Clat Mock Test - 10


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | Clat Mock Test - 10


Description
This mock test of Clat Mock Test - 10 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT Clat Mock Test - 10 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Clat Mock Test - 10 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this Clat Mock Test - 10 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Clat Mock Test - 10 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given
Feint

Solution:

'Feint' means a 'sham attack' or a pretence.

QUESTION: 2

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given
Immaculate

Solution:

'Immaculate' means 'pure', faultless, unstained or spotless.

QUESTION: 3

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given
Liner

Solution:

'Liner' means 'a ship belonging to a line' or a ocean vessels.

QUESTION: 4

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given
Patronize

Solution:

'Patronize' means 'act as patron towards', patron means regular customer, one who 'supports'.

QUESTION: 5

Direction: Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given
Rite

Solution:

'Rite' means 'religious' or solemn ceremony.

QUESTION: 6

Direction: Each of the following questions consists of a words followed by four word or group of words, select the antonym of the words given.
Obdurate

Solution:

'Obdurate' means 'inflexible', rigid or stubborn. 'Suppleness' means flexible, soft and tender.

QUESTION: 7

Direction: Each of the following questions consists of a words followed by four word or group of words, select the antonym of the words given.
Corpulent

Solution:

'Corpulent' means 'obese', ugly and awkward while 'delicate' is thin, lean and slim.So the best suited answer is delicate.

QUESTION: 8

Direction: Each of the following questions consists of a words followed by four word or group of words, select the antonym of the words given.
Verbiage

Solution:

'Verbiage' means 'redundancy' or tediousness. 'Brevity' means terseness or compression.

QUESTION: 9

Direction: Each of the following questions consists of a words followed by four word or group of words, select the antonym of the words given.
Jeer

Solution:

'Jeer' means 'mock', taunt or ridicule opposite of it inspire, encourage stimulate or? comfort'.

QUESTION: 10

Direction: Each of the following questions consists of a words followed by four word or group of words, select the antonym of the words given.
Defer

Solution:

'Defer' means 'prolong', suspend, postpone or delay 'hasten' means accelerate, expedite or stimulate.

QUESTION: 11

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
China has entered into alliance ...... Pakistan against India

Solution:

'Alliance with' (joined or united)

QUESTION: 12

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
had no alternative but to acquiesce ...... his unfair demand

Solution:

'Acquiesce in' (accept passively)

QUESTION: 13

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
Jahanara's wisdom was analogous ...... her beauty.

Solution:

'Analogous to' means (similar to)

QUESTION: 14

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
During the course of speech, the principal enlarged ...... the need of improving college library.

Solution:

'Enlarged upon' (write or say more)

QUESTION: 15

Direction: Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
We have decided to adhere ...... the original programme.

Solution:

'Adhere to' (or stick to)

QUESTION: 16

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
It was bank's gung-ho approach to lending which led it to bankruptcy.

Solution:

Gung-ho means too eager to do 5th, or often without thinking about the risks involved in a situation.

QUESTION: 17

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
The coach has been gunning for me, since the day I joined the team.

Solution:

Be gunning for means 'try to harm or defeat'.

QUESTION: 18

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
He laughed his head off while watching the movie.

Solution:

'Head off means to laugh/scream/shout etc, very much and very loudly.

QUESTION: 19

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
The opposition suspects the ruling party is hand in glove with mining businesses.

Solution:

Hand in glove means in 'close alliance with'.

QUESTION: 20

Direction: Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.
The slum dwellers are at the bottom of the heap with the little hope of improving their condition.

Solution:

At the bottom of the heap means 'in a worse situation' than anyone else in a group of people.

QUESTION: 21

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.
Melange

Solution:

Melange means mixture, blending or 'medley'.

QUESTION: 22

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.
In terrorem

Solution:

In terrorem means 'warning'.

QUESTION: 23

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.
Pro tempore

Solution:

For the time being or 'temporarily'.

QUESTION: 24

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.
Sine die

Solution:

Sine die means 'without a difinite day' of a meating adjaurned for an indefinite period

QUESTION: 25

Direction: Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.
Noli me tangere

Solution:

Noli me tanger 'do not touch me'.

QUESTION: 26

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in the correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

S1: In the inter-class Zenana compartment was Lachmi, fair and fat
P: Against the station lights her mouth was bloated with betel saliva
Q: As the train sped past the lighted part of the platform
R: Which she had been storing up to spit as soon as the train had cleared the station
S: On whose nose the diamond nose ring glistend
S6: Lady let spot and sent a jet of red dribble flying across like a dart.
Q. The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 27

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

S1: He said, 'The poem is not going well'
P : At the coconut tree, and he was speaking as through/I was not there
Q : Then, almost in front of my eyes, I could see his face growing older and more tired
R : He was not looking at me. He was looking through the window
S : He said, "When/I was twenty/I felt the power within myself
S6: He said, but that was a long time ago.
Q. The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 28

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

S1: Sunbirds are among the smallest of Indian birds
P: Though they are functionally similar to the humming birds of the new world, they are totally unrelated
Q: They do eat small insects too
R: They are also some of the most brilliantly colored birds
S: Sunbirds feed mostly on nector and help in pollination
S6: Our common sunbirds are the purple sunbird, the glossy species and purple rumped sunbird, the yellow and maroon species.The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 29

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

S1:  I walked along alberto street
P: It had been pulled down and a big two storeyed building had taken its place
Q: It had not vanished, just like that
R: The mango tree and the plum tree and the coconut tree had all been cut down
S: A year later but I could find no sign of the poet's house
S6:  And there was brick and concrete everywhere.The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 30

Direction: Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

S1: The doctor surrounded the long nosed one
P: One doctor blocked the nostril of the long-nosed one
Q: Another doctor took a needle and punctured the tip of his nose.
R: In the presence of the President and Cabinet Ministers
S: He immidiately opened his mouth wide
S6: To his amasement a drop of blood appeared at the tip of the nose.The proper sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
It still remains to speak of-one of the principle causes which make diversity of opinion advantageous and will continue to do so until mankind shall have entered a stage of intellectual advancement, which at present seems at an incalculable distance. We have hitherto considered only two possibilities; that the received opinion may be false and some other opinions, consequently, under revived opinions being true, a conflict with the opposite error is essential to a clear apprehension and deep feeling of its truth. But there is a commoner case than either of these: when the conflicting doctrines, instead of being one true and the other false, share the truth between them and the nonconforming opinion is needed to supply the reminder of the truth, sometimes a greater, sometimes a smaller part, but exaggerated, distorted and disjointed from the truths by which they ought to be accompanied and limited Heretical opinions, on the other hand, are generally some of these suppressed and neglected truths, bursting the bonds which kept them down and either seeking reconciliation with the truth contained in the common opinion or fronting it as enemies and setting themselves up, with similar exclusiveness, as the whole truth. The later case is hitherto the most frequent, as in the human mind, one-sidedness has always been the rule and many sideness the exception. Hence, even in revolutions of opinion, one part of the truth usually sets while another rises. Even progress which ought to super add, for the most part only substitutes, one partial and incomplete truth for another, improvement consisting chiefly in this, that the new fragment of truth is more wanted, more adapted to the needs of the time, that which it displaces.
Such being the partial character of prevailing opinions, even when resting on a true foundation, every opinion which embodies somewhat of the portion of truth which the common opinion omits, ought to be considered precious, with whatever amount of error and confusion that truth may be blended No sober judge of human affair will feel bound to be indignant because those who force on our notice truths which we should otherwise have overlooked, overlook some of those which we see. Rather, he will thing that so long as popular truth is one-sided, it is more desirable than otherwise that unpopular truth should have one-sided assertors too; such being usually the most energetic and the most likely to compel reluctant attention to the fragment of wisdom which they proclaim as if it were the whole.
According to the author

Solution:

According to the author, diversity of opinion will always be advantageous because it helps us to compete with right and wrong. We should able to understand the difference between the truth and error which revived the deep feelings of the truth and steps us, towards the moralities of life.

QUESTION: 32

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
It still remains to speak of-one of the principle causes which make diversity of opinion advantageous and will continue to do so until mankind shall have entered a stage of intellectual advancement, which at present seems at an incalculable distance. We have hitherto considered only two possibilities; that the received opinion may be false and some other opinions, consequently, under revived opinions being true, a conflict with the opposite error is essential to a clear apprehension and deep feeling of its truth. But there is a commoner case than either of these: when the conflicting doctrines, instead of being one true and the other false, share the truth between them and the nonconforming opinion is needed to supply the reminder of the truth, sometimes a greater, sometimes a smaller part, but exaggerated, distorted and disjointed from the truths by which they ought to be accompanied and limited Heretical opinions, on the other hand, are generally some of these suppressed and neglected truths, bursting the bonds which kept them down and either seeking reconciliation with the truth contained in the common opinion or fronting it as enemies and setting themselves up, with similar exclusiveness, as the whole truth. The later case is hitherto the most frequent, as in the human mind, one-sidedness has always been the rule and many sideness the exception. Hence, even in revolutions of opinion, one part of the truth usually sets while another rises. Even progress which ought to super add, for the most part only substitutes, one partial and incomplete truth for another, improvement consisting chiefly in this, that the new fragment of truth is more wanted, more adapted to the needs of the time, that which it displaces.
Such being the partial character of prevailing opinions, even when resting on a true foundation, every opinion which embodies somewhat of the portion of truth which the common opinion omits, ought to be considered precious, with whatever amount of error and confusion that truth may be blended No sober judge of human affair will feel bound to be indignant because those who force on our notice truths which we should otherwise have overlooked, overlook some of those which we see. Rather, he will thing that so long as popular truth is one-sided, it is more desirable than otherwise that unpopular truth should have one-sided assertors too; such being usually the most energetic and the most likely to compel reluctant attention to the fragment of wisdom which they proclaim as if it were the whole.
Q. The author of the view is that

Solution:

Its clear from the passage that conflicting doctrines including a non-conformist view complement each other, people of unorthodox opinion and conformist those, who are strictly orthodox and believes in their own views and not ready to change them self with the changing world They both fight together with each other with the endless diversities of their views.

QUESTION: 33

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
It still remains to speak of-one of the principle causes which make diversity of opinion advantageous and will continue to do so until mankind shall have entered a stage of intellectual advancement, which at present seems at an incalculable distance. We have hitherto considered only two possibilities; that the received opinion may be false and some other opinions, consequently, under revived opinions being true, a conflict with the opposite error is essential to a clear apprehension and deep feeling of its truth. But there is a commoner case than either of these: when the conflicting doctrines, instead of being one true and the other false, share the truth between them and the nonconforming opinion is needed to supply the reminder of the truth, sometimes a greater, sometimes a smaller part, but exaggerated, distorted and disjointed from the truths by which they ought to be accompanied and limited Heretical opinions, on the other hand, are generally some of these suppressed and neglected truths, bursting the bonds which kept them down and either seeking reconciliation with the truth contained in the common opinion or fronting it as enemies and setting themselves up, with similar exclusiveness, as the whole truth. The later case is hitherto the most frequent, as in the human mind, one-sidedness has always been the rule and many sideness the exception. Hence, even in revolutions of opinion, one part of the truth usually sets while another rises. Even progress which ought to super add, for the most part only substitutes, one partial and incomplete truth for another, improvement consisting chiefly in this, that the new fragment of truth is more wanted, more adapted to the needs of the time, that which it displaces.
Such being the partial character of prevailing opinions, even when resting on a true foundation, every opinion which embodies somewhat of the portion of truth which the common opinion omits, ought to be considered precious, with whatever amount of error and confusion that truth may be blended No sober judge of human affair will feel bound to be indignant because those who force on our notice truths which we should otherwise have overlooked, overlook some of those which we see. Rather, he will thing that so long as popular truth is one-sided, it is more desirable than otherwise that unpopular truth should have one-sided assertors too; such being usually the most energetic and the most likely to compel reluctant attention to the fragment of wisdom which they proclaim as if it were the whole.
Q. The best policy for us is to

Solution:

Authour says the best policy for us is to strike a balance between received opinion and its opposite, we should not always view person having a opposite view as a enemy and we should always considered it and listened them carefully to their opinion. There might be some solution come out which dissolved the difference of views to some extend

QUESTION: 34

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
It still remains to speak of-one of the principle causes which make diversity of opinion advantageous and will continue to do so until mankind shall have entered a stage of intellectual advancement, which at present seems at an incalculable distance. We have hitherto considered only two possibilities; that the received opinion may be false and some other opinions, consequently, under revived opinions being true, a conflict with the opposite error is essential to a clear apprehension and deep feeling of its truth. But there is a commoner case than either of these: when the conflicting doctrines, instead of being one true and the other false, share the truth between them and the nonconforming opinion is needed to supply the reminder of the truth, sometimes a greater, sometimes a smaller part, but exaggerated, distorted and disjointed from the truths by which they ought to be accompanied and limited Heretical opinions, on the other hand, are generally some of these suppressed and neglected truths, bursting the bonds which kept them down and either seeking reconciliation with the truth contained in the common opinion or fronting it as enemies and setting themselves up, with similar exclusiveness, as the whole truth. The later case is hitherto the most frequent, as in the human mind, one-sidedness has always been the rule and many sideness the exception. Hence, even in revolutions of opinion, one part of the truth usually sets while another rises. Even progress which ought to super add, for the most part only substitutes, one partial and incomplete truth for another, improvement consisting chiefly in this, that the new fragment of truth is more wanted, more adapted to the needs of the time, that which it displaces.
Such being the partial character of prevailing opinions, even when resting on a true foundation, every opinion which embodies somewhat of the portion of truth which the common opinion omits, ought to be considered precious, with whatever amount of error and confusion that truth may be blended No sober judge of human affair will feel bound to be indignant because those who force on our notice truths which we should otherwise have overlooked, overlook some of those which we see. Rather, he will thing that so long as popular truth is one-sided, it is more desirable than otherwise that unpopular truth should have one-sided assertors too; such being usually the most energetic and the most likely to compel reluctant attention to the fragment of wisdom which they proclaim as if it were the whole.
Q. The progress of humanity is reflected in

Solution:

The progress of humanity is reflected in the displacement of error by truth means that we should replace all the heretical and orthodox confliction from our society from thousands of year. Our society is facing this endless fight, we should now raise our self from this fight and try to meet this incalculable distance from the truth.

QUESTION: 35

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage
It still remains to speak of-one of the principle causes which make diversity of opinion advantageous and will continue to do so until mankind shall have entered a stage of intellectual advancement, which at present seems at an incalculable distance. We have hitherto considered only two possibilities; that the received opinion may be false and some other opinions, consequently, under revived opinions being true, a conflict with the opposite error is essential to a clear apprehension and deep feeling of its truth. But there is a commoner case than either of these: when the conflicting doctrines, instead of being one true and the other false, share the truth between them and the nonconforming opinion is needed to supply the reminder of the truth, sometimes a greater, sometimes a smaller part, but exaggerated, distorted and disjointed from the truths by which they ought to be accompanied and limited Heretical opinions, on the other hand, are generally some of these suppressed and neglected truths, bursting the bonds which kept them down and either seeking reconciliation with the truth contained in the common opinion or fronting it as enemies and setting themselves up, with similar exclusiveness, as the whole truth. The later case is hitherto the most frequent, as in the human mind, one-sidedness has always been the rule and many sideness the exception. Hence, even in revolutions of opinion, one part of the truth usually sets while another rises. Even progress which ought to super add, for the most part only substitutes, one partial and incomplete truth for another, improvement consisting chiefly in this, that the new fragment of truth is more wanted, more adapted to the needs of the time, that which it displaces.
Such being the partial character of prevailing opinions, even when resting on a true foundation, every opinion which embodies somewhat of the portion of truth which the common opinion omits, ought to be considered precious, with whatever amount of error and confusion that truth may be blended No sober judge of human affair will feel bound to be indignant because those who force on our notice truths which we should otherwise have overlooked, overlook some of those which we see. Rather, he will thing that so long as popular truth is one-sided, it is more desirable than otherwise that unpopular truth should have one-sided assertors too; such being usually the most energetic and the most likely to compel reluctant attention to the fragment of wisdom which they proclaim as if it were the whole.
Q. The best title for the above extract would be

Solution:

In complete passage, we are concluding that what is good for our society, thing which one should avoid and can enhance the nation and how should one can differentiate between right and wrong for all these thing more and more knowledge is required, so we can say 'let noble thoughts come from all sides.

QUESTION: 36

Solution:

 

QUESTION: 37

The sum of the AP(2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 12) is equal to

Solution:

Here, a  = 2 , d = 4−2 = 2 and n = 6 ∴= 3(4+5×2)=3(4+10) = 3 × 14 = 42

 

QUESTION: 38

 

2a2+2b2+2c2−2ab−2bc−2ca

 is equal to 

Solution:

2a2+2b2+2c2−2ab−2bc−2ca  =   a2−2ab+b2)+(b2−2bc+c2)+ c2−2ca+a2) =(a−b)2+(b−c)2+(c−a)2

QUESTION: 39

A sugar solution of 3 L contains 40% sugar. One litre of water is added to this solution. The percentage of sugar hi the new solution is

Solution:

Quantity of sugar in 3 L of sugar solution =  

 and quantity of water = 3 -1.2 = 1.8 L Now, 1 L of water is added. ∴ New quantity of water = 2.8 L Total quantity of mixture = 4 L ∴ Required percentage = 

QUESTION: 40

A retailer gets a discount of 40% on the printing price of an article. The retailer sells it at the printing price. His gain per cent is

Solution:

Let the printing price = Rs x ∴ CP for the retailer =  On selling at printing rate, the profit   Profit per cent = 

QUESTION: 41

If one root of the equation ax2+x−3=0 is -1, then what is the other root?

Solution:

Since, one root of the equation ax2+x−3=0 -1. ∴      a(−1)2+(−1)−3=0 ⇒   a−4=0 ⇒   a=4 So, the equation is 4x2+x−3=0. Let the other root of this equation is a. ∴ Product of roots   

QUESTION: 42

If 24 clerks can clear 180 files in 15 days, then number of clerks required to clear 240 files in 12 days, is

Solution:

From  

∴ M2=40Hence, 40 clerks required to complete the work in time.

QUESTION: 43

The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum for 3 yr at 10% per annum is Rs.46.50, then which of the following is sum?

Solution:

Let x be the sum of amount. ∴   and   

 According to the questions,x    

x(0.331−0.3)=46.5 ⇒   x×0.031=46.5∴  x=  Hence, the sum was Rs.1500.

QUESTION: 44

A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 3 kg more for Rs 120. The original price (per kg) of sugar is

Solution:

Let original rate be Rs x per kg. New are = 80% of x=  and original quantity for Rs120=    new quantity =  

⇒  

Rs10 Hence, original rate is Rs 10 per kg.

   

QUESTION: 45

A certain sum of money becomes three times of itself in 20 yr at simple interest. In how many years does it become double of itself at the same rate of simple interest?

Solution:

Let the principal be Rs x. Amount = Rs 

3x Interest = Rs 2x ∴      Time 20 ∴  In second case, I = Rsx P = Rsx r=10 t =?
 

 

QUESTION: 46

Which one among the following rivers originates in Maharashtra and flows through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh to meet the Bay of Bengal in Andhra coast?

Solution:

The Krishna river is the third longest river in India after the Ganges and the Godavari.

QUESTION: 47

The planetary winds that blow from the sub-tropical high pressure belts to equator are known as

Solution:

 

Blowing from the sub-tropical highs or horse latitudes towards the low pressure of the inter-tropical convergence zone are the trade winds.

QUESTION: 48

On which one among the following islands Poes the Negrito tribe called 'The Unge' live,

Solution:

The Onges, the Negrito tribe, are inhabiting the little island in Andaman district.

QUESTION: 49

Which of the occupations are included under 'secondary sector as per the national income accounts?
I. Manufacturing
II. Construction
III. Gas and water supply
IV. Mining and quarrying
Q. Select the correct answer using codes given below.

Solution:

The secondary sector of the economy or industrial sector includes those economic activities that create a finished tangible product production and construction. 

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following states in India have the maximum number of fastrack courts?

Solution:

The 11th Finance Commision recommended a scheme for creation of fastrack courts in the country for disposal of long pending sessions and other cases. Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have the largest number of fastrack courts followed by Paschim Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following movements were led by Mahatma Gandhi?

I. Champaran Movement
II. Salt Satyagraha
III. Quit India Movement
IV. Tebhaga Movement
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below,

Solution:

The Tebhaga Movement was a militant campaign initiated in Banglore by the Kisan Sabha in 1946. Peasants front of Communist Party of India

QUESTION: 52

Which one among the following tribes practices fraternal polyandry?

Solution:

Polyandry is a form of marriage in which women marries more than one man at a given time. The tribes like Toda, Kota and Bota tribes practices polyandry.

QUESTION: 53

The official seat of 'World Institute of Sustainable Energy (WISE)' is located at.

Solution:

(WISE) a non-profit institute committed to the cause of promoting sustainable energy and sustainable development with special emphasis on renewable energy is situated at Pune.

QUESTION: 54

 'Ramsar convention' is associated with

Solution:

'Ramsar convention' on wetlands signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran. It is an inter governmental treaty which provides the framework for national and international cooperation for the conservation and wide use of wetlands, and their resources.

QUESTION: 55

'The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS)' is a committee of banking supervisory authorities having its headquarters at which of the following countries?

Solution:

Basel is a city in Switzerland, the headquarters of Bureau of International Settlements (BIS). Basel guidelines refer to board of supervisory standards formulated by the group of Central Banks called 'Basel Committee' on Banking Supervision (BCBS) Basel Accord

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following is/are features of 'Indian Judicial System'?

I. Indian Judicial System is based on common law system.
II. It has been designed on the pattern of adversarial system.
III. In India, there is single integrated judiciary.
IV. Indian Judicial System has been influenced by the UK and US Judiciary.

Solution:

Indian Judicial System is a single integrated system of courts for the union as well as the states, which administers both the Union and State Laws and at the dead of the entire system stands the Supreme Court of India.

QUESTION: 57

'ASEAN-India' committed to achieving a trade target of 100 billion by which of the following years?

Solution:

Both 'ASEAN India' is committed to achieving a target of $ 100 billion for trade by 2015 and also expect tariff free UNES to increase beyond the existing level in subsequent years.

QUESTION: 58

 Which of the following can be included in the fragile ecosystem?
​I. Deserts
II. Mountains
III. Wetlands
IV. Small Islands
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

Fragile ecosystems are important ecosystems with union features and resources. They include deserts, semi-arid lands, mountains, wetlands, small islands and certain coastal areas.

QUESTION: 59

'Study of atmospheric phenomena' is called

Solution:

Meteorology is the interdisciplinary scientific study of the atmosphere. Phenomenon)

QUESTION: 60

In which part of the 'Indian Constitution' has the provision for panchayats been made?

Solution:

Part IX of the Indian Constitution has the provision for panchayats.

QUESTION: 61

Which country gifted the 'Statue of Liberty' to the United States of America?

Solution:

France gifted the 'Statue of Liberty' to USA on their independence. It is still one of the best landmark of USA and probably the best gift one country gave to another.

QUESTION: 62

'Global dimming' refers to

Solution:

'Global dimming' is the gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance at the Earth's surface that was observed for several decades after the start of systematic measurement in the 1950.

QUESTION: 63

The 'Idukki hydroelectric plant' is one river

Solution:

The 'Idukki Hydroelectric Project' is the biggest hydroelectric project in Kerala It is built on the periyar river, in the ravine between the Kuravan and Kurathi hills.

QUESTION: 64

Which among the following programmes has now been restructured as the 'National Rural Livelihood Mission'?

Solution:

SJGSY is an initiative launched by the Government of India to provide sustainable income to poor people living in rural areas of the country.

QUESTION: 65

FDI in multi-brand retail trade in all products is now permitted in India subject to

I. A ceiling of 51%.
II. Minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor is US $100 million.
III. At least 50% of the procurement/processed products should be sourced from small industries.
IV. Retail sales locations set up only in cities with a population of more than ten lakh.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

' Zawar mines' are important for

Solution:

Zawar mines are important for zinc It is located in Rajasthan. It is one of the oldest zinc mines of the world

QUESTION: 67

The Government of India has made it mandatory for oil marketing companies to blend 5% ethanol with petrol. Which of the following will be the consequences of the policy?

I. Lower the India's dependence on fossil fuel.
II. Reduce the fuel import bill.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) is seen to be the some solution to reduce the multiple figure Bills for crude oil imports.

QUESTION: 68

Which among the following is the author of the book 'Sachin Born to Bat' the Journey of Crickets Ultimate Centurian?

Solution:

The book has been written by Veteran Journalist Khalid Ali Ansari and edited by Clayton Murzello is a unique ode to contemporary cricket finest batsman.

QUESTION: 69

Which city in India is called the 'Garden city'?

Solution:

Bengaluru is called as the 'Garden City' of India because of its greenery. It is also known as the 'Silicon Valley of India' because of its position as the nation's leading IT exporter.

QUESTION: 70

'Environment Planning Organization' is

Solution:

National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) is a research institute created and funded by Government of India. It was established in Nagpur in 1958.

QUESTION: 71

Which one among the following regarding 'G-20' is not correct ?

Solution:

The 'G-20' is a group of developing nations established in 2003, having 23 members. The group accounts for 60% of the world population and 70% of its farmers and 26% of the world's agricultural exports.

QUESTION: 72

Which one among the following countries initiated the process of fourth wave of democratic transition?

Solution:

The Tunisia initiated the process of fourth wave of democratic transition. Fourth wave of democratic transition is related with Arab spring i.e., a revolutionary wave of demonstrations, protests and wars began in Arab world in the 2010.

QUESTION: 73

'The Rohingya' are the miniorities of

Solution:

The 'Rohingya', though they are native to Myanmar, are ethnos linguistically related to the Indo-Ayan people of India and Bangladesh.

QUESTION: 74

What is the name of first 'Indian Research Station' in the Arctic?

Solution:

Himadri Station is 'Indian's first Arctic Research Station' located at Spitsbergen, Svarbard, Norway. The station was operated by National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research. The station was inaugurated in 2008 by Kapil Sibbal, Minister of Science and Technology.

QUESTION: 75

Which one among the following was added in the year 2012 in the list of 'World Heritage Sites' of the UNESCO?

Solution:

In the year 2012, the Western ghats was added in the list of world heritage sites of the UNESCO. It is one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the world

QUESTION: 76

In which state of India is 'Kaziranga National Park'?

Solution:

'Kaziranga National Park' is a national park in the Golaghat and Nagaon, district of Asom. It is famous for Rhinos.

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following are included in the category of direct tax in India?
I. Corporation tax
II. Tax on wealth
III. Tax on income
IV. Customs duty
V. Excise duty
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Direct tax is a tax paid directly to the government by the person on whom it is imposed

QUESTION: 78

'Human Poverty Index Developed' by UNDP is based on which of the following deprivations
I. Income
II. Literacy
III. Social service
IV. Employment
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

'Human Poverty Index' is used by the United Nations to indicate the standard of living in specific country and measure the amount of deprivation people experience in different countries.

QUESTION: 79

 Which one among the following gases readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood?

Solution:

Carbon monoxide readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood

QUESTION: 80

Cancer is more common in older people as

Solution:

Cancer is more common in older people because they have accumulated more mutations.

QUESTION: 81

Principle Nothing which is done in pursuance of or which is warranted by the judgement or order of, a Court of Justice. If done whilst such judgement or order remains in force, is an offence not with standing the court may had no Jurisdiction to pass such judgement or order provided the person doing the act in good faith believes that the court had such jurisdiction.
Facts An executioner who execute the death penalty is protected from criminimal liability.

Solution:

According to Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an executioner, who executes the death penalty is protected from criminal liability, provided the person doing the act in good faith believes that the court had such jurisdiction, secondly the act done is in pursuance of a judgement or order of, a court of justice.

QUESTION: 82

Principle Who ever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any moveable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or with both.
Facts A takes property belonging to Z out of Z's possession in good faith believing at the time when he takes it that the property belongs to himself.

Solution:

According to Section 403 of the Indian Penal Code 1860, and the principle given here, A is not guilty of any offence, because when A takes the property belonging to Z, out of Z's possession in good faith believes at that time the property belongs to himself, so the intention to commit any offence is lacking or missing, hence A is not liable for any offence.

QUESTION: 83

Principle A careless person becomes liable for his negligence when he owned a duty to care to others.
Facts As the bus was leaving the platform Basappa rushed and boarded the bus keeping the door open Beerappa, who was standing at the edge of the platform was hit by the door of the moving bus and injured Beerappa takes Basappa to court demanding monetary compensation.

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

Principle If a person incapable of entering into a contract or any one whom he is legally bound to support, is supplied by another person with necessaries suited to his condition in life, the person, who has furnished such supplies is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of such in capable person.
Facts A supplies the wife and children of B, a lunatic with necessaries suitable to their condition in life.

Solution:

According to Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 and Principle given here, A is entitled to be reimbursed from B's property.

QUESTION: 85

Principle Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody's possession without lawful justification is called tresspass of goods.
​Facts Z purchased a car from a person, who had no title to it and sent it to a garage for repair. X believing wrongly that the car was his removed it from the garage.

Solution:

According to the principle, given here X cannot be held responsible for tresspass of goods because he was under a wrong belief that the car belonged to him (X), so it is a lawful justification, as mistake of fact is excusable under law.

QUESTION: 86

An accused is presumed to be _____ until and unless he is proved otherwise.

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

The first Attorney-General of India was

Solution:

MC Setalvad (1884-1974) was an eminent Indian jurist, who became the first and longest serving Attorney General for India (1950-1963). He also remained the Chairman of the first Law Commission of India (1955-1958), which is mandated for legal reform in the country by Government of India. He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan. India's second highest civilianhonour by Government of India in 1957.

QUESTION: 88

An application under the Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be disposed as expeditiously as possible and in any case within _____ days of the receipt of the request.

Solution:

According to Section 7(1) of the Right to Information Act 2005, subject to the provision to Sub-Section (2) of Section 5 or the provision to Sub-Section (3) of Section 6, the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be on receipt of a request under Section 6 shall, as expeditiously as possible and in any case within thirty days of the receipt of the request either provide the information on payment of such fee as may be prescribed or reject the request for any of the reasons specified in sections 8 and 9

QUESTION: 89

The National Commission for Women is a

Solution:

The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body for women established in 1992 by Government of India under the provisions of the Indian Constitution, as defined in the 1990 National Commission for Women Act. The present head of the Commission is Mrs Mamta Sharma, former MLA of Bundi district, Rajasthan.

QUESTION: 90

How many women judges were chaired in the 60 years history of the Supreme Court of India?

Solution:

The first woman to be appointed to the Supreme Court was justice Fatima Beevi in 1987. She was later followed by Justice Sujata Manohar, Ruma Pal and Gyan Sudha Mishra. Justice Ranjana Desai, who was elevated from the Bombay High Court is the most recent woman judge in the Supreme Court, so that for the first time there were two women (Mishra and Desai) simultaneously in the Supreme Court.

QUESTION: 91

The FIR can be quashed in the exercise of inherent powers by

Solution:
QUESTION: 92

Persons not exempted from criminal prosecution under Indian Penal Code are

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

X voluntarily burns a valuable security belonging to Y intending to cause wrongful loss to Y, X has committed

Solution:

According to section 425 of the Indian Penal Code 1860, X has committed the offence of mischief, because he burnt a valuable security belonging to Y, intending to cause wrongful loss to Y.

QUESTION: 94

Anticipatory bail can be granted only in

Solution:

When any person apprehends that there is a move to get him arrested on false or trump up charges or due to enmity with someone or he fears that a false case is likely to be built up against him, he has the right to move the court of Session or the High Court under Section 438 of the code of criminal procedure for grant of bail in the event of his arrest and the court may, if it thinks fit, direct that in the event of such arrest he shall be released on bail. Anticipatory bail can be granted by Sessions Courts, High Courts and Supreme Court.

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following Section of CrPc deals with FIR?

Solution:

Section 154 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with FIR. According to this section, every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, whether given is writing or reduced to writing, shall be signed by the person giving it.

QUESTION: 96

The word trial is defined in Section _____ of CrPc

Solution:

The word 'trial' is not defined under any of the sections of Criminal Procedure code, 1973.

QUESTION: 97

The maker of a cheque is called

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

Income tax is a

Solution:

The Central Government has been empowered by Entry 82 of the Union List of Schedule VII of the Constitution of India to levy tax on all income other than agricultural income (subject to Section 10 (1). The Government of India imposes an income tax on taxable income of all persons including individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), companies, firms, association of persons, body of individuals, local authority and any other artificial judicial person.

QUESTION: 99

What is a caveat?

Solution:

A warning or caution, A formal notice field by an interested party with a court or officer, requesting the postponement of a proceeding until the filer is heard.

QUESTION: 100

'Law of Torts' deals with

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

A right available against the world at large is called

Solution:

right in rem or Jus in rem is of such a nature as to be available over its subject without reference to one person more than another, or as generally expressed, a right competent, or available, against all persons. Right in rem include not alone rights over physical property, but all rights available against all persons indifferently, as those of life, liberty, and reputation.

QUESTION: 102

The Constitution of India has provided

Solution:
QUESTION: 103

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between centre and the states falls under its

Solution:

According to Article 131 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court of India shall have the original Jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and one or more states.

QUESTION: 104

Which of the following is not a case related to the issue of reservations?

Solution:
QUESTION: 105

Is the answer given by the Supreme Court to a Presidential reference binding on the President?

Solution:

According to Article 143 of the Indian Constitution, the Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India is not binding on the President of India.

QUESTION: 106

Can a writ of quo warranto be issued against a Chief Minister who's appointment is illegal?

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

'Right to work in India' is

Solution:

According to Article 41 of the Indian Constitution, Right to work is a Directive Principle. According to this article, the state shall make effective provision for Securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in case of unemployment, old age, sickness and in other cases.

QUESTION: 108

After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes introduced by an amendment to the Constitution?

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

In the case of people's union for democratic rights vs UOI

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

For an affray under Section 159 of IPC the minimum number of persons required is

Solution:

According to Section 159 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860,when two or more persons, by fighting in a public place disturb the public peace, they are said to commit an affray. So, the number of persons required to commit the offence of affray is two.

QUESTION: 111

The word statement within the meaning of Section 162 of CrPc means

Solution:

According to Section 162 of the Criminal Procedure code, 1973 means narration and signs and gestures.

QUESTION: 112

Classification of offences into bailable, non- bailable cognisable and non-cognisable has been given in the code of criminal procedure under

Solution:
QUESTION: 113

Presumptions under the law of evidence are

Solution:
QUESTION: 114

Under Article 368 of the Constitution, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are

Solution:

The provisions under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, does not provide for any power to Parliament to repeal the Fundamental Rights because these are the parts of the basic structure or essential framework of the Constitution.

QUESTION: 115

Once a proclamation of emergency is made the right of a citizen to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of his Fundamental Rights is suspended by the

Solution:

According to Article 359 of the Indian Constitution, where a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the President may by order declare that the right to move any court for the enforcement of such rights, shall remain suspended for the period, during which the proclamation is in force.

QUESTION: 116

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of G.
Q. Who is to the immediate right of F?

Solution:

QUESTION: 117

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of G.
Q. Who is third to the right of K?

Solution:

QUESTION: 118

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of G.
Q. What is E's position with respect to B?

Solution:

QUESTION: 119

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of G.
Q. Who is fourth to the left of G?

Solution:

QUESTION: 120

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of G.
​Q. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons?

Solution:

QUESTION: 121

Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even. If they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements Some trains are cars. All cars are branches. All branches are nets. Some nets are dresses.
Conclusions
I. Some dresses are cars.
II. Some nets are trains.
III. Some branches are trains.
IV. Some dresses are trains.

Solution:

 T→ Trains B→ Branches D→ Dresses C→ Cars N→ Nets

QUESTION: 122

Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even. If they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements
All papers are clips.
Some clips are boards.
Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
Conclusions
I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips.
III. Some boards are papers.
​IV. Some roads are clips.

Solution:

 

 P→ Papers B→ Boards R→ Roads C

→ Clips L→ Lanes

QUESTION: 123

Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even. If they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements
Some pencils are kites.
Some kites are desks.
All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions
I. Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
III. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites.

Solution:

 P→Pencils K→ Kits D→ Desks J→ Jungles M→ Mountains

QUESTION: 124

Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even. If they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements
All stones are hammers.
No hammer is ring.
Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
Conclusions
I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings.
III. No window is stone.
​IV. Some rings are stones.

Solution:

S→ Stones R→ Rings W→ Windows H → Hammers D→ Doors

QUESTION: 125

Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even. If they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements
All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Conclusions
I. Some buses are tyres.
II. Some wheels are clocks.
III. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.

Solution:

 P→ Pens C→ Clock T→ Tyres W→ Wheels B→ Buses

QUESTION: 126

 What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?
'CEAIKGOQM'

Solution:

QUESTION: 127

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL' each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

Solution:

RU, LN, NR and LR.

QUESTION: 128

Direction: Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Statement Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India?
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution.
II. No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence generation of electricity needs to be augmented
III. No, many developed countries continue to setup thermal power plants in their countries.

Solution:

Only Argument II is strong.

QUESTION: 129

Direction: Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Statement Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night?
Arguments
I. No, this way the work will never get completed
II. No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity.
III. Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

Direction: Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Statements Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the central of state universities in India?
Arguments
I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised
II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Government controls.
III. Yes, many such universities are basically money-spinning activities and education takes a backseat in these institutions.

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

Direction: Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Statement Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?
Arguments
I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.
II. Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country, where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.
​III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw ground water any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it.

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

Direction: Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Statement Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India?
Arguments
I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.
II. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.
​III. Yes, the Government should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
​A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row but C and D cannot be together. Also, B cannot be at the third place.
Q. Which of the following must be false?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  There is only one position i.e., position (2), where A can occupy first place but it is not possible because as per restriction B cannot occupy third position.

QUESTION: 134

Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row but C and D cannot be together. Also, B cannot be at the third place.
Q. If A is not at the third place, then C has which of the following option?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.   If A is not at the third place, then there are two places, place first and place third which can be occupied by C. In other place it will be violation of condition that B cannot be at third place.

QUESTION: 135

Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row but C and D cannot be together. Also, B cannot be at the third place.
Q. If A and B are together, then which of the following must be necessarily true?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  There is only one position, where A and B are together that A and B occupy second and third place. B cannot be at third place as per restriction. Hence, A has to be at third place.

QUESTION: 136

Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row but C and D cannot be together. Also, B cannot be at the third place.
P, Q, R and S are four statements. Relation between these statements is as follows
I. If P is true, than Q must be true.
II. If Q is true, then R must be true.
III. If S is true, then either Q is false or R is false.
Q. Which of the following must be true?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together  If P is true, then both Q and R have to be true. For S to be true, either Q or R must be false. Hence, if P is true, S cannot be true.

QUESTION: 137

Direction: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row but C and D cannot be together. Also, B cannot be at the third place.
​Neelam, who is Rohit's daughter, says to Indu, "Your mother Reeta is the younger sister of my father, who is the third child of Sohanji." How is Sohanji related to Indu?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  According to the given information it is clear that Sohanji is the father of Rohit and brother of Reeta, who is mother of Indu. Hence, Sohanji is the grandfather of Indu.

QUESTION: 138

Direction: Complete the series by choosing the correct option.120, 99, 80, 63, 48,?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.   

QUESTION: 139

Direction: Complete the series by choosing the correct option.6, 18, 3, 21, 7, 56, ?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  

 Even terms in the series is product of two adjacent odd terms 6×3=18 3×7 = 21 7×?=56 ? = 8

QUESTION: 140

Direction: Complete the series by choosing the correct option.BMX, DNW, FOV, ?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.    

QUESTION: 141

Direction: Complete the series by choosing the correct option.3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  

QUESTION: 142

Direction: Complete the series by choosing the correct option.EIX, G4V, ?, K16R, M25P

Solution:

 On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  

QUESTION: 143

Direction: Select the related word/letter/number/figure from the given alternatives.
West: North-East: : South : ?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  If the move from west clockwise through 135o, we get North-East direction similarly, if we move from South clockwise through 135o, we get North-West direction. 

QUESTION: 144

Direction: Select the related word/letter/number/figure from the given alternatives.
Oasis : Desert: : ? : Sea

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  Oasis is an area with water and trees etc., in des Similarly, Island is a piece of land surrounded by water or Sea.

QUESTION: 145

Direction: Select the related word/letter/number/figure from the given alternatives.
​QPRS : TUWV : : JIKL : ?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together. 

QUESTION: 146

Direction: Select the related word/letter/number/figure from the given alternatives.
42 : 56 : : 110 : ?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together.  42=(7)2−7, 56 = (8)2−8 Similarly, 110=11)2−11 and (12)2−12=132

QUESTION: 147

Direction: Select the related word/letter/number/figure from the given alternatives.
5 : 100, 4: 64: :4: 80, 3 : ?

Solution:

On the basis of the information given in the questions, we find that C and D can take three positions as shown in the diagram following the restriction that C and D cannot be together. 

5×20=100,4×16=64 Similarly, 4×20=80 and 3×16=48

 

QUESTION: 148

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
'A$B' means A is not smaller than B.
'A#B' means A is not greater than B.
'A@B' means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B.
'A©B' means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B.
'A%B' means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three
Conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
Statements H % J, J(C)N, N@R
Conclusions
I. R%J
II. H@J
III. N@J

Solution:

Statements      H % J ⇒  H < J J © N ⇒ J = N N @ R=N>R Therefore,  H < 3 = N > R Conclusions I. R % 3 

⇒ R < 3      (true) II. H @ J ⇒  H >           (false) III. N @ 3 ⇒  N >  (false)

QUESTION: 149

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
'A$B' means A is not smaller than B.
'A#B' means A is not greater than B.
'A@B' means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B.
'A©B' means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B.
'A%B' means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the threeConclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
Statements M@J, J$T, T(C)N
Conclusions
I. N#J
II. T%M
III. M@N

Solution:

tatements      M @ 3 ⇒ M > 3 J$T⇒J⇒T

 T © N ⇒ T = N Therefore, M>J≥T=N

Conclusions I. N#J ⇒ N≤J     (true) II. T (true) III. MN ⇒ M>N (true)

QUESTION: 150

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
'A$B' means A is not smaller than B.
'A#B' means A is not greater than B.
'A@B' means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B.
'A©B' means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B.
'A%B' means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the threeConclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
Statements D(C)K, K#F, F@P
Conclusions
I. P@D
II. K#P
III. F$D

Solution:

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