [X], or "Questions to Heaven", the rover won't actually try to land on the surface for a further two to three months.

This wait-and-see strategy was used successfully by the American Viking landers in the 1970s. It will allow engineers to assess the atmospheric conditions on Mars before attempting what will be a hazardous descent. [X] is one of three missions setting off to Mars in the space of 11 days. On Monday, The [Y] launched its Hope satellite towards the Red Planet. And in a week from now, the US space agency (Nasa) aims to despatch its next-generation rover, [Z].

This clumping of launches is dictated by orbital dynamics; Earth and Mars line up properly for interplanetary missions for just a few weeks once every 26 months. (The European-Russian ExoMars rover was supposed to join the launch party this summer, but it suffered technical issues and now must wait until 2022.

Q. In which year did India launched its Mars Orbiter Mission?

Solution: The Mars Orbiter Mission, also called Mangalyaan, is a space probe orbiting Mars since 24 September 2014. It was launched on 5 November 2013 by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
QUESTION: 63

China has launched its first rover mission to Mars. The six-wheeled robot, encapsulated in a protective probe, was lifted off Earth by a Long March 5 rocket from the Wenchang spaceport on Hainan Island at 12:40 local time (04:40 GMT). It should arrive in orbit around the Red Planet in February. Called [X], or "Questions to Heaven", the rover won't actually try to land on the surface for a further two to three months.

This wait-and-see strategy was used successfully by the American Viking landers in the 1970s. It will allow engineers to assess the atmospheric conditions on Mars before attempting what will be a hazardous descent. [X] is one of three missions setting off to Mars in the space of 11 days. On Monday, The [Y] launched its Hope satellite towards the Red Planet. And in a week from now, the US space agency (Nasa) aims to despatch its next-generation rover, [Z].

This clumping of launches is dictated by orbital dynamics; Earth and Mars line up properly for interplanetary missions for just a few weeks once every 26 months. (The European-Russian ExoMars rover was supposed to join the launch party this summer, but it suffered technical issues and now must wait until 2022.)

Q. How many moons does Mars have?

Solution: Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun and the second-smallest planet in the Solar System, being only larger than Mercury. In English, Mars carries the name of the Roman god of war and is often referred to as the "Red Planet". Mars has two moons. Their names are Phobos and Deimos.
QUESTION: 64

China has launched its first rover mission to Mars. The six-wheeled robot, encapsulated in a protective probe, was lifted off Earth by a Long March 5 rocket from the Wenchang spaceport on Hainan Island at 12:40 local time (04:40 GMT). It should arrive in orbit around the Red Planet in February. Called [X], or "Questions to Heaven", the rover won't actually try to land on the surface for a further two to three months.

This wait-and-see strategy was used successfully by the American Viking landers in the 1970s. It will allow engineers to assess the atmospheric conditions on Mars before attempting what will be a hazardous descent. [X] is one of three missions setting off to Mars in the space of 11 days. On Monday, The [Y] launched its Hope satellite towards the Red Planet. And in a week from now, the US space agency (Nasa) aims to despatch its next-generation rover, [Z].

This clumping of launches is dictated by orbital dynamics; Earth and Mars line up properly for interplanetary missions for just a few weeks once every 26 months. (The European-Russian ExoMars rover was supposed to join the launch party this summer, but it suffered technical issues and now must wait until 2022.)

Q. Which space agency has partnered with NASA to host a deep-space ground station to support human spaceflight missions to the Moon, Mars and beyond?

Solution: The South African National Space Agency(SANSA) has partnered with National Aeronautics and Space Administration(NASA) to host a deep-space ground station to support human spaceflight missions to the Moon, Mars and beyond. South Africa became the 4th country(4th site)after the United States of America, Spain and Australia to host a deep space ground station.
QUESTION: 65

The All India Football Federation (AIFF) has recommended legendary former skipper [X] for Padma Shri, the country's fourth highest civilian award. The 51-year-old former India striker, who scored 40 goals in 79 matches for India since making his debut in early 90s, was bestowed the Arjuna award in 2003. He was also awarded the Indian 'Player of the Year' in 1993, 1997 and 1999.

I am happy that I have been recommended for the Padma Shri and I thank the AIFF for that. I will be happier if I get the award,"" [X] said from his home in Kerala. I have served Indian football to the best of my abilities and I have no regrets,"" he added. [X], who led the Indian team from 2000 to 2003, used to form a formidable pair with fellow striker Bhaichung Bhutia.

At the club level, he had memorable stints with Mohun Bagan, Kerala Police, the now-defunct FC Cochin and JCT Mills Phagwara. He is credited to have scored one of the fastest international goals, managing to find the back of the net in just 12 seconds in a match against Bhutan in the 1999 SAF Games. He had scored four goals to emerge as the top scorer in the Afro-Asian Games held in India in 2003. It was his last appearance for the country as he retired after the tournament.

Q. Who is the footballer ‘X’ mentioned in the passage?

Solution:
  • "The All India Football Federation (AIFF) has decided to recommend former Indian caption IM Vijayan for the Padma Shri award, which is the country’s fourth-highest civilian award.

  • The 51-year-old former professional footballer and the striker had scored 40 goals in 79 matches for India. IM Vijayan was awarded the Indian ‘Player of the Year’ in 1993, 1997, and 1999. He was also honored with Arjuna Award in 2003.

  • IM Vijayan is one of the most skillful footballers that the country has ever seen. He formed a prolific strike partnership alongside Bhaichung Bhutia which helped the team in scoring various goals in the international tournaments.

QUESTION: 66

The All India Football Federation (AIFF) has recommended legendary former skipper [X] for Padma Shri, the country's fourth highest civilian award. The 51-year-old former India striker, who scored 40 goals in 79 matches for India since making his debut in early 90s, was bestowed the Arjuna award in 2003. He was also awarded the Indian 'Player of the Year' in 1993, 1997 and 1999.

I am happy that I have been recommended for the Padma Shri and I thank the AIFF for that. I will be happier if I get the award,"" [X] said from his home in Kerala. I have served Indian football to the best of my abilities and I have no regrets,"" he added. [X], who led the Indian team from 2000 to 2003, used to form a formidable pair with fellow striker Bhaichung Bhutia.

At the club level, he had memorable stints with Mohun Bagan, Kerala Police, the now-defunct FC Cochin and JCT Mills Phagwara. He is credited to have scored one of the fastest international goals, managing to find the back of the net in just 12 seconds in a match against Bhutan in the 1999 SAF Games. He had scored four goals to emerge as the top scorer in the Afro-Asian Games held in India in 2003. It was his last appearance for the country as he retired after the tournament.

Q. Who gives Padma awards to the winners?

Solution: Padma awards are conferred by the President of India. These awards are given in a ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhawan.
QUESTION: 67

The All India Football Federation (AIFF) has recommended legendary former skipper [X] for Padma Shri, the country's fourth highest civilian award. The 51-year-old former India striker, who scored 40 goals in 79 matches for India since making his debut in early 90s, was bestowed the Arjuna award in 2003. He was also awarded the Indian 'Player of the Year' in 1993, 1997 and 1999.

I am happy that I have been recommended for the Padma Shri and I thank the AIFF for that. I will be happier if I get the award,"" [X] said from his home in Kerala. I have served Indian football to the best of my abilities and I have no regrets,"" he added. [X], who led the Indian team from 2000 to 2003, used to form a formidable pair with fellow striker Bhaichung Bhutia.

At the club level, he had memorable stints with Mohun Bagan, Kerala Police, the now-defunct FC Cochin and JCT Mills Phagwara. He is credited to have scored one of the fastest international goals, managing to find the back of the net in just 12 seconds in a match against Bhutan in the 1999 SAF Games. He had scored four goals to emerge as the top scorer in the Afro-Asian Games held in India in 2003. It was his last appearance for the country as he retired after the tournament.

Q. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(i) There is a maximum of 3 persons who can be awarded Bharat Ratna Award in any particular year.

(ii) Padma Awards Committee is constituted by the President of India every year.

Solution: There is a maximum of 3 persons who can be awarded the Bharat Ratna Award in any particular year. In the year 2019, three persons namely; Pranab Mukherjee, Nanaji Deshmukh and Bhupen Hazarika received this prestigious civilian award.
QUESTION: 68

The All India Football Federation (AIFF) has recommended legendary former skipper [X] for Padma Shri, the country's fourth highest civilian award. The 51-year-old former India striker, who scored 40 goals in 79 matches for India since making his debut in early 90s, was bestowed the Arjuna award in 2003. He was also awarded the Indian 'Player of the Year' in 1993, 1997 and 1999.

I am happy that I have been recommended for the Padma Shri and I thank the AIFF for that. I will be happier if I get the award,"" [X] said from his home in Kerala. I have served Indian football to the best of my abilities and I have no regrets,"" he added. [X], who led the Indian team from 2000 to 2003, used to form a formidable pair with fellow striker Bhaichung Bhutia.

At the club level, he had memorable stints with Mohun Bagan, Kerala Police, the now-defunct FC Cochin and JCT Mills Phagwara. He is credited to have scored one of the fastest international goals, managing to find the back of the net in just 12 seconds in a match against Bhutan in the 1999 SAF Games. He had scored four goals to emerge as the top scorer in the Afro-Asian Games held in India in 2003. It was his last appearance for the country as he retired after the tournament.

Q. Which of the following countries are hosting the FIFA Womens World Cup 2023?

Solution: FIFA Women's World Cup 2023 will be hosted by Australia and New Zealand FIFA Women's World Cup 2023 will be hosted by Australia and New Zealand.
QUESTION: 69

The All India Football Federation (AIFF) has recommended legendary former skipper [X] for Padma Shri, the country's fourth highest civilian award. The 51-year-old former India striker, who scored 40 goals in 79 matches for India since making his debut in early 90s, was bestowed the Arjuna award in 2003. He was also awarded the Indian 'Player of the Year' in 1993, 1997 and 1999.

I am happy that I have been recommended for the Padma Shri and I thank the AIFF for that. I will be happier if I get the award,"" [X] said from his home in Kerala. I have served Indian football to the best of my abilities and I have no regrets,"" he added. [X], who led the Indian team from 2000 to 2003, used to form a formidable pair with fellow striker Bhaichung Bhutia.

At the club level, he had memorable stints with Mohun Bagan, Kerala Police, the now-defunct FC Cochin and JCT Mills Phagwara. He is credited to have scored one of the fastest international goals, managing to find the back of the net in just 12 seconds in a match against Bhutan in the 1999 SAF Games. He had scored four goals to emerge as the top scorer in the Afro-Asian Games held in India in 2003. It was his last appearance for the country as he retired after the tournament.

Q. Who among the following is the only sportsperson to win both the Arjuna and Dronacharya Awards for football?

Solution: Syed Nayeemuddin, known as Nayeem is an Indian football coach and former player. He played for and was captain of the Indian national team and has coached Mahindra United, Brothers Union, India and Bangladesh. He is the only sports-person to win both the Arjuna and Dronacharya Awards for football.
QUESTION: 70

Indemnity and Guarantee are a type of contingent contracts, which are governed by Contract Law. Simply put, indemnity implies protection against loss, in terms of money to be paid for loss. Indemnity is when one party promises to compensate the loss occurred to the other party, due to the act of the promisor or any other party. On the other hand, the guarantee is when a person assures the other party that he/she will perform the promise or fulfill the obligation of the third party in case he/she defaults. When it is about securing one’s interest while entering into the contract, people mostly go for a contract of indemnity or guarantee. At first instance, these two will appear same, but there are some differences between them. Indemnity contract is a form of contingent contract, whereby one party promises to the other party that he will compensate the loss or damages occurred to him by the conduct of the first party or any other person, it is known as the contract of indemnity. In indemnity, there are two parties, indemnifier and indemnified. The purpose of indemnity contract is to compensate for the loss. A contract in which a party promises to another party that he will perform the contract or compensate the loss, in case of the default of a person, it is the contract of guarantee. In the contract of guarantee, there are three parties i.e. debtor, creditor, and surety. The purpose of contract of guarantee is to give assurance to the promise.

In Punjab National Bank v Vikram Cotton Mills case, it was held that under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of other person. And in Gajanan Moreshwar v Moreshwar Madan it was held that every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency. In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.

Q. Which of the following statements is relevant in relation to the above given passage?

Solution: The purpose of indemnity contract is to compensate for the loss. Whereas the purpose of contract of guarantee is to give assurance to the promise. Option (B) is incorrect, as there are three parties in the guarantee contract and not for indemnity. In the case of guarantee, the primary liability lies with the principal debtor and the surety has the secondary liability.
QUESTION: 71

Indemnity and Guarantee are a type of contingent contracts, which are governed by Contract Law. Simply put, indemnity implies protection against loss, in terms of money to be paid for loss. Indemnity is when one party promises to compensate the loss occurred to the other party, due to the act of the promisor or any other party. On the other hand, the guarantee is when a person assures the other party that he/she will perform the promise or fulfill the obligation of the third party in case he/she defaults. When it is about securing one’s interest while entering into the contract, people mostly go for a contract of indemnity or guarantee. At first instance, these two will appear same, but there are some differences between them. Indemnity contract is a form of contingent contract, whereby one party promises to the other party that he will compensate the loss or damages occurred to him by the conduct of the first party or any other person, it is known as the contract of indemnity. In indemnity, there are two parties, indemnifier and indemnified. The purpose of indemnity contract is to compensate for the loss. A contract in which a party promises to another party that he will perform the contract or compensate the loss, in case of the default of a person, it is the contract of guarantee. In the contract of guarantee, there are three parties i.e. debtor, creditor, and surety. The purpose of contract of guarantee is to give assurance to the promise.

In Punjab National Bank v Vikram Cotton Mills case, it was held that under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of other person. And in Gajanan Moreshwar v Moreshwar Madan it was held that every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency. In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.

Q. Mr. Harry takes a loan from the bank for which Mr. Joesph has given the guarantee that if Harry defaults in the payment of the said amount, he will discharge the liability. Here who plays the role of surety, principal debtor and the creditor?

Solution: In the contract of guarantee, a party(Surety) promises to another party(Creditor) that he will perform the contract or compensate the loss, in case of the default of a person(principal debtor).
QUESTION: 72

Indemnity and Guarantee are a type of contingent contracts, which are governed by Contract Law. Simply put, indemnity implies protection against loss, in terms of money to be paid for loss. Indemnity is when one party promises to compensate the loss occurred to the other party, due to the act of the promisor or any other party. On the other hand, the guarantee is when a person assures the other party that he/she will perform the promise or fulfill the obligation of the third party in case he/she defaults. When it is about securing one’s interest while entering into the contract, people mostly go for a contract of indemnity or guarantee. At first instance, these two will appear same, but there are some differences between them. Indemnity contract is a form of contingent contract, whereby one party promises to the other party that he will compensate the loss or damages occurred to him by the conduct of the first party or any other person, it is known as the contract of indemnity. In indemnity, there are two parties, indemnifier and indemnified. The purpose of indemnity contract is to compensate for the loss. A contract in which a party promises to another party that he will perform the contract or compensate the loss, in case of the default of a person, it is the contract of guarantee. In the contract of guarantee, there are three parties i.e. debtor, creditor, and surety. The purpose of contract of guarantee is to give assurance to the promise.

In Punjab National Bank v Vikram Cotton Mills case, it was held that under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of other person. And in Gajanan Moreshwar v Moreshwar Madan it was held that every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency. In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.

Q. Chandu is liable to Bunty for Rs. 26,000, on default of Ajit. This is an example of

Solution: A contract in which a party promises to another party that he will perform the contract or compensate the loss, in case of the default of a person, it is the contract of guarantee.
QUESTION: 73

Indemnity and Guarantee are a type of contingent contracts, which are governed by Contract Law. Simply put, indemnity implies protection against loss, in terms of money to be paid for loss. Indemnity is when one party promises to compensate the loss occurred to the other party, due to the act of the promisor or any other party. On the other hand, the guarantee is when a person assures the other party that he/she will perform the promise or fulfill the obligation of the third party in case he/she defaults. When it is about securing one’s interest while entering into the contract, people mostly go for a contract of indemnity or guarantee. At first instance, these two will appear same, but there are some differences between them. Indemnity contract is a form of contingent contract, whereby one party promises to the other party that he will compensate the loss or damages occurred to him by the conduct of the first party or any other person, it is known as the contract of indemnity. In indemnity, there are two parties, indemnifier and indemnified. The purpose of indemnity contract is to compensate for the loss. A contract in which a party promises to another party that he will perform the contract or compensate the loss, in case of the default of a person, it is the contract of guarantee. In the contract of guarantee, there are three parties i.e. debtor, creditor, and surety. The purpose of contract of guarantee is to give assurance to the promise.

In Punjab National Bank v Vikram Cotton Mills case, it was held that under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of other person. And in Gajanan Moreshwar v Moreshwar Madan it was held that every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency. In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.

Q. A contract in which one party promises to another that he will compensate him for any loss suffered by him by the act of the promisor or the third party is called

Solution: Indemnity contract is a form of contingent contract, whereby one party promises to the other party that he will compensate the loss or damages occurred to him by the conduct of the first party or any other person, it is known as the contract of indemnity.
QUESTION: 74

Indemnity and Guarantee are a type of contingent contracts, which are governed by Contract Law. Simply put, indemnity implies protection against loss, in terms of money to be paid for loss. Indemnity is when one party promises to compensate the loss occurred to the other party, due to the act of the promisor or any other party. On the other hand, the guarantee is when a person assures the other party that he/she will perform the promise or fulfill the obligation of the third party in case he/she defaults. When it is about securing one’s interest while entering into the contract, people mostly go for a contract of indemnity or guarantee. At first instance, these two will appear same, but there are some differences between them. Indemnity contract is a form of contingent contract, whereby one party promises to the other party that he will compensate the loss or damages occurred to him by the conduct of the first party or any other person, it is known as the contract of indemnity. In indemnity, there are two parties, indemnifier and indemnified. The purpose of indemnity contract is to compensate for the loss. A contract in which a party promises to another party that he will perform the contract or compensate the loss, in case of the default of a person, it is the contract of guarantee. In the contract of guarantee, there are three parties i.e. debtor, creditor, and surety. The purpose of contract of guarantee is to give assurance to the promise.

In Punjab National Bank v Vikram Cotton Mills case, it was held that under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of other person. And in Gajanan Moreshwar v Moreshwar Madan it was held that every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency. In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.

Q. Joe is a shareholder of Alpha Ltd. who lost his share certificate. Joe applies for a duplicate one. The company agrees, but on the condition that Joe compensates for the loss or damage to the company if a third person brings the original certificate. The contract for the contingent compensation between Joe and Alpha Ltd. is

Solution: This is an example of an indemnity contract.
QUESTION: 75

Circumstantial evidence is unrelated facts that, when considered together, can be used to infer a conclusion about something unknown. Information and testimony presented by a party in a civil or criminal action that permit conclusions that indirectly establish the existence or nonexistence of a fact or event that the party seeks to prove. Circumstantial evidence is not considered to be proof that something happened, but it is often useful as a guide for further investigation.

Circumstantial evidence is used in criminal courts to establish guilt or innocence through reasoning. They also play an important role in civil courts to establish or deny liability. Circumstantial evidence is also known as indirect evidence. Circumstantial evidence is usually a theory, supported by a significant quantity of corroborating evidence. The distinction between direct and circumstantial evidence is important because, with the obvious exceptions that nearly all criminals are careful to not generate direct evidence and try to avoid demonstrating criminal intent. Therefore, to prove the mens rea levels of ""purposely"" or ""knowingly,"" the prosecution must usually resort to circumstantial evidence.

Trimukh Maroti Kirkan v. State of Maharashtra, where the principle was held that, “in a case based on circumstantial evidence is that the circumstances from which an inference of guilt is sought to be drawn must be cogently and firmly established; that those circumstances should be of a definite tendency unerringly pointing towards the guilt of the accused; that the circumstances taken cumulatively should form a chain so complete that there is no escape from the conclusion that within all human probability the crime was committed by the Accused and they should be incapable of explanation on any hypothesis other than that of the guilt of the Accused and inconsistent with their innocence.”

Q. If someone was charged with theft of money and was then seen in a shopping spree purchasing expensive items, the shopping spree might be regarded as circumstantial evidence of the individual's guilt. True or false?

Solution:
QUESTION: 76

Circumstantial evidence is unrelated facts that, when considered together, can be used to infer a conclusion about something unknown. Information and testimony presented by a party in a civil or criminal action that permit conclusions that indirectly establish the existence or nonexistence of a fact or event that the party seeks to prove. Circumstantial evidence is not considered to be proof that something happened, but it is often useful as a guide for further investigation.

Circumstantial evidence is used in criminal courts to establish guilt or innocence through reasoning. They also play an important role in civil courts to establish or deny liability. Circumstantial evidence is also known as indirect evidence. Circumstantial evidence is usually a theory, supported by a significant quantity of corroborating evidence. The distinction between direct and circumstantial evidence is important because, with the obvious exceptions that nearly all criminals are careful to not generate direct evidence and try to avoid demonstrating criminal intent. Therefore, to prove the mens rea levels of ""purposely"" or ""knowingly,"" the prosecution must usually resort to circumstantial evidence.

Trimukh Maroti Kirkan v. State of Maharashtra, where the principle was held that, “in a case based on circumstantial evidence is that the circumstances from which an inference of guilt is sought to be drawn must be cogently and firmly established; that those circumstances should be of a definite tendency unerringly pointing towards the guilt of the accused; that the circumstances taken cumulatively should form a chain so complete that there is no escape from the conclusion that within all human probability the crime was committed by the Accused and they should be incapable of explanation on any hypothesis other than that of the guilt of the Accused and inconsistent with their innocence.”

Q. A witness arrives at a crime scene seconds after hearing a gunshot to find someone standing over a corpse and holding a smoking pistol. Can this be termed as circumstantial or direct evidence?

Solution: The evidence cannot be direct as the witness has not seen the person firing the gun. It is circumstantial evidence.
QUESTION: 77

Circumstantial evidence is unrelated facts that, when considered together, can be used to infer a conclusion about something unknown. Information and testimony presented by a party in a civil or criminal action that permit conclusions that indirectly establish the existence or nonexistence of a fact or event that the party seeks to prove. Circumstantial evidence is not considered to be proof that something happened, but it is often useful as a guide for further investigation.

Circumstantial evidence is used in criminal courts to establish guilt or innocence through reasoning. They also play an important role in civil courts to establish or deny liability. Circumstantial evidence is also known as indirect evidence. Circumstantial evidence is usually a theory, supported by a significant quantity of corroborating evidence. The distinction between direct and circumstantial evidence is important because, with the obvious exceptions that nearly all criminals are careful to not generate direct evidence and try to avoid demonstrating criminal intent. Therefore, to prove the mens rea levels of ""purposely"" or ""knowingly,"" the prosecution must usually resort to circumstantial evidence.

Trimukh Maroti Kirkan v. State of Maharashtra, where the principle was held that, “in a case based on circumstantial evidence is that the circumstances from which an inference of guilt is sought to be drawn must be cogently and firmly established; that those circumstances should be of a definite tendency unerringly pointing towards the guilt of the accused; that the circumstances taken cumulatively should form a chain so complete that there is no escape from the conclusion that within all human probability the crime was committed by the Accused and they should be incapable of explanation on any hypothesis other than that of the guilt of the Accused and inconsistent with their innocence.”

It is an established principle in law that if police retrieved stolen goods from the house of a suspect, although it establishes that the suspect is in possession of the stolen goods, it does not necessarily establish guilt or the fact that he must have stolen the goods.

Q. Recovery of goods from the house of a suspect is a direct or circumstantial evidence?

Solution: Recovery of goods in the house of a suspect is circumstantial evidence as the goods might be placed there by someone else, thus not establishing complete guilt but forming a chain of events. This would shift the burden of proof on the suspect to establish his innocence.
QUESTION: 78

Circumstantial evidence is unrelated facts that, when considered together, can be used to infer a conclusion about something unknown. Information and testimony presented by a party in a civil or criminal action that permit conclusions that indirectly establish the existence or nonexistence of a fact or event that the party seeks to prove. Circumstantial evidence is not considered to be proof that something happened, but it is often useful as a guide for further investigation.

Circumstantial evidence is used in criminal courts to establish guilt or innocence through reasoning. They also play an important role in civil courts to establish or deny liability. Circumstantial evidence is also known as indirect evidence. Circumstantial evidence is usually a theory, supported by a significant quantity of corroborating evidence. The distinction between direct and circumstantial evidence is important because, with the obvious exceptions that nearly all criminals are careful to not generate direct evidence and try to avoid demonstrating criminal intent. Therefore, to prove the mens rea levels of ""purposely"" or ""knowingly,"" the prosecution must usually resort to circumstantial evidence.

Trimukh Maroti Kirkan v. State of Maharashtra, where the principle was held that, “in a case based on circumstantial evidence is that the circumstances from which an inference of guilt is sought to be drawn must be cogently and firmly established; that those circumstances should be of a definite tendency unerringly pointing towards the guilt of the accused; that the circumstances taken cumulatively should form a chain so complete that there is no escape from the conclusion that within all human probability the crime was committed by the Accused and they should be incapable of explanation on any hypothesis other than that of the guilt of the Accused and inconsistent with their innocence.”

Q. A saw B shoot C in a park, subsequently C died. Since A saw the murder being committed, would his testimony amount to direct evidence or circumstantial evidence?

Solution: Since A is an eye-witness to the murder, it would be direct evidence.
QUESTION: 79

Circumstantial evidence is unrelated facts that, when considered together, can be used to infer a conclusion about something unknown. Information and testimony presented by a party in a civil or criminal action that permit conclusions that indirectly establish the existence or nonexistence of a fact or event that the party seeks to prove. Circumstantial evidence is not considered to be proof that something happened, but it is often useful as a guide for further investigation. Circumstantial evidence is used in criminal courts to establish guilt or innocence through reasoning. They also play an important role in civil courts to establish or deny liability.

Circumstantial evidence is also known as indirect evidence. Circumstantial evidence is usually a theory, supported by a significant quantity of corroborating evidence. The distinction between direct and circumstantial evidence is important because, with the obvious exceptions that nearly all criminals are careful to not generate direct evidence and try to avoid demonstrating criminal intent. Therefore, to prove the mens rea levels of ""purposely"" or ""knowingly,"" the prosecution must usually resort to circumstantial evidence.

Trimukh Maroti Kirkan v. State of Maharashtra, where the principle was held that, “in a case based on circumstantial evidence is that the circumstances from which an inference of guilt is sought to be drawn must be cogently and firmly established; that those circumstances should be of a definite tendency unerringly pointing towards the guilt of the accused; that the circumstances taken cumulatively should form a chain so complete that there is no escape from the conclusion that within all human probability the crime was committed by the Accused and they should be incapable of explanation on any hypothesis other than that of the guilt of the Accused and inconsistent with their innocence.”

Q. Body of B was found in the house of A. The onus is upon A to establish that even though the body of the deceased was recovered from his house, his involvement in the crime is negligible. The inmates of the house are also required to provide an explanation. If the defendant fails to provide a viable explanation and fails to establish his innocence, this would form a chain of circumstantial evidence establishing the guilt of the accused. Is this true or false?

Solution: Both (A) and (C) can be directly inferred from the given passage.
QUESTION: 80

It was submitted to the Supreme Court that there is a need to link the social media profiles of users with their Aadhar numbers, and if required, have platforms like Facebook and WhatsApp share this number (which acts like a unique identity) with law enforcement agencies to help detect crimes. This is needed to check fake news, defamatory articles, anti-national content, etc.

To briefly characterize social media, it refers to any interactive technology mediated by a computer, which enables the creation and dissemination of ideas, information, opinions, career interests, and other kinds of expression through virtual communities and networks. The Supreme Court, declared the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution in the Puttaswamy judgment. The court noted that the right to bodily integrity, autonomy over personal decisions, and protection of personal information – all fall within the right to privacy. At the same time, the court also noted that this right was not absolute – it permitted exceptions, should there be a legitimate aim of the state, and the invasion of privacy was proportional to the object sought to be achieved.

When the constitutional validity of the Aadhar had to be ascertained the majority opinion held that the Act was legal and intra vires the Constitution in all but some respects. It was clarified that only those benefits and services that were in the nature of a ‘subsidy’ or a ‘government welfare scheme’ could require linking of Aadhar.

The curbing of fake news, defamatory content, etc. does come across as a legitimate goal of the State. However, the proportionality of this measure cannot easily be understood or justified, as the linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would necessarily involve a highly intrusive presence of the state in our daily lives, and make it difficult for people to express their opinions without concerns of incarceration. A notable point is the precarious situation that such a linking would create for the right to freedom of speech and expression, guaranteed under Article 19(1)Option A of the Constitution, making it illusory and cosmetic.

This move would bolster the already-rampant use of the unconstitutional section 66A of the Information Technology Act. Linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would increase the incidence of such use of section 66A as tracing content and information back to individuals would become easier and more persons could be charged with this section. It is essential that social media be a ‘free’ platform, where individuals can speak their minds without the fear.

Q. On the basis of the passage identify whether the author is supporting the linkage of social media account with Aadhar or not?

Solution: The correct answer is Option C- The author has consistently tried to look at the conjecture of linkage of social media accounts with Aadhar number, from the lens of Puttaswamy judgment, Article 19, and Article 21 throughout the passage, and found that it violates both of them. The author also tries to paint a probable picture of the wrong use of the law if it gets enacted. Option A states completely opposite to what the author is trying to put forward and is only limited to the first test which was laid out in the Puttaswamy judgment. Option B simply talks about the effect such a law will cause of which the author has not dealt with in depth.
QUESTION: 81

It was submitted to the Supreme Court that there is a need to link the social media profiles of users with their Aadhar numbers, and if required, have platforms like Facebook and WhatsApp share this number (which acts like a unique identity) with law enforcement agencies to help detect crimes. This is needed to check fake news, defamatory articles, anti-national content, etc.

To briefly characterize social media, it refers to any interactive technology mediated by a computer, which enables the creation and dissemination of ideas, information, opinions, career interests, and other kinds of expression through virtual communities and networks. The Supreme Court, declared the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution in the Puttaswamy judgment. The court noted that the right to bodily integrity, autonomy over personal decisions, and protection of personal information – all fall within the right to privacy. At the same time, the court also noted that this right was not absolute – it permitted exceptions, should there be a legitimate aim of the state, and the invasion of privacy was proportional to the object sought to be achieved.

When the constitutional validity of the Aadhar had to be ascertained the majority opinion held that the Act was legal and intra vires the Constitution in all but some respects. It was clarified that only those benefits and services that were in the nature of a ‘subsidy’ or a ‘government welfare scheme’ could require linking of Aadhar.

The curbing of fake news, defamatory content, etc. does come across as a legitimate goal of the State. However, the proportionality of this measure cannot easily be understood or justified, as the linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would necessarily involve a highly intrusive presence of the state in our daily lives, and make it difficult for people to express their opinions without concerns of incarceration. A notable point is the precarious situation that such a linking would create for the right to freedom of speech and expression, guaranteed under Article 19(1)Option A of the Constitution, making it illusory and cosmetic.

This move would bolster the already-rampant use of the unconstitutional section 66A of the Information Technology Act. Linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would increase the incidence of such use of section 66A as tracing content and information back to individuals would become easier and more persons could be charged with this section. It is essential that social media be a ‘free’ platform, where individuals can speak their minds without the fear.

Q. Which of the following fundamental rights guaranteed by the constitution is violated by the State if such a law is passed, according to the author?

Solution: The correct answer Option B - The linking would make the Fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression, guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) illusory and cosmetic according to the author.
QUESTION: 82

It was submitted to the Supreme Court that there is a need to link the social media profiles of users with their Aadhar numbers, and if required, have platforms like Facebook and WhatsApp share this number (which acts like a unique identity) with law enforcement agencies to help detect crimes. This is needed to check fake news, defamatory articles, anti-national content, etc.

To briefly characterize social media, it refers to any interactive technology mediated by a computer, which enables the creation and dissemination of ideas, information, opinions, career interests, and other kinds of expression through virtual communities and networks. The Supreme Court, declared the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution in the Puttaswamy judgment. The court noted that the right to bodily integrity, autonomy over personal decisions, and protection of personal information – all fall within the right to privacy. At the same time, the court also noted that this right was not absolute – it permitted exceptions, should there be a legitimate aim of the state, and the invasion of privacy was proportional to the object sought to be achieved.

When the constitutional validity of the Aadhar had to be ascertained the majority opinion held that the Act was legal and intra vires the Constitution in all but some respects. It was clarified that only those benefits and services that were in the nature of a ‘subsidy’ or a ‘government welfare scheme’ could require linking of Aadhar.

The curbing of fake news, defamatory content, etc. does come across as a legitimate goal of the State. However, the proportionality of this measure cannot easily be understood or justified, as the linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would necessarily involve a highly intrusive presence of the state in our daily lives, and make it difficult for people to express their opinions without concerns of incarceration. A notable point is the precarious situation that such a linking would create for the right to freedom of speech and expression, guaranteed under Article 19(1)Option A of the Constitution, making it illusory and cosmetic.

This move would bolster the already-rampant use of the unconstitutional section 66A of the Information Technology Act. Linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would increase the incidence of such use of section 66A as tracing content and information back to individuals would become easier and more persons could be charged with this section. It is essential that social media be a ‘free’ platform, where individuals can speak their minds without the fear.

There is an android application named “Ketomato”, which provides a platform to search for restaurants delivering food for individuals following Keto-diet specifically and also has a virtual chatroom provided for people to have conversation related to heathy food and lifestyle. The application also has a section where people can review the services of restaurants.

Q. Would this platform come under the ambit of Social Media according to the passage?

Solution: The correct answer is Option C- The passage gives an extremely wide definition for interpreting a space to be a social media or not. It would include any interactive technology mediated by a computer, which enables the creation and dissemination of ideas, information, opinions, career interests, and other kinds of expression through virtual communities and networks. It does not matter what is the strength of the community on a particular space; hence, Option A cannot be the correct answer. Option B is putting forward an extremely reductionist perspective with respect to social media and limiting or categorizing it on the basis of the device of operation only. Option D is not true as the attempt to spread fake news, defamatory articles, anti-national content, etc. could take place on any platform and the factual scenario has not delineated anything which confirms or contradicts this, therefore the assumption cannot be made.
QUESTION: 83

It was submitted to the Supreme Court that there is a need to link the social media profiles of users with their Aadhar numbers, and if required, have platforms like Facebook and WhatsApp share this number (which acts like a unique identity) with law enforcement agencies to help detect crimes. This is needed to check fake news, defamatory articles, anti-national content, etc.

To briefly characterize social media, it refers to any interactive technology mediated by a computer, which enables the creation and dissemination of ideas, information, opinions, career interests, and other kinds of expression through virtual communities and networks. The Supreme Court, declared the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution in the Puttaswamy judgment. The court noted that the right to bodily integrity, autonomy over personal decisions, and protection of personal information – all fall within the right to privacy. At the same time, the court also noted that this right was not absolute – it permitted exceptions, should there be a legitimate aim of the state, and the invasion of privacy was proportional to the object sought to be achieved.

When the constitutional validity of the Aadhar had to be ascertained the majority opinion held that the Act was legal and intra vires the Constitution in all but some respects. It was clarified that only those benefits and services that were in the nature of a ‘subsidy’ or a ‘government welfare scheme’ could require linking of Aadhar.

The curbing of fake news, defamatory content, etc. does come across as a legitimate goal of the State. However, the proportionality of this measure cannot easily be understood or justified, as the linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would necessarily involve a highly intrusive presence of the state in our daily lives, and make it difficult for people to express their opinions without concerns of incarceration. A notable point is the precarious situation that such a linking would create for the right to freedom of speech and expression, guaranteed under Article 19(1)Option A of the Constitution, making it illusory and cosmetic.

This move would bolster the already-rampant use of the unconstitutional section 66A of the Information Technology Act. Linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would increase the incidence of such use of section 66A as tracing content and information back to individuals would become easier and more persons could be charged with this section. It is essential that social media be a ‘free’ platform, where individuals can speak their minds without the fear.

Q. According to the passage, assess whether or not the linkage of social media accounts with Aadhar will be permitted?

Solution: The correct answer is Option D- Social media does not come under the ambit of “benefits” or “government welfare scheme”. The rule has been laid down in the judgment which dealt with the constitutionality of Aadhar, according to the passage. Hence linkage of Aadhar cannot be made mandatory.
QUESTION: 84

It was submitted to the Supreme Court that there is a need to link the social media profiles of users with their Aadhar numbers, and if required, have platforms like Facebook and WhatsApp share this number (which acts like a unique identity) with law enforcement agencies to help detect crimes. This is needed to check fake news, defamatory articles, anti-national content, etc.

To briefly characterize social media, it refers to any interactive technology mediated by a computer, which enables the creation and dissemination of ideas, information, opinions, career interests, and other kinds of expression through virtual communities and networks. The Supreme Court, declared the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution in the Puttaswamy judgment. The court noted that the right to bodily integrity, autonomy over personal decisions, and protection of personal information – all fall within the right to privacy. At the same time, the court also noted that this right was not absolute – it permitted exceptions, should there be a legitimate aim of the state, and the invasion of privacy was proportional to the object sought to be achieved.

When the constitutional validity of the Aadhar had to be ascertained the majority opinion held that the Act was legal and intra vires the Constitution in all but some respects. It was clarified that only those benefits and services that were in the nature of a ‘subsidy’ or a ‘government welfare scheme’ could require linking of Aadhar.

The curbing of fake news, defamatory content, etc. does come across as a legitimate goal of the State. However, the proportionality of this measure cannot easily be understood or justified, as the linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would necessarily involve a highly intrusive presence of the state in our daily lives, and make it difficult for people to express their opinions without concerns of incarceration. A notable point is the precarious situation that such a linking would create for the right to freedom of speech and expression, guaranteed under Article 19(1)Option A of the Constitution, making it illusory and cosmetic.

This move would bolster the already-rampant use of the unconstitutional section 66A of the Information Technology Act. Linking of social media accounts to Aadhar would increase the incidence of such use of section 66A as tracing content and information back to individuals would become easier and more persons could be charged with this section. It is essential that social media be a ‘free’ platform, where individuals can speak their minds without the fear.

Legislation is passed by the government the mandate of which prohibits smoking at public spaces. The object of the legislation is to save people from the injurious effect of smoking and to regulate the circulation of tobacco products.

Q. Would this be termed as legitimate on the basis of the given passage?

Solution: The correct answer is Option A- The passage mentions the idea on which the court upheld the constitutionality of Aadhar. The two pronged test includes identification of object of the legislation and the proportional measure being taken by the state. As per the factual scenario provided, the state is not proposing a complete abolition or smoking but is only restricting individuals from smoking at public spaces, which seems like a proportional measure with respect to the object of the legislation.
QUESTION: 85

Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code deals with Doctrine of Res Sub-Judice. ‘Res’ means matter or litigation and Sub-Judice means pending (under judgment). Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res Sub-Judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication.

Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits. Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code defines “ Stay of Suit: as- No Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other Court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any Court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court. In simple words Section 10 declares that no Court should proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties and the Court before which the previously instituted suit is pending is competent to grant the relief sought.

The Rule applies to trial of a suit and not the institution thereof. It also does not preclude a Court from passing interim orders, such as, grant of injunction or stay, appointment of receiver. It, however, applies to appeals and revisions. The object of the rule contained in Section 10 is to prevent courts of concurrent jurisdiction from simultaneously entertaining and adjudicating upon two parallel litigations in respect of the same cause of action, the same subject-matter and the same relief. The provisions of Section 10 of the code do not strictly apply, a civil court has inherent power under Section 151 of the code to stay a suit to achieve the ends of justice. Similarly, a Court has inherent power to consolidate different suits between the same parties in which the matter in issue is substantially the same. Section 10 also provides that there is no bar on the power of an Indian Court to try a subsequently instituted suit if the previously instituted suit is pending in a foreign Court.

Q. In relation to the above passage which of the following statements is correct in the context of the doctrine of Res Sub-Judice?

Solution: Only the statement C is correct.
QUESTION: 86

Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code deals with Doctrine of Res Sub-Judice. ‘Res’ means matter or litigation and Sub-Judice means pending (under judgment). Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res Sub-Judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication.

Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits. Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code defines “ Stay of Suit: as- No Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other Court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any Court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court. In simple words Section 10 declares that no Court should proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties and the Court before which the previously instituted suit is pending is competent to grant the relief sought.

The Rule applies to trial of a suit and not the institution thereof. It also does not preclude a Court from passing interim orders, such as, grant of injunction or stay, appointment of receiver. It, however, applies to appeals and revisions. The object of the rule contained in Section 10 is to prevent courts of concurrent jurisdiction from simultaneously entertaining and adjudicating upon two parallel litigations in respect of the same cause of action, the same subject-matter and the same relief. The provisions of Section 10 of the code do not strictly apply, a civil court has inherent power under Section 151 of the code to stay a suit to achieve the ends of justice. Similarly, a Court has inherent power to consolidate different suits between the same parties in which the matter in issue is substantially the same. Section 10 also provides that there is no bar on the power of an Indian Court to try a subsequently instituted suit if the previously instituted suit is pending in a foreign Court.

Q. ‘Adieshwar’ an agent of ‘Sandeep’ at Jaipur agreed to sell Sandeep’s goods in Bangalore. ‘Adieshwar’ the agent files suit for balance of accounts in Bangalore. ‘Sandeep’ sues the agent ‘Adieshwar’ for accounts and his negligence in Jaipur; while case is pending in Bangalore. In this case, stay of suit is applicable to the case in which court?

Solution: As Jaipur Court is precluded from conducting trial and stay of suit is applicable in the Jaipur Court according to doctrine of Res Sub-Judice.
QUESTION: 87

Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code deals with Doctrine of Res Sub-Judice. ‘Res’ means matter or litigation and Sub-Judice means pending (under judgment). Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res Sub-Judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication.

Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits. Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code defines “ Stay of Suit: as- No Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other Court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any Court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court. In simple words Section 10 declares that no Court should proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties and the Court before which the previously instituted suit is pending is competent to grant the relief sought.

The Rule applies to trial of a suit and not the institution thereof. It also does not preclude a Court from passing interim orders, such as, grant of injunction or stay, appointment of receiver. It, however, applies to appeals and revisions. The object of the rule contained in Section 10 is to prevent courts of concurrent jurisdiction from simultaneously entertaining and adjudicating upon two parallel litigations in respect of the same cause of action, the same subject-matter and the same relief. The provisions of Section 10 of the code do not strictly apply, a civil court has inherent power under Section 151 of the code to stay a suit to achieve the ends of justice. Similarly, a Court has inherent power to consolidate different suits between the same parties in which the matter in issue is substantially the same. Section 10 also provides that there is no bar on the power of an Indian Court to try a subsequently instituted suit if the previously instituted suit is pending in a foreign Court.

Q. Which of the following statements is false in relation to the above passage in order to apply doctrine of Res Sub-Judice?

Solution: Doctrine of Res Sub-Judice applies when the matter in issue in the subsequent suit must be directly and substantially in issue in the previous suit.
QUESTION: 88

Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code deals with Doctrine of Res Sub-Judice. ‘Res’ means matter or litigation and Sub-Judice means pending (under judgment). Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res Sub-Judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication.

Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits. Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code defines “ Stay of Suit: as- No Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other Court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any Court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court. In simple words Section 10 declares that no Court should proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties and the Court before which the previously instituted suit is pending is competent to grant the relief sought.

The Rule applies to trial of a suit and not the institution thereof. It also does not preclude a Court from passing interim orders, such as, grant of injunction or stay, appointment of receiver. It, however, applies to appeals and revisions. The object of the rule contained in Section 10 is to prevent courts of concurrent jurisdiction from simultaneously entertaining and adjudicating upon two parallel litigations in respect of the same cause of action, the same subject-matter and the same relief. The provisions of Section 10 of the code do not strictly apply, a civil court has inherent power under Section 151 of the code to stay a suit to achieve the ends of justice. Similarly, a Court has inherent power to consolidate different suits between the same parties in which the matter in issue is substantially the same. Section 10 also provides that there is no bar on the power of an Indian Court to try a subsequently instituted suit if the previously instituted suit is pending in a foreign Court.

Q. ‘Druva’ and ‘Bhanu’ entered into contract for the sale of machine. ‘Druva’ first filed a suit against ‘Bhanu’ at court in Bombay, demanding recovery of the entire amount paid. Subsequently, ‘Bhanu’ filed a suit against ‘Druva’ at court in Delhi demanding Rs.18, 000 as outstanding balance. In Druva’s suit, ‘Bhanu’ took the defence that since both the suits are on similar issues, Druva’s suit should be stayed. Can Druva succeed in his defence plea?

Solution: Since Druva’s suit is the first suit and the subsequent suit had issues similar to the first suit, it is the subsequent suit that can be stayed.
QUESTION: 89

Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code deals with Doctrine of Res Sub-Judice. ‘Res’ means matter or litigation and Sub-Judice means pending (under judgment). Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res Sub-Judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication.

Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits. Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code defines “ Stay of Suit: as- No Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other Court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any Court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court. In simple words Section 10 declares that no Court should proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties and the Court before which the previously instituted suit is pending is competent to grant the relief sought.

The Rule applies to trial of a suit and not the institution thereof. It also does not preclude a Court from passing interim orders, such as, grant of injunction or stay, appointment of receiver. It, however, applies to appeals and revisions. The object of the rule contained in Section 10 is to prevent courts of concurrent jurisdiction from simultaneously entertaining and adjudicating upon two parallel litigations in respect of the same cause of action, the same subject-matter and the same relief. The provisions of Section 10 of the code do not strictly apply, a civil court has inherent power under Section 151 of the code to stay a suit to achieve the ends of justice. Similarly, a Court has inherent power to consolidate different suits between the same parties in which the matter in issue is substantially the same. Section 10 also provides that there is no bar on the power of an Indian Court to try a subsequently instituted suit if the previously instituted suit is pending in a foreign Court.

Q. In the absence of Res Sub-Judice what will be the situation in relation to the above passage. Opt the relevant statement given below?

Solution: As the policy of the law is to confine a plaintiff to one litigation thus obviating the possibility of two contradictory verdicts by one and the same court in respect of the same relief. Without Res Sub-Judice it will lead to two verdicts resulting in contradiction and complication.
QUESTION: 90

The golden rule that runs through the web of civilised criminal jurisprudence is that an accused is presumed to be innocent unless he is found guilty of the charged offence. As stated in V. D. Jhingan Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh AIR 1966 SC 1762, it is also the cardinal rule of our criminal jurisprudence that the burden in the web of proof of an offence would always lie upon the prosecution to prove all the facts constituting the ingredients beyond reasonable doubt.

But in Veeraswamy Case [(1991) 3 SCC 655] the Constitution Bench held that “a statute placing burden on the accused cannot be regarded as unreasonable, unjust or unfair. Nor it can be regarded as contrary to Art.21 of the Constitution as contended for the appellant. The principle is applied only in the absence of statutory provision to the contrary”. As observed in State of West Bengal v. Mir Mohammad Omar and Others, [2000 (8) SCC 382] that “the pristine rule that the burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused should not be taken as a fossilised doctrine as though it admits no process of intelligent reasoning. The Concept of “reverse burden” has been adopted in many statutes like Negotiable Instruments Act, Prevention of Corruption Act, Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act etc. In Indian Evidence Act, Section 113A (for S.306 IPC) and Section 113B (for 304B IPC) places a reverse burden on the accused.

For instance Section 113B in the Evidence Act which provides for raising a presumption as to dowry death in case of an unnatural death within seven years of marriage when it is shown that a woman was subjected to harassment for dowry soon before her death. Presumption under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act is a presumption of law. On proof of the essentials mentioned therein, it becomes obligatory on the court to raise a presumption that the accused caused the dowry death.

The presumption shall be raised only on proof of the following essentials (1) The question before the court must be whether the accused has committed the dowry death of a woman. (2) The woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives. (3) Such cruelty or harassment was for, or in connection with any demand for dowry. (4) Such cruelty or harassment was soon before her death.

Usually the prosecution has to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the accused can be charged with that certain crime. In the reverse burden of proof the question now arises whether the accused has to discharge his burden beyond reasonable doubt the answer to which lies in preponderance of probabilities where the accused does not have to go as far as proving it beyond reasonable doubt; it is lesser in degree.

Q. In case A is alleged to have caused dowry death of his wife B, 5 years after their marriage, the burden of proof lies on which party if the essentials for Section 113B have been met ?

Solution: Dowry death under 7 years, the reverse burden of proof lies with the accused under Section 113B of the Evidence Act if the essentials have been met.
QUESTION: 91

The golden rule that runs through the web of civilised criminal jurisprudence is that an accused is presumed to be innocent unless he is found guilty of the charged offence. As stated in V. D. Jhingan Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh AIR 1966 SC 1762, it is also the cardinal rule of our criminal jurisprudence that the burden in the web of proof of an offence would always lie upon the prosecution to prove all the facts constituting the ingredients beyond reasonable doubt.

But in Veeraswamy Case [(1991) 3 SCC 655] the Constitution Bench held that “a statute placing burden on the accused cannot be regarded as unreasonable, unjust or unfair. Nor it can be regarded as contrary to Art.21 of the Constitution as contended for the appellant. The principle is applied only in the absence of statutory provision to the contrary”. As observed in State of West Bengal v. Mir Mohammad Omar and Others, [2000 (8) SCC 382] that “the pristine rule that the burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused should not be taken as a fossilised doctrine as though it admits no process of intelligent reasoning. The Concept of “reverse burden” has been adopted in many statutes like Negotiable Instruments Act, Prevention of Corruption Act, Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act etc. In Indian Evidence Act, Section 113A (for S.306 IPC) and Section 113B (for 304B IPC) places a reverse burden on the accused.

For instance Section 113B in the Evidence Act which provides for raising a presumption as to dowry death in case of an unnatural death within seven years of marriage when it is shown that a woman was subjected to harassment for dowry soon before her death. Presumption under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act is a presumption of law. On proof of the essentials mentioned therein, it becomes obligatory on the court to raise a presumption that the accused caused the dowry death.

The presumption shall be raised only on proof of the following essentials (1) The question before the court must be whether the accused has committed the dowry death of a woman. (2) The woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives. (3) Such cruelty or harassment was for, or in connection with any demand for dowry. (4) Such cruelty or harassment was soon before her death.

Usually the prosecution has to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the accused can be charged with that certain crime. In the reverse burden of proof the question now arises whether the accused has to discharge his burden beyond reasonable doubt the answer to which lies in preponderance of probabilities where the accused does not have to go as far as proving it beyond reasonable doubt; it is lesser in degree.

Q. In the scenario that B is murdered and A is accused based on the prima facie evidence, the burden of proof lies on which party?

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

The golden rule that runs through the web of civilised criminal jurisprudence is that an accused is presumed to be innocent unless he is found guilty of the charged offence. As stated in V. D. Jhingan Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh AIR 1966 SC 1762, it is also the cardinal rule of our criminal jurisprudence that the burden in the web of proof of an offence would always lie upon the prosecution to prove all the facts constituting the ingredients beyond reasonable doubt.

But in Veeraswamy Case [(1991) 3 SCC 655] the Constitution Bench held that “a statute placing burden on the accused cannot be regarded as unreasonable, unjust or unfair. Nor it can be regarded as contrary to Art.21 of the Constitution as contended for the appellant. The principle is applied only in the absence of statutory provision to the contrary”. As observed in State of West Bengal v. Mir Mohammad Omar and Others, [2000 (8) SCC 382] that “the pristine rule that the burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused should not be taken as a fossilised doctrine as though it admits no process of intelligent reasoning. The Concept of “reverse burden” has been adopted in many statutes like Negotiable Instruments Act, Prevention of Corruption Act, Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act etc. In Indian Evidence Act, Section 113A (for S.306 IPC) and Section 113B (for 304B IPC) places a reverse burden on the accused.

For instance Section 113B in the Evidence Act which provides for raising a presumption as to dowry death in case of an unnatural death within seven years of marriage when it is shown that a woman was subjected to harassment for dowry soon before her death. Presumption under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act is a presumption of law. On proof of the essentials mentioned therein, it becomes obligatory on the court to raise a presumption that the accused caused the dowry death.

The presumption shall be raised only on proof of the following essentials (1) The question before the court must be whether the accused has committed the dowry death of a woman. (2) The woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives. (3) Such cruelty or harassment was for, or in connection with any demand for dowry. (4) Such cruelty or harassment was soon before her death.

Usually the prosecution has to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the accused can be charged with that certain crime. In the reverse burden of proof the question now arises whether the accused has to discharge his burden beyond reasonable doubt the answer to which lies in preponderance of probabilities where the accused does not have to go as far as proving it beyond reasonable doubt; it is lesser in degree.

Q. In the case that the police found narcotics in the possession of Ram Singh, which are illegal, based on information given in the passage, who do you infer has the burden of proof as per the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act?

Solution: The basis for suggesting the reverse burden of proof by the author is the existing provisions in the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act.
QUESTION: 93

The golden rule that runs through the web of civilised criminal jurisprudence is that an accused is presumed to be innocent unless he is found guilty of the charged offence. As stated in V. D. Jhingan Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh AIR 1966 SC 1762, it is also the cardinal rule of our criminal jurisprudence that the burden in the web of proof of an offence would always lie upon the prosecution to prove all the facts constituting the ingredients beyond reasonable doubt.

But in Veeraswamy Case [(1991) 3 SCC 655] the Constitution Bench held that “a statute placing burden on the accused cannot be regarded as unreasonable, unjust or unfair. Nor it can be regarded as contrary to Art.21 of the Constitution as contended for the appellant. The principle is applied only in the absence of statutory provision to the contrary”. As observed in State of West Bengal v. Mir Mohammad Omar and Others, [2000 (8) SCC 382] that “the pristine rule that the burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused should not be taken as a fossilised doctrine as though it admits no process of intelligent reasoning. The Concept of “reverse burden” has been adopted in many statutes like Negotiable Instruments Act, Prevention of Corruption Act, Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act etc. In Indian Evidence Act, Section 113A (for S.306 IPC) and Section 113B (for 304B IPC) places a reverse burden on the accused.

For instance Section 113B in the Evidence Act which provides for raising a presumption as to dowry death in case of an unnatural death within seven years of marriage when it is shown that a woman was subjected to harassment for dowry soon before her death. Presumption under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act is a presumption of law. On proof of the essentials mentioned therein, it becomes obligatory on the court to raise a presumption that the accused caused the dowry death.

The presumption shall be raised only on proof of the following essentials (1) The question before the court must be whether the accused has committed the dowry death of a woman. (2) The woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives. (3) Such cruelty or harassment was for, or in connection with any demand for dowry. (4) Such cruelty or harassment was soon before her death.

Usually the prosecution has to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the accused can be charged with that certain crime. In the reverse burden of proof the question now arises whether the accused has to discharge his burden beyond reasonable doubt the answer to which lies in preponderance of probabilities where the accused does not have to go as far as proving it beyond reasonable doubt; it is lesser in degree.

Q. The burden of proof is higher in intensity in which of the following situations?

Solution: The higher intensity burden of proof is when the prosecution needs to prove the crime beyond reasonable doubt.
QUESTION: 94

The golden rule that runs through the web of civilised criminal jurisprudence is that an accused is presumed to be innocent unless he is found guilty of the charged offence. As stated in V. D. Jhingan Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh AIR 1966 SC 1762, it is also the cardinal rule of our criminal jurisprudence that the burden in the web of proof of an offence would always lie upon the prosecution to prove all the facts constituting the ingredients beyond reasonable doubt.

But in Veeraswamy Case [(1991) 3 SCC 655] the Constitution Bench held that “a statute placing burden on the accused cannot be regarded as unreasonable, unjust or unfair. Nor it can be regarded as contrary to Art.21 of the Constitution as contended for the appellant. The principle is applied only in the absence of statutory provision to the contrary”. As observed in State of West Bengal v. Mir Mohammad Omar and Others, [2000 (8) SCC 382] that “the pristine rule that the burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove the guilt of the accused should not be taken as a fossilised doctrine as though it admits no process of intelligent reasoning. The Concept of “reverse burden” has been adopted in many statutes like Negotiable Instruments Act, Prevention of Corruption Act, Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act etc. In Indian Evidence Act, Section 113A (for S.306 IPC) and Section 113B (for 304B IPC) places a reverse burden on the accused.

For instance Section 113B in the Evidence Act which provides for raising a presumption as to dowry death in case of an unnatural death within seven years of marriage when it is shown that a woman was subjected to harassment for dowry soon before her death. Presumption under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act is a presumption of law. On proof of the essentials mentioned therein, it becomes obligatory on the court to raise a presumption that the accused caused the dowry death.

The presumption shall be raised only on proof of the following essentials (1) The question before the court must be whether the accused has committed the dowry death of a woman. (2) The woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives. (3) Such cruelty or harassment was for, or in connection with any demand for dowry. (4) Such cruelty or harassment was soon before her death.

Usually the prosecution has to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the accused can be charged with that certain crime. In the reverse burden of proof the question now arises whether the accused has to discharge his burden beyond reasonable doubt the answer to which lies in preponderance of probabilities where the accused does not have to go as far as proving it beyond reasonable doubt; it is lesser in degree.

Q. As per the paragraph, what is the reverse burden of proof?

Solution: Reverse burden of proof is when the burden of proof lies on the accused as can be inferred from the passage.
QUESTION: 95

The fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19(1) are not absolute. They are subject to restrictions placed in the subsequent clauses of Article19 according to the procedure established by law. No restrictions can be placed by mere executive or departmental instructions. However, these restrictions must be reasonable and not arbitrary. Each of these rights is liable to be controlled, curtailed and regulated to some extent by laws made by Parliament.

Restrictions may be enacted “in the interests of” public order of the general public. A restriction can be said to be in the interest of public order only if the connection between the restriction and the public order is direct and proximate. Hence a restriction to be constitutionally valid must satisfy the following two tests:

A legislation arbitrarily invading the right of a person cannot be regarded as reasonable. A restriction to be valid must have a direct and proximate nexus with the object which the legislation seeks to achieve and the restriction must not be in excess of that object i.e., a balance between the freedoms guaranteed under Art. 19(1)(a) to (g) and the social control permitted by clauses (2) to (6) of Art. 19. It is the substance of legislation and not its appearance or form which is to be taken into consideration while assessing its validity. This introduces the principle of ‘proportionality’. This means the court would consider whether the restriction imposed by legislation on the Fundamental Rights are disproportionate to the situation and are “not the least restrictive of the choices”.

Retrospectivity of a law does not make it automatically unreasonable. A statute imposing a restriction with retrospective effect is not prima facie unreasonable, but retrospectivity is an element to be taken into consideration in determining whether the restriction is reasonable or not.

A law may be reasonable, but the restriction imposed by it on the exercise of freedom may not be reasonable. A prohibition on the fundamental right to carry on occupation, trade or business is not regarded as reasonable if is it imposed not in the interests of the general public but keeping in view the susceptibilities and sentiments of a section of a community whose way of life, belief or thought is not the same as that of the claimant.

Q. There are 6 freedoms in total guaranteed by Art. 19 of the constitution and none of them are absolute. All the freedoms come with a restriction. What is the reason behind such restrictions given by our forefathers?

Solution:
QUESTION: 96

The fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19(1) are not absolute. They are subject to restrictions placed in the subsequent clauses of Article19 according to the procedure established by law. No restrictions can be placed by mere executive or departmental instructions. However, these restrictions must be reasonable and not arbitrary. Each of these rights is liable to be controlled, curtailed and regulated to some extent by laws made by Parliament.

Restrictions may be enacted “in the interests of” public order of the general public. A restriction can be said to be in the interest of public order only if the connection between the restriction and the public order is direct and proximate. Hence a restriction to be constitutionally valid must satisfy the following two tests:

A legislation arbitrarily invading the right of a person cannot be regarded as reasonable. A restriction to be valid must have a direct and proximate nexus with the object which the legislation seeks to achieve and the restriction must not be in excess of that object i.e., a balance between the freedoms guaranteed under Art. 19(1)(a) to (g) and the social control permitted by clauses (2) to (6) of Art. 19. It is the substance of legislation and not its appearance or form which is to be taken into consideration while assessing its validity. This introduces the principle of ‘proportionality’. This means the court would consider whether the restriction imposed by legislation on the Fundamental Rights are disproportionate to the situation and are “not the least restrictive of the choices”.

Retrospectivity of a law does not make it automatically unreasonable. A statute imposing a restriction with retrospective effect is not prima facie unreasonable, but retrospectivity is an element to be taken into consideration in determining whether the restriction is reasonable or not.

A law may be reasonable, but the restriction imposed by it on the exercise of freedom may not be reasonable. A prohibition on the fundamental right to carry on occupation, trade or business is not regarded as reasonable if is it imposed not in the interests of the general public but keeping in view the susceptibilities and sentiments of a section of a community whose way of life, belief or thought is not the same as that of the claimant.

Q. A case was filed by one Mr. Ranjit Kumar in the state of Maharashtra against a rule made by the state which says, no person will be allowed to drive any vehicle on road without wearing a helmet. Violating this rule was considered an offence and punitive measures were taken by the state. He filed a petition alleging that the imposed rule was unreasonable and curtailing his free movement in the state. Decide.

Solution:
QUESTION: 97

The fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19(1) are not absolute. They are subject to restrictions placed in the subsequent clauses of Article19 according to the procedure established by law. No restrictions can be placed by mere executive or departmental instructions. However, these restrictions must be reasonable and not arbitrary. Each of these rights is liable to be controlled, curtailed and regulated to some extent by laws made by Parliament.

Restrictions may be enacted “in the interests of” public order of the general public. A restriction can be said to be in the interest of public order only if the connection between the restriction and the public order is direct and proximate. Hence a restriction to be constitutionally valid must satisfy the following two tests:

A legislation arbitrarily invading the right of a person cannot be regarded as reasonable. A restriction to be valid must have a direct and proximate nexus with the object which the legislation seeks to achieve and the restriction must not be in excess of that object i.e., a balance between the freedoms guaranteed under Art. 19(1)(a) to (g) and the social control permitted by clauses (2) to (6) of Art. 19. It is the substance of legislation and not its appearance or form which is to be taken into consideration while assessing its validity. This introduces the principle of ‘proportionality’. This means the court would consider whether the restriction imposed by legislation on the Fundamental Rights are disproportionate to the situation and are “not the least restrictive of the choices”.

Retrospectivity of a law does not make it automatically unreasonable. A statute imposing a restriction with retrospective effect is not prima facie unreasonable, but retrospectivity is an element to be taken into consideration in determining whether the restriction is reasonable or not.

A law may be reasonable, but the restriction imposed by it on the exercise of freedom may not be reasonable. A prohibition on the fundamental right to carry on occupation, trade or business is not regarded as reasonable if is it imposed not in the interests of the general public but keeping in view the susceptibilities and sentiments of a section of a community whose way of life, belief or thought is not the same as that of the claimant.

Q. In the state of Madhya Pradesh, an Act was passed to the extent that during the agricultural season, no one should engage in the manufacture of beedies. The object and intent of the legislature was that as there was dearth of labour in the agriculture sector, it was required to divert labour to the agriculture sector. This restriction of the freedom of occupation was questioned. Is this a reasonable restriction and is the state justified in doing so?

Solution: It is not reasonable as it curtails the occupational freedom of those who can not engage in the agriculture labour and no alternate occupation was provided who can not work in the agriculture sector thereby leading to idleness and unemployment.
QUESTION: 98

The fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19(1) are not absolute. They are subject to restrictions placed in the subsequent clauses of Article19 according to the procedure established by law. No restrictions can be placed by mere executive or departmental instructions. However, these restrictions must be reasonable and not arbitrary. Each of these rights is liable to be controlled, curtailed and regulated to some extent by laws made by Parliament.

Restrictions may be enacted “in the interests of” public order of the general public. A restriction can be said to be in the interest of public order only if the connection between the restriction and the public order is direct and proximate. Hence a restriction to be constitutionally valid must satisfy the following two tests:

A legislation arbitrarily invading the right of a person cannot be regarded as reasonable. A restriction to be valid must have a direct and proximate nexus with the object which the legislation seeks to achieve and the restriction must not be in excess of that object i.e., a balance between the freedoms guaranteed under Art. 19(1)(a) to (g) and the social control permitted by clauses (2) to (6) of Art. 19. It is the substance of legislation and not its appearance or form which is to be taken into consideration while assessing its validity. This introduces the principle of ‘proportionality’. This means the court would consider whether the restriction imposed by legislation on the Fundamental Rights are disproportionate to the situation and are “not the least restrictive of the choices”.

Retrospectivity of a law does not make it automatically unreasonable. A statute imposing a restriction with retrospective effect is not prima facie unreasonable, but retrospectivity is an element to be taken into consideration in determining whether the restriction is reasonable or not.

A law may be reasonable, but the restriction imposed by it on the exercise of freedom may not be reasonable. A prohibition on the fundamental right to carry on occupation, trade or business is not regarded as reasonable if is it imposed not in the interests of the general public but keeping in view the susceptibilities and sentiments of a section of a community whose way of life, belief or thought is not the same as that of the claimant.

Q. For a restriction on the freedoms guaranteed under art 19 of the constitution, to gain constitutional validity must:

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

The fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19(1) are not absolute. They are subject to restrictions placed in the subsequent clauses of Article19 according to the procedure established by law. No restrictions can be placed by mere executive or departmental instructions. However, these restrictions must be reasonable and not arbitrary. Each of these rights is liable to be controlled, curtailed and regulated to some extent by laws made by Parliament.

Restrictions may be enacted “in the interests of” public order of the general public. A restriction can be said to be in the interest of public order only if the connection between the restriction and the public order is direct and proximate. Hence a restriction to be constitutionally valid must satisfy the following two tests:

A legislation arbitrarily invading the right of a person cannot be regarded as reasonable. A restriction to be valid must have a direct and proximate nexus with the object which the legislation seeks to achieve and the restriction must not be in excess of that object i.e., a balance between the freedoms guaranteed under Art. 19(1)(a) to (g) and the social control permitted by clauses (2) to (6) of Art. 19. It is the substance of legislation and not its appearance or form which is to be taken into consideration while assessing its validity. This introduces the principle of ‘proportionality’. This means the court would consider whether the restriction imposed by legislation on the Fundamental Rights are disproportionate to the situation and are “not the least restrictive of the choices”.

Retrospectivity of a law does not make it automatically unreasonable. A statute imposing a restriction with retrospective effect is not prima facie unreasonable, but retrospectivity is an element to be taken into consideration in determining whether the restriction is reasonable or not.

A law may be reasonable, but the restriction imposed by it on the exercise of freedom may not be reasonable. A prohibition on the fundamental right to carry on occupation, trade or business is not regarded as reasonable if is it imposed not in the interests of the general public but keeping in view the susceptibilities and sentiments of a section of a community whose way of life, belief or thought is not the same as that of the claimant.

Q. A group of people were denied permission and license was also rejected by the magistrate to assemble and carry out a procession on the road in front of the parliament. This power of granting or refusing a permission to the magistrate was questioned and alleged to be unreasonable by the group. Is the power granted to the magistrate unreasonable?

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

In the Landmark case of Vishaka and others versus State of Rajasthan (AIR 1997 Supreme Court 3011), The Supreme Court has issued extensive guidelines to ensure prevention of sexual harassment of women at workplace. These directions were issued in a writ petition arising out of an incident of alleged brutal gang rape of a social worker in a village of Rajasthan.

This petition was filed for the enforcement of fundamental rights of working women under article 14, 19 and 21 of the constitution of India in view of the prevailing climate in which the violation of these rights is not uncommon. With the increasing awareness and emphasis on gender justice, there is an increase in the effort to guard against such social violations; and the resentment towards incidents of sexual harassment is also increasing. This petition was in public interest and was brought as a class action by certain social activist and NGOs.

It has been held by the Supreme Court that it shall be the duty of the employer to prevent the commission of sexual harassment and to provide the procedures for the resolution and prosecution of acts of sexual harassment by taking all the steps required.

Sexual harassment has been described as including such unwelcome sexually determined behavior (whether directly or by implication) as: (a) physical contact and advances; (b) a demand or request for sexual favors; (c) sexually coloured remarks; (d) showing pornography; (e) any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature.

It has been held that all employers should take appropriate step to prevent sexual harassment: (a) The prohibition of sexual harassment should be notified, published and circulated in appropriate ways. (b) The rules/regulation of government of public sector bodies should include rules prohibiting sexual harassment and provide for appropriate penalties. (c) As regard private employees, steps should be taken to include the prohibition in standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.

The employer has been directed to initiate criminal action by making a complaint in cases where specific offence of sexual harassment has taken place. He is also required to initiate disciplinary action. The above guidelines are in addition to rights available to women under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q. Guidelines for the prevention of sexual harassment in the workplace

Solution: Clearly mentioned in the first para.
QUESTION: 101

In the Landmark case of Vishaka and others versus State of Rajasthan (AIR 1997 Supreme Court 3011), The Supreme Court has issued extensive guidelines to ensure prevention of sexual harassment of women at workplace. These directions were issued in a writ petition arising out of an incident of alleged brutal gang rape of a social worker in a village of Rajasthan.

This petition was filed for the enforcement of fundamental rights of working women under article 14, 19 and 21 of the constitution of India in view of the prevailing climate in which the violation of these rights is not uncommon. With the increasing awareness and emphasis on gender justice, there is an increase in the effort to guard against such social violations; and the resentment towards incidents of sexual harassment is also increasing. This petition was in public interest and was brought as a class action by certain social activist and NGOs.

It has been held by the Supreme Court that it shall be the duty of the employer to prevent the commission of sexual harassment and to provide the procedures for the resolution and prosecution of acts of sexual harassment by taking all the steps required.

Sexual harassment has been described as including such unwelcome sexually determined behavior (whether directly or by implication) as: (a) physical contact and advances; (b) a demand or request for sexual favors; (c) sexually coloured remarks; (d) showing pornography; (e) any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature.

It has been held that all employers should take appropriate step to prevent sexual harassment: (a) The prohibition of sexual harassment should be notified, published and circulated in appropriate ways. (b) The rules/regulation of government of public sector bodies should include rules prohibiting sexual harassment and provide for appropriate penalties. (c) As regard private employees, steps should be taken to include the prohibition in standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.

The employer has been directed to initiate criminal action by making a complaint in cases where specific offence of sexual harassment has taken place. He is also required to initiate disciplinary action. The above guidelines are in addition to rights available to women under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q. Which of the following does not come under Sexual Harassment in the workplace?

Solution: Part of the job and does not come under sexual harassment.
QUESTION: 102

In the Landmark case of Vishaka and others versus State of Rajasthan (AIR 1997 Supreme Court 3011), The Supreme Court has issued extensive guidelines to ensure prevention of sexual harassment of women at workplace. These directions were issued in a writ petition arising out of an incident of alleged brutal gang rape of a social worker in a village of Rajasthan.

This petition was filed for the enforcement of fundamental rights of working women under article 14, 19 and 21 of the constitution of India in view of the prevailing climate in which the violation of these rights is not uncommon. With the increasing awareness and emphasis on gender justice, there is an increase in the effort to guard against such social violations; and the resentment towards incidents of sexual harassment is also increasing. This petition was in public interest and was brought as a class action by certain social activist and NGOs.

It has been held by the Supreme Court that it shall be the duty of the employer to prevent the commission of sexual harassment and to provide the procedures for the resolution and prosecution of acts of sexual harassment by taking all the steps required.

Sexual harassment has been described as including such unwelcome sexually determined behavior (whether directly or by implication) as: (a) physical contact and advances; (b) a demand or request for sexual favors; (c) sexually coloured remarks; (d) showing pornography; (e) any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature.

It has been held that all employers should take appropriate step to prevent sexual harassment: (a) The prohibition of sexual harassment should be notified, published and circulated in appropriate ways. (b) The rules/regulation of government of public sector bodies should include rules prohibiting sexual harassment and provide for appropriate penalties. (c) As regard private employees, steps should be taken to include the prohibition in standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.

The employer has been directed to initiate criminal action by making a complaint in cases where specific offence of sexual harassment has taken place. He is also required to initiate disciplinary action. The above guidelines are in addition to rights available to women under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q. Haritha, an employee in Navbharath Technologies has been sexually harassed by her colleague, Sawant. She complained to the HR of the company. What is the action that the management of Navbharath Technologies needs to take?

Solution: Clearly given in the last para.
QUESTION: 103

In the Landmark case of Vishaka and others versus State of Rajasthan (AIR 1997 Supreme Court 3011), The Supreme Court has issued extensive guidelines to ensure prevention of sexual harassment of women at workplace. These directions were issued in a writ petition arising out of an incident of alleged brutal gang rape of a social worker in a village of Rajasthan.

This petition was filed for the enforcement of fundamental rights of working women under article 14, 19 and 21 of the constitution of India in view of the prevailing climate in which the violation of these rights is not uncommon. With the increasing awareness and emphasis on gender justice, there is an increase in the effort to guard against such social violations; and the resentment towards incidents of sexual harassment is also increasing. This petition was in public interest and was brought as a class action by certain social activist and NGOs.

It has been held by the Supreme Court that it shall be the duty of the employer to prevent the commission of sexual harassment and to provide the procedures for the resolution and prosecution of acts of sexual harassment by taking all the steps required.

Sexual harassment has been described as including such unwelcome sexually determined behavior (whether directly or by implication) as: (a) physical contact and advances; (b) a demand or request for sexual favors; (c) sexually coloured remarks; (d) showing pornography; (e) any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature.

It has been held that all employers should take appropriate step to prevent sexual harassment: (a) The prohibition of sexual harassment should be notified, published and circulated in appropriate ways. (b) The rules/regulation of government of public sector bodies should include rules prohibiting sexual harassment and provide for appropriate penalties. (c) As regard private employees, steps should be taken to include the prohibition in standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.

The employer has been directed to initiate criminal action by making a complaint in cases where specific offence of sexual harassment has taken place. He is also required to initiate disciplinary action. The above guidelines are in addition to rights available to women under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q. When Sheila was newly hired, Ram asked her out for coffee after work. Sheila went with him once to be friendly, but she quickly saw that he was interested in him as more than a friend, so she declined all invitations since. After a couple of months, Ram meets Sheila in the cafeteria during the lunch break and compliments her that she is looking smart. Does this amount to sexual harassment?

Solution: Self-explanatory.
QUESTION: 104

In the Landmark case of Vishaka and others versus State of Rajasthan (AIR 1997 Supreme Court 3011), The Supreme Court has issued extensive guidelines to ensure prevention of sexual harassment of women at workplace. These directions were issued in a writ petition arising out of an incident of alleged brutal gang rape of a social worker in a village of Rajasthan.

This petition was filed for the enforcement of fundamental rights of working women under article 14, 19 and 21 of the constitution of India in view of the prevailing climate in which the violation of these rights is not uncommon. With the increasing awareness and emphasis on gender justice, there is an increase in the effort to guard against such social violations; and the resentment towards incidents of sexual harassment is also increasing. This petition was in public interest and was brought as a class action by certain social activist and NGOs.

It has been held by the Supreme Court that it shall be the duty of the employer to prevent the commission of sexual harassment and to provide the procedures for the resolution and prosecution of acts of sexual harassment by taking all the steps required.

Sexual harassment has been described as including such unwelcome sexually determined behavior (whether directly or by implication) as: (a) physical contact and advances; (b) a demand or request for sexual favors; (c) sexually coloured remarks; (d) showing pornography; (e) any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature.

It has been held that all employers should take appropriate step to prevent sexual harassment: (a) The prohibition of sexual harassment should be notified, published and circulated in appropriate ways. (b) The rules/regulation of government of public sector bodies should include rules prohibiting sexual harassment and provide for appropriate penalties. (c) As regard private employees, steps should be taken to include the prohibition in standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.

The employer has been directed to initiate criminal action by making a complaint in cases where specific offence of sexual harassment has taken place. He is also required to initiate disciplinary action. The above guidelines are in addition to rights available to women under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q. The responsibility of prevention of sexual harassment at the workplace and procedures for complaints and resolution of such incidents primarily lies with

Solution: Clearly mentioned in third para as a Supreme Court directive.
QUESTION: 105

Is it possible to be too honest? Is honesty really the best policy? The answer to both questions is … a definite maybe. And that’s because along with the obvious advantages, there are also disadvantages of being honest all the time. If you were to say, “Birds have feathers,” you would be stating a truthful fact. If you were to answer the question, “Did you do that?” with the truth about your actions, you would also be stating a fact. But honesty gets to be tricky when you talk about opinions. Imagine that your best friend has just gotten a new haircut that she absolutely loves. You think the cut is very unflattering. Are you honest with her about what you think or do you tell a “white lie” and spare her feelings? Most people would choose to lie no matter how horrible they think their friend looks. That’s because it’s part of our social code. As a society, we prefer to lie about our opinions rather than say something that would hurt another’s feelings.

Yet, if you choose to be honest in situations like the one described above, you’ll experience the few disadvantages of being honest. You’ll feel annoyed when others aren’t as honest with you. When you truthfully express your opinions instead of sugar-coating things the way others expect you to, they’ll judge you to be rude. Others will respond to you negatively, when you honestly state your opinions without regard for their feelings. When you make a habit of being honest all the time, you will have fewer friends. That’s because most people feel safest when they know that you’ll follow the social norms.

Q. Infer from the passage above and choose from the following the least likely feature of a truthful fact.

Solution: Truth sometimes does not conform with the social code, which means the two might come face to face sometimes. But the very fact that there is a face off of the two, goes on to prove that both exist without each other also.
QUESTION: 106

Is it possible to be too honest? Is honesty really the best policy? The answer to both questions is … a definite maybe. And that’s because along with the obvious advantages, there are also disadvantages of being honest all the time. If you were to say, “Birds have feathers,” you would be stating a truthful fact. If you were to answer the question, “Did you do that?” with the truth about your actions, you would also be stating a fact. But honesty gets to be tricky when you talk about opinions. Imagine that your best friend has just gotten a new haircut that she absolutely loves. You think the cut is very unflattering. Are you honest with her about what you think or do you tell a “white lie” and spare her feelings? Most people would choose to lie no matter how horrible they think their friend looks. That’s because it’s part of our social code. As a society, we prefer to lie about our opinions rather than say something that would hurt another’s feelings.

Yet, if you choose to be honest in situations like the one described above, you’ll experience the few disadvantages of being honest. You’ll feel annoyed when others aren’t as honest with you. When you truthfully express your opinions instead of sugar-coating things the way others expect you to, they’ll judge you to be rude. Others will respond to you negatively, when you honestly state your opinions without regard for their feelings. When you make a habit of being honest all the time, you will have fewer friends. That’s because most people feel safest when they know that you’ll follow the social norms.

Q. Which amongst the following, is the question that will not make you talk about your opinions?

Solution: The efficient innings in terms of strike-rate will depend completely on the basis of facts and figures. There is no opinion involved in numbers.
QUESTION: 107

Is it possible to be too honest? Is honesty really the best policy? The answer to both questions is … a definite maybe. And that’s because along with the obvious advantages, there are also disadvantages of being honest all the time. If you were to say, “Birds have feathers,” you would be stating a truthful fact. If you were to answer the question, “Did you do that?” with the truth about your actions, you would also be stating a fact. But honesty gets to be tricky when you talk about opinions. Imagine that your best friend has just gotten a new haircut that she absolutely loves. You think the cut is very unflattering. Are you honest with her about what you think or do you tell a “white lie” and spare her feelings? Most people would choose to lie no matter how horrible they think their friend looks. That’s because it’s part of our social code. As a society, we prefer to lie about our opinions rather than say something that would hurt another’s feelings.

Yet, if you choose to be honest in situations like the one described above, you’ll experience the few disadvantages of being honest. You’ll feel annoyed when others aren’t as honest with you. When you truthfully express your opinions instead of sugar-coating things the way others expect you to, they’ll judge you to be rude. Others will respond to you negatively, when you honestly state your opinions without regard for their feelings. When you make a habit of being honest all the time, you will have fewer friends. That’s because most people feel safest when they know that you’ll follow the social norms.

Q. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the author’s assertion about the disadvantages of speaking truth?

Solution: It goes on to strengthen the author’s statement about the disadvantages of being honest by providing a basis for the behaviour of people as described in the passage.
QUESTION: 108

Is it possible to be too honest? Is honesty really the best policy? The answer to both questions is … a definite maybe. And that’s because along with the obvious advantages, there are also disadvantages of being honest all the time. If you were to say, “Birds have feathers,” you would be stating a truthful fact. If you were to answer the question, “Did you do that?” with the truth about your actions, you would also be stating a fact. But honesty gets to be tricky when you talk about opinions. Imagine that your best friend has just gotten a new haircut that she absolutely loves. You think the cut is very unflattering. Are you honest with her about what you think or do you tell a “white lie” and spare her feelings? Most people would choose to lie no matter how horrible they think their friend looks. That’s because it’s part of our social code. As a society, we prefer to lie about our opinions rather than say something that would hurt another’s feelings.

Yet, if you choose to be honest in situations like the one described above, you’ll experience the few disadvantages of being honest. You’ll feel annoyed when others aren’t as honest with you. When you truthfully express your opinions instead of sugar-coating things the way others expect you to, they’ll judge you to be rude. Others will respond to you negatively, when you honestly state your opinions without regard for their feelings. When you make a habit of being honest all the time, you will have fewer friends. That’s because most people feel safest when they know that you’ll follow the social norms.

Q. What could be concluded from the author’s description of the social code?

Solution: The social code is required to maintain peace and harmony in the society, for which sometimes even the lies play an important role.
QUESTION: 109

Is it possible to be too honest? Is honesty really the best policy? The answer to both questions is … a definite maybe. And that’s because along with the obvious advantages, there are also disadvantages of being honest all the time. If you were to say, “Birds have feathers,” you would be stating a truthful fact. If you were to answer the question, “Did you do that?” with the truth about your actions, you would also be stating a fact. But honesty gets to be tricky when you talk about opinions. Imagine that your best friend has just gotten a new haircut that she absolutely loves. You think the cut is very unflattering. Are you honest with her about what you think or do you tell a “white lie” and spare her feelings? Most people would choose to lie no matter how horrible they think their friend looks. That’s because it’s part of our social code. As a society, we prefer to lie about our opinions rather than say something that would hurt another’s feelings.

Yet, if you choose to be honest in situations like the one described above, you’ll experience the few disadvantages of being honest. You’ll feel annoyed when others aren’t as honest with you. When you truthfully express your opinions instead of sugar-coating things the way others expect you to, they’ll judge you to be rude. Others will respond to you negatively, when you honestly state your opinions without regard for their feelings. When you make a habit of being honest all the time, you will have fewer friends. That’s because most people feel safest when they know that you’ll follow the social norms.

Q. If the author’s arguments in the given passage are true, which of the following must also be true?

Solution: Since, it has now become a part of the social code. It is now an integral part.
QUESTION: 110

US treasury secretary Steven Mnuchin dismissed climate activist Greta Thunberg’s call at Davos for the world to divest from fossil fuel by joking “Who’s she?” and then suggesting that she should only be heard after she “goes and studies economics in college”. If Mnuchin and co. have not, so far, been able to acquaint themselves with the existing scientific research on climate change and its impact, including that involving sophisticated economic modelling, they would do well to pay heed to the McKinsey’s Climate risk and response: Physical hazards and socioeconomic impacts report, released recently.

Q. Which of the following is the right inference that the author is trying to draw?

Solution: The premise is drawing attention towards the urgency in addressing climate change hence both (A) and (B) are right choices and (C) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 111

US treasury secretary Steven Mnuchin dismissed climate activist Greta Thunberg’s call at Davos for the world to divest from fossil fuel by joking “Who’s she?” and then suggesting that she should only be heard after she “goes and studies economics in college”. If Mnuchin and co. have not, so far, been able to acquaint themselves with the existing scientific research on climate change and its impact, including that involving sophisticated economic modelling, they would do well to pay heed to the McKinsey’s Climate risk and response: Physical hazards and socioeconomic impacts report, released recently.

Q. Which of the following would strengthen the author’s argument in support of paying attention to the issue of climate change?

Solution: Option (A) focuses on vulnerability arising out of heat waves, option (B) discusses reduction of outdoor work hours, option (C) deals with the negative impact on GDP. Hence all strengthen the need to address climate change and (D) is the right choice.
QUESTION: 112

US treasury secretary Steven Mnuchin dismissed climate activist Greta Thunberg’s call at Davos for the world to divest from fossil fuel by joking “Who’s she?” and then suggesting that she should only be heard after she “goes and studies economics in college”. If Mnuchin and co. have not, so far, been able to acquaint themselves with the existing scientific research on climate change and its impact, including that involving sophisticated economic modelling, they would do well to pay heed to the McKinsey’s Climate risk and response: Physical hazards and socioeconomic impacts report, released recently.

Q. Given nearly 75% of India’s labour force is employed in heat–exposed work, if India does not undertake urgent reforms and skilling initiatives, it will face a future of rampant unemployment/under–employment. Which of the following conclusions can be made if it is true that India has yet to undertake any reformative measures and skill initiatives for its labour?

Solution: Option (A) cannot be concluded as it is based on an assumption that India will after all not undertake any reformative measures. Yet to undertake means no steps taken so far. Maybe they will be taken up soon. Option (B) is incorrect as reformative measures and skill initiatives have been mentioned to avoid rampant unemployment. Hence, option (D) is the right answer.
QUESTION: 113

US treasury secretary Steven Mnuchin dismissed climate activist Greta Thunberg’s call at Davos for the world to divest from fossil fuel by joking “Who’s she?” and then suggesting that she should only be heard after she “goes and studies economics in college”. If Mnuchin and co. have not, so far, been able to acquaint themselves with the existing scientific research on climate change and its impact, including that involving sophisticated economic modelling, they would do well to pay heed to the McKinsey’s Climate risk and response: Physical hazards and socioeconomic impacts report, released recently.

Q. Which of the following would incentivise corporates to look into the issue of climate change?

Solution: Option (A) is the point of the gravity of the situation. Mostly, corporates are money minded. Hence, option (A) is incorrect. Option (B) gives the incentive behind climate solutions. Hence (B) is the right choice.
QUESTION: 114

US treasury secretary Steven Mnuchin dismissed climate activist Greta Thunberg’s call at Davos for the world to divest from fossil fuel by joking “Who’s she?” and then suggesting that she should only be heard after she “goes and studies economics in college”. If Mnuchin and co. have not, so far, been able to acquaint themselves with the existing scientific research on climate change and its impact, including that involving sophisticated economic modelling, they would do well to pay heed to the McKinsey’s Climate risk and response: Physical hazards and socioeconomic impacts report, released recently.

Q. Which of the following could perhaps help Mnuchin take Thunberg more seriously?

Solution: Option (A) and (B) suggest the loss due to climate change and hence (C) is the right answer.
QUESTION: 115

Chances are, when the government submits its final ‘intermediary guidelines’ to the Supreme Court later this month—meant for social media firms like Facebook and messaging services like WhatsApp—it will further tighten and reiterate some of the existing ones, like the tracing/origin of messages such as those on WhatsApp. The government needing such information in certain cases is understandable. Theoretically, for instance, WhatsApp forwards talking of a group of Muslims planning to slaughter cows can result in communal violence; so the government needs to know from where the messages originated. And, it would help the Delhi Police immensely if the originators of several WhatsApp messages in the recent JNU attacks can be traced. Logically speaking, if the government can trace/tap phone calls today, there is no reason why this should not extend to newer forms of messaging/communications.

Indeed, in October last year, the US Attorney General, the UK secretary of state, and the Australian home minister, among others, wrote to Facebook, asking it to ensure that the police get lawful access to its content for precisely the same reason of maintaining law and order; firms like Apple and Facebook have also been petitioned by the US not to encrypt certain type of data—Apple has just dropped a plan to allow iPhone users to fully encrypt their data backup on the iCloud—as this could hurt their investigations. The problem, however, is what this does to the privacy of individuals, which, the Supreme Court has ruled, is a fundamental right.

Q. Premise: If the government can trace/tap phone calls today, then there is no reason why this should not extend to newer forms of messaging/communications.

It is true that the Government can tap calls. Which of the following is also true?

Solution: The passage talks about extending it’s surveillance capacity to new forms of messaging like Facebook. Hence, option (A) is correct. Moreover, the passage also gives evidence for the need for such mass surveillance, making option (B) correct. Thus, both (A) and (B) are the right answers.
QUESTION: 116

Chances are, when the government submits its final ‘intermediary guidelines’ to the Supreme Court later this month—meant for social media firms like Facebook and messaging services like WhatsApp—it will further tighten and reiterate some of the existing ones, like the tracing/origin of messages such as those on WhatsApp. The government needing such information in certain cases is understandable. Theoretically, for instance, WhatsApp forwards talking of a group of Muslims planning to slaughter cows can result in communal violence; so the government needs to know from where the messages originated. And, it would help the Delhi Police immensely if the originators of several WhatsApp messages in the recent JNU attacks can be traced. Logically speaking, if the government can trace/tap phone calls today, there is no reason why this should not extend to newer forms of messaging/communications.

Indeed, in October last year, the US Attorney General, the UK secretary of state, and the Australian home minister, among others, wrote to Facebook, asking it to ensure that the police get lawful access to its content for precisely the same reason of maintaining law and order; firms like Apple and Facebook have also been petitioned by the US not to encrypt certain type of data—Apple has just dropped a plan to allow iPhone users to fully encrypt their data backup on the iCloud—as this could hurt their investigations. The problem, however, is what this does to the privacy of individuals, which, the Supreme Court has ruled, is a fundamental right.

Q. Which of the following would weaken the argument in favour of privacy and against surveillance?

Solution: Option (A) weakens the argument in favour of privacy as it points to the lack of guidelines that are going to be safeguarding personal data. Thus, it weakens the argument in favour of privacy. Option (B) strengthens the argument in favour of data privacy. Hence (A) is the right choice.
QUESTION: 117

Chances are, when the government submits its final ‘intermediary guidelines’ to the Supreme Court later this month—meant for social media firms like Facebook and messaging services like WhatsApp—it will further tighten and reiterate some of the existing ones, like the tracing/origin of messages such as those on WhatsApp. The government needing such information in certain cases is understandable. Theoretically, for instance, WhatsApp forwards talking of a group of Muslims planning to slaughter cows can result in communal violence; so the government needs to know from where the messages originated. And, it would help the Delhi Police immensely if the originators of several WhatsApp messages in the recent JNU attacks can be traced. Logically speaking, if the government can trace/tap phone calls today, there is no reason why this should not extend to newer forms of messaging/communications.

Indeed, in October last year, the US Attorney General, the UK secretary of state, and the Australian home minister, among others, wrote to Facebook, asking it to ensure that the police get lawful access to its content for precisely the same reason of maintaining law and order; firms like Apple and Facebook have also been petitioned by the US not to encrypt certain type of data—Apple has just dropped a plan to allow iPhone users to fully encrypt their data backup on the iCloud—as this could hurt their investigations. The problem, however, is what this does to the privacy of individuals, which, the Supreme Court has ruled, is a fundamental right.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument in favour of privacy and against indiscriminate surveillance?

Solution: Both statements (A) and (B) support privacy of data and are against indiscriminate surveillance by the Government as supported by the Supreme Court.
QUESTION: 118

Chances are, when the government submits its final ‘intermediary guidelines’ to the Supreme Court later this month—meant for social media firms like Facebook and messaging services like WhatsApp—it will further tighten and reiterate some of the existing ones, like the tracing/origin of messages such as those on WhatsApp. The government needing such information in certain cases is understandable. Theoretically, for instance, WhatsApp forwards talking of a group of Muslims planning to slaughter cows can result in communal violence; so the government needs to know from where the messages originated. And, it would help the Delhi Police immensely if the originators of several WhatsApp messages in the recent JNU attacks can be traced. Logically speaking, if the government can trace/tap phone calls today, there is no reason why this should not extend to newer forms of messaging/communications.

Indeed, in October last year, the US Attorney General, the UK secretary of state, and the Australian home minister, among others, wrote to Facebook, asking it to ensure that the police get lawful access to its content for precisely the same reason of maintaining law and order; firms like Apple and Facebook have also been petitioned by the US not to encrypt certain type of data—Apple has just dropped a plan to allow iPhone users to fully encrypt their data backup on the iCloud—as this could hurt their investigations. The problem, however, is what this does to the privacy of individuals, which, the Supreme Court has ruled, is a fundamental right.

Q. Which of the following options would support the act of surveillance by state?

I. WhatsApp has consistently claimed it cannot trace messages.

II. The existing intermediary guidelines suggest that the Government may ask WhatsApp to decrypt WhatsApp messages and proactively identify and remove unlawful information and content.

III. Telegram app is being asked to monitor the encrypted content that impact ‘public order’, ‘security of the state’, ‘sovereignty and integrity of India’.