CLAT Mock Test - 9


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT Mock Test - 9


Description
This mock test of CLAT Mock Test - 9 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test - 9 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test - 9 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test - 9 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test - 9 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given which resembles the most in the given sentence.
He is urbane in his manners.

Solution:

'Urbane' means 'sophisticated'. 'Sauve' also 'means' 'curtenous' while genteel means 'graceful' in manner.

QUESTION: 2

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given which resembles the most in the given sentence.
The prisoner made and abortive attempt to escape from the jail.

Solution:

'Abortive' means 'unsuccessful' so nearest synonym is 'futile' which means useless while 'furtive' means secretly.

QUESTION: 3

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given which resembles the most in the given sentence.
Peace keeping for the united Nation is, at best of times an arduous task.

Solution:

'Arduous' means that which needs a lot of 'labour' while laborious means 'hard working' so cannot be used for task.

QUESTION: 4

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given which resembles the most in the given sentence.
The agility of the body of the athlete was very much appreciated by the spectators.

Solution:

'Agile' means 'active' or swift of foot, supple means soft and fixible Jhenefax agility means 'briskness'.

QUESTION: 5

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given which resembles the most in the given sentence.
War always has a baneful effect on the people of a nation.

Solution:

'Baneful' means 'harmful' whereas pernicious means wicked and 'foul' means dirty.

QUESTION: 6

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
Only a few person can stand ............ entreaties.

Solution:

Stand 'against' (against shows pressure).

QUESTION: 7

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
He has shown utter neglect............ duty.

Solution:

Neglect of (due to).

QUESTION: 8

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
A private secretary cannot have authority ............ his boss.

Solution:

Authority 'over' (incharge).

QUESTION: 9

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
Turning it............ in his mind he accepted the offer.

Solution:
QUESTION: 10

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
He is definitely blind ............ his faults.

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

 Apparently, he was feeling ............about his bad luck.

Solution:

Prdicative objective 'anger' is to be used

QUESTION: 12

She had just............down when the telephone rang.

Solution:

With 'Laid' himself to be used

QUESTION: 13

Everything he hold me, I............before.

Solution:

Earlier action should be in past perfect tense.

QUESTION: 14

I am glad ............the movie.

Solution:

'Glad' should be followed by infinitive with 'to.'

QUESTION: 15

I suggest that the meeting............ postponed

Solution:

'Be' means should be postponed. 

QUESTION: 16

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
On being rejected he pulled a long face.

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
This is an ordinary achievement do not plume yourself on it.

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
​His bravery has cast everyone else into the shade.

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
The plight of the cyclone hit people beggars description.

Solution:

That which cannot be described

QUESTION: 20

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
Failure has proved to be a blessing in disguise, he has become regular in studies.

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentence in the correct sequence.

S1 : I stood staring into the pit
S6: At the sound of birds ovrhead, I looked up at the huge fighting machine that would fight no more
P : Across on the other side of the pit, huge and strange, lay a great flying machine
Q : The huge engines so great and wonderful in their power, so unearthly in their shapes, rose out of the shadows
R : They must have been experimenting with this when decay and death stopped them
S : A crowd of dogs fought over the bodies that lay in the depth of the pit, far below me
Q. The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentence in the correct sequence.

S1 : The US space shuttle Columbia landed safely at the Edwards Air Force base in the Majave desert
​S6: It opened a new era in man's attempt to conquer space by proving that a reusable craft could now be used
P : It was accomplished after a 54 hours space flight in which it circled the earth 36 times
R: It moved smoothly to a stop as a special crew and equipment rushed to greet it
S : With astranaut John young piloting the Columbia, the shuttle came to a halt on a dry lake bed
Q. The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentence in the correct sequence.

S1 : A child exposed constantly to things Like laptops, ipods, etc, instead of playmates, physical games and toys or interaction with people around him, is bound to lose out on so much
​S6 : Which tend to sound like nagging and are easily ignored fight the right note firm serious, but not judgmental
P : I would advise you to do it in one serious talk with the parents rather than several gentle and subtle hinds
Q : There are many parents around who are themselves unable to switch off from the network and yet expect their kids to play, study, read, make friends, eat and sleep well.
R : It may appear like interferences but steel yourself and get involved
S : If you stopped this happening in your family, you would be doing them a favour by intervening
Q. The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentence in the correct sequence.

S1: All men have some degree of physical courage
S: If there are continuous calls on our courage, we begin to overdraw
P : We can use it up, if there are heavy, and what is more serious
Q : Courage you know is like having money in the bank
R : But don't forget, courage is an expendable quality
S : We start with certain capital of courage, some large, some small and we proceed to draw on our balance
​Q. The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentence in the correct sequence.

S1 : Government aid is urgently needed to help cities
​S6: The perfect container is the edible ice-cream cone
P : The packing industries could to an excellent service by using materials that disappear fast
Q : Magnetic extractors in incinerators could save tons of metal and reduce incineration by ten per cent
R : Build all kinds of waste treating facilities
S : Above all, man should strive to contain natural decay by recyling or reusing as much waste as possible
Q. The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign languages phrase select the correct answer from the four options given below.
The fundamental principle of law 'where there is a right there is a remedy'. Is reflected by the maxim.

Solution:

Ulbi jus ibi remedium

QUESTION: 27

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign languages phrase select the correct answer from the four options given below.
Q. Which among the following maxim literally means that welfare of the people is the paramount law?

Solution:

Salus populi suprema lev

QUESTION: 28

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign languages phrase select the correct answer from the four options given below.
'A' friend of court appointed to assist the court in a certain proceeding, in legal terminology is refered to as

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign languages phrase select the correct answer from the four options given below.
Q. Which of the following phrase means 'something for something'?

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign languages phrase select the correct answer from the four options given below.
Temporary postponement of the execution of a criminal sentence i.e., death sentence is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Direction: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
To Whom it May Concern
On March 5, 2013, I bought a Perfect Muffin Kit from your store at Ultra Mail. The cashier who assisted me was Aryan. Aryan was very friendly and assured me that the Perfect Muffin Kit would live up to the guarantee on the box.
'Perfect Muffins Every Time!'
Unfortunately, this product did not live up to its claim. Although the box promised, as I stated above, to provide 'Perfect Muffins Every Time,' the muffins I made were far from perfect. I followed the directions included in the package very carefully. First, I removed the bag of mix from the box. Then, I poured it into a bowl. Next, I added the correct amount of water to the mix and stirred it. The directions said that after stirring the mixture, I couls and I quote, "add half a cup of raisins, nuts, berries, or another favourite ingredient." My favourite ingredient happens to be hot sauce. I find that a dash of hot sauce makes pizza, pasta, and soup taste very delicious. So, continuing to follow the directions, I added half a cup of hot sauce to the mix and stirred it. Finally, I poured the mix into muffin tins and baked it in the oven at 350 degrees for exactly 20 minutes.
When the muffins finished baking, I was very excited to eat the 'Perfect Muffins' as promised on the box. You can imagine my disappointment when, upon tasting the muffins, I discovered that they were not perfect. These muffins were, in fact, absolutely terrible. Not even my dog was interested in eating these supposedly 'perfect' muffins. I would appreciate a full refund ($3.99) for this product as soon as possible. Enclosed are the receipt, the empty box, and one of the un-perfect muffins so that you can experience it for yourself. Thank you for your prompt attention to this matter.
Sincerely,
Abhishek Batra
Q. Which of the following best describe the author?

Solution:

The author lacks the common sense necessary to realize that sauce would not be a good ingredient in muffins. These two foods do not mix well, it is unreasonable to request a 'full refund' because he fails to understand this.

QUESTION: 32

Direction: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
To Whom it May Concern
On March 5, 2013, I bought a Perfect Muffin Kit from your store at Ultra Mail. The cashier who assisted me was Aryan. Aryan was very friendly and assured me that the Perfect Muffin Kit would live up to the guarantee on the box.
'Perfect Muffins Every Time!'
Unfortunately, this product did not live up to its claim. Although the box promised, as I stated above, to provide 'Perfect Muffins Every Time,' the muffins I made were far from perfect. I followed the directions included in the package very carefully. First, I removed the bag of mix from the box. Then, I poured it into a bowl. Next, I added the correct amount of water to the mix and stirred it. The directions said that after stirring the mixture, I couls and I quote, "add half a cup of raisins, nuts, berries, or another favourite ingredient." My favourite ingredient happens to be hot sauce. I find that a dash of hot sauce makes pizza, pasta, and soup taste very delicious. So, continuing to follow the directions, I added half a cup of hot sauce to the mix and stirred it. Finally, I poured the mix into muffin tins and baked it in the oven at 350 degrees for exactly 20 minutes.
When the muffins finished baking, I was very excited to eat the 'Perfect Muffins' as promised on the box. You can imagine my disappointment when, upon tasting the muffins, I discovered that they were not perfect. These muffins were, in fact, absolutely terrible. Not even my dog was interested in eating these supposedly 'perfect' muffins. I would appreciate a full refund ($3.99) for this product as soon as possible. Enclosed are the receipt, the empty box, and one of the un-perfect muffins so that you can experience it for yourself. Thank you for your prompt attention to this matter.
Sincerely,
Abhishek Batra 
Q. Which of the following best describes the organization of paragraph 2?

Solution:

In paragraph 2, the author explains the steps he followed in making the muffins using the words 'first, then, next and finally since these words all are used to describe the order of events in time' this lets us know that the author is using chronological order therefore (a) is correct.

QUESTION: 33

Direction: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
To Whom it May ConcernOn March 5, 2013, I bought a Perfect Muffin Kit from your store at Ultra Mail. The cashier who assisted me was Aryan. Aryan was very friendly and assured me that the Perfect Muffin Kit would live up to the guarantee on the box.
'Perfect Muffins Every Time!'
Unfortunately, this product did not live up to its claim. Although the box promised, as I stated above, to provide 'Perfect Muffins Every Time,' the muffins I made were far from perfect. I followed the directions included in the package very carefully. First, I removed the bag of mix from the box. Then, I poured it into a bowl. Next, I added the correct amount of water to the mix and stirred it. The directions said that after stirring the mixture, I couls and I quote, "add half a cup of raisins, nuts, berries, or another favourite ingredient." My favourite ingredient happens to be hot sauce. I find that a dash of hot sauce makes pizza, pasta, and soup taste very delicious. So, continuing to follow the directions, I added half a cup of hot sauce to the mix and stirred it. Finally, I poured the mix into muffin tins and baked it in the oven at 350 degrees for exactly 20 minutes.
When the muffins finished baking, I was very excited to eat the 'Perfect Muffins' as promised on the box. You can imagine my disappointment when, upon tasting the muffins, I discovered that they were not perfect. These muffins were, in fact, absolutely terrible. Not even my dog was interested in eating these supposedly 'perfect' muffins. I would appreciate a full refund ($3.99) for this product as soon as possible. Enclosed are the receipt, the empty box, and one of the un-perfect muffins so that you can experience it for yourself. Thank you for your prompt attention to this matter.
Sincerely,
Abhishek Batra 
Q. As used in paragraph 1, which is the best synonym for guarantee?

Solution:

From the passage 'The muffins produced was far from perfect'. The words 'claim' and 'promise' should help readers understand that a 'guarantee' is a promise of quality or something that assure a specific outcome.

QUESTION: 34

Direction: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
To Whom it May Concern
On March 5, 2013, I bought a Perfect Muffin Kit from your store at Ultra Mail. The cashier who assisted me was Aryan. Aryan was very friendly and assured me that the Perfect Muffin Kit would live up to the guarantee on the box.
'Perfect Muffins Every Time!'Unfortunately, this product did not live up to its claim. Although the box promised, as I stated above, to provide 'Perfect Muffins Every Time,' the muffins I made were far from perfect. I followed the directions included in the package very carefully. First, I removed the bag of mix from the box. Then, I poured it into a bowl. Next, I added the correct amount of water to the mix and stirred it. The directions said that after stirring the mixture, I couls and I quote, "add half a cup of raisins, nuts, berries, or another favourite ingredient." My favourite ingredient happens to be hot sauce. I find that a dash of hot sauce makes pizza, pasta, and soup taste very delicious. So, continuing to follow the directions, I added half a cup of hot sauce to the mix and stirred it. Finally, I poured the mix into muffin tins and baked it in the oven at 350 degrees for exactly 20 minutes.
When the muffins finished baking, I was very excited to eat the 'Perfect Muffins' as promised on the box. You can imagine my disappointment when, upon tasting the muffins, I discovered that they were not perfect. These muffins were, in fact, absolutely terrible. Not even my dog was interested in eating these supposedly 'perfect' muffins. I would appreciate a full refund ($3.99) for this product as soon as possible. Enclosed are the receipt, the empty box, and one of the un-perfect muffins so that you can experience it for yourself. Thank you for your prompt attention to this matter.Sincerely,Abhishek Batra
Q.  According to the author, the muffins tasted 'absolutely terrible'. This is the result of

Solution:

In paragraph 2, we learn that the directions say to 'add half a cup of raisins, nuts and benies or another favourite ' ingredients'. The author reads these directons literally, meaning he reads them following the strict meaning of the words he does not think for himself about what they may actually mean, hot sauce would be a bad ingredients to add muffins. Therefore, this is a result of 'misinter pretation'.

QUESTION: 35

Direction: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
To Whom it May Concern
On March 5, 2013, I bought a Perfect Muffin Kit from your store at Ultra Mail. The cashier who assisted me was Aryan. Aryan was very friendly and assured me that the Perfect Muffin Kit would live up to the guarantee on the box.
'Perfect Muffins Every Time!'
Unfortunately, this product did not live up to its claim. Although the box promised, as I stated above, to provide 'Perfect Muffins Every Time,' the muffins I made were far from perfect. I followed the directions included in the package very carefully. First, I removed the bag of mix from the box. Then, I poured it into a bowl. Next, I added the correct amount of water to the mix and stirred it. The directions said that after stirring the mixture, I couls and I quote, "add half a cup of raisins, nuts, berries, or another favourite ingredient." My favourite ingredient happens to be hot sauce. I find that a dash of hot sauce makes pizza, pasta, and soup taste very delicious. So, continuing to follow the directions, I added half a cup of hot sauce to the mix and stirred it. Finally, I poured the mix into muffin tins and baked it in the oven at 350 degrees for exactly 20 minutes.
When the muffins finished baking, I was very excited to eat the 'Perfect Muffins' as promised on the box. You can imagine my disappointment when, upon tasting the muffins, I discovered that they were not perfect. These muffins were, in fact, absolutely terrible. Not even my dog was interested in eating these supposedly 'perfect' muffins. I would appreciate a full refund ($3.99) for this product as soon as possible. Enclosed are the receipt, the empty box, and one of the un-perfect muffins so that you can experience it for yourself. Thank you for your prompt attention to this matter.Sincerely,Abhishek Batra 
Q. The tone of the author can best be described as

Solution:

In the passage, the author requests a refund for his product. In writing a request, he seems annoyed or irritated That the muffins did not live up to this expectations, even though he took extra care to follow the directions in paragraph 3 the author expressed excitement about eating the 'perfect muffins' as promised on the box. He notices that they taste terrible. We can understand that author feels disappointed and thwarted. The word frustated actually captures this sentiment. Therefore is correct.

QUESTION: 36

If x is a natural number which is a perfect square, then the number must end in

Solution:


Thus, we get the unit digits as 0, 2 and 6.

QUESTION: 37

 is a prime number, then P must be power of

Solution:

Since, 2P+1 a prime number. So, 

21+1=3 22+1=5 = 

Here, the value of P is 2 or the power of 2.

QUESTION: 38

The average score of Dhoni after 48 innings is 48 and in the 49th inning, Dhoni scores 97 runs. In the 50th inning, the minimum number of runs required to increase his average score by 2 than it was before the 50th inning is

Solution:

The average score after 48th innings =48 and the average score after 49th innings =49 Since,    Now, requirement of runs =49+(50×2)=149 ⇒ (50×51)−(49×49)=149

 

QUESTION: 39

4 kg of a metal contains 1/5 copper and rest is zinc Another 5 kg of metal contains 1/6 copper and rest is zinc The ratio of copper and zinc into the mixture of these two metals is

Solution:

Copper in 4kg= and zinc in 4kg= Copper in 5 kg= and  zinc in 

5kg=Therefore, copper m mixture 

=and zmc in the mixture = Therefore, the required ratio = 49: 221

QUESTION: 40

The value of a coin varies directly to the square of its radius, when its thickness is constant. The radius of a coin is 1.5 cm and its value is Rs 2. What will be the radius of a coin, if its value is Rs 5?

Solution:

Hence, required radius = 2.4 cm

QUESTION: 41

In Veeru Bhai Pvt. Ltd. company 60% of the employees are men and 48% of the employees are engineer and 66.6% of these are men. The percentage of women who are not engineer, is

Solution:

Men   Women 600x 400x Total engineer = 480x Male engineer =480x×0.66=320x∴ Women who are engineer = 160x and women who are not engineer =400x−160x=240x  ∴Required percentage = 

QUESTION: 42

By selling a colour TV for Rs 23520, a dealer suffers a loss of 4%. What is the cost price of the colour TV and at what price should he sell it to gain 8%?

Solution:

 SP=96%ofCP (loss is 4%) ∴ Now, gain percentage = 8% ∴   New selling price = (100 + 8)% of CP =

QUESTION: 43

A sum of money (P) doubles in 10 yr. In how many years it will be triple at the same rate of simple interest?

Solution:

 A=2P ∴ SI = P(SI=2P−P) 

r=10 So, the new amount = 3P But the new SI=2P=(3P−P)  (r = 10%) ∴      t=20yr

 

 

 

QUESTION: 44

Rs 12000 amounts to Rs 20736 in 3 yr at r % per annum of compound interest. What is the value of r?

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

P is thrice as efficient as Q and is therefore able to finish a piece of work in 60 days less than Q. Find the time in which P and Q can complete the work individually.

Solution:

Efficiency of P: Q = 3 :1 Required number of days of P: Q = 1:3 i.e., if P requires x days, then Q requires 3x days. But      3x−x=60

⇒   2x=60⇒   x=30  and 3x=90 Thus, P can finish the work in 30 days and Q can finish the work in 90 days.

QUESTION: 46

The vacancy of office of the President must be filled within

Solution:

The vacancy of office of the president must be filled within six months.

QUESTION: 47

Identify the person with whom the following statements are associated?
I. He was the founder Chairman of the National Dairy Development Board
II. Apart from making Amul Dairy a household name, he led operation flood to make India the biggest milk producing nation in the world
III. He is popularly known as 'Milkman of India' and the father of white revolution.

Solution:

Verghese Kurien best known as 'Father of the white revolution' for his billion litre idea or operation flood-breathed has last on 9th September. 2012, at Nadiad, Gujarat.

QUESTION: 48

The Pranab Mukherjee, the President of India, inaugurated mannam International Socio-cultural and Charitable center at which of the following places?

Solution:

The centre seeks to provide care for senior citizens, healthcare to the underprivileged, temporary shelter to the needy who visit the capital and space for community functions. 

QUESTION: 49

The Pranab Mukherjee, the President of India, inaugurated mannam International Socio-cultural and Charitable center at which of the following places?

Solution:

The centre seeks to provide care for senior citizens, healthcare to the underprivileged, temporary shelter to the needy who visit the capital and space for community functions.

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following model agencies asked all the entertainment channels not to televise abusive, crass, vulgar, as well as double meaning language that has sexual overtones in comedy's name?

Solution:

The (BCCC) would examine complaints about television programmes, received from viewers or any other sources including NGOS and ensure that the programmes are in conformity with the content guidelines.

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following ministry released 'Shubh Yatra' an exclusively monthly bi-lingual (Hindi-Eng) magazine which covers travel life style, culture and entertainment in all colour and space?

Solution:

'Shubh-Yatra', an exclusive monthly Bi-lingualin flight magazine of Air India. This is the new name of the in flight magazine.

QUESTION: 52

The entire world came together on one platform to raise the voice for the violence against women across the globe by participating in "One Billion Rising Campaign. The campaign was launched in which of the following states?

Solution:

Campaign against violence perpetrated against women and girls. Representatives of 150 activist groups resloved at youth convention in Udaipur.

QUESTION: 53

The 3000 Kilometer long silk route car rally from Kolkata to Kunming organized by which of the following forum/organization?

Solution:

The silk route car rally from Kolkata to Kunming organized by the confederation of Indian Industry and supported by the Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar forum for regional co-operation. The rally will end on March 5, 2013 at Kunming, China

QUESTION: 54

Blood group was discovered by

Solution:

The ABO blood group system is widely credited to have been discovered by Austrian Scientist Karl Landsteiner, who found three different blood types in 1900 and he was awarded with Nobel Prize in physiology or Medicine in 1930 for his work.

QUESTION: 55

'Farad' is the unit of

Solution:

'Farad' is the unit of capacitance. Capacitance is the ability of a body to store an electric charge,

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following is an Impact printer

Solution:

An impact printer has manonisms resembling those of a typewriter. Dot-matrix printers. Daisy-wheel printer. Drum printer. Chain printer and Line prineter etc are the examples of impact printer.

QUESTION: 57

A rectifier is an electronic device used to convert

Solution:

The ship was designed by Kochi-based seds and this is the first association between CSL and local design house. The yard also launched two other platform supply vessels for PSV holding inc Cyprus.

QUESTION: 58

Non Resident Indians (NRI) Day is marked on

Solution:

Prawasi Bharatiya Divas (Non-resident Indian Day) is celebrated in India on January 9 each year to mark the contribution of the overseas Indian community to the development of India The day commemorates the arrival of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa in Bombay on January 9, 1915.

QUESTION: 59

Expand the term IPCC

Solution:

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is a scientific intergovernmental body, set up at the request of member governments. It was established in 1988.

QUESTION: 60

The sex of newborn baby is determined by the chromosome inherited from

Solution:

The sex of a newborn baby is determined by the chromosome inherited from father. This is because father has two chromosome X and Y and mother has only one chromosome. XX → Daughter XY → Son

QUESTION: 61

The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by

Solution:

Phenomenon of radioactivity was first discovered by AH Bacquerel in 1986, while studying flouorescene and phosphorence of compounds irradiated by visible light.

QUESTION: 62

DNA differs from RNA in having nitrogenous base

Solution:

DNA possesses thymine nitrogenous base while RNA contains uracil nitrogenous base.

QUESTION: 63

The Government of India approved extension of the 'Navratna' status to which of the following?

Solution:

The company was accorded the status on Nov. 6, 2010, with the condition that it would be listed on the stock markets within two years, due to poor market conditions, company deffered its IPOs.

QUESTION: 64

For the first time in Asia, residents of which village embraced an innovative eco-friendly, waterless toilets 'The Ecosan Toilet'

Solution:

Ecosan Toilet has two chambers and is used alternatively. The toilet is provided with a concrete bottom so that there will be no contact between human excreta and soil.

QUESTION: 65

'Right to Information' is defined under

Solution:

Right to Information is defined under Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005.

QUESTION: 66

In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one member is nominated from

Solution:

In Uttrakhand Legislative Assembly, one member is nominated from Anglo-Indian community.

QUESTION: 67

Central Vigilance Commission was set-up on the recommendation of-

Solution:

Central vigilance commission was set up on the recommendation of Santhanam Committee.

QUESTION: 68

How many Fundamental Duties have been incorporated in the Constitution of India?

Solution:

The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the constitution by 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally, ten in number, the Fundamental duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002.

QUESTION: 69

Which is the 3rd nearest planet to the Sun?

Solution:

Earth is the third nearest planet to the Sun.

QUESTION: 70

Which tribe of Uttarakhand practices transhumance?

Solution:

The Bhatia tribe of Uttarakhand practices transhumance.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following cities of India joined the Ivy-league by positioning itself as India's first true-blue Biennale City?

Solution:

Kochi has officially declared as a biennale city, ahead of the Kochi-Muziris Biennale.

QUESTION: 72

The Government of India decided to add four tribes to the list of scheduled tribes located in Chhattisgarh and Kerala. Which of the following are the tribes included?

I. Abuj Maria
II. Korba
III. Hill Korba
IV. Kodaku
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Union Cabinet at a meeting chaired by Prime Minister derided to add Abuj Maria, Korba, Hill Korba and Kodaku tribes in the list of STs. The tribes are located in Chhattisgarh and Kerala

QUESTION: 73

Who is the Supreme Commander to the Armed Forces in India?

Solution:

The President is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces in India

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following wildlife sanctuary is host to one of the largest populations of Hampson's hedge blues butterfly, which is endemic to the Western Chats

Solution:

Idukki wildlife sanctaury on the Western Ghats. In Kerala, as the hosts to the largest population of hompson's hedge blues butterfly

QUESTION: 75

The French Government reached an agreement with which steel giant, under which the Government would not nationalize the company's plant in Florance?

Solution:

As per agreement there would be no lay off at site and arcelor mittal promised a euro 180 million investment and govt. will modernise it with eco-friendly project.

QUESTION: 76

What is the qualifying age for a citizen to contest in the elections to the panchayats? It is not less than

Solution:

The qualifying age for a citizen to contest in the elections to the panachayats in 21 years.

QUESTION: 77

The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in

Solution:

The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in year 1973.

QUESTION: 78

The first-ever robot spacecraft to probe planed Venus was named

Solution:

The Magellan Spacecraft, also referred to as the Venus Radar Mapper, was a Mobotic Space probe launched by NASA on May 4, 1989, to map the surface of venus using synthetic Aperture Radar and measure the planetary gravity.

QUESTION: 79

Which state's assembly became the first to unanimously adopt a bill to give legislative backing to the sub-plans for SC/ST with a mandatory provision for allocation of nearly fourth of the states annual plan of the budget for them as insisted by the Planning Commission and NDC.

Solution:

Andhra Pradesh assembly unanimously adopted a bill for the implementation of sub-plans for SC/ST as envisaged by the planning commission and the NDC they will get a nearly fourth share of the state's annual plan.

QUESTION: 80

India hosted the Indra a joint military exercise with which of the following country?

Solution:

Indra is a joint Bi-annual military exercise conducted by India and Russia starting in 2003. Aimed at boosting co-operation and interperability between Russian and Indian Navies.

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statement

I. An agreement made without consideration is void
II. Consideration should have some value in the eyes of the law.
III. Consideration has to be adequate.
Q. Which of, the statement given above is/are correct?

Solution:

See Section 25 and 2[d] of Indian Contract Art 1872.

QUESTION: 82

Principle Nothing is an offence done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or what he is doing is wrong or contrary to law.
Facts A received divine orders in his sleep to sacrifice his 3 yr old child He carries out the order and kills his son. Decide

Solution:
QUESTION: 83

Principle Any person who interferes with the discharge of duties by a public servant is liable for punishment.Facts Shiva got drunk voluntarily and on his way back home he assaulted a policeman. Is Shiva liable for punishment?

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Principle Part performance in the contract is subject to the part consideration.
Facts Lata, agreed with Banaras cultural society to sing in their society for a period of 20 days. The society agreed to pay Rs 1500 everyday. Lata performed for 5 days. After that she went to Delhi for some other program without informing Banaras cultural society. So, they cancelled her programme for the remaining days. Lata claimed her remuneration for the five days during which time she sang at the society. Society did not pay, suggesting that they had to face problems and sustained loss for cancelling her programme. They want her to pay damages. Decide the case.

Solution:

See Section 2[d] of Indian Contract Act and Section 53A of TP Act. Lata shall succed in getting her 5 days remuneration.

QUESTION: 85

Principle Master will be liable for the wrongful acts of his servants in course of employment.
​Facts Shikha was an old widow, who opened an account with the Canara Bank, whereby she would deposit Rs 100 everyday in the bank. Mukesh was a neighbour, who used to collect the amount and deposit them in bank. Mukesh used to get a small commission from the bank for money deposited. One day it was discovered that Mukesh, who had not deposited the money for more than 3 months had vanished with the amount. Shikha filed a suit against the Canara Bank.
Decision

Solution:

This is not vicarious liability. It is held in case of SBI Vs Shyams Devi AIR 1978 SC 1263 and Bank would not be leable.

QUESTION: 86

Principle Any person using force to obtain the consent of the other party, to a contract causes coercion. If coercion is caused in a contract, the party against whom the coercion is committed, may terminate the contract.Facts A, an gunpoint, wants to compel B to sign a sale agreement of a property. A, did not use the gun and thereby no shot was fired from gun, B moved backward and held the sale agreement and signs. Can B afterwards avoid the contract?
Decision

Solution:

Section 15 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 is defined' Coercino'.

QUESTION: 87

Principle Hearsay evidence is no evidence.
Facts Kamal and Vimal share a room in a youth hostel. One day Kamal leaves the room and sees that his three friends Amit, Mohan and Raghav are quarrelling outside the youth hostel. Suddenly, Amit stabs Mohan with a knife. Kamal is horrified and returns to his room and tells about the incident to Vimal. After some time, the police reaches the hostel and asks questions from student. The police also asks questions to Vimal. Vimal tells the police that Amit stabbed Mohan.
Decision

Solution:

Section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says oral evidence must be direct.

QUESTION: 88

Principle Preparation to commit an offence is not an offence. After making the preparation any act done towards committing the offence with the intention to commit it, is an attempt to commit the offence, which is by itself an offence.
Facts Vipin wants to kills Ajay. He buys a gun and cartridges for committing the murder. He, then sets out searching for Ajay and when sees Ajay, he loads his gun and takes aim at him and pulls the trigger. The gun did not fire.
Decision

Solution:

See Section 307 of IPC

QUESTION: 89

Principle Consumer for any transaction has own choice for the better taste of goods and services.
Facts Akash, a merchant from Delhi, was on a tour in Hyderabad He came across a shop, which was selling dry fruits. Akash saw some oats, which were good and decided to purchase the same. After returning to Delhi, he wrote a letter to the shopkeeper in Hyderabad, asking him to send one quintal of good oats. After about 10 days he receives one quintal of oats but he found them to be very old. He rejected the consignment and asked them for return of the money paid by him. They replied saying that oats would become good only when they were old. But he wanted new oats, which according to him were good Decide the case.

Solution:

See consumer is defined is Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

QUESTION: 90

Principle One has the right to defend his life and property against criminal harm provided, it is not possible to approach public authorities and more harm than is necessary has not been caused to avert the danger.
Facts A has a farmhouse on the outskirts of Delhi, where he was attacked by a gang of armed robbers. A without informing the police at first warned the robbers by firing in the air. As they were fleeing from the farm house, he fired and killed one of them. At the trial.
I. A can avail the right of private defense as he was defending his life and property.
II. A cannot avail the right as he failed to inform the police.
III. A cannot avail the right as he caused more harm than was necessary to ward off the danger.
IV. A can avail of the right as at first he only fired in the air.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

See Section 99 of IPC.

QUESTION: 91

Principle When any person dishonestly takes any movable property out of the possession of any other person without his consent, he is guilty of theft.
Facts A finds a diamond ring lying B's table. A picks up the ring with the intention of dishonestly keeping it. Decide

Solution:

See Section 378 illustration (m).

QUESTION: 92

Principle When any person dishonestly takes any movable property out of the possession of any other person without his consent, he is guilty of theft.Facts A finds a diamond ring lying B's table. A picks up the ring with the intention of dishonestly keeping it. Decide

Solution:

See Section 378 illustration (h).

QUESTION: 93

Principle A person is guilty of cheating when he fraudulently induces another person to deliver the letter's property to him.
Facts Narendra by pledging as diamonds article, which he knows are not diamonds, intentionally deceives Mahendra and thereby dishonestly induces Mahendra to lend money. Decide the liability

Solution:

See Section 415 illustration (e).

QUESTION: 94

Principle
I. Mischief is an injury to peroperty with the intention of causing wrongful loss to any person or public
II. The person to whom the loss is wrongfully caused by mischief need not be the owner of the property himself.
Facts A has leased his house to B for 3 yr. After one year A feels the need for the house and requests B tovacate the house but B refuses. A in order to get B to vacate the house but B refuses. A in order to get B to vacate the house,causes fire to it, but B with the help of the neighbours quickly extinguishes the fire before it could really damage the property.

Solution:

Mischief is defined in Section 425 IPC.

QUESTION: 95

Principle Whoever, by words, signs or otherwise brings into hatred or contempt or incites disaffection towards the government established by law in India shall be punished with imprisonment for life.
Facts In a public meeting, Mahendra Pratap, the leader of opposition party thunders, "This is a government of scoundrels, boot loggers, and scamsters. They deserve to be unseated. Teach them a lesson in the coming elections by voting them out of power." The government is contemplating to prosecute Mr Mahendra Pratap.

Solution:

Sedition is defined in Section 124 A IPC.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following
I. Entrustment
II. Misappropriation, conversion or disposal with dishonest intention.
III. Misappropriation or conversion to one's own use.
Q. In which of the following offences are the above essential ingredients'!

Solution:

Criminal breach of trust is defined in Section 405 IPC.

QUESTION: 97

X a revenue officer, having dominion over public money by virtue of his office and is either directed by law, or bound by a contract, express or implied, with the government, to pay into a certain treasury all the public money which he holds. X dishonestly appropriates the money. Which one of the following offences has X committed under IPC?

Solution:

See Section 405 IPC illustration (e).

QUESTION: 98

Who among the following can avail the benefit of Right of Private Defense, under chapter IV of IPC?
I. Only the defender, being a preventive right.
II. An offender, while facing action on the part of the defender, which is excessive.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

See the Section 96 to 106 IPC.

QUESTION: 99

A with the intention of committing theft entered the house of B. B, on seeing him entering, struck him with an* iron rod and A fell down unconscious. Thereafter, B gave him another blow of iron rod at his head, which caused his death. On being prosecuted for murder, B took the plea of private defense. Which of the following argument is valid?

Solution:

See Section 99, 103, 104, 105 IPC.

QUESTION: 100

Principle
I. An agreement enforceable in a court of law is a contract.
II. In order for an agreement to be enforceable in a court of law, there must be a meeting of minds between both the parties.
III. Parties to a contract should do something for the other party. The obligation to do something for the other party is mutual. This is called 'consideration' and absence of consideration render the contract unenforceable.
Facts Ashwini promised to take Rohit out or a dinner in Le Meridian. Even after 2 weeks, Ashwini did not fulfil his promise. Rohit wants to sue Ashwini to enforce that promise. If Rohit goes to court.

Solution:

See Section 2[d], 2(h) and 13, 14 of Indian Contract Act.

QUESTION: 101

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) The preamble of the Constitution starts with, 'We the people of India'.
Reason (R) It implies that the Constitution is created by the entire nation.

Solution:

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true.

QUESTION: 102

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) Although the word federation finds no mention in the Constitution of India, India is a federation.
Reason (R) In a Parliamentary democracy, executive is held responsible to the legislature.

Solution:

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) ar individually true.

QUESTION: 103

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) The council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the lower house.
Reason (R) Most of the Ministers are from lower house.

Solution:

Article 75 says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People Ministers may be any house. Both Assertion A and Reason R are individually true.

QUESTION: 104

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) The Council of Ministers is a composite body.
Reason (R) The number of members of the Council of Ministers is specified in the Constitution.

Solution:

Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is not true

QUESTION: 105

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed as Fundamental Right.
Reason (R) Supreme Court of India has been appointed as the guardian of the Constitution.

Solution:

Article 32 says that remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by Part III. The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true.

QUESTION: 106

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) In tort of negligence, the defendant must not only owe the plaintiff a duty of care, he must be in breach of it.
Reason (R) Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon by those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do.

Solution:

Negligence is given in tort for this fart.

QUESTION: 107

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) Ex-post-facto laws are void if they provide for punishment of an act that had been lawful when done.
Reason (R) Imposing or increasing a penalty with retrospective effect for violation of a taxing statute does not infringe prohibition against ex-post-facto laws.

Solution:

Article 20 (1) says that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. This is expost facto laws.

QUESTION: 108

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) If A does some work of B, without his request or knowledge, he can stillsue for the value of his work.
Reason (R) Acquiescence can be presumed from silence.

Solution:

Section 13 of Contract Art says that two or more persons are said to consent when they agree upon the same thing in the same sense. Section 14 of Contract Art says about free consent. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, fraud, undue influence, mistake.

QUESTION: 109

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) A legal right is a legally protected interest.
Reason (R) An element of advantage is essential to constitute a right.

Solution:

It is our right.

QUESTION: 110

Direction: Each of the next 10 questions consists of two statements are labelled as 'Assertion (A) and other of 'Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R) Customs represent common consciousness of people.

Solution:

See customs in Personal Laws.

QUESTION: 111

Principle A contract is an agreement which the law will enforce. All agreements are contracts if they are made with free consent by parties competent to contract for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object.
Facts Varun, a young man of 28 yrs without any consideration agrees to give Vivek Rs 20000. Varun fails to fulfil his promise. Vivek files a suit against Varun for the amount.

Solution:

Section of 2[d] of Contract Act defines consideration. Section 25 says agreement without consideration void unless it is in writing and registered or is a promise to compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law.

QUESTION: 112

Releasing an arrested person after taking a bond or surety is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

The Preamble to the Constitution of India was amended in the which year?

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

The legal branch of the Indian Army is known as

Solution:
QUESTION: 115

 A husband is obliged to maintain his divorced wife

Solution:
QUESTION: 116

Direction: In the word 'ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH', the first half of the letters are reversed, last but one letter is then prefixed, then finally letter 'S' is suffixed
Q. Which letter will be exactly in the middle?

Solution:

Following instructions as given in the question, the new arrangement of letters would be 'PACORTCELERDIOGRAHS' and therefore letter E exists exactly in the middle.

QUESTION: 117

Direction: In the word 'ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH', the first half of the letters are reversed, last but one letter is then prefixed, then finally letter 'S' is suffixed
Q. How many vowels will be to the left of the middle letter?

Solution:

There are three vowels A, 0, E to the left of middle letter E.

QUESTION: 118

Direction: In the word 'ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH', the first half of the letters are reversed, last but one letter is then prefixed, then finally letter 'S' is suffixed
Q. Which of the two vowels will be adjoining each other?

Solution:
QUESTION: 119

Direction: In the word 'ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH', the first half of the letters are reversed, last but one letter is then prefixed, then finally letter 'S' is suffixed
Q. Which vowel will have a consonant to the left but a vowel to the right of it?

Solution:

Vowel I has a consonant D to the left but a vowel to the right of it.

QUESTION: 120

Direction: In the word 'ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH', the first half of the letters are reversed, last but one letter is then prefixed, then finally letter 'S' is suffixed
Q. Name the letter sandwiched between two vowels.

Solution:

Letters C and L are sandwiched between two vowels A (C) 0 and E (L) E.

QUESTION: 121

If 'PICTURE' is coded as 'tuvwxyz', then 'PATCH' would be coded as

Solution:

Codes for P, T and C will be t, w and v, respectively (direct coding) and codes for A and H will be letters other than which have appeared in coding of 'PICTURE'. Hence, 'PATCH' will be coded as 'tqwvm'.

QUESTION: 122

A and B are sisters. A is the mother of D. B has a daughter C who is married to F. G is the husband of A. How is B related to F?

Solution:

F is the husband of C and B is the mother of C. Therefore, B is the mother-in-law of F.

QUESTION: 123

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There are five teachers A, B, C, D and E who teach different subjects.
(ii) B teaches Psychology and is Ph. D. D teaches Sociology and he is also a Ph. D.
(iii) Lady teachers neither teach Education nor Management.
(iv) Teacher who teaches Anthropology is Ph. D and he is a man.
(v) A and C are not Ph. D. and A does not teach Education.
Q. Who teaches Management?

Solution:

B and D teach Psychology and Sociology respectively and therefore are lady teachers. From the truth table, we get that E teaches Anthropology and is a man. The information can be summarized in the table as below 

A, male teacher teaches Management.

QUESTION: 124

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There are five teachers A, B, C, D and E who teach different subjects.
(ii) B teaches Psychology and is Ph. D. D teaches Sociology and he is also a Ph. D.
(iii) Lady teachers neither teach Education nor Management.
(iv) Teacher who teaches Anthropology is Ph. D and he is a man.
(v) A and C are not Ph. D. and A does not teach Education.
Q. Who teaches Education?

Solution:

B and D teach Psychology and Sociology respectively and therefore are lady teachers. From the truth table, we get that E teaches Anthropology and is a man. The information can be summarized in the table as below
C, the male teacher teaches Education.

QUESTION: 125

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There are five teachers A, B, C, D and E who teach different subjects.
(ii) B teaches Psychology and is Ph. D. D teaches Sociology and he is also a Ph. D.
(iii) Lady teachers neither teach Education nor Management.
(iv) Teacher who teaches Anthropology is Ph. D and he is a man.
(v) A and C are not Ph. D. and A does not teach Education.
Q. Which of the following statements is true?

Solution:

B and D teach Psychology and Sociology respectively and therefore are lady teachers. From the truth table, we get that E teaches Anthropology and is a man. The information can be summarized in the table as below

Both the ladies B and D are Ph. D.

QUESTION: 126

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There are five teachers A, B, C, D and E who teach different subjects.
(ii) B teaches Psychology and is Ph. D. D teaches Sociology and he is also a Ph. D.
(iii) Lady teachers neither teach Education nor Management.
(iv) Teacher who teaches Anthropology is Ph. D and he is a man.
(v) A and C are not Ph. D. and A does not teach Education.
Q. Who teaches Anthropology?

Solution:

B and D teach Psychology and Sociology respectively and therefore are lady teachers. From the truth table, we get that E teaches Anthropology and is a man. The information can be summarized in the table as below

E teaches Anthropology.

QUESTION: 127

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There are five teachers A, B, C, D and E who teach different subjects.
(ii) B teaches Psychology and is Ph. D. D teaches Sociology and he is also a Ph. D.
(iii) Lady teachers neither teach Education nor Management.
(iv) Teacher who teaches Anthropology is Ph. D and he is a man.
(v) A and C are not Ph. D. and A does not teach Education.
Q. Who are the male members?

Solution:

B and D teach Psychology and Sociology respectively and therefore are lady teachers. From the truth table, we get that E teaches Anthropology and is a man. The information can be summarized in the table as below

A, C, E is the group of male teachers.

QUESTION: 128

 Whenever Amit sings, Bharat gets a headache and Chandu complains. If Chandu is not complaining, which of the following statements must be true?

Solution:

Since, if Amit sings, then Bharat gets a headache and Chandu complains. Then we're told that Chandu is not complaining. Using the contrapositive, we get the following logic. If Bharat doesn't have a headache and/or if Chandu isn't complaining, then Amit must not be singing. So, if Chandu is not complaining then there is no way that Amit is singing.

QUESTION: 129

Direction: 'Kya-Kya' is an island in the South pacific The inhabitants of 'Kya-Kya' always answer any question with two sentences. One of which is always true and the other always false.
You are walking on a road and come to a fork. You ask the inhabitants Ram, Laxman and Lila, "which road will take me to the village?"
Ram says, "I never speak to strangers, I am new to these parts.
"Laxman says, "I am married to Lila. Take the left road" Lila says, "I am married to Ram. He is not new to this place.
Q. "Which of the following is true?

Solution:

'Lila is married to Laxman' is the correct statement.

QUESTION: 130

Direction: 'Kya-Kya' is an island in the South pacific The inhabitants of 'Kya-Kya' always answer any question with two sentences. One of which is always true and the other always false.
You find that your boat is stolen. You question three inhabitants of the island and they reply as follows John says, "I didn't do it Mathew didn't do it.
"Mathew says, "I didn't do it. Krishna didn't do it." Krishna says, "I didn't do it. I don't know who did it." Who stole your boat?

Solution:

Let us assume first part of the first statement to be true, then second part will be false. If we relate these results with second and then third statements assuming one part to be true and other false. Then, we will find that answer is Mathew. On the contrary, if we assume first half of the first statement to be false and second to be true, then there will be two answers John and Krishna, which cannot be true. Hence, the correct answer is Mathew.

QUESTION: 131

Direction: 'Kya-Kya' is an island in the South pacific The inhabitants of 'Kya-Kya' always answer any question with two sentences. One of which is always true and the other always false.
You want to speak to the chief of the village. You question three inhabitants?Amar, Bobby and Charles. Only Bobby is wearing red shirt.
I. Amar says, "I am not Bobby's son. The chief wears a red shirt."
II. Bobby says, "I am Amar's father. Charles is the chief."
III. Charles says, "The chief is one among us. I am the chief." Who is the chief?

Solution:

It is clear that Bobby is the chief. All other options go contrary to the information.

QUESTION: 132

Direction: 'Kya-Kya' is an island in the South pacific The inhabitants of 'Kya-Kya' always answer any question with two sentences. One of which is always true and the other always false.
There is only one pilot on the island You interview three men?Koik, Lony and Mima You also notice that Koik is wearing a cap.
I. Mirna says, "Lony's father is the pilot. Lony is not the priest's son."
II. Koik says, "I am the priest on this island Only pilot can wear caps."
III. Lony says, "I am the priest's son. Koik is not the priest.
Q. "Which of the following is true?

Solution:

Option (b) is the only correct statement.

QUESTION: 133

Direction: 'Kya-Kya' is an island in the South pacific The inhabitants of 'Kya-Kya' always answer any question with two sentences. One of which is always true and the other always false.
Three of the following four pairs of alphabets and numerals have same relationship between their elements as in the case of the pair "PROBLEM: 2948375" and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

Solution:

PROBLEM → 2948375. Therefore, 'MOEP? would be coded as '5472' instead of '5972'. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 134

Direction: In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can disregarding commonly known facts be logically derived
Statements
All locks are keys.
All keys are bats.
Some clocks are bats.
Conclusions
I. Some bats are locks.
II. Some clocks are keys.
III. All keys are locks.

Solution:

 L→ Looks K→ Keys B→ Bats C→ Clocks

QUESTION: 135

Direction: In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can disregarding commonly known facts be logically derived
Statements
Some cups are pots.
All pots are tubes.
All cups are bottles.
Conclusions
I. Some bottles are tubes.
II. Some pots are bottles.
III. Some tubes are cups.

Solution:

C→ Cup P→ Pots T→ Tubes B→ Bottles

QUESTION: 136

Direction: In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can disregarding commonly known facts be logically derived
Statements
All papers are books
All bags are books.
Some purses are bags.
Conclusions
I. Some papers are bags.
II. Some books are papers.
III. Some books are purses.

Solution:

 P→ Papers B→ Books

QUESTION: 137

Direction: In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can disregarding commonly known facts be logically derived
Statements
Some cars are jeeps.
All boxes are jeeps.
All pens are cars.
Conclusions
I. Some cars are boxes.
II. No pen is jeep.
III. Some boxes are cars.

Solution:

P→ Pens C→ Cars J→ Jeep B→ Boxes

QUESTION: 138

Direction: In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can disregarding commonly known facts be logically derived


Statements:
Some rats are cats.
Some cats are dogs.
No dog is a cow.


Conclusions:
I. No cow is a cat.
II. No dog is a rat.
III. Some cats are rats.

Solution:

QUESTION: 139

Direction: Find the wrong number in each of the following series.
2,11, 38, 197, 1172, 8227, 65806

Solution:

 

Series pattern is 2×3+5=11 11×4−6=38 38×5+7=197 197×6−8=1174 should come in place of 1172 1174×7+9=8227 8227×8−10=65806

QUESTION: 140

Direction: Find the wrong number in each of the following series.
16, 19, 21, 30,46, 71,107

Solution:

 

Series pattern is 16+12=27 should come in place of 19 17+22=21  21+32=30 30+42=46 46+52=71

QUESTION: 141

Direction: Find the wrong number in each of the following series.
7,9,16,25,41,68,107, 173

Solution:

 

Series pattern is

7+9=16 9+16=25 16+25=41 25+41=66 should come in place of 68 41+66=107

QUESTION: 142

Direction: Find the wrong number in each of the following series.
4, 2, 3, 5, 7,5, 2,25,118.125

Solution:

Series pattern is ×0.5,×1.5,×2.5,×3.5,..., so on So, 2×1.5=3 Hence, 3.5 should be replaced by 3.

QUESTION: 143

Direction: Find the wrong number in each of the following series.
16, 4, 2, 1.5, 1.75, 1.875

Solution:

Series pattern is ×0.25,×0.50,×0.75,×1,×1.25,... So, 1.5×1.00=1.5 Hence, 1.75 must be replaced by 1.5

QUESTION: 144

A is East of B and West of C, H is South-West of C, B is South-East of X. Which is the farthest to the West?

Solution:

Hence, X is the farthest West.

QUESTION: 145

Monopoly is characterized by an absence of or decline in competition. The ABC Company realize that is operations are in competitive industries. Which of the following conclusions may be inferred from the above?

Solution:

Since, ABC operates in competitive industries, it can be directly inferred that its market is not monopolistic.

QUESTION: 146

Direction: Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two Arguments \ and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak argument'.
Statement Is paying ransom or agreeing to the conditions of kidnappers of political figures, a proper course of action?
Arguments
I. Yes, the victims must be saved at all costs.
II. No, if encourages the kidnappers to continue their sinister activities.

Solution:

Both arguments are strong about paying ransom to free hostages.

QUESTION: 147

Direction: Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two Arguments \ and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak argument'.
Statement Is buying things on instalments profitable to the customer?
Arguments
I. Yes, he has to pay less.
II. No, paying instalments upsets the family budget.

Solution:

From Argument I, paying less means it is profitable for him. Argument II is not relevant.

QUESTION: 148

Direction: Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two Arguments \ and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak argument'.
Statement Should agriculture in rural India be mechanized?
Arguments
I. Yes, it would lead to the higher production.
II. No, then many villagers would be left unemployed

Solution:

Both the arguments strongly defend/criticize the mechanization.

QUESTION: 149

Direction: Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two Arguments \ and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak argument'.
Statement Should new big industries be started in Mumbai?
Arguments
I. Yes, it will create job opportunities.
II. No, it will further add to the pollution of the city,

Solution:

Both the arguments are strong in their justification of the cause.

QUESTION: 150

Direction: Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two Arguments \ and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak argument'.
Statement Should military service be made compulsory in our country?
Arguments
I. No, it is against the policy of non-violence.
II. Yes, every citizen should protect his country.

Solution:

Argument I is not relevant but Argument II strongly supports the cause of concern.

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