Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 1


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2022 | Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 1


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Attempt Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 1 | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for CLAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series for CLAT 2022 for CLAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

A recent incident precipitated the crisis in the already distressed sector. The Supreme Court's 24 October 2019 (Union of India v Association of Unified Telecom Service Providers of India) ruling ordered the telecom companies to pay up all that they owed in the form of levies, arrears, penalties and interest payments penalties through the last 15 years. The dispute was on how to calculate the gross adjusted revenues from which the government levies a tax. The companies contended that only their revenues arising out of their use of spectrum be considered. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), however, also included all their indirect earnings that form the adjusted gross revenue (AGR). This would include, for example, dividends and revenue from sale of handsets that are bundled with services, interest income, scrap sale or even rental income. The Supreme Court upheld the DoT's view in its October order.

This definition of AGR spikes up the arrears, penalties and interest payments to a value close to Rs. 92,000 crore to be paid by the telecom firms in three months.

This value, in an industry that is already saddled with a huge debt, is a matter of serious concern. While Bharti Airtel and Vodafone-Idea have to pay Rs. 29,000 crore and Rs. 33,000 crore respectively, Reliance Jio, which is a new entrant, needs to pay Rs. 13,000 crore, due to its purchase of Reliance communication’s liabilities. Vodafone-Idea's cash reserves do not even match up to the penalty amount, making it seriously consider closing down. Vodafone-Idea reported a loss of almost Rs. 50,000 crore in the quarter ending in September 2019 (compared with Rs. 5,000 crore last year in the same quarter). This is, by many accounts, the largest loss by an Indian company.

Airtel's story is also woeful, reporting a loss of Rs. 23,000 crore.

These numbers are staggeringly high, enough to break a company down. Price wars in the last two years had led to a considerable bleeding of the incumbents already.

Vodafone-Idea's future seems uncertain. Since the company owes huge debts to public banks, and has a number of dependent vendors, a ripple effect may hurt the overall economy. Lawmakers are genuinely worried and companies are trying hard to strike a deal with the government. A committee of secretaries was formed to consider a relief package for the beleaguered industry.

They have granted a two-year moratorium on the spectrum payments, offering some cash flow relief, but do not touch the Supreme Court-imposed penalty.

Estimates reveal that this package does not make much of a difference. Conversations on the bailout have begun.

While this may not be a good sign, there is a need to dig deeper.

Q. What was the dispute which was rectified by the Supreme Court in the judgement?

Solution: Option (b) is the correct answer as the dispute was on how to calculate the gross adjusted revenues from which the government levies a tax. Option (a) is incorrect as it is an issue which was not in contention before the Supreme Court. Options (c) and (d) are incorrect as they do not find mention in the passage and are vague.
QUESTION: 2

A recent incident precipitated the crisis in the already distressed sector. The Supreme Court's 24 October 2019 (Union of India v Association of Unified Telecom Service Providers of India) ruling ordered the telecom companies to pay up all that they owed in the form of levies, arrears, penalties and interest payments penalties through the last 15 years. The dispute was on how to calculate the gross adjusted revenues from which the government levies a tax. The companies contended that only their revenues arising out of their use of spectrum be considered. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), however, also included all their indirect earnings that form the adjusted gross revenue (AGR). This would include, for example, dividends and revenue from sale of handsets that are bundled with services, interest income, scrap sale or even rental income. The Supreme Court upheld the DoT's view in its October order.

This definition of AGR spikes up the arrears, penalties and interest payments to a value close to Rs. 92,000 crore to be paid by the telecom firms in three months.

This value, in an industry that is already saddled with a huge debt, is a matter of serious concern. While Bharti Airtel and Vodafone-Idea have to pay Rs. 29,000 crore and Rs. 33,000 crore respectively, Reliance Jio, which is a new entrant, needs to pay Rs. 13,000 crore, due to its purchase of Reliance communication’s liabilities. Vodafone-Idea's cash reserves do not even match up to the penalty amount, making it seriously consider closing down. Vodafone-Idea reported a loss of almost Rs. 50,000 crore in the quarter ending in September 2019 (compared with Rs. 5,000 crore last year in the same quarter). This is, by many accounts, the largest loss by an Indian company.

Airtel's story is also woeful, reporting a loss of Rs. 23,000 crore.

These numbers are staggeringly high, enough to break a company down. Price wars in the last two years had led to a considerable bleeding of the incumbents already.

Vodafone-Idea's future seems uncertain. Since the company owes huge debts to public banks, and has a number of dependent vendors, a ripple effect may hurt the overall economy. Lawmakers are genuinely worried and companies are trying hard to strike a deal with the government. A committee of secretaries was formed to consider a relief package for the beleaguered industry.

They have granted a two-year moratorium on the spectrum payments, offering some cash flow relief, but do not touch the Supreme Court-imposed penalty.

Estimates reveal that this package does not make much of a difference. Conversations on the bailout have begun.

While this may not be a good sign, there is a need to dig deeper.

Q. In what context has the term 'ruling' been used in the passage?

Solution: Option (b) is the correct answer as the term 'ruling' has been used to refer to the judgement of the Supreme Court of India which is the highest court of law of in the country.
QUESTION: 3

A recent incident precipitated the crisis in the already distressed sector. The Supreme Court's 24 October 2019 (Union of India v Association of Unified Telecom Service Providers of India) ruling ordered the telecom companies to pay up all that they owed in the form of levies, arrears, penalties and interest payments penalties through the last 15 years. The dispute was on how to calculate the gross adjusted revenues from which the government levies a tax. The companies contended that only their revenues arising out of their use of spectrum be considered. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), however, also included all their indirect earnings that form the adjusted gross revenue (AGR). This would include, for example, dividends and revenue from sale of handsets that are bundled with services, interest income, scrap sale or even rental income. The Supreme Court upheld the DoT's view in its October order.

This definition of AGR spikes up the arrears, penalties and interest payments to a value close to Rs. 92,000 crore to be paid by the telecom firms in three months.

This value, in an industry that is already saddled with a huge debt, is a matter of serious concern. While Bharti Airtel and Vodafone-Idea have to pay Rs. 29,000 crore and Rs. 33,000 crore respectively, Reliance Jio, which is a new entrant, needs to pay Rs. 13,000 crore, due to its purchase of Reliance communication’s liabilities. Vodafone-Idea's cash reserves do not even match up to the penalty amount, making it seriously consider closing down. Vodafone-Idea reported a loss of almost Rs. 50,000 crore in the quarter ending in September 2019 (compared with Rs. 5,000 crore last year in the same quarter). This is, by many accounts, the largest loss by an Indian company.

Airtel's story is also woeful, reporting a loss of Rs. 23,000 crore.

These numbers are staggeringly high, enough to break a company down. Price wars in the last two years had led to a considerable bleeding of the incumbents already.

Vodafone-Idea's future seems uncertain. Since the company owes huge debts to public banks, and has a number of dependent vendors, a ripple effect may hurt the overall economy. Lawmakers are genuinely worried and companies are trying hard to strike a deal with the government. A committee of secretaries was formed to consider a relief package for the beleaguered industry.

They have granted a two-year moratorium on the spectrum payments, offering some cash flow relief, but do not touch the Supreme Court-imposed penalty.

Estimates reveal that this package does not make much of a difference. Conversations on the bailout have begun.

While this may not be a good sign, there is a need to dig deeper.

Q. What is the meaning of the term 'moratorium' as used in the passage?

Solution: Option (d) is the correct answer as the term 'moratorium' is used for a period where the assets and accounts of the company are frozen in order to stop it from engaging in transactions.
QUESTION: 4

A recent incident precipitated the crisis in the already distressed sector. The Supreme Court's 24 October 2019 (Union of India v Association of Unified Telecom Service Providers of India) ruling ordered the telecom companies to pay up all that they owed in the form of levies, arrears, penalties and interest payments penalties through the last 15 years. The dispute was on how to calculate the gross adjusted revenues from which the government levies a tax. The companies contended that only their revenues arising out of their use of spectrum be considered. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), however, also included all their indirect earnings that form the adjusted gross revenue (AGR). This would include, for example, dividends and revenue from sale of handsets that are bundled with services, interest income, scrap sale or even rental income. The Supreme Court upheld the DoT's view in its October order.

This definition of AGR spikes up the arrears, penalties and interest payments to a value close to Rs. 92,000 crore to be paid by the telecom firms in three months.

This value, in an industry that is already saddled with a huge debt, is a matter of serious concern. While Bharti Airtel and Vodafone-Idea have to pay Rs. 29,000 crore and Rs. 33,000 crore respectively, Reliance Jio, which is a new entrant, needs to pay Rs. 13,000 crore, due to its purchase of Reliance communication’s liabilities. Vodafone-Idea's cash reserves do not even match up to the penalty amount, making it seriously consider closing down. Vodafone-Idea reported a loss of almost Rs. 50,000 crore in the quarter ending in September 2019 (compared with Rs. 5,000 crore last year in the same quarter). This is, by many accounts, the largest loss by an Indian company.

Airtel's story is also woeful, reporting a loss of Rs. 23,000 crore.

These numbers are staggeringly high, enough to break a company down. Price wars in the last two years had led to a considerable bleeding of the incumbents already.

Vodafone-Idea's future seems uncertain. Since the company owes huge debts to public banks, and has a number of dependent vendors, a ripple effect may hurt the overall economy. Lawmakers are genuinely worried and companies are trying hard to strike a deal with the government. A committee of secretaries was formed to consider a relief package for the beleaguered industry.

They have granted a two-year moratorium on the spectrum payments, offering some cash flow relief, but do not touch the Supreme Court-imposed penalty.

Estimates reveal that this package does not make much of a difference. Conversations on the bailout have begun.

While this may not be a good sign, there is a need to dig deeper.

Q. Why does the author think that the package would not make much of a difference?

Solution: Option (a) is the correct answer as, according to the passage, the deal which is being managed between the government and telecom companies do not address the penalties imposed by the Supreme Court which is the main cause of concern.

Option (b) is incorrect as it states the effect of the package rather than addressing the cause of its failure. Options (c) and (d) are incorrect as they enlist the reliefs being offered by the government and it fails to address the question being asked.

QUESTION: 5

A recent incident precipitated the crisis in the already distressed sector. The Supreme Court's 24 October 2019 (Union of India v Association of Unified Telecom Service Providers of India) ruling ordered the telecom companies to pay up all that they owed in the form of levies, arrears, penalties and interest payments penalties through the last 15 years. The dispute was on how to calculate the gross adjusted revenues from which the government levies a tax. The companies contended that only their revenues arising out of their use of spectrum be considered. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), however, also included all their indirect earnings that form the adjusted gross revenue (AGR). This would include, for example, dividends and revenue from sale of handsets that are bundled with services, interest income, scrap sale or even rental income. The Supreme Court upheld the DoT's view in its October order.

This definition of AGR spikes up the arrears, penalties and interest payments to a value close to Rs. 92,000 crore to be paid by the telecom firms in three months.

This value, in an industry that is already saddled with a huge debt, is a matter of serious concern. While Bharti Airtel and Vodafone-Idea have to pay Rs. 29,000 crore and Rs. 33,000 crore respectively, Reliance Jio, which is a new entrant, needs to pay Rs. 13,000 crore, due to its purchase of Reliance communication’s liabilities. Vodafone-Idea's cash reserves do not even match up to the penalty amount, making it seriously consider closing down. Vodafone-Idea reported a loss of almost Rs. 50,000 crore in the quarter ending in September 2019 (compared with Rs. 5,000 crore last year in the same quarter). This is, by many accounts, the largest loss by an Indian company.

Airtel's story is also woeful, reporting a loss of Rs. 23,000 crore.

These numbers are staggeringly high, enough to break a company down. Price wars in the last two years had led to a considerable bleeding of the incumbents already.

Vodafone-Idea's future seems uncertain. Since the company owes huge debts to public banks, and has a number of dependent vendors, a ripple effect may hurt the overall economy. Lawmakers are genuinely worried and companies are trying hard to strike a deal with the government. A committee of secretaries was formed to consider a relief package for the beleaguered industry.

They have granted a two-year moratorium on the spectrum payments, offering some cash flow relief, but do not touch the Supreme Court-imposed penalty.

Estimates reveal that this package does not make much of a difference. Conversations on the bailout have begun.

While this may not be a good sign, there is a need to dig deeper.

Q. Which of the following would not be a part of the adjusted gross revenue of the companies?

Solution: Option (c) is the correct answer as it does not find mention in the list of revenue heads which come under the purview of adjusted gross revenue according to the Department of Telecommunications.

All other options are incorrect as they form a part of the adjusted gross revenue of the companies.

QUESTION: 6

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells waste is this 35-year-old artist’s most liked hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back in home, he dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the words whirring.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can be distracting. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty auto rickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. Which of the following would be a suitable title for the given passage?

Solution: The passage discusses how the artist takes articles of scrap and uses them to make his works of art.

He also has to pay attention to pre-planning his art work without the luxury of a sketch. This needs a lot of focus and also implies the process of reinventing the use for a piece of old scrap. Option (b) is the answer. Option (a) can be ruled out because it indicates that the author is reliving or refreshing past events/ memories. However, there is no evidence for this in the passage. Option (c) can be ruled out because it has a negative connotation – getting rid of art – and its ambiguity as well as its focus on the medium and not on the central idea of the passage makes it an unsuitable answer. Option (d) can be ruled out because it doesn’t bring in the connotation of reuse or reinvention – this is a primary element of Har’s work.

QUESTION: 7

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells waste is this 35-year-old artist’s most liked hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back in home, he dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the words whirring.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can be distracting. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty auto rickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?

Solution: The sixth paragraph helps provide the answer. The last line of this paragraph indicates that Har has to make a mental picture of his artwork before he creates it – he states that he does not sketch and so has to maintain sharp focus on the final work he wants to create. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Option (b) can be ruled out because it is directly mentioned in the paragraph and this question demands an answer that is partially indirect. Option (c) cannot be inferred; however, in the third paragraph the author mentions why the artworks are aesthetically appealing without making a reference to colour. Option (d) is incorrect because in the sixth paragraph, Har states that the colours in his artwork can distract but he also goes on to mention that this is why he has to maintain sharp focus during creation. This line indicates that he avoids allowing his artworks to have distracting colour combinations.
QUESTION: 8

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells waste is this 35-year-old artist’s most liked hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back in home, he dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the words whirring.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can be distracting. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty auto rickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. What does the word 'aesthete' as used in the passage mean?

Solution: Option (d) is very close; however, it cannot be the answer as the word 'aesthete' as used to mean an art lover or a lover of beautiful things. Therefore, option B is the answer.
QUESTION: 9

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells waste is this 35-year-old artist’s most liked hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back in home, he dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the words whirring.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can be distracting. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty auto rickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. Which of the following is true according to the given passage?

Solution: Option (c) is the correct answer. 'Friv olity' is mentioned in the third paragraph; 'Hashissh' and 'Nelumbeshwar' are mentioned in the fifth paragraph.

Har calls himself 'aesthete'; so, option (a) is incorrect. Har's second creation was a crab. So, option (b) is also incorrect. Option (d) is also incorrect because as a teenager Har used a table tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs of a spider.

QUESTION: 10

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells waste is this 35-year-old artist’s most liked hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back in home, he dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the words whirring.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can be distracting. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty auto rickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. According to the author, what makes Har ’s art fun?

Solution: The fifth paragraph talks about Har’s artworks being fun. The author states that the observer can visually dismantle the artwork and then again rebuild it (look at it again in the overall context). And one can keep doing this – zooming in on one element and then zooming out to see the whole picture. Option (c) best captures the essence of this paragraph. Option (a) has been mentioned in the third paragraph but in the context of why Har’s artworks are aesthetically appealing. Option (b) is incorrect because there is no mention in the passage about the kind of audience that is targeted through Har’s artwork. Option (d) can be partially inferred from the fourth paragraph that indicates that Har’s artworks have a life in them. However, there isn’t enough information to suggest that an energetic and vivacious quality in the artworks makes them fun.
QUESTION: 11

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells waste is this 35-year-old artist’s most liked hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back in home, he dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the words whirring.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can be distracting. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty auto rickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?

Solution: The sixth paragraph of the passage says that visualizing demands a lot of attention as it involves a lot of colour combinations. Since Har doesn’t sketch, so he has to keep a sharp focus on the final look without getting distracted. So, option (c) is incorrect and hence, cannot be inferred from the passage. Options (a) and (d) are mentioned in the penultimate paragraph. Option (b) can be inferred from the second and third paragraphs. The author says that his artwork grabs the viewers’ attention at various levels and the material used is so striking that it takes the viewer through a new journey.
QUESTION: 12

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells waste is this 35-year-old artist’s most liked hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back in home, he dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the words whirring.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can be distracting. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty auto rickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. What is the Central idea of the given passage?

Solution: Options (b) and (c) seem correct but they are not too narrow. Option (d) is too generic. Only option (a) is encompasses the entire passage, hence, it is the answer.
QUESTION: 13

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells waste is this 35-year-old artist’s most liked hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back in home, he dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a live-and-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the words whirring.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can be distracting. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty auto rickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. In the light of the given passage which of the following in not true?

Solution: Options (a), (b) and (c) are all true. They are mentioned in the passage. Option (d) is not true as Hashissh is constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread. So, option (d) is the answer.
QUESTION: 14

That the doctrines connected with the name of Mr Darwin are altering our principles has become a sort of commonplace thing to say. And moral principles are said to share in this general transformation. Now, to pass by other subjects, I do not see why Darwinism need change our ultimate moral ideas. It was not to modify our conception of the end, either for the community, or the individual, unless we have been holding views, which long before Darwin were out of date. As to the principles of ethics I perceive, in short, no sign of revolution. Darwinism has indeed helped many to truer conception of the end, but I cannot admit that it has either originated or modified that conception.

And yet in ethics Darwinism after all perhaps may be revolutionary, it may lead not to another view about the end, but to a different way of regarding the relative importance of the means. For in the ordinary moral creed those means seem estimated on no rational principle.

Our creed appears rather to be an irrational mixture of jarring elements. We have the moral code of Christianity, accepted in part; rejected practically by all save a few fanatics. But we do not realise how in its very principle the Christian ideals are false. And when we reject this code for another and in part a sounder morality, we are in the same condition of blindness and of practical confusion. It is here that Darwinism, with all the tendencies we may group under that name, seems destined to intervene. It will make itself felt, I believe, more and more effectually. It may force on us in some points a correction of our moral views, and a return to a non-Christian and perhaps a Hellenic ideal. I propose to illustrate here these general statements by some remarks on Punishment.

Darwinism, I have said, has not even modified our ideas of the Chief Good. We may take that as - the welfare of the community realised in its members. There is, of course, a question as to meaning to be given to welfare.

We may identify that with mere pleasure, or gain with mere system, or may rather view both as inseparable aspects of perfection and individuality. And the extent and nature of the community would once more be a subject for some discussion. But we are forced to enter on these controversies here. We may leave welfare undefined, and for present purpose need not distinguish the community from the state. The welfare of this whole exists, of course, nowhere outside the individuals, and the individuals again have rights and duties only as members in the whole.

Q. What, according to the passage, is the Chief Good?

Solution: The Chief Good refers to the welf are of the community realized in its members. Option (c) is evident in the beginning of paragraph 3.
QUESTION: 15

That the doctrines connected with the name of Mr Darwin are altering our principles has become a sort of commonplace thing to say. And moral principles are said to share in this general transformation. Now, to pass by other subjects, I do not see why Darwinism need change our ultimate moral ideas. It was not to modify our conception of the end, either for the community, or the individual, unless we have been holding views, which long before Darwin were out of date. As to the principles of ethics I perceive, in short, no sign of revolution. Darwinism has indeed helped many to truer conception of the end, but I cannot admit that it has either originated or modified that conception.

And yet in ethics Darwinism after all perhaps may be revolutionary, it may lead not to another view about the end, but to a different way of regarding the relative importance of the means. For in the ordinary moral creed those means seem estimated on no rational principle.

Our creed appears rather to be an irrational mixture of jarring elements. We have the moral code of Christianity, accepted in part; rejected practically by all save a few fanatics. But we do not realise how in its very principle the Christian ideals are false. And when we reject this code for another and in part a sounder morality, we are in the same condition of blindness and of practical confusion. It is here that Darwinism, with all the tendencies we may group under that name, seems destined to intervene. It will make itself felt, I believe, more and more effectually. It may force on us in some points a correction of our moral views, and a return to a non-Christian and perhaps a Hellenic ideal. I propose to illustrate here these general statements by some remarks on Punishment.

Darwinism, I have said, has not even modified our ideas of the Chief Good. We may take that as - the welfare of the community realised in its members. There is, of course, a question as to meaning to be given to welfare.

We may identify that with mere pleasure, or gain with mere system, or may rather view both as inseparable aspects of perfection and individuality. And the extent and nature of the community would once more be a subject for some discussion. But we are forced to enter on these controversies here. We may leave welfare undefined, and for present purpose need not distinguish the community from the state. The welfare of this whole exists, of course, nowhere outside the individuals, and the individuals again have rights and duties only as members in the whole.

Q. According to the author, the moral code of Christianity

Solution: The moral code of Christianity has been rejected by all except fanatics. In the paragraph 2, read the lines, "....we have the moral code of Christianity, accepted.... a few fanatics." This makes option (d) correct.
QUESTION: 16

That the doctrines connected with the name of Mr Darwin are altering our principles has become a sort of commonplace thing to say. And moral principles are said to share in this general transformation. Now, to pass by other subjects, I do not see why Darwinism need change our ultimate moral ideas. It was not to modify our conception of the end, either for the community, or the individual, unless we have been holding views, which long before Darwin were out of date. As to the principles of ethics I perceive, in short, no sign of revolution. Darwinism has indeed helped many to truer conception of the end, but I cannot admit that it has either originated or modified that conception.

And yet in ethics Darwinism after all perhaps may be revolutionary, it may lead not to another view about the end, but to a different way of regarding the relative importance of the means. For in the ordinary moral creed those means seem estimated on no rational principle.

Our creed appears rather to be an irrational mixture of jarring elements. We have the moral code of Christianity, accepted in part; rejected practically by all save a few fanatics. But we do not realise how in its very principle the Christian ideals are false. And when we reject this code for another and in part a sounder morality, we are in the same condition of blindness and of practical confusion. It is here that Darwinism, with all the tendencies we may group under that name, seems destined to intervene. It will make itself felt, I believe, more and more effectually. It may force on us in some points a correction of our moral views, and a return to a non-Christian and perhaps a Hellenic ideal. I propose to illustrate here these general statements by some remarks on Punishment.

Darwinism, I have said, has not even modified our ideas of the Chief Good. We may take that as - the welfare of the community realised in its members. There is, of course, a question as to meaning to be given to welfare.

We may identify that with mere pleasure, or gain with mere system, or may rather view both as inseparable aspects of perfection and individuality. And the extent and nature of the community would once more be a subject for some discussion. But we are forced to enter on these controversies here. We may leave welfare undefined, and for present purpose need not distinguish the community from the state. The welfare of this whole exists, of course, nowhere outside the individuals, and the individuals again have rights and duties only as members in the whole.

Q. According to the author, the doctrines of Mr Darwin

Solution: The author finds no reason why the doctrines of Darwin should change our moral ideas. This is highlighted throughout the passage. Except (c) all the other options are inappropriate.
QUESTION: 17

That the doctrines connected with the name of Mr Darwin are altering our principles has become a sort of commonplace thing to say. And moral principles are said to share in this general transformation. Now, to pass by other subjects, I do not see why Darwinism need change our ultimate moral ideas. It was not to modify our conception of the end, either for the community, or the individual, unless we have been holding views, which long before Darwin were out of date. As to the principles of ethics I perceive, in short, no sign of revolution. Darwinism has indeed helped many to truer conception of the end, but I cannot admit that it has either originated or modified that conception.

And yet in ethics Darwinism after all perhaps may be revolutionary, it may lead not to another view about the end, but to a different way of regarding the relative importance of the means. For in the ordinary moral creed those means seem estimated on no rational principle.

Our creed appears rather to be an irrational mixture of shaking elements. We have the moral code of Christianity, accepted in part; rejected practically by all save a few fanatics. But we do not realise how in its very principle the Christian ideals are false. And when we reject this code for another and in part a sounder morality, we are in the same condition of blindness and of practical confusion. It is here that Darwinism, with all the tendencies we may group under that name, seems destined to intervene. It will make itself felt, I believe, more and more effectually. It may force on us in some points a correction of our moral views, and a return to a non-Christian and perhaps a Hellenic ideal. I propose to illustrate here these general statements by some remarks on Retribution.

Darwinism, I have said, has not even modified our ideas of the Chief Good. We may take that as - the welfare of the community realised in its members. There is, of course, a question as to meaning to be given to welfare.

We may identify that with mere pleasure, or gain with mere system, or may rather view both as inseparable aspects of perfection and individuality. And the extent and nature of the community would once more be a subject for some discussion. But we are forced to enter on these controversies here. We may leave welfare undefined, and for present purpose need not distinguish the community from the state. The welfare of this whole exists, of course, nowhere outside the individuals, and the individuals again have rights and duties only as members in the whole.

Q. It is implied in the passage that

Solution: The author advocates a return to a non-Christian and perhaps a Hellenic ideal. Read the penultimate line of paragraph 2, "…a correction of our moral views and a return to a non-Christian and perhaps a Hellenic ideal...." This makes option (b) correct.
QUESTION: 18

That the doctrines connected with the name of Mr Darwin are altering our principles has become a sort of commonplace thing to say. And moral principles are said to share in this general transformation. Now, to pass by other subjects, I do not see why Darwinism need change our ultimate moral ideas. It was not to modify our conception of the end, either for the community, or the individual, unless we have been holding views, which long before Darwin were out of date. As to the principles of ethics I perceive, in short, no sign of revolution. Darwinism has indeed helped many to truer conception of the end, but I cannot admit that it has either originated or modified that conception.

And yet in ethics Darwinism after all perhaps may be revolutionary, it may lead not to another view about the end, but to a different way of regarding the relative importance of the means. For in the ordinary moral creed those means seem estimated on no rational principle.

Our creed appears rather to be an irrational mixture of shaking elements. We have the moral code of Christianity, accepted in part; rejected practically by all save a few fanatics. But we do not realise how in its very principle the Christian ideals are false. And when we reject this code for another and in part a sounder morality, we are in the same condition of blindness and of practical confusion. It is here that Darwinism, with all the tendencies we may group under that name, seems destined to intervene. It will make itself felt, I believe, more and more effectually. It may force on us in some points a correction of our moral views, and a return to a non-Christian and perhaps a Hellenic ideal. I propose to illustrate here these general statements by some remarks on Retribution.

Darwinism, I have said, has not even modified our ideas of the Chief Good. We may take that as - the welfare of the community realised in its members. There is, of course, a question as to meaning to be given to welfare.

We may identify that with mere pleasure, or gain with mere system, or may rather view both as inseparable aspects of perfection and individuality. And the extent and nature of the community would once more be a subject for some discussion. But we are forced to enter on these controversies here. We may leave welfare undefined, and for present purpose need not distinguish the community from the state. The welfare of this whole exists, of course, nowhere outside the individuals, and the individuals again have rights and duties only as members in the whole.

Q. What is most probably the author's opinion of the existing moral principles of the people?

Solution: He perceives no sign of a revolution in ethical matters. Hence option (b) is correct.
QUESTION: 19

Beauty is a valuable commodity in our image-obsessed society, so it's not surprising that Miss Indias and Miss Worlds make headlines. These young women aren't just beautiful; they're most often thin too. But Chloe Marshall, the 2008 Miss England runner-up, was size 16 ("full figured" or "ample," to put it politely) and therefore made even more news. A full-figured beauty pageant finalist creating a stop-the-press moment highlights the fact that larger women are not usually considered "the fairest of them all." Indeed, pick up a magazine or newspaper on any other day and the message is loud and clear -thin is in.

With the average woman hovering around a size 14 or above, the comparison is odious. A recent survey revealed only six percent of women aged 18 to 64 were "very satisfied" with their looks. That leaves 94 percent of women critical of their appearance. In other words, the majority of the women sitting with you in the metro this morning woke up feeling judgmental and negative about their looks. "If every woman in the world woke up, slapped herself on the head and said: 'I'm happy with who I am,' entire economies would collapse," says Jane Caro, an award-winning advertising writer.

The media is often portrayed as the bogeyman in the body-image debate, but experts say it's only part of the picture. Paxton notes women are getting messages from family from an early age. The way in which parents view their bodies impacts their children's attitudes. "A mother who is always dieting or being critical of her body is sending a clear message to her daughters," says Tiggemann. "That sense of body dissatisfaction is passed on." The anti-obesity push is also unhelpful. "It's shifted the focus away from health and onto weight and looks," she says. "It's perpetuating the notion that fat is bad, thin is good, and thinner is better." And it's a notion that has recently been proved to be untrue.

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

Solution: Option (d) can be inferred from the penultimate paragraph which says that "The way in which parents view their bodies impacts their children's attitudes." Hence, it can be clearly understood that children can be influenced by their parents. Option (a) cannot be inferred from the passage. The first paragraph says that beauty pageant contestants have the potential to make headlines and these girls are beautiful and most often thin too. It might not be true the other way round. Option (b) is beyond the scope of the passage since we do not know whether anti-obesity programme helped in reducing obesity or not. Option (c) cannot be inferred from the passage since it is just an opinion of Jane Caro.

We do not know whether the author agrees with the statement or not.

QUESTION: 20

Beauty is a valuable commodity in our image-obsessed society, so it's not surprising that Miss Indias and Miss Worlds make headlines. These young women aren't just beautiful; they're most often thin too. But Chloe Marshall, the 2008 Miss England runner-up, was size 16 ("full figured" or "ample," to put it politely) and therefore made even more news. A full-figured beauty pageant finalist creating a stop-the-press moment highlights the fact that larger women are not usually considered "the fairest of them all." Indeed, pick up a magazine or newspaper on any other day and the message is loud and clear -thin is in.

With the average woman hovering around a size 14 or above, the comparison is odious. A recent survey revealed only six percent of women aged 18 to 64 were "very satisfied" with their looks. That leaves 94 percent of women critical of their appearance. In other words, the majority of the women sitting with you in the metro this morning woke up feeling judgmental and negative about their looks. "If every woman in the world woke up, slapped herself on the head and said: 'I'm happy with who I am,' entire economies would collapse," says Jane Caro, an award-winning advertising writer.

The media is often portrayed as the bogeyman in the body-image debate, but experts say it's only part of the picture. Paxton notes women are getting messages from family from an early age. The way in which parents view their bodies impacts their children's attitudes. "A mother who is always dieting or being critical of her body is sending a clear message to her daughters," says Tiggemann. "That sense of body dissatisfaction is passed on." The anti-obesity push is also unhelpful. "It's shifted the focus away from health and onto weight and looks," she says. "It's perpetuating the notion that fat is bad, thin is good, and thinner is better." And it's a notion that has recently been proved to be untrue.

Q. Which notion is being talked about in the last line of the passage?

Solution: The entire passage talks about women wanting to be slim and associating slim with being beautiful.

Refer to the last line, "...the notion that fat is bad, slim is good..." So option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 21

Beauty is a valuable commodity in our image-obsessed society, so it's not surprising that Miss Indias and Miss Worlds make headlines. These young women aren't just beautiful; they're most often thin too. But Chloe Marshall, the 2008 Miss England runner-up, was size 16 ("full figured" or "ample," to put it politely) and therefore made even more news. A full-figured beauty pageant finalist creating a stop-the-press moment highlights the fact that larger women are not usually considered "the fairest of them all." Indeed, pick up a magazine or newspaper on any other day and the message is loud and clear -thin is in.

With the average woman hovering around a size 14 or above, the comparison is odious. A recent survey revealed only six percent of women aged 18 to 64 were "very satisfied" with their looks. That leaves 94 percent of women critical of their appearance. In other words, the majority of the women sitting with you in the metro this morning woke up feeling judgmental and negative about their looks. "If every woman in the world woke up, slapped herself on the head and said: 'I'm happy with who I am,' entire economies would collapse," says Jane Caro, an award-winning advertising writer.

The media is often portrayed as the bogeyman in the body-image debate, but experts say it's only part of the picture. Paxton notes women are getting messages from family from an early age. The way in which parents view their bodies impacts their children's attitudes. "A mother who is always dieting or being critical of her body is sending a clear message to her daughters," says Tiggemann. "That sense of body dissatisfaction is passed on." The anti-obesity push is also unhelpful. "It's shifted the focus away from health and onto weight and looks," she says. "It's perpetuating the notion that fat is bad, thin is good, and thinner is better." And it's a notion that has recently been proved to be untrue.

Q. Which of the following is the synonym of the word "odious"?

Solution: 'Odious' means arousing or deserving hatred. Hence, its synonym is disgusting, rendering option (d) the correct answer.
QUESTION: 22

Beauty is a valuable commodity in our image-obsessed society, so it's not surprising that Miss Indias and Miss Worlds make headlines. These young women aren't just beautiful; they're most often thin too. But Chloe Marshall, the 2008 Miss England runner-up, was size 16 ("full figured" or "ample," to put it politely) and therefore made even more news. A full-figured beauty pageant finalist creating a stop-the-press moment highlights the fact that larger women are not usually considered "the fairest of them all." Indeed, pick up a magazine or newspaper on any other day and the message is loud and clear -thin is in.

With the average woman hovering around a size 14 or above, the comparison is odious. A recent survey revealed only six percent of women aged 18 to 64 were "very satisfied" with their looks. That leaves 94 percent of women critical of their appearance. In other words, the majority of the women sitting with you in the metro this morning woke up feeling judgmental and negative about their looks. "If every woman in the world woke up, slapped herself on the head and said: 'I'm happy with who I am,' entire economies would collapse," says Jane Caro, an award-winning advertising writer.

The media is often portrayed as the bogeyman in the body-image debate, but experts say it's only part of the picture. Paxton notes women are getting messages from family from an early age. The way in which parents view their bodies impacts their children's attitudes. "A mother who is always dieting or being critical of her body is sending a clear message to her daughters," says Tiggemann. "That sense of body dissatisfaction is passed on." The anti-obesity push is also unhelpful. "It's shifted the focus away from health and onto weight and looks," she says. "It's perpetuating the notion that fat is bad, thin is good, and thinner is better." And it's a notion that has recently been proved to be untrue.

Q. Why did Chloe Marshall make headlines?

Solution: The opening paragraph tells us that all Miss India's and Miss World's make headlines, but Chloe Marshall gathered more attention because she was a "full figured" 2008 Miss England runner up. She created a "stop-the-press" moment since large women are not 'generally' considered 'fairest of them all'. However, it cannot be inferred that she was not considered "fairest of them all". This rules out option (b) and makes option (d) the correct answer. Option (a) is incorrect as 'not unlike' means that she [Chloe] was like the others.
QUESTION: 23

Beauty is a valuable commodity in our image-obsessed society, so it's not surprising that Miss Indias and Miss Worlds make headlines. These young women aren't just beautiful; they're most often thin too. But Chloe Marshall, the 2008 Miss England runner-up, was size 16 ("full figured" or "ample," to put it politely) and therefore made even more news. A full-figured beauty pageant finalist creating a stop-the-press moment highlights the fact that larger women are not usually considered "the fairest of them all." Indeed, pick up a magazine or newspaper on any other day and the message is loud and clear -thin is in.

With the average woman hovering around a size 14 or above, the comparison is odious. A recent survey revealed only six percent of women aged 18 to 64 were "very satisfied" with their looks. That leaves 94 percent of women critical of their appearance. In other words, the majority of the women sitting with you in the metro this morning woke up feeling judgmental and negative about their looks. "If every woman in the world woke up, slapped herself on the head and said: 'I'm happy with who I am,' entire economies would collapse," says Jane Caro, an award-winning advertising writer.

The media is often portrayed as the bogeyman in the body-image debate, but experts say it's only part of the picture. Paxton notes women are getting messages from family from an early age. The way in which parents view their bodies impacts their children's attitudes. "A mother who is always dieting or being critical of her body is sending a clear message to her daughters," says Tiggemann. "That sense of body dissatisfaction is passed on." The anti-obesity push is also unhelpful. "It's shifted the focus away from health and onto weight and looks," she says. "It's perpetuating the notion that fat is bad, thin is good, and thinner is better." And it's a notion that has recently been proved to be untrue.

Q. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

A. Beauty is given great importance in today's society.

B. Only a few women are happy the way they look.

C. Media is considered the Lilliputian character that is responsible for the body-image debate.

Solution: The author agrees with both statements A and B.

Refer to the first line of the passage wherein the author says, "Beauty is a valuable commodity..."

Hence, it can be understood that in today's society, beauty is given a lot of significance. In the third paragraph, the author says that 94 percent of the women are judgmental about their looks. This means that there are only a few women who are satisfied with their looks. Hence, option (a) is the answer.

Refer to the line 'The media is often portrayed as the bogeyman in the body-image debate'.

Bogeyman is a mythical creature adopted by parents to scare little children. 'Lilliputian' is used to describe little people. Therefore, we can say that statement C is not in line with what the author agrees to.

QUESTION: 24

The problem with backdating taxes is that the taxpayer will have to continuously guess how much of his current income will be taken away at a later date. This is the crux of the Parthasarathi Shome committee report on retrospective taxation of cross-border acquisition of Indian assets, like Vodafone’s $11.2 billion purchase of Hutchison’s stake in the country’s third largest telecom service provider in 2007.

The Supreme Court in January ruled against the taxman, who was claiming Rs. 11,200 crore in tax, penalty and interest. The court conceded that Indian law was incapable of plugging a widely used tax dodge by inbound foreign investment. The message for the government in the verdict was that the law needed to be changed to curb treaty shopping, the practice of routing investments through letter-box companies in havens like Mauritius to avoid paying taxes in India.

Presenting his last budget in March, the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee, altered the Income Tax Act to tax such deals with retrospective effect. His argument was since the court felt the intent of the law was not clear, it had to be explicitly clarified for the entire past life of the Income Tax Act, which was enacted in 1962.

This last bit - that deals done earlier could be taxed -raised a chorus of protest from the investing community, and the finance ministry under P Chidambaram sought an independent review of its stand. Mr Shome, a tax expert of international standing, has now told the government what it knew all this while: taxes in retrospect are best avoided.

Specifically, they must never be used to merely raise tax revenue. In the Vodafone case, the Shome committee is unequivocal: the company to claim tax from is Hutchison, which made the profit from the sale of its stake in the telecom company.

Vodafone was not required by the extant law to withhold capital gains tax. Since Vodafone made no profit in the deal, the question of interest and penalties on back taxes does not arise.

Mr Chidambaram has indicated his desire to reverse the decision as soon as possible, even before the next budget when, normally, amendments to the Income Tax Act are undertaken. He reckons investors will return to the table once the fog over retrospective taxes is lifted.

Q. Which one of these options best explains the reference the author makes to the practice of treaty shopping?

Solution: Refer to the third paragraph. The passage discusses the issue of tax evasion and states that investments are routed into India through countries like Mauritius so that investors can avoid paying taxes. This is done by setting up a letter-box company in Mauritius so that investors can avoid paying tax in India. It also indicates that Mauritius is a tax friendly country (havens) but not necessarily tax free. Thus, option (b) can be ruled out and option (d) is the answer. Option (c) can be ruled out because nothing has been mentioned about “obsolete tax laws” in the passage. Option (a) can be ruled out because treaty shopping is a loop hole that investors have discovered, however, this doesn’t mean that the practice is illegal.
QUESTION: 25

The problem with backdating taxes is that the taxpayer will have to continuously guess how much of his current income will be taken away at a later date. This is the crux of the Parthasarathi Shome committee report on retrospective taxation of cross-border acquisition of Indian assets, like Vodafone’s $11.2 billion purchase of Hutchison’s stake in the country’s third largest telecom service provider in 2007.

The Supreme Court in January ruled against the taxman, who was claiming Rs. 11,200 crore in tax, penalty and interest. The court conceded that Indian law was incapable of plugging a widely used tax dodge by inbound foreign investment. The message for the government in the verdict was that the law needed to be changed to curb treaty shopping, the practice of routing investments through letter-box companies in havens like Mauritius to avoid paying taxes in India.

Presenting his last budget in March, the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee, altered the Income Tax Act to tax such deals with retrospective effect. His argument was since the court felt the intent of the law was not clear, it had to be explicitly clarified for the entire past life of the Income Tax Act, which was enacted in 1962.

This last bit - that deals done earlier could be taxed -raised a chorus of protest from the investing community, and the finance ministry under P Chidambaram sought an independent review of its stand. Mr Shome, a tax expert of international standing, has now told the government what it knew all this while: taxes in retrospect are best avoided.

Specifically, they must never be used to merely raise tax revenue. In the Vodafone case, the Shome committee is unequivocal: the company to claim tax from is Hutchison, which made the profit from the sale of its stake in the telecom company.

Vodafone was not required by the extant law to withhold capital gains tax. Since Vodafone made no profit in the deal, the question of interest and penalties on back taxes does not arise.

Mr Chidambaram has indicated his desire to reverse the decision as soon as possible, even before the next budget when, normally, amendments to the Income Tax Act are undertaken. He reckons investors will return to the table once the fog over retrospective taxes is lifted.

Q. As per the information in the passage, the author is most likely to agree with which of the following?

Solution: Option (a) can be ruled out by a reference to the second paragraph in which it is stated that Indian law was incapable of plugging a widely used tax dodge by inbound foreign investment. However, this does not point to the general archaic nature of Indian law. Option (b) is the answer and can be inferred from the last line of the fourth paragraph - “…taxes in retrospect are best avoided.” The passage also talks about “the fog over retrospective taxes” which tells us that there is a lack of clarity about the issue. Option (c) is incorrect as the line, “Specifically, they must…tax revenue” implies that taxes in retrospect should not be used to just raise tax revenue. This does not imply that taxes in retrospect is not the only way to raise tax revenue.

Option (d) can be ruled out because it goes beyond the scope of the passage and the focus of the author’s argument.

QUESTION: 26

The problem with backdating taxes is that the taxpayer will have to continuously guess how much of his current income will be taken away at a later date. This is the crux of the Parthasarathi Shome committee report on retrospective taxation of cross-border acquisition of Indian assets, like Vodafone’s $11.2 billion purchase of Hutchison’s stake in the country’s third largest telecom service provider in 2007.

The Supreme Court in January ruled against the taxman, who was claiming Rs. 11,200 crore in tax, penalty and interest. The court conceded that Indian law was incapable of plugging a widely used tax dodge by inbound foreign investment. The message for the government in the verdict was that the law needed to be changed to curb treaty shopping, the practice of routing investments through letter-box companies in havens like Mauritius to avoid paying taxes in India.

Presenting his last budget in March, the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee, altered the Income Tax Act to tax such deals with retrospective effect. His argument was since the court felt the intent of the law was not clear, it had to be explicitly clarified for the entire past life of the Income Tax Act, which was enacted in 1962.

This last bit - that deals done earlier could be taxed -raised a chorus of protest from the investing community, and the finance ministry under P Chidambaram sought an independent review of its stand. Mr Shome, a tax expert of international standing, has now told the government what it knew all this while: taxes in retrospect are best avoided.

Specifically, they must never be used to merely raise tax revenue. In the Vodafone case, the Shome committee is unequivocal: the company to claim tax from is Hutchison, which made the profit from the sale of its stake in the telecom company.

Vodafone was not required by the extant law to withhold capital gains tax. Since Vodafone made no profit in the deal, the question of interest and penalties on back taxes does not arise.

Mr Chidambaram has indicated his desire to reverse the decision as soon as possible, even before the next budget when, normally, amendments to the Income Tax Act are undertaken. He reckons investors will return to the table once the fog over retrospective taxes is lifted.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Income Tax Act was enacted in 1963.

2. Mr. Parthasarathi Shome was an economist.

According to the above passage, which of the statements is/are valid?

Solution:

Refer to the second paragraph that states that the Supreme Court ruled against the taxman (and in favour of Vodafone) and accepted that Indian law does not have provisions to stop the widely used tax evasion methods used by incoming foreign investors. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct and can be inferred from the sixth paragraph. Refer to the line, “…the company to claim tax from is Hutchison, which made profit from the sale of its stake in the telecom company.” Option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 27

The problem with backdating taxes is that the taxpayer will have to continuously guess how much of his current income will be taken away at a later date. This is the crux of the Parthasarathi Shome committee report on retrospective taxation of cross-border acquisition of Indian assets, like Vodafone’s $11.2 billion purchase of Hutchison’s stake in the country’s third largest telecom service provider in 2007.

The Supreme Court in January ruled against the taxman, who was claiming Rs. 11,200 crore in tax, penalty and interest. The court conceded that Indian law was incapable of plugging a widely used tax dodge by inbound foreign investment. The message for the government in the verdict was that the law needed to be changed to curb treaty shopping, the practice of routing investments through letter-box companies in havens like Mauritius to avoid paying taxes in India.

Presenting his last budget in March, the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee, altered the Income Tax Act to tax such deals with retrospective effect. His argument was since the court felt the intent of the law was not clear, it had to be explicitly clarified for the entire past life of the Income Tax Act, which was enacted in 1962.

This last bit - that deals done earlier could be taxed -raised a chorus of protest from the investing community, and the finance ministry under P Chidambaram sought an independent review of its stand. Mr Shome, a tax expert of international standing, has now told the government what it knew all this while: taxes in retrospect are best avoided.

Specifically, they must never be used to merely raise tax revenue. In the Vodafone case, the Shome committee is unequivocal: the company to claim tax from is Hutchison, which made the profit from the sale of its stake in the telecom company.

Vodafone was not required by the extant law to withhold capital gains tax. Since Vodafone made no profit in the deal, the question of interest and penalties on back taxes does not arise.

Mr Chidambaram has indicated his desire to reverse the decision as soon as possible, even before the next budget when, normally, amendments to the Income Tax Act are undertaken. He reckons investors will return to the table once the fog over retrospective taxes is lifted.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Vodafone bought Hutchison’s stake in the year 2008.

2. The then Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee did not alter the Income Tax Act.

According to the above passage, which of the statements is/are valid?

Solution: Both the statements are incorrect. Refer to the first and third paragraphs.
QUESTION: 28

Film is an inherently illusionist and enormously powerful medium, one that even acknowledged masters of the form claim not to fully understand. Film may be the most pervasive and influential art form of the twentieth century, changing our culture and our perception of it, especially since television was introduced and the public began spending 40 percent of its free time watching. For many people, knowledge of a particular place, culture or historical event is likely to have been gleaned only from the movies. There are three principle influences on film: art, business and technology. Ideally, the artist would create films unencumbered by the other two, but the high costs and extreme technical demands of filmmaking ensure that every movie is inevitably the result of a collaboration or compromise between these three elements.

As literature has its own language and grammar, so does film, and the setup for a simple idea such as the opening of a horror film involves a complicated series of ingredients - long shots, closeups, lighting effects, set decoration, music, camera movement, and every one of these demands the involvement of several artists and technicians. Movies are invaluable reflectors of twentieth century culture, not only from filmic commentary by intelligent and socially aware filmmakers, but often inadvertently; the escapist musical Top Hat (1935) tells us something about the grim realities of the Depression. Movies will often shape themselves to appeal to perceived cultural attitudes, and as a result they will not only reflect their culture but actively influence it. This penchant for distorting a reflected vision of reality can often lead movies to create myths, with the heroic leads of action melodramas and presentations of historical characters that succeed more by their emotional resonance than their accuracy. A continuing question of the movies is whether or not they can ever fully be welcomed into the arts and accorded the same degree of respect that has long been given to other, older forms and mediums; universities were slow to offer courses in cinema, and indeed the avalanche of formula films makes it difficult to find the quality buried in the schlock. Mostly it seems to depend on the difference between art and entertainment, which several filmmakers and critics have offered opinions on.

Q. What makes movies such a powerful medium of expressive art?

Solution: Option (a) is correct as an art form that reaches a significant section of society is bound to create an impact and thus hold some power. The statistics about people spending 40% of their free time watching television cements this reasoning.
QUESTION: 29

Film is an inherently illusionist and enormously powerful medium, one that even acknowledged masters of the form claim not to fully understand. Film may be the most pervasive and influential art form of the twentieth century, changing our culture and our perception of it, especially since television was introduced and the public began spending 40 percent of its free time watching. For many people, knowledge of a particular place, culture or historical event is likely to have been gleaned only from the movies. There are three principle influences on film: art, business and technology. Ideally, the artist would create films unencumbered by the other two, but the high costs and extreme technical demands of filmmaking ensure that every movie is inevitably the result of a collaboration or compromise between these three elements.

As literature has its own language and grammar, so does film, and the setup for a simple idea such as the opening of a horror film involves a complicated series of ingredients - long shots, closeups, lighting effects, set decoration, music, camera movement, and every one of these demands the involvement of several artists and technicians. Movies are invaluable reflectors of twentieth century culture, not only from filmic commentary by intelligent and socially aware filmmakers, but often inadvertently; the escapist musical Top Hat (1935) tells us something about the grim realities of the Depression. Movies will often shape themselves to appeal to perceived cultural attitudes, and as a result they will not only reflect their culture but actively influence it. This penchant for distorting a reflected vision of reality can often lead movies to create myths, with the heroic leads of action melodramas and presentations of historical characters that succeed more by their emotional resonance than their accuracy. A continuing question of the movies is whether or not they can ever fully be welcomed into the arts and accorded the same degree of respect that has long been given to other, older forms and mediums; universities were slow to offer courses in cinema, and indeed the avalanche of formula films makes it difficult to find the quality buried in the schlock. Mostly it seems to depend on the difference between art and entertainment, which several filmmakers and critics have offered opinions on.

Q. Why do movies tend to often reflect the culture and prevalent norms of a society?

Solution: Option (b) is correct as the need for movies to be culturally relatable and perceivable makes them easily a good reflector of culture.

Options (c) and (d) are incorrect as they offer sound points about movie-making but are not directly linked with the cultural aspects of movies.

QUESTION: 30

Film is an inherently illusionist and enormously powerful medium, one that even acknowledged masters of the form claim not to fully understand. Film may be the most pervasive and influential art form of the twentieth century, changing our culture and our perception of it, especially since television was introduced and the public began spending 40 percent of its free time watching. For many people, knowledge of a particular place, culture or historical event is likely to have been gleaned only from the movies. There are three principle influences on film: art, business and technology. Ideally, the artist would create films unencumbered by the other two, but the high costs and extreme technical demands of filmmaking ensure that every movie is inevitably the result of a collaboration or compromise between these three elements.

As literature has its own language and grammar, so does film, and the setup for a simple idea such as the opening of a horror film involves a complicated series of ingredients - long shots, closeups, lighting effects, set decoration, music, camera movement, and every one of these demands the involvement of several artists and technicians. Movies are invaluable reflectors of twentieth century culture, not only from filmic commentary by intelligent and socially aware filmmakers, but often inadvertently; the escapist musical Top Hat (1935) tells us something about the grim realities of the Depression. Movies will often shape themselves to appeal to perceived cultural attitudes, and as a result they will not only reflect their culture but actively influence it. This penchant for distorting a reflected vision of reality can often lead movies to create myths, with the heroic leads of action melodramas and presentations of historical characters that succeed more by their emotional resonance than their accuracy. A continuing question of the movies is whether or not they can ever fully be welcomed into the arts and accorded the same degree of respect that has long been given to other, older forms and mediums; universities were slow to offer courses in cinema, and indeed the avalanche of formula films makes it difficult to find the quality buried in the schlock. Mostly it seems to depend on the difference between art and entertainment, which several filmmakers and critics have offered opinions on.

Q. Which of the following is the biggest cause for the lack of respect imparted to movies in comparison to other art forms?

Solution: Option (a) is correct as the passage mentions the difference between entertainment and art as the key reason behind the lack of respect that movies are able to muster for themselves. Movies are perceived more as entertainment than as an art form.

Option (b) is incorrect as it is a mere addition to the correct answer but is rendered meaningless without option (a).

Option (c) is certainly a cause but not the primary one, as it can also be seen as a result of the general perception about movies.

Option (d) is incorrect as formula films form a fragment of all the work done in movie making and thus, they can't be used to comment generally about filmmaking and movies.

QUESTION: 31

Film is an inherently illusionist and enormously powerful medium, one that even acknowledged masters of the form claim not to fully understand. Film may be the most pervasive and influential art form of the twentieth century, changing our culture and our perception of it, especially since television was introduced and the public began spending 40 percent of its free time watching. For many people, knowledge of a particular place, culture or historical event is likely to have been gleaned only from the movies. There are three principle influences on film: art, business and technology. Ideally, the artist would create films unencumbered by the other two, but the high costs and extreme technical demands of filmmaking ensure that every movie is inevitably the result of a collaboration or compromise between these three elements.

As literature has its own language and grammar, so does film, and the setup for a simple idea such as the opening of a horror film involves a complicated series of ingredients - long shots, closeups, lighting effects, set decoration, music, camera movement, and every one of these demands the involvement of several artists and technicians. Movies are invaluable reflectors of twentieth century culture, not only from filmic commentary by intelligent and socially aware filmmakers, but often inadvertently; the escapist musical Top Hat (1935) tells us something about the grim realities of the Depression. Movies will often shape themselves to appeal to perceived cultural attitudes, and as a result they will not only reflect their culture but actively influence it. This penchant for distorting a reflected vision of reality can often lead movies to create myths, with the heroic leads of action melodramas and presentations of historical characters that succeed more by their emotional resonance than their accuracy. A continuing question of the movies is whether or not they can ever fully be welcomed into the arts and accorded the same degree of respect that has long been given to other, older forms and mediums; universities were slow to offer courses in cinema, and indeed the avalanche of formula films makes it difficult to find the quality buried in the schlock. Mostly it seems to depend on the difference between art and entertainment, which several filmmakers and critics have offered opinions on.

Q. What is the necessary element of compromise in every movie?

Solution: Option (b) is correct as the passage mentions the collaboration between art, business and technology as a compromise in film making.
QUESTION: 32

Consider the following assumptions. 1. The Suprem e Court has ruled in f av our of Vodafone mainly because the law does not allow for a case against the latter. 2. The tax claims that are being made should be rightfully made against Hutchison and not Vodafone.

With reference to the above passage which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

 The problem with backdating taxes is that the taxpayer will have to continuously guess how much of his current income will be taken away at a later date. This is the crux of the Parthasarathi Shome committee report on retrospective taxation of cross-border acquisition of Indian assets, like Vodafone’s $11.2 billion purchase of Hutchison’s stake in the country’s third largest telecom service provider in 2007.

The Supreme Court in January ruled against the taxman, who was claiming Rs. 11,200 crore in tax, penalty and interest. The court conceded that Indian law was incapable of plugging a widely used tax dodge by inbound foreign investment. The message for the government in the verdict was that the law needed to be changed to curb treaty shopping, the practice of routing investments through letter-box companies in havens like Mauritius to avoid paying taxes in India.

Presenting his last budget in March, the then finance minister Pranab Mukherjee, altered the Income Tax Act to tax such deals with retrospective effect. His argument was since the court felt the intent of the law was not clear, it had to be explicitly clarified for the entire past life of the Income Tax Act, which was enacted in 1962.

This last bit - that deals done earlier could be taxed -raised a chorus of protest from the investing community, and the finance ministry under P Chidambaram sought an independent review of its stand. Mr Shome, a tax expert of international standing, has now told the government what it knew all this while: taxes in retrospect are best avoided.

Specifically, they must never be used to merely raise tax revenue. In the Vodafone case, the Shome committee is unequivocal: the company to claim tax from is Hutchison, which made the profit from the sale of its stake in the telecom company.

Vodafone was not required by the extant law to withhold capital gains tax. Since Vodafone made no profit in the deal, the question of interest and penalties on back taxes does not arise.

Mr Chidambaram has indicated his desire to reverse the decision as soon as possible, even before the next budget when, normally, amendments to the Income Tax Act are undertaken. He reckons investors will return to the table once the fog over retrospective taxes is lifted.

Q. Consider the following assumptions.
1. The Supreme Court has ruled in favour of Vodafone mainly because the law does not allow for a case against the latter.
2. The tax claims that are being made should be rightfully made against Hutchison and not Vodafone.

With reference to the above passage which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

Solution:

Refer to the second paragraph that states that the Supreme Court ruled against the taxman (and in favour of Vodafone) and accepted that Indian law does not have provisions to stop the widely used tax evasion methods used by incoming foreign investors. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct and can be inferred from the sixth paragraph. Refer to the line, “…the company to claim tax from is Hutchison, which made profit from the sale of its stake in the telecom company.” Option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 33

It augurs well for the future that Prime Minister has given the first authentic indication that the operation of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) may come to an end in the whole of the north­eastern region, if ongoing efforts to normalise the situation bear fruit. PM’s remark that a good deal of work is being done in that direction, not only in Assam but also Nagaland and Manipur, may be rooted in his keenness to demonstrate the level of progress achieved in the region under his regime; but it will bring immense relief to the citizens, nevertheless. Areas notified as ‘[X]’ under AFSPA have been progressively reduced in the last few years, mainly due to the improvement in the security situation. About a month ago, the Union Home Ministry reduced such notified areas considerably in 3 states. There was a substantial reduction in Assam, where AFSPA was removed entirely in [Y] districts and partially in one. In Nagaland, after the removal of the law from 15 police stations in seven districts, it remains in areas under 57 police stations, spread across 13 districts. Areas under 82 police stations are still notified under the Act in Manipur, even though 15 police station areas were excluded from the notification from April 1. The PM, who spoke at a ‘peace, unity and development rally’ in Diphu in Assam last week, cited “better administration” and the “return of peace” as the reasons for the removal of AFSPA in these areas in a region that has seen insurgencies for decades.

Q. AFSPA has notified areas named as ____

Solution: According to the Disturbed Areas (Special Courts) Act, 1976 once declared 'disturbed', the area has to maintain status quo for a minimum of 6 months.
QUESTION: 34

It augurs well for the future that Prime Minister has given the first authentic indication that the operation of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) may come to an end in the whole of the north­eastern region, if ongoing efforts to normalise the situation bear fruit. PM’s remark that a good deal of work is being done in that direction, not only in Assam but also Nagaland and Manipur, may be rooted in his keenness to demonstrate the level of progress achieved in the region under his regime; but it will bring immense relief to the citizens, nevertheless. Areas notified as ‘[X]’ under AFSPA have been progressively reduced in the last few years, mainly due to the improvement in the security situation. About a month ago, the Union Home Ministry reduced such notified areas considerably in 3 states. There was a substantial reduction in Assam, where AFSPA was removed entirely in [Y] districts and partially in one. In Nagaland, after the removal of the law from 15 police stations in seven districts, it remains in areas under 57 police stations, spread across 13 districts. Areas under 82 police stations are still notified under the Act in Manipur, even though 15 police station areas were excluded from the notification from April 1. The PM, who spoke at a ‘peace, unity and development rally’ in Diphu in Assam last week, cited “better administration” and the “return of peace” as the reasons for the removal of AFSPA in these areas in a region that has seen insurgencies for decades.

Q. When was AFSPA revoked in Meghalaya

Solution: AFSPA was removed from Meghalaya state in April 2018 after 27 years. After insurgency went down by more than 85%.
QUESTION: 35

It augurs well for the future that Prime Minister has given the first authentic indication that the operation of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) may come to an end in the whole of the north­eastern region, if ongoing efforts to normalise the situation bear fruit. PM’s remark that a good deal of work is being done in that direction, not only in Assam but also Nagaland and Manipur, may be rooted in his keenness to demonstrate the level of progress achieved in the region under his regime; but it will bring immense relief to the citizens, nevertheless. Areas notified as ‘[X]’ under AFSPA have been progressively reduced in the last few years, mainly due to the improvement in the security situation. About a month ago, the Union Home Ministry reduced such notified areas considerably in 3 states. There was a substantial reduction in Assam, where AFSPA was removed entirely in [Y] districts and partially in one. In Nagaland, after the removal of the law from 15 police stations in seven districts, it remains in areas under 57 police stations, spread across 13 districts. Areas under 82 police stations are still notified under the Act in Manipur, even though 15 police station areas were excluded from the notification from April 1. The PM, who spoke at a ‘peace, unity and development rally’ in Diphu in Assam last week, cited “better administration” and the “return of peace” as the reasons for the removal of AFSPA in these areas in a region that has seen insurgencies for decades.

Q. AFSPA is in force in which 4 states apart from J&K

Solution: AFSPA was removed in Tripura in 2015 and Meghalaya in 2018 but remains intact in 4 northeastern states of Assam, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland due to insurgent groups in these hilly states.
QUESTION: 36

It augurs well for the future that Prime Minister has given the first authentic indication that the operation of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) may come to an end in the whole of the north­eastern region, if ongoing efforts to normalise the situation bear fruit. PM’s remark that a good deal of work is being done in that direction, not only in Assam but also Nagaland and Manipur, may be rooted in his keenness to demonstrate the level of progress achieved in the region under his regime; but it will bring immense relief to the citizens, nevertheless. Areas notified as ‘[X]’ under AFSPA have been progressively reduced in the last few years, mainly due to the improvement in the security situation. About a month ago, the Union Home Ministry reduced such notified areas considerably in 3 states. There was a substantial reduction in Assam, where AFSPA was removed entirely in [Y] districts and partially in one. In Nagaland, after the removal of the law from 15 police stations in seven districts, it remains in areas under 57 police stations, spread across 13 districts. Areas under 82 police stations are still notified under the Act in Manipur, even though 15 police station areas were excluded from the notification from April 1. The PM, who spoke at a ‘peace, unity and development rally’ in Diphu in Assam last week, cited “better administration” and the “return of peace” as the reasons for the removal of AFSPA in these areas in a region that has seen insurgencies for decades.

Q. AFSPA in Assam is removed “entirely” in ___ districts

Solution: In Assam AFSPA is removed entirely in 23 districts and partially in 1 district.
QUESTION: 37

It augurs well for the future that Prime Minister has given the first authentic indication that the operation of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) may come to an end in the whole of the north­eastern region, if ongoing efforts to normalise the situation bear fruit. PM’s remark that a good deal of work is being done in that direction, not only in Assam but also Nagaland and Manipur, may be rooted in his keenness to demonstrate the level of progress achieved in the region under his regime; but it will bring immense relief to the citizens, nevertheless. Areas notified as ‘[X]’ under AFSPA have been progressively reduced in the last few years, mainly due to the improvement in the security situation. About a month ago, the Union Home Ministry reduced such notified areas considerably in 3 states. There was a substantial reduction in Assam, where AFSPA was removed entirely in [Y] districts and partially in one. In Nagaland, after the removal of the law from 15 police stations in seven districts, it remains in areas under 57 police stations, spread across 13 districts. Areas under 82 police stations are still notified under the Act in Manipur, even though 15 police station areas were excluded from the notification from April 1. The PM, who spoke at a ‘peace, unity and development rally’ in Diphu in Assam last week, cited “better administration” and the “return of peace” as the reasons for the removal of AFSPA in these areas in a region that has seen insurgencies for decades.

Q. When was AFSPA revoked in Tripura

Solution: After 18 years of insurgency, AFSPA was removed from Tripura in May 2015 by the recommendation of the state government.
QUESTION: 38

Gujarat has topped the list for larger States in the NITI Aayog’s State Energy and Climate Index–Round 1 that has ranked States and Union Territories (UTs) on ___ parameters including discoms’ performance.. The States have been categorised based on size and geographical differences as larger and smaller States and UTs. The index is based on 2019­-20 data. Gujarat, Kerala and Punjab have been ranked as the top three performers in the category of larger States, while Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the bottom three States. emerged as the top performer in the smaller States category followed by Tripura and Manipur. Among UTs, Chandigarh, Delhi and Daman & Diu/Dadra & Nagar Haveli are the top performers. Punjab was the best performer in discom performance, while Kerala topped in access, affordability and reliability category. [X] was the best performer in clean energy initiative among larger States and Tamil Nadu in the energy efficiency category. First step “The State Energy and Climate Index (SECI) is the first index that aims to track the efforts made by States and UTs in the climate and energy sector...These parameters have been devised keeping in mind India’s goals for climate change and clean energy transition,” the report said. It said the SECI is the first step in this journey where States can explore and benchmark themselves on various parameters. For instance, in terms of energy efficiency, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra have done well while in terms of Discom’s performance, two small UTs — D&D and D&N — have done well. Noting that for a few States, data for a few indicators are not available, which has also affected the overall ranking of the States, the report said data update and validation need to be a priority of State governments going forward to help them design better policies.

Q. How many parameters are there in State Energy Index?

Solution: Parameters: The State Energy and Climate Index (SECI) ranks states and UTs on six parameters

Discoms' (Power distribution companies) Performance,

Access Affordability And Reliability Of Energy,

Clean Energy Initiatives,

Energy Efficiency,

Environmental Sustainability,

New Initiatives.

QUESTION: 39

Gujarat has topped the list for larger States in the NITI Aayog’s State Energy and Climate Index–Round 1 that has ranked States and Union Territories (UTs) on ___ parameters including discoms’ performance.. The States have been categorised based on size and geographical differences as larger and smaller States and UTs. The index is based on 2019­-20 data. Gujarat, Kerala and Punjab have been ranked as the top three performers in the category of larger States, while Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the bottom three States. emerged as the top performer in the smaller States category followed by Tripura and Manipur. Among UTs, Chandigarh, Delhi and Daman & Diu/Dadra & Nagar Haveli are the top performers. Punjab was the best performer in discom performance, while Kerala topped in access, affordability and reliability category. [X] was the best performer in clean energy initiative among larger States and Tamil Nadu in the energy efficiency category. First step “The State Energy and Climate Index (SECI) is the first index that aims to track the efforts made by States and UTs in the climate and energy sector...These parameters have been devised keeping in mind India’s goals for climate change and clean energy transition,” the report said. It said the SECI is the first step in this journey where States can explore and benchmark themselves on various parameters. For instance, in terms of energy efficiency, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra have done well while in terms of Discom’s performance, two small UTs — D&D and D&N — have done well. Noting that for a few States, data for a few indicators are not available, which has also affected the overall ranking of the States, the report said data update and validation need to be a priority of State governments going forward to help them design better policies.

Q. India has pledged to reach 500GW by?

Solution: The Prime Minister of India at the COP-26 Glasgow summit presented five nectar elements, Panchamrit, to deal with climate change

India will reach its non-fossil installed electricity capacity to 500 GW by 2030

QUESTION: 40

Gujarat has topped the list for larger States in the NITI Aayog’s State Energy and Climate Index–Round 1 that has ranked States and Union Territories (UTs) on ___ parameters including discoms’ performance.. The States have been categorised based on size and geographical differences as larger and smaller States and UTs. The index is based on 2019­-20 data. Gujarat, Kerala and Punjab have been ranked as the top three performers in the category of larger States, while Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the bottom three States. emerged as the top performer in the smaller States category followed by Tripura and Manipur. Among UTs, Chandigarh, Delhi and Daman & Diu/Dadra & Nagar Haveli are the top performers. Punjab was the best performer in discom performance, while Kerala topped in access, affordability and reliability category. [X] was the best performer in clean energy initiative among larger States and Tamil Nadu in the energy efficiency category. First step “The State Energy and Climate Index (SECI) is the first index that aims to track the efforts made by States and UTs in the climate and energy sector...These parameters have been devised keeping in mind India’s goals for climate change and clean energy transition,” the report said. It said the SECI is the first step in this journey where States can explore and benchmark themselves on various parameters. For instance, in terms of energy efficiency, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra have done well while in terms of Discom’s performance, two small UTs — D&D and D&N — have done well. Noting that for a few States, data for a few indicators are not available, which has also affected the overall ranking of the States, the report said data update and validation need to be a priority of State governments going forward to help them design better policies.

Q. This was one of the bottom three in UTs in SECI 2022

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Gujarat has topped the list for larger States in the NITI Aayog’s State Energy and Climate Index–Round 1 that has ranked States and Union Territories (UTs) on ___ parameters including discoms’ performance.. The States have been categorised based on size and geographical differences as larger and smaller States and UTs. The index is based on 2019­-20 data. Gujarat, Kerala and Punjab have been ranked as the top three performers in the category of larger States, while Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the bottom three States. emerged as the top performer in the smaller States category followed by Tripura and Manipur. Among UTs, Chandigarh, Delhi and Daman & Diu/Dadra & Nagar Haveli are the top performers. Punjab was the best performer in discom performance, while Kerala topped in access, affordability and reliability category. [X] was the best performer in clean energy initiative among larger States and Tamil Nadu in the energy efficiency category. First step “The State Energy and Climate Index (SECI) is the first index that aims to track the efforts made by States and UTs in the climate and energy sector...These parameters have been devised keeping in mind India’s goals for climate change and clean energy transition,” the report said. It said the SECI is the first step in this journey where States can explore and benchmark themselves on various parameters. For instance, in terms of energy efficiency, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra have done well while in terms of Discom’s performance, two small UTs — D&D and D&N — have done well. Noting that for a few States, data for a few indicators are not available, which has also affected the overall ranking of the States, the report said data update and validation need to be a priority of State governments going forward to help them design better policies.

Q. [X] was best performer in clean energy initiative.

Solution: Haryana was the best performer on clean energy initiative among larger states, while Tamil Nadu emerged as top performer in the energy.
QUESTION: 42

Gujarat has topped the list for larger States in the NITI Aayog’s State Energy and Climate Index–Round 1 that has ranked States and Union Territories (UTs) on ___ parameters including discoms’ performance.. The States have been categorised based on size and geographical differences as larger and smaller States and UTs. The index is based on 2019­-20 data. Gujarat, Kerala and Punjab have been ranked as the top three performers in the category of larger States, while Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the bottom three States. emerged as the top performer in the smaller States category followed by Tripura and Manipur. Among UTs, Chandigarh, Delhi and Daman & Diu/Dadra & Nagar Haveli are the top performers. Punjab was the best performer in discom performance, while Kerala topped in access, affordability and reliability category. [X] was the best performer in clean energy initiative among larger States and Tamil Nadu in the energy efficiency category. First step “The State Energy and Climate Index (SECI) is the first index that aims to track the efforts made by States and UTs in the climate and energy sector...These parameters have been devised keeping in mind India’s goals for climate change and clean energy transition,” the report said. It said the SECI is the first step in this journey where States can explore and benchmark themselves on various parameters. For instance, in terms of energy efficiency, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra have done well while in terms of Discom’s performance, two small UTs — D&D and D&N — have done well. Noting that for a few States, data for a few indicators are not available, which has also affected the overall ranking of the States, the report said data update and validation need to be a priority of State governments going forward to help them design better policies.

Q. India’s estimate of reaching net zero is by?

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

Central universities may have been caught unawares when the University Grants Commission, or UGC (which looks into the ‘coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education in India’), made it mandatory from this year for them to admit students in their undergraduate programmes solely on the basis and merit of scores in the Central University Entrance Test (CUET). They have little time to lose if they want to salvage their academic session. The National Testing Agency (NTA) of the Ministry of Higher Education, which has the responsibility of conducting the entrance tests for all the Central universities for the academic session 2022-­23, has announced the details of the test. Registration began from April 2 and the application window will end on April 30. The test is tentatively scheduled for mid­July. Few central universities appear ready to guide prospective students about certain essential details that they need while registering for the test. Students must know which language to choose. Since they can appear in a maximum of six out of the 27 domain knowledge subjects, they must know which are the ones which would be required by a university for admission to different courses. Universities with much larger numbers of undergraduate programmes need to take a cautious and careful call in this regard.

Q. CUET is applied to ___ central universities?

Solution: CUET is a revamped version of CUCET and it’s now compulsory for all 45 central universities to adopt it.
QUESTION: 44

Central universities may have been caught unawares when the University Grants Commission, or UGC (which looks into the ‘coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education in India’), made it mandatory from this year for them to admit students in their undergraduate programmes solely on the basis and merit of scores in the Central University Entrance Test (CUET). They have little time to lose if they want to salvage their academic session. The National Testing Agency (NTA) of the Ministry of Higher Education, which has the responsibility of conducting the entrance tests for all the Central universities for the academic session 2022-­23, has announced the details of the test. Registration began from April 2 and the application window will end on April 30. The test is tentatively scheduled for mid­July. Few central universities appear ready to guide prospective students about certain essential details that they need while registering for the test. Students must know which language to choose. Since they can appear in a maximum of six out of the 27 domain knowledge subjects, they must know which are the ones which would be required by a university for admission to different courses. Universities with much larger numbers of undergraduate programmes need to take a cautious and careful call in this regard.

Q. How many domain specific subjects are there?

Solution: Second part of CUET is focused on testing a candidate’s domain-specific knowledge (27 domains on offer, student chooses at least one and max of six)
QUESTION: 45

Central universities may have been caught unawares when the University Grants Commission, or UGC (which looks into the ‘coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education in India’), made it mandatory from this year for them to admit students in their undergraduate programmes solely on the basis and merit of scores in the Central University Entrance Test (CUET). They have little time to lose if they want to salvage their academic session. The National Testing Agency (NTA) of the Ministry of Higher Education, which has the responsibility of conducting the entrance tests for all the Central universities for the academic session 2022-­23, has announced the details of the test. Registration began from April 2 and the application window will end on April 30. The test is tentatively scheduled for mid­July. Few central universities appear ready to guide prospective students about certain essential details that they need while registering for the test. Students must know which language to choose. Since they can appear in a maximum of six out of the 27 domain knowledge subjects, they must know which are the ones which would be required by a university for admission to different courses. Universities with much larger numbers of undergraduate programmes need to take a cautious and careful call in this regard.

Q. CUET is conducted in how many languages?

Solution: Students can opt to write the CUET in any of 13 languages, which levels the field significantly.
QUESTION: 46

Central universities may have been caught unawares when the University Grants Commission, or UGC (which looks into the ‘coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education in India’), made it mandatory from this year for them to admit students in their undergraduate programmes solely on the basis and merit of scores in the Central University Entrance Test (CUET). They have little time to lose if they want to salvage their academic session. The National Testing Agency (NTA) of the Ministry of Higher Education, which has the responsibility of conducting the entrance tests for all the Central universities for the academic session 2022-­23, has announced the details of the test. Registration began from April 2 and the application window will end on April 30. The test is tentatively scheduled for mid­July. Few central universities appear ready to guide prospective students about certain essential details that they need while registering for the test. Students must know which language to choose. Since they can appear in a maximum of six out of the 27 domain knowledge subjects, they must know which are the ones which would be required by a university for admission to different courses. Universities with much larger numbers of undergraduate programmes need to take a cautious and careful call in this regard.

Q. Which agency will conduct CUET?

Solution: The National Testing Agency (NTA), which conducts entrance tests such as JEE (Main) and UGC-NET, will also conduct CUET for all central universities in the first week of July.
QUESTION: 47

Central universities may have been caught unawares when the University Grants Commission, or UGC (which looks into the ‘coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education in India’), made it mandatory from this year for them to admit students in their undergraduate programmes solely on the basis and merit of scores in the Central University Entrance Test (CUET). They have little time to lose if they want to salvage their academic session. The National Testing Agency (NTA) of the Ministry of Higher Education, which has the responsibility of conducting the entrance tests for all the Central universities for the academic session 2022-­23, has announced the details of the test. Registration began from April 2 and the application window will end on April 30. The test is tentatively scheduled for mid­July. Few central universities appear ready to guide prospective students about certain essential details that they need while registering for the test. Students must know which language to choose. Since they can appear in a maximum of six out of the 27 domain knowledge subjects, they must know which are the ones which would be required by a university for admission to different courses. Universities with much larger numbers of undergraduate programmes need to take a cautious and careful call in this regard.

Q. Which of the following institutions will not accept CUET results?

Solution: NITs take admission using JEE Main examination which is also conducted by NTA separately.
QUESTION: 48

Counsel for Uttarakhand said FIRs had been filed in the case of earlier events of similar nature. He said two communities “who are at loggerheads with each other” were both holding such events. The State had taken action in the past without any communal bias. He said preventive action against untoward statements being made in the Roorkee event were under way. “We do not know what they will say in their speeches... But we are taking steps... Your Lordships may have faith in us,” the lawyer said. “There is no problem of trust... The doctrine of trust is applicable 24x7. But we want action and we want to see you take corrective measures and not explain yourselves here in court,” Justice Khanwilkar responded.The Uttarakhand lawyers said the “community he (Mr. Sibal) is trying to protect is also holding events”. “This is not the way you (State of Uttarakhand) present yourself here... And if you are so confident about yourself, we will hold your Chief Secretary, Home Secretary and Inspector­General concerned responsible,” Justice Khanwilkar said. The court ordered the Himachal Pradesh Home Secretary to file an affidavit by May 7 on the action taken, in terms of the Supreme Court judgments, against those responsible for making hate speeches in the State. The court further recorded the statements of the Uttarakhand counsel that the State authorities were “more than confident” that no untoward statements would be made in the Roorkee event. The court directed the Uttarakhand Chief Secretary to file a report stating the corrective measures which were taken before the next date of hearing on May 9.

Q. Hate speech comes under the domain of which article?

Solution: Free speech is necessary to promote a plurality of opinions where hate speech becomes an exception to Article 19(1) (a) (Freedom of Speech and Expression).
QUESTION: 49

Counsel for Uttarakhand said FIRs had been filed in the case of earlier events of similar nature. He said two communities “who are at loggerheads with each other” were both holding such events. The State had taken action in the past without any communal bias. He said preventive action against untoward statements being made in the Roorkee event were under way. “We do not know what they will say in their speeches... But we are taking steps... Your Lordships may have faith in us,” the lawyer said. “There is no problem of trust... The doctrine of trust is applicable 24x7. But we want action and we want to see you take corrective measures and not explain yourselves here in court,” Justice Khanwilkar responded.The Uttarakhand lawyers said the “community he (Mr. Sibal) is trying to protect is also holding events”. “This is not the way you (State of Uttarakhand) present yourself here... And if you are so confident about yourself, we will hold your Chief Secretary, Home Secretary and Inspector­General concerned responsible,” Justice Khanwilkar said. The court ordered the Himachal Pradesh Home Secretary to file an affidavit by May 7 on the action taken, in terms of the Supreme Court judgments, against those responsible for making hate speeches in the State. The court further recorded the statements of the Uttarakhand counsel that the State authorities were “more than confident” that no untoward statements would be made in the Roorkee event. The court directed the Uttarakhand Chief Secretary to file a report stating the corrective measures which were taken before the next date of hearing on May 9.

Q. Which Law Commission report quotes about Hate Speech.

Solution: In the 267th Report of the Law Commission of India, hate speech is stated as an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, religious belief and the like.
QUESTION: 50

Counsel for Uttarakhand said FIRs had been filed in the case of earlier events of similar nature. He said two communities “who are at loggerheads with each other” were both holding such events. The State had taken action in the past without any communal bias. He said preventive action against untoward statements being made in the Roorkee event were under way. “We do not know what they will say in their speeches... But we are taking steps... Your Lordships may have faith in us,” the lawyer said. “There is no problem of trust... The doctrine of trust is applicable 24x7. But we want action and we want to see you take corrective measures and not explain yourselves here in court,” Justice Khanwilkar responded.The Uttarakhand lawyers said the “community he (Mr. Sibal) is trying to protect is also holding events”. “This is not the way you (State of Uttarakhand) present yourself here... And if you are so confident about yourself, we will hold your Chief Secretary, Home Secretary and Inspector­General concerned responsible,” Justice Khanwilkar said. The court ordered the Himachal Pradesh Home Secretary to file an affidavit by May 7 on the action taken, in terms of the Supreme Court judgments, against those responsible for making hate speeches in the State. The court further recorded the statements of the Uttarakhand counsel that the State authorities were “more than confident” that no untoward statements would be made in the Roorkee event. The court directed the Uttarakhand Chief Secretary to file a report stating the corrective measures which were taken before the next date of hearing on May 9.

Q. It proposed amendment to Section 153 C of IPC (promoting or attempting to promote acts prejudicial to human dignity), punishable by five years. Tell the name of the Committee ______

Solution: Bezbaruah Committee 2014, recommended amendment to Section 153 C of IPC (promoting or attempting to promote acts prejudicial to human dignity), punishable by five years and fine or both and Section 509 A IPC (word, gesture or act intended to insult member of a particular race), punishable by three years or fine or both.
QUESTION: 51

Counsel for Uttarakhand said FIRs had been filed in the case of earlier events of similar nature. He said two communities “who are at loggerheads with each other” were both holding such events. The State had taken action in the past without any communal bias. He said preventive action against untoward statements being made in the Roorkee event were under way. “We do not know what they will say in their speeches... But we are taking steps... Your Lordships may have faith in us,” the lawyer said. “There is no problem of trust... The doctrine of trust is applicable 24x7. But we want action and we want to see you take corrective measures and not explain yourselves here in court,” Justice Khanwilkar responded.The Uttarakhand lawyers said the “community he (Mr. Sibal) is trying to protect is also holding events”. “This is not the way you (State of Uttarakhand) present yourself here... And if you are so confident about yourself, we will hold your Chief Secretary, Home Secretary and Inspector­General concerned responsible,” Justice Khanwilkar said. The court ordered the Himachal Pradesh Home Secretary to file an affidavit by May 7 on the action taken, in terms of the Supreme Court judgments, against those responsible for making hate speeches in the State. The court further recorded the statements of the Uttarakhand counsel that the State authorities were “more than confident” that no untoward statements would be made in the Roorkee event. The court directed the Uttarakhand Chief Secretary to file a report stating the corrective measures which were taken before the next date of hearing on May 9.

Q. Freedom of expression cannot be suppressed unless the situation so created is dangerous was held by the court in _____

Solution: In this case, the Court held that freedom of expression cannot be suppressed unless the situation so created is dangerous to the community/ public interest wherein this danger should not be remote, conjectural or far-fetched. There should be a proximate and direct nexus with the expression so used.
QUESTION: 52

Counsel for Uttarakhand said FIRs had been filed in the case of earlier events of similar nature. He said two communities “who are at loggerheads with each other” were both holding such events. The State had taken action in the past without any communal bias. He said preventive action against untoward statements being made in the Roorkee event were under way. “We do not know what they will say in their speeches... But we are taking steps... Your Lordships may have faith in us,” the lawyer said. “There is no problem of trust... The doctrine of trust is applicable 24x7. But we want action and we want to see you take corrective measures and not explain yourselves here in court,” Justice Khanwilkar responded.The Uttarakhand lawyers said the “community he (Mr. Sibal) is trying to protect is also holding events”. “This is not the way you (State of Uttarakhand) present yourself here... And if you are so confident about yourself, we will hold your Chief Secretary, Home Secretary and Inspector­General concerned responsible,” Justice Khanwilkar said. The court ordered the Himachal Pradesh Home Secretary to file an affidavit by May 7 on the action taken, in terms of the Supreme Court judgments, against those responsible for making hate speeches in the State. The court further recorded the statements of the Uttarakhand counsel that the State authorities were “more than confident” that no untoward statements would be made in the Roorkee event. The court directed the Uttarakhand Chief Secretary to file a report stating the corrective measures which were taken before the next date of hearing on May 9.

Q. Which section of RPA 1951 prevents a person convicted of the illegal use of the freedom of speech from contesting an election.

Solution: Section 8 of the Representation of People’s Act, 1951 (RPA): Prevents a person convicted of the illegal use of the freedom of speech from contesting an election.
QUESTION: 53

The Centre on Tuesday suggested to the Supreme Court to let the Mullaperiyar dam supervisory committee continue for a year, by which time the National Dam Safety Authority under the new Dam Safety Act will become fully functional. “During the period of one year, when the National Dam Safety Authority becomes fully functional, the Supervisory Committee on Mullaperiyar Dam may continue its functioning as per the existing mandate in regulating the operations of the dam,” a note submitted by the Centre, represented by Additional Solicitor General Aishwarya Bhati, said. The Centre suggested that the Chief Secretaries of Tamil Nadu and Kerala be made accountable in order to ensure that the decisions of the supervisory committee on the maintenance and safety of the dam are duly complied with by the two States. “To address the technical concerns of both the States, their Chief Secretaries may be requested to nominate technical experts to attend the meetings conducted by the supervisory committee,” the Centre recommended. Once the National Dam Safety Authority is fully functional, the functions of the supervisory committee would be taken over by the authority and the committee could be dissolved.

Q. Mullayar is a tributary of?

Solution: The main tributaries of Periyar are Muthirapuzha, Mullayar, Cheruthoni, Perinjankutti.
QUESTION: 54

The Centre on Tuesday suggested to the Supreme Court to let the Mullaperiyar dam supervisory committee continue for a year, by which time the National Dam Safety Authority under the new Dam Safety Act will become fully functional. “During the period of one year, when the National Dam Safety Authority becomes fully functional, the Supervisory Committee on Mullaperiyar Dam may continue its functioning as per the existing mandate in regulating the operations of the dam,” a note submitted by the Centre, represented by Additional Solicitor General Aishwarya Bhati, said. The Centre suggested that the Chief Secretaries of Tamil Nadu and Kerala be made accountable in order to ensure that the decisions of the supervisory committee on the maintenance and safety of the dam are duly complied with by the two States. “To address the technical concerns of both the States, their Chief Secretaries may be requested to nominate technical experts to attend the meetings conducted by the supervisory committee,” the Centre recommended. Once the National Dam Safety Authority is fully functional, the functions of the supervisory committee would be taken over by the authority and the committee could be dissolved.

Q. Dam Safety Bill was introduced in Parliament in?

Solution: The Dam Safety Bill (2019) was passed by the Lok Sabha on 2ndAugust 2019. After China and USA, India is the 3rd largest dam-owning nation in the world.
QUESTION: 55

The Centre on Tuesday suggested to the Supreme Court to let the Mullaperiyar dam supervisory committee continue for a year, by which time the National Dam Safety Authority under the new Dam Safety Act will become fully functional. “During the period of one year, when the National Dam Safety Authority becomes fully functional, the Supervisory Committee on Mullaperiyar Dam may continue its functioning as per the existing mandate in regulating the operations of the dam,” a note submitted by the Centre, represented by Additional Solicitor General Aishwarya Bhati, said. The Centre suggested that the Chief Secretaries of Tamil Nadu and Kerala be made accountable in order to ensure that the decisions of the supervisory committee on the maintenance and safety of the dam are duly complied with by the two States. “To address the technical concerns of both the States, their Chief Secretaries may be requested to nominate technical experts to attend the meetings conducted by the supervisory committee,” the Centre recommended. Once the National Dam Safety Authority is fully functional, the functions of the supervisory committee would be taken over by the authority and the committee could be dissolved.

Q. Mullaperiyar was completed in which year?

Solution: It was constructed between 1887 and 1895 by John Pennycuick and also reached in an agreement to divert water eastwards to the Madras Presidency area (present-day Tamil Nadu).
QUESTION: 56

The Centre on Tuesday suggested to the Supreme Court to let the Mullaperiyar dam supervisory committee continue for a year, by which time the National Dam Safety Authority under the new Dam Safety Act will become fully functional. “During the period of one year, when the National Dam Safety Authority becomes fully functional, the Supervisory Committee on Mullaperiyar Dam may continue its functioning as per the existing mandate in regulating the operations of the dam,” a note submitted by the Centre, represented by Additional Solicitor General Aishwarya Bhati, said. The Centre suggested that the Chief Secretaries of Tamil Nadu and Kerala be made accountable in order to ensure that the decisions of the supervisory committee on the maintenance and safety of the dam are duly complied with by the two States. “To address the technical concerns of both the States, their Chief Secretaries may be requested to nominate technical experts to attend the meetings conducted by the supervisory committee,” the Centre recommended. Once the National Dam Safety Authority is fully functional, the functions of the supervisory committee would be taken over by the authority and the committee could be dissolved.

Q. TN district along the project is

Solution: The administrative powers of Mullaperiyar reservoir should be vested with the Theni District Collector in Tamil Nadu
QUESTION: 57

The Centre on Tuesday suggested to the Supreme Court to let the Mullaperiyar dam supervisory committee continue for a year, by which time the National Dam Safety Authority under the new Dam Safety Act will become fully functional. “During the period of one year, when the National Dam Safety Authority becomes fully functional, the Supervisory Committee on Mullaperiyar Dam may continue its functioning as per the existing mandate in regulating the operations of the dam,” a note submitted by the Centre, represented by Additional Solicitor General Aishwarya Bhati, said. The Centre suggested that the Chief Secretaries of Tamil Nadu and Kerala be made accountable in order to ensure that the decisions of the supervisory committee on the maintenance and safety of the dam are duly complied with by the two States. “To address the technical concerns of both the States, their Chief Secretaries may be requested to nominate technical experts to attend the meetings conducted by the supervisory committee,” the Centre recommended. Once the National Dam Safety Authority is fully functional, the functions of the supervisory committee would be taken over by the authority and the committee could be dissolved.

Q. Hydroelectricity’s share in electricity in India is ____

Solution: As of 31 March 2020, India's installed utility-scale hydroelectric capacity was 46,000 MW, or 12.3% of its total utility power generation capacity.
QUESTION: 58

The Supreme Court in October, 2019 recalled the two directions passed last year by its two-judge bench, which diluted the provisions of arrest under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. The apex court's three-judge bench restored the earlier position of the law by recalling two directions in the 20 March, 2018 verdict, which provided no absolute bar on grant of anticipatory bail and prior inquiry before effecting arrest of public servant and private individual under the Act. Criticising the verdict which provided for prior sanction from the appointing authority before the arrest of a public servant under the SC/ST Act, the bench said that it is contrary to legislative intent and not at all statutorily envisaged. The top court also expressed displeasure with another direction which provided for seeking approval of Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP) prior to the arrest of an private individual under the Act.

It dealt with false cases lodged under the SC/ST Act, which was the basis of March 2018 verdict, and said: "There is no presumption that the members of the SCs/ STs may misuse the provisions of law as a class and it is not resorted to by the members of the upper Castes or the members of the elite class". "For lodging a false report, it cannot be said that the caste of a person is the cause. It is due to the human failing and not due to the caste factor. Caste is not attributable to such an act," the bench said, adding that it cannot be the case that a report by upper caste has to be registered immediately and arrest can be made forthwith, whereas, in case of an offence under the SC/ST Act, it would be a conditioned one.

It said that members of SC/ST cannot be put to a disadvantageous position in comparison to upper caste people and "what legislature cannot do legitimately, cannot be done by the interpretative process by the courts".

"We conclude with a pious hope that a day would come, as expected by the framers of the Constitution, when we do not require any such legislation like Act of 1989, and there is no need to provide for any reservation to SCs/STs/OBCs, and only one class of human exist equal in all respects and no caste system or class of SCs/ STs or OBCs exist, all citizens are emancipated and become equal as per Constitutional goal," it said.

Q. What directions regarding arrest under the SC/ ST Atrocity Act were provided by the two judge bench of Supreme Court in its judgement in March, 2018?

Solution: Before the arrest of an individual or public serv ant prior permission of SSP or the appointing public authority as the case may be is to be obtained.

The author mentions these conditions in 1st paragraph (…Criticising the verdict which provided for prior sanction from the appointing authority before the arrest of a public servant under the SC/ST Act…seeking approval of Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP) prior to the arrest of an private individual under the Act…) Option (b) is incorrect as no prior written permission is necessary before registration of a FIR. Option (c) is incorrect as it is not based on information given in the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect as even public servant can be arrested.

QUESTION: 59

The Supreme Court in October, 2019 recalled the two directions passed last year by its two-judge bench, which diluted the provisions of arrest under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. The apex court's three-judge bench restored the earlier position of the law by recalling two directions in the 20 March, 2018 verdict, which provided no absolute bar on grant of anticipatory bail and prior inquiry before effecting arrest of public servant and private individual under the Act. Criticising the verdict which provided for prior sanction from the appointing authority before the arrest of a public servant under the SC/ST Act, the bench said that it is contrary to legislative intent and not at all statutorily envisaged. The top court also expressed displeasure with another direction which provided for seeking approval of Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP) prior to the arrest of an private individual under the Act.

It dealt with false cases lodged under the SC/ST Act, which was the basis of March 2018 verdict, and said: "There is no presumption that the members of the SCs/ STs may misuse the provisions of law as a class and it is not resorted to by the members of the upper Castes or the members of the elite class". "For lodging a false report, it cannot be said that the caste of a person is the cause. It is due to the human failing and not due to the caste factor. Caste is not attributable to such an act," the bench said, adding that it cannot be the case that a report by upper caste has to be registered immediately and arrest can be made forthwith, whereas, in case of an offence under the SC/ST Act, it would be a conditioned one.

It said that members of SC/ST cannot be put to a disadvantageous position in comparison to upper caste people and "what legislature cannot do legitimately, cannot be done by the interpretative process by the courts".

"We conclude with a pious hope that a day would come, as expected by the framers of the Constitution, when we do not require any such legislation like Act of 1989, and there is no need to provide for any reservation to SCs/STs/OBCs, and only one class of human exist equal in all respects and no caste system or class of SCs/ STs or OBCs exist, all citizens are emancipated and become equal as per Constitutional goal," it said.

Q. Mohan abused 'X', a person of SC community on January 1, 2020. He is arrested under the SC/ST Atrocity Act. Decide.

Solution: Mohan's arrest is lawful. Note the incident took place in January, 2020 that is after the 3-judge bench overruled the March, 2018 judgement in October, 2019. Hence, the ratio of the 3-judge bench would apply. Therefore, no prior approval of SSP is required before Mohan's arrest. Hence, his arrest is justified and lawful. Consequently other options are not valid. 'X' is a victim and his arrest is out of question.
QUESTION: 60

The Supreme Court in October, 2019 recalled the two directions passed last year by its two-judge bench, which diluted the provisions of arrest under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. The apex court's three-judge bench restored the earlier position of the law by recalling two directions in the 20 March, 2018 verdict, which provided no absolute bar on grant of anticipatory bail and prior inquiry before effecting arrest of public servant and private individual under the Act. Criticising the verdict which provided for prior sanction from the appointing authority before the arrest of a public servant under the SC/ST Act, the bench said that it is contrary to legislative intent and not at all statutorily envisaged. The top court also expressed displeasure with another direction which provided for seeking approval of Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP) prior to the arrest of an private individual under the Act.

It dealt with false cases lodged under the SC/ST Act, which was the basis of March 2018 verdict, and said: "There is no presumption that the members of the SCs/ STs may misuse the provisions of law as a class and it is not resorted to by the members of the upper Castes or the members of the elite class". "For lodging a false report, it cannot be said that the caste of a person is the cause. It is due to the human failing and not due to the caste factor. Caste is not attributable to such an act," the bench said, adding that it cannot be the case that a report by upper caste has to be registered immediately and arrest can be made forthwith, whereas, in case of an offence under the SC/ST Act, it would be a conditioned one.

It said that members of SC/ST cannot be put to a disadvantageous position in comparison to upper caste people and "what legislature cannot do legitimately, cannot be done by the interpretative process by the courts".

"We conclude with a pious hope that a day would come, as expected by the framers of the Constitution, when we do not require any such legislation like Act of 1989, and there is no need to provide for any reservation to SCs/STs/OBCs, and only one class of human exist equal in all respects and no caste system or class of SCs/ STs or OBCs exist, all citizens are emancipated and become equal as per Constitutional goal," it said.

Q. Suppose the March, 2018 verdict was not overruled.

Mr. Rakesh, a government officer appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, abuses a person of ST community. A case under the SC/ST Atrocities Act is registered against him. Decide the correct course of action in this case.

Solution: Mr. Rakesh cannot be arrested until sanction from the Ministry of Home Affairs is obtained. Please note that in the question, it is mentioned that March, 2018 judgement is not overruled. So the ratio of this judgement will apply in this question. It was ruled in this case that in case of arrest of a public servant prior sanction of appointing public authority is to obtained. Hence, option (c) is the best option. Options (a), (b) and (d) are therefore incorrect.
QUESTION: 61

The Supreme Court in October, 2019 recalled the two directions passed last year by its two-judge bench, which diluted the provisions of arrest under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. The apex court's three-judge bench restored the earlier position of the law by recalling two directions in the 20 March, 2018 verdict, which provided no absolute bar on grant of anticipatory bail and prior inquiry before effecting arrest of public servant and private individual under the Act. Criticising the verdict which provided for prior sanction from the appointing authority before the arrest of a public servant under the SC/ST Act, the bench said that it is contrary to legislative intent and not at all statutorily envisaged. The top court also expressed displeasure with another direction which provided for seeking approval of Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP) prior to the arrest of an private individual under the Act.

It dealt with false cases lodged under the SC/ST Act, which was the basis of March 2018 verdict, and said: "There is no presumption that the members of the SCs/ STs may misuse the provisions of law as a class and it is not resorted to by the members of the upper Castes or the members of the elite class". "For lodging a false report, it cannot be said that the caste of a person is the cause. It is due to the human failing and not due to the caste factor. Caste is not attributable to such an act," the bench said, adding that it cannot be the case that a report by upper caste has to be registered immediately and arrest can be made forthwith, whereas, in case of an offence under the SC/ST Act, it would be a conditioned one.

It said that members of SC/ST cannot be put to a disadvantageous position in comparison to upper caste people and "what legislature cannot do legitimately, cannot be done by the interpretative process by the courts".

"We conclude with a pious hope that a day would come, as expected by the framers of the Constitution, when we do not require any such legislation like Act of 1989, and there is no need to provide for any reservation to SCs/STs/OBCs, and only one class of human exist equal in all respects and no caste system or class of SCs/ STs or OBCs exist, all citizens are emancipated and become equal as per Constitutional goal," it said.

Q. On what legal grounds was the v erdict diluting SC/ST Atrocities Act overruled?

Solution: It did not correctly interpret the intent of the act. It is mentioned in 1st paragraph (…the bench said that it is contrary to legislative intent and not at all statutorily envisaged). Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect as they are not derived from information given in the passage.
QUESTION: 62

The Supreme Court in October, 2019 recalled the two directions passed last year by its two-judge bench, which diluted the provisions of arrest under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. The apex court's three-judge bench restored the earlier position of the law by recalling two directions in the 20 March, 2018 verdict, which provided no absolute bar on grant of anticipatory bail and prior inquiry before effecting arrest of public servant and private individual under the Act. Criticising the verdict which provided for prior sanction from the appointing authority before the arrest of a public servant under the SC/ST Act, the bench said that it is contrary to legislative intent and not at all statutorily envisaged. The top court also expressed displeasure with another direction which provided for seeking approval of Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP) prior to the arrest of an private individual under the Act.

It dealt with false cases lodged under the SC/ST Act, which was the basis of March 2018 verdict, and said: "There is no presumption that the members of the SCs/ STs may misuse the provisions of law as a class and it is not resorted to by the members of the upper Castes or the members of the elite class". "For lodging a false report, it cannot be said that the caste of a person is the cause. It is due to the human failing and not due to the caste factor. Caste is not attributable to such an act," the bench said, adding that it cannot be the case that a report by upper caste has to be registered immediately and arrest can be made forthwith, whereas, in case of an offence under the SC/ST Act, it would be a conditioned one.

It said that members of SC/ST cannot be put to a disadvantageous position in comparison to upper caste people and "what legislature cannot do legitimately, cannot be done by the interpretative process by the courts".

"We conclude with a pious hope that a day would come, as expected by the framers of the Constitution, when we do not require any such legislation like Act of 1989, and there is no need to provide for any reservation to SCs/STs/OBCs, and only one class of human exist equal in all respects and no caste system or class of SCs/ STs or OBCs exist, all citizens are emancipated and become equal as per Constitutional goal," it said.

Q. Upon the pronouncement of the three judge bench verdict in October, 2019, restoring ST/ST Atrocities Act dilution, Karan, a CLAT aspirant filed a writ petition in the Supreme Court challenging reservations in CLAT examinations. Decide.

Solution: Karan's petition will fail as it is based on observation and not ratio of the case. The last paragraph is a hope by the court, an observation. It is not a ratio which is the binding part (…We conclude with a pious hope that a day would come…there is no need to provide for any reservation to SCs/STs/ OBCs, and only …and become equal as per Constitutional goal)

Hence, Karan's petition will fail. Option (a) is therefore incorrect. Options (c) and (d) are not based on information supplied in the passage.

QUESTION: 63

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics.

Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly "accused-centric" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected.

Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the "rarest of rare" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. Instigating a person to cause death and all the results of instigation amounts to murder. A man was chasing his wife with a stick intending to hit her and threatening to kill her. She in a hurry jumped out of a window and died as a result. Can the man be held liable for the death of the woman?

Correct Answer is (c)

The man has necessitated the woman to act in this manner, and his threatening has caused her to jump from the window. Therefore, he should be held liable for her murder due to instigation. Therefore only sound choice is option c.

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (d) - Given options are opposite to the essence of the principle of instigation.

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics.

Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly "accused-centric" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected.

Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the "rarest of rare" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. A curative petition is lodge on a grave error of law to undo a blatant error of law or its application.

Solution:

Harshvardhan was convicted of murder. He was convicted by Sessions court. He appealed to High Court but all evidence were against him so he lost in High Court. He appealed in Supreme Court but lost again due to lack of evidence. Now he wished to lodge curative petition because he thinks Supreme Court did not think properly on his matter. If Harshvardhan challenges this decision, based only on the information set out in the given passage and in this question, will he succeed?

Correct Answer is (d)

Harshvardhan cannot file curative petition as there is no mistake of law as the facts clearly states that he lost due to lack of evidence.

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (c) - Given options are opposite to the essence of the principle of curative petition.

QUESTION: 65

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics.

Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly "accused-centric" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected.

Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the "rarest of rare" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. No man shall be deemed as a criminal until and unless proved beyond reasonable doubt. Kumar, a famous fashion designer was found murdered and the circumstantial evidence strongly pointed out towards Manu Lal. A vicious propaganda was launched against him, by certain media houses deeming him to be a murderer and a psychopath.

Judgment delivered holding him guilty. If Lal files curative petition challenging the judgment being influenced by these acts of the media houses, will he succeed?

Correct Answer is (d)

This restriction is patently illegal as it violates right of freedom to practice law and is unreasonable. In this case the parliament can impose restriction on death penalty as a punishment.

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (c) - Given options are opposite to the essence of the principle of No man shall be deemed as a criminal until and unless proved beyond reasonable doubt.

Solution:
QUESTION: 66

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics.

Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly "accused-centric" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected.

Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the "rarest of rare" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. Unexplained/unreasonable/ inordinate delay in disposal of mercy petition is one of the circumstances for commutation of death sentence to life imprisonment. Navneet Kaur wife of Devender Pal Singh Bhullar, filed the present Curative Petition, wherein she prayed for setting aside the death sentence imposed upon Devender Pal Singh Bhullar by commuting the same to imprisonment for life on the ground of delay of 8 years in disposal of mercy petition. Will Navneet Kaur's challenge succeed?

Correct Answer is (d)

Harshvardhan cannot file curative petition as there is no mistake of law as the facts clearly states that he lost due to lack of evidence.

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (c) - Given options are opposite to the essence of the principle of curative petition

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

The Centre has filed an application in the Supreme Court for additional guidelines regarding the execution of condemned prisoners. The Ministry of Home Affairs seeks the incorporation of measures aimed at reducing the scope for death row convicts to adopt dilatory tactics.

Even though there may be some evidence to believe that convicts tend to file review petitions, mercy petitions and curative petitions in such a way that their execution is indefinitely delayed, it is difficult to attribute their conduct to the supposedly "accused-centric" nature of the guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan (2014). These guidelines were undoubtedly aimed at protecting the constitutional rights of prisoners in the context of a sound body of jurisprudence that maintains that such rights extend right up to the moment of their execution. The court was anxious about enforcing their right to be informed about the scope for filing petitions for clemency, for being given legal assistance in drafting them, and for exploring judicial remedies even after their appeals for mercy are rejected.

Further, the 14-day time lag between the closure of the clemency route and their hanging is aimed at preventing secret executions.

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the "rarest of rare" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. All citizens shall hav e the right of freedom to practice any profession. A restriction which destroy the very right to freedom guaranteed under the constitution shall be considered an unreasonable restriction.

Death trials have always been considered to be dehumanising as it often causes grave mental harassment to the accused. Parliament in order to prevent such harassment passed a law banning lawyers to be part of Death trials. If lawyers challenge this decision, based only on the information set out in the given passage and in this question, are the restrictions justified?

Correct Answer is (c)

This restriction is patently illegal as it violates right of freedom to practice law and is unreasonable. In this case the parliament can impose restriction on death penalty as a punishment.

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (d) - Given options are opposite to the essence of the principle of freedom and reasonable restriction.

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is related to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation. A juvenile in conflict with law, if apprehended, has to be placed immediately under the care of the special juvenile police unit or a designated child welfare officer. The child has to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB). The Supreme Court has made it clear that the police have no right to detain children in conflict with law in a lockup or a jail.

Additionally, Section 21 of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 says "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. And even if, for some reason, bail is not granted, a child cannot be put behind bars. He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody. The police cannot torture children.

If it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lockup, they should ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety.

The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all by the police. The concept of justice is limited in itself, and does not address the needs of the child and family. Several times, the victims have an emotional turmoil around the court system itself. It aims to address what the child victim really needs and could even be after the criminal justice system.

Q. JJ Act mandates that no juvenile shall be sentenced to death or life imprisonment or committed to prison.

Gopinath was convicted for having committed murder of Rabi Ghosh. The trial court convicted Gopinath and sentenced him to observatory home. After reappreciation of the evidence, it was found Gopinath has furnished false certificates and documents.

Based on the author's reasoning, should Gopinath's age be investigated and determined again?

Correct Answer is (c)

Principle of law says that "that no juvenile shall be sentenced to death or life imprisonment or committed to prison." Therefore, age should be investigated, since Gopinath has adduced false certificates and documents therefore determination of right age for right sentencing is necessary.

Thus, only option (c) aligns with the author's reasoning.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and principle of law given.

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is related to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation. A juvenile in conflict with law, if apprehended, has to be placed immediately under the care of the special juvenile police unit or a designated child welfare officer. The child has to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB). The Supreme Court has made it clear that the police have no right to detain children in conflict with law in a lockup or a jail.

Additionally, Section 21 of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 says "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. And even if, for some reason, bail is not granted, a child cannot be put behind bars. He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody. The police cannot torture children.

If it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lockup, they should ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety.

The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all by the police. The concept of justice is limited in itself, and does not address the needs of the child and family. Several times, the victims have an emotional turmoil around the court system itself. It aims to address what the child victim really needs and could even be after the criminal justice system.

Q. When any juvenile is arrested such person shall be released on bail unless his release would not pose harm to a larger society. Arun is being prosecuted before the Juvenile Justice Board for having committed murder of one Maharaj by inflicting knife wounds. Arun is admittedly a juvenile. He is volatile by nature, shameless and has no guilty conscious. Based on the author's reasoning and principle of law cited, should the Juvenile Justice Board grant the bail to Arun?

Correct Answer is (d)

Principle of law says that "When any juvenile is arrested such person shall be released on bail unless his release would not pose harm to a larger society." Here, Arun has committed murder by being shameless and has no guilty conscious. Therefore, only option (d) reflects the balanced reasoning and aligns with the given principle of law.

Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and principle of law given.

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is related to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation. A juvenile in conflict with law, if apprehended, has to be placed immediately under the care of the special juvenile police unit or a designated child welfare officer. The child has to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB). The Supreme Court has made it clear that the police have no right to detain children in conflict with law in a lockup or a jail.

Additionally, Section 21 of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 says "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. And even if, for some reason, bail is not granted, a child cannot be put behind bars. He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody. The police cannot torture children.

If it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lockup, they should ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety.

The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all by the police. The concept of justice is limited in itself, and does not address the needs of the child and family. Several times, the victims have an emotional turmoil around the court system itself. It aims to address what the child victim really needs and could even be after the criminal justice system.

Q. If it is declared that retribution has no Constitutional value in the country. Simultaneously, Section 21 has been amended making way for the life imprisonment and death penalty. Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on this amendment?

Correct Answer is (d)

Principle of law says that "retribution has no Constitutional value in the country." Section 21 is attracted when someone is sentenced to death or for life imprisonment. Herein retribution has been outlawed by the constitution therefore, only option (d) reflects the balanced reasoning and aligns with the given principle of law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and principle of law given.

Solution:
QUESTION: 71

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is related to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation. A juvenile in conflict with law, if apprehended, has to be placed immediately under the care of the special juvenile police unit or a designated child welfare officer. The child has to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB). The Supreme Court has made it clear that the police have no right to detain children in conflict with law in a lockup or a jail.

Additionally, Section 21 of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 says "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. And even if, for some reason, bail is not granted, a child cannot be put behind bars. He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody. The police cannot torture children.

If it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lockup, they should ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety.

The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all by the police. The concept of justice is limited in itself, and does not address the needs of the child and family. Several times, the victims have an emotional turmoil around the court system itself. It aims to address what the child victim really needs and could even be after the criminal justice system.

Q. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. It has come to light that Juvenile Justice Board(JJB) are acting as silent spectators and they only take note of the factual situation if it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lock up. Based on the author's reasoning, are the JJBs acting in conformity to the law?

Correct Answer is (d)

Option (d) follows from the passage. It can be inferred that is the duty of the JJBs to ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety. The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all JJBs.

Therefore option (d) is the most logical explanation.

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) and (b) - It is an information not given in the passage and the question therefore it can be safely eliminated.

  • Choice (c) - Giv en options seems to be logical.

    However, it employs external information.

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is related to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation. A juvenile in conflict with law, if apprehended, has to be placed immediately under the care of the special juvenile police unit or a designated child welfare officer. The child has to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB). The Supreme Court has made it clear that the police have no right to detain children in conflict with law in a lockup or a jail.

Additionally, Section 21 of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 says "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. And even if, for some reason, bail is not granted, a child cannot be put behind bars. He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody. The police cannot torture children.

If it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lockup, they should ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety.

The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all by the police. The concept of justice is limited in itself, and does not address the needs of the child and family. Several times, the victims have an emotional turmoil around the court system itself. It aims to address what the child victim really needs and could even be after the criminal justice system.

Q. Supreme Court would be reluctant to entertain a plea about the determination of the age of a convict.

Simultaneously, Supreme Court cannot ignore, overlook or nullify the beneficial provisions of the Act.

Guddu, a juvenile, convicted for having committed rape and murder of 4 years old girl. He was sentenced to death penalty. However, Guddu only raised the plea of juvenility in the Supreme Court. Based on the author's reasoning and principle of law, choose the appropriate option with best course of action on the plea of juvenility?

Correct Answer is (c)

Principle of law says that "Supreme Court would be reluctant to entertain a plea about the determination of the age of a convict. Simultaneously, Supreme Court cannot ignore, overlook or nullify the beneficial provisions of the Act." Therefore, only option (c) reflects the balanced reasoning and aligns with the given principle of law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and principle of law given.

Solution:
QUESTION: 73

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is related to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation. A juvenile in conflict with law, if apprehended, has to be placed immediately under the care of the special juvenile police unit or a designated child welfare officer. The child has to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB). The Supreme Court has made it clear that the police have no right to detain children in conflict with law in a lockup or a jail.

Additionally, Section 21 of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 says "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. And even if, for some reason, bail is not granted, a child cannot be put behind bars. He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody. The police cannot torture children.

If it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lockup, they should ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety.

The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all by the police. The concept of justice is limited in itself, and does not address the needs of the child and family. Several times, the victims have an emotional turmoil around the court system itself. It aims to address what the child victim really needs and could even be after the criminal justice system.

Q. Master Bholu was convicted for offence of murder, possessing illegal Arms and conspiring in a terrorist activity. Bholu has been found as a juvenile. He was fined heavily and given exemplary punishment.

Will Bholu be afforded the protection of Section 21 of Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?

Correct Answer is (d)

Principle of law says that "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Here, Master Bholu was fined heavily and given exemplary punishment. Section 21 is only attracted when someone is sentenced to death or for life imprisonment therefore, only option (d) reflects the balanced reasoning and aligns with the given principle of law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and principle of law given.

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is related to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation. A juvenile in conflict with law, if apprehended, has to be placed immediately under the care of the special juvenile police unit or a designated child welfare officer. The child has to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB). The Supreme Court has made it clear that the police have no right to detain children in conflict with law in a lockup or a jail.

Additionally, Section 21 of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 says "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. And even if, for some reason, bail is not granted, a child cannot be put behind bars. He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody. The police cannot torture children.

If it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lockup, they should ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety.

The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all by the police. The concept of justice is limited in itself, and does not address the needs of the child and family. Several times, the victims have an emotional turmoil around the court system itself. It aims to address what the child victim really needs and could even be after the criminal justice system.

Q. A juvenile convict in the case has been released from a reformation home after serving a three-year term.

Is it consistent with the Juvenile Act?

Correct Answer is (a)

Option (a) follows from the passage. Correct Answer is (a) Passage say "Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that ". Therefore option (a) is the most logical explanation.

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (b) and (c) - It is an information not given in the passage and the question therefore it can be safely eliminated.

  • Choice (d) - Giv en options seems to be logical.

    However, it does not sufficiently give the reasoning.

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is related to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation. A juvenile in conflict with law, if apprehended, has to be placed immediately under the care of the special juvenile police unit or a designated child welfare officer. The child has to be produced before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB). The Supreme Court has made it clear that the police have no right to detain children in conflict with law in a lockup or a jail.

Additionally, Section 21 of The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 says "No child in conflict with law shall be sentenced to death or for life imprisonment without the possibility of release, for any such offence, either under the provisions of this Act or under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code or any other law for the time being in force."

Maximum sentence which can be imposed is 3 years not beyond that. Once a child is produced before a JJB, bail is the rule. And even if, for some reason, bail is not granted, a child cannot be put behind bars. He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody. The police cannot torture children.

If it comes to the knowledge of the JJBs that a child has been detained in prison or police lockup, they should ensure that the child is immediately granted bail or sent to an observation home or a place of safety.

The Act cannot be flouted by anybody, least of all by the police. The concept of justice is limited in itself, and does not address the needs of the child and family. Several times, the victims have an emotional turmoil around the court system itself. It aims to address what the child victim really needs and could even be after the criminal justice system.

Q. Abhishek was shot dead. Arnit Das was arrested in connection with the said offence. Arnit Das was remanded to Juvenile home being entitled to protection of the Juvenile Justice Act. However, he was put in an adult prison due to lack of space in the observatory home. Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on not Arnit into observatory home?

Solution:

Correct Answer is (d)

Option (d) follows from the passage. Passage says "He has to be lodged either in an observation home or in a place of safety. The law is meant to protect children and not detain them in jail or keep them in police custody." Facts say Arnit Das was arrested and he was put in an adult prison due to lack of space in the observatory home. It is inconsistent with the principle of law. Therefore option (d) is the most logical explanation.

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) and (b) - It is an information not given in the passage and the question therefore it can be safely eliminated.

  • Choice (c) - Giv en options seems to be logical.

    However, it does not constitute the reasoning as provided in the principle.

QUESTION: 76

As anticipated, in yet another major ruling titled Sanjivani Ramchandra Kondalkar vs Ramchandra Bhimrao Kondalkar, State of Maharashtra has once again reiterated what even the Supreme Court has time and again reiterated that if allegations of adultery are proved against the wife in a marriage, she is not entitled to maintenance. A wife is entitled to claim maintenance only if she is able to prove that all the allegations of adultery are wrong. A wife cannot maintain relation with some other man and yet claim maintenance from her husband. That's immoral on part of the woman to do so.

In sum, the Bombay High Court has very rightly concluded in this latest, landmark and extremely laudable judgment that wife is not entitled to maintenance if allegations of adultery is proved against her. What is important to note here is that the Bombay High Court has also made it clear that just allegations of adultery by the husband are not enough. Those allegations must certainly be proved against her. If they are proved as have been proved in this noteworthy case only then the women will be denied maintenance as she will be held not entitled to do so as we have seen in this latest case also. The fact remains that, there is an expressed embargo on the right of a woman to claim maintenance, pursuant to the provisions under Sub-section (4) of section 125 of the Act. If the allegation of adultery is proved against such a women or inspite of the husband being ready to maintain her and she refuses to cohabit the women/wife can be refused payment of maintenance."

Q. Based on the information prov ided, which of the following statements can be attributed to the author?

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

The author clearly states that a woman cannot maintain relations with one man yet claim maintenance from her husband as that it is immoral.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 77

As anticipated, in yet another major ruling titled Sanjivani Ramchandra Kondalkar vs Ramchandra Bhimrao Kondalkar, State of Maharashtra has once again reiterated what even the Supreme Court has time and again reiterated that if allegations of adultery are proved against the wife in a marriage, she is not entitled to maintenance. A wife is entitled to claim maintenance only if she is able to prove that all the allegations of adultery are wrong. A wife cannot maintain relation with some other man and yet claim maintenance from her husband. That's immoral on part of the woman to do so.

In sum, the Bombay High Court has very rightly concluded in this latest, landmark and extremely laudable judgment that wife is not entitled to maintenance if allegations of adultery is proved against her. What is important to note here is that the Bombay High Court has also made it clear that just allegations of adultery by the husband are not enough. Those allegations must certainly be proved against her. If they are proved as have been proved in this noteworthy case only then the women will be denied maintenance as she will be held not entitled to do so as we have seen in this latest case also. The fact remains that, there is an expressed embargo on the right of a woman to claim maintenance, pursuant to the provisions under Sub-section (4) of section 125 of the Act. If the allegation of adultery is proved against such a women or inspite of the husband being ready to maintain her and she refuses to cohabit the women/wife can be refused payment of maintenance."

Q. Based on the information prov ided, which of the following can be attributed to the author?

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

As mentioned in the paragraph, author says "extremely laudable judgment that wife is not entitled to maintenance if allegations of adultery are proved against her".

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 78

As anticipated, in yet another major ruling titled Sanjivani Ramchandra Kondalkar vs Ramchandra Bhimrao Kondalkar, State of Maharashtra has once again reiterated what even the Supreme Court has time and again reiterated that if allegations of adultery are proved against the wife in a marriage, she is not entitled to maintenance. A wife is entitled to claim maintenance only if she is able to prove that all the allegations of adultery are wrong. A wife cannot maintain relation with some other man and yet claim maintenance from her husband. That's immoral on part of the woman to do so.

In sum, the Bombay High Court has very rightly concluded in this latest, landmark and extremely laudable judgment that wife is not entitled to maintenance if allegations of adultery is proved against her. What is important to note here is that the Bombay High Court has also made it clear that just allegations of adultery by the husband are not enough. Those allegations must certainly be proved against her. If they are proved as have been proved in this noteworthy case only then the women will be denied maintenance as she will be held not entitled to do so as we have seen in this latest case also. The fact remains that, there is an expressed embargo on the right of a woman to claim maintenance, pursuant to the provisions under Sub-section (4) of section 125 of the Act. If the allegation of adultery is proved against such a women or inspite of the husband being ready to maintain her and she refuses to cohabit the women/wife can be refused payment of maintenance."

Q. If the embargo under 125(4) is repealed by the Supreme Court, then which of the following would be true?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

The question specifically asks about the case where the embargo is removed, hence other factors could be there to be considered that aren't mentioned in the paragraph.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 79

As anticipated, in yet another major ruling titled Sanjivani Ramchandra Kondalkar vs Ramchandra Bhimrao Kondalkar, State of Maharashtra has once again reiterated what even the Supreme Court has time and again reiterated that if allegations of adultery are proved against the wife in a marriage, she is not entitled to maintenance. A wife is entitled to claim maintenance only if she is able to prove that all the allegations of adultery are wrong. A wife cannot maintain relation with some other man and yet claim maintenance from her husband. That's immoral on part of the woman to do so.

In sum, the Bombay High Court has very rightly concluded in this latest, landmark and extremely laudable judgment that wife is not entitled to maintenance if allegations of adultery is proved against her. What is important to note here is that the Bombay High Court has also made it clear that just allegations of adultery by the husband are not enough. Those allegations must certainly be proved against her. If they are proved as have been proved in this noteworthy case only then the women will be denied maintenance as she will be held not entitled to do so as we have seen in this latest case also. The fact remains that, there is an expressed embargo on the right of a woman to claim maintenance, pursuant to the provisions under Sub-section (4) of section 125 of the Act. If the allegation of adultery is proved against such a women or inspite of the husband being ready to maintain her and she refuses to cohabit the women/wife can be refused payment of maintenance."

Q. Any marriage may be dissolved (by decree of div ore) on the ground that the other party has, after the solemnization of the marriage had voluntary sexual intercourse with any person other than his or her spouse. Nagesh is married to Sapna. Shashank is married to Rhea. Nagesh has sexual intercourse with Rhea. Shashank has sexual intercourse with Sapna.

Choose the most appropriate option.

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

Nagesh, Shashank, Sapna and Rhea can get a decree of divorce. All four have them have committed the act of adultery which the Principle mentions and thus, all of them or any of them can get a decree of divorce for their spouse.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 80

As anticipated, in yet another major ruling titled Sanjivani Ramchandra Kondalkar vs Ramchandra Bhimrao Kondalkar, State of Maharashtra has once again reiterated what even the Supreme Court has time and again reiterated that if allegations of adultery are proved against the wife in a marriage, she is not entitled to maintenance. A wife is entitled to claim maintenance only if she is able to prove that all the allegations of adultery are wrong. A wife cannot maintain relation with some other man and yet claim maintenance from her husband. That's immoral on part of the woman to do so.

In sum, the Bombay High Court has very rightly concluded in this latest, landmark and extremely laudable judgment that wife is not entitled to maintenance if allegations of adultery is proved against her. What is important to note here is that the Bombay High Court has also made it clear that just allegations of adultery by the husband are not enough. Those allegations must certainly be proved against her. If they are proved as have been proved in this noteworthy case only then the women will be denied maintenance as she will be held not entitled to do so as we have seen in this latest case also. The fact remains that, there is an expressed embargo on the right of a woman to claim maintenance, pursuant to the provisions under Sub-section (4) of section 125 of the Act. If the allegation of adultery is proved against such a women or inspite of the husband being ready to maintain her and she refuses to cohabit the women/wife can be refused payment of maintenance."

Q. A husband filed for div orce. His reasons include adultery by wife. In which of the following cases maintenance will be granted to the wife. Based on the information provided in the passage?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Only option (d) talks about the situation where all the things mentioned in the paragraph are covered.

Option A is not correct as it talks about mental status of the wife which has not been mentioned in the paragraph.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consist

QUESTION: 81

As anticipated, in yet another major ruling titled Sanjivani Ramchandra Kondalkar vs Ramchandra Bhimrao Kondalkar, State of Maharashtra has once again reiterated what even the Supreme Court has time and again reiterated that if allegations of adultery are proved against the wife in a marriage, she is not entitled to maintenance. A wife is entitled to claim maintenance only if she is able to prove that all the allegations of adultery are wrong. A wife cannot maintain relation with some other man and yet claim maintenance from her husband. That's immoral on part of the woman to do so.

In sum, the Bombay High Court has very rightly concluded in this latest, landmark and extremely laudable judgment that wife is not entitled to maintenance if allegations of adultery is proved against her. What is important to note here is that the Bombay High Court has also made it clear that just allegations of adultery by the husband are not enough. Those allegations must certainly be proved against her. If they are proved as have been proved in this noteworthy case only then the women will be denied maintenance as she will be held not entitled to do so as we have seen in this latest case also. The fact remains that, there is an expressed embargo on the right of a woman to claim maintenance, pursuant to the provisions under Sub-section (4) of section 125 of the Act. If the allegation of adultery is proved against such a women or inspite of the husband being ready to maintain her and she refuses to cohabit the women/wife can be refused payment of maintenance."

Q. A divorce order was passed for the reason being that the wife was involved in adultery. Based on the information provided in the paragraph, which of the following is true?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

It has been mentioned in the last paragraph that the lady on whom charges of adultery have been proved comes under the embargo of 125(4) and cannot make any claims of maintenance.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 82

As anticipated, in yet another major ruling titled Sanjivani Ramchandra Kondalkar vs Ramchandra Bhimrao Kondalkar, State of Maharashtra has once again reiterated what even the Supreme Court has time and again reiterated that if allegations of adultery are proved against the wife in a marriage, she is not entitled to maintenance. A wife is entitled to claim maintenance only if she is able to prove that all the allegations of adultery are wrong. A wife cannot maintain relation with some other man and yet claim maintenance from her husband. That's immoral on part of the woman to do so.

In sum, the Bombay High Court has very rightly concluded in this latest, landmark and extremely laudable judgment that wife is not entitled to maintenance if allegations of adultery is proved against her. What is important to note here is that the Bombay High Court has also made it clear that just allegations of adultery by the husband are not enough. Those allegations must certainly be proved against her. If they are proved as have been proved in this noteworthy case only then the women will be denied maintenance as she will be held not entitled to do so as we have seen in this latest case also. The fact remains that, there is an expressed embargo on the right of a woman to claim maintenance, pursuant to the provisions under Sub-section (4) of section 125 of the Act. If the allegation of adultery is proved against such a women or inspite of the husband being ready to maintain her and she refuses to cohabit the women/wife can be refused payment of maintenance."

Q.

A and C have sexual intercourse. C is the wife of B. C was in love with A before she got married to B.

Their love affair continued secretly. Whenever B was out on vacations, C used to call A. A would take C to movies and shopping. B also had a secret affair with D, A's wife. B and D have sexual intercourse. Who all are liable for adultery?

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Only A and B. Only men can be held liable for adultery.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 83

The Government has constituted a Commission on 2nd October, 2017 under article 340 of the Constitution to examine the issues of the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes with the following terms of reference:

  • To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of Other Backward Classes with reference to such classes included in the Central List;

  • To work out the mechanism , criteria, norm s and parameters in a scientific approach for sub categorisation within such Other Backward Classes; and

  • To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of Other Backward Classes and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

The Cabinet also approved an addition to the commission's terms of reference. The commission will now also "study the various entries in the Central list of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription".

The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs. Over the years, benefits of this reservation were mostly cornered mostly by dominant OBC groups.

Q. Based on the author's arguments in the passage above, which of the following statements is least inferential as a part of the argument made in the above passage?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Statement given "OBC reservation policy subcategorization will lead to further social injustice and can be held unconstitutional" cannot be inferred from the passage and do not flow from any argument given by the author. Choice d become least inferential as a part of the argument made in the above passage.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. Option a, b and c can be inferred from the author's argument. All the options can be inferred from the passage itself.

QUESTION: 84

The Government has constituted a Commission on 2nd October, 2017 under article 340 of the Constitution to examine the issues of the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes with the following terms of reference:

  • To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of Other Backward Classes with reference to such classes included in the Central List;

  • To work out the mechanism , criteria, norm s and parameters in a scientific approach for sub categorisation within such Other Backward Classes; and

  • To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of Other Backward Classes and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

The Cabinet also approved an addition to the commission's terms of reference. The commission will now also "study the various entries in the Central list of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription".

The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs. Over the years, benefits of this reservation were mostly cornered mostly by dominant OBC groups.

Q. Based on the author's arguments that over the years, benefits of this reservation were mostly cornered mostly by dominant OBC groups, which of the following would be most correct:

Solution: Correct Answer is b

Last paragraph says "The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs." Only option which is aligned is option b.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about scrapping the policy.

  • Choice (c) - There is nothing in the passage to support the argument about holding the policy unconstitutional and illegal.

  • Choice (d) - Given statement is inaccurate and inappropriate as the nowhere suggests policy cause social injustice and discontent.

QUESTION: 85

The Government has constituted a Commission on 2nd October, 2017 under article 340 of the Constitution to examine the issues of the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes with the following terms of reference:

  • To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of Other Backward Classes with reference to such classes included in the Central List;

  • To work out the mechanism , criteria, norm s and parameters in a scientific approach for sub categorisation within such Other Backward Classes; and

  • To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of Other Backward Classes and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

The Cabinet also approved an addition to the commission's terms of reference. The commission will now also "study the various entries in the Central list of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription".

The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs. Over the years, benefits of this reservation were mostly cornered mostly by dominant OBC groups.

Q. Constitution says the State shall provide for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State. There is a rising trend that outsourcing is done against permanent employees and contracted employees are deployed against regular posts. Contract agencies have been engaged by the Government for construction and maintenance services on consideration of economy and speed, efficiency and more effective delivery of public services. Due to contractualisation of jobs, reservation policy is bypassed by the Government.

Based only on the principle of law and argument identified by the author above, would such a reservation be valid?

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

It can be inferred from the passage that author is in favour of reservation policy and its necessary rectification. Contractualisation would not be valid, as the outsourcing bypasses the reservation mandate. Thus, only option which is aligned is option c.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about the fiscal prudence and rectitude.

  • Choice (b) - There is nothing in the passage to support the argument about the basic structure.

  • Choice (d) - Given statement is inaccurate and inappropriate as nowhere passage suggests anything about contractualisation's validity.

QUESTION: 86

The Government has constituted a Commission on 2nd October, 2017 under article 340 of the Constitution to examine the issues of the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes with the following terms of reference:

  • To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of Other Backward Classes with reference to such classes included in the Central List;

  • To work out the mechanism , criteria, norm s and parameters in a scientific approach for sub categorisation within such Other Backward Classes; and

  • To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of Other Backward Classes and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

The Cabinet also approved an addition to the commission's terms of reference. The commission will now also "study the various entries in the Central list of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription".

The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs. Over the years, benefits of this reservation were mostly cornered mostly by dominant OBC groups.

Q. Max imum reserv ation to any backward class or classes jointly or severally cannot in any condition exceed 50% of the total seats available. There were violent protests in the state of Rajasthan by the Gujjar community. They demanded 5% reservation in all government jobs in the State. The Rajasthan State Government had provided 49% reservation to backward classes. It accepted the Gujjar's demand and created an additional reservation of 5%. Decide the legality of Rajasthan Government's decision.

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Since the maximum threshold cannot exceed 50%, the Rajasthan Government decision in not valid.

Option (d) flows from the passage. Thus, Option (d) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 87

The Government has constituted a Commission on 2nd October, 2017 under article 340 of the Constitution to examine the issues of the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes with the following terms of reference:

  • To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of Other Backward Classes with reference to such classes included in the Central List;

  • To work out the mechanism , criteria, norm s and parameters in a scientific approach for sub categorisation within such Other Backward Classes; and

  • To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of Other Backward Classes and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

The Cabinet also approved an addition to the commission's terms of reference. The commission will now also "study the various entries in the Central list of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription".

The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs. Over the years, benefits of this reservation were mostly cornered mostly by dominant OBC groups.

Q. CPWD is the premier construction agency of the Government of India and plays a pivotal role in the construction programme of Government projects. The requisite percentage of 27% reservation for OBCs was not fulfilled. Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on the backlog?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Last paragraph says "The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs." Only option which is aligned is option d.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about the given indication regarding cost to Government of India.

  • Choice (b) - It seems to be an appropriate option. There is nothing in the passage to support the argument demonstrating efficiency in the working of the CPWD.

  • Choice (c) - Giv en statement is accurate and appropriate to choose but does not give sufficient reasoning unlike choice (d).

QUESTION: 88

The Government has constituted a Commission on 2nd October, 2017 under article 340 of the Constitution to examine the issues of the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes with the following terms of reference:

  • To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of Other Backward Classes with reference to such classes included in the Central List;

  • To work out the mechanism , criteria, norm s and parameters in a scientific approach for sub categorisation within such Other Backward Classes; and

  • To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of Other Backward Classes and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

The Cabinet also approved an addition to the commission's terms of reference. The commission will now also "study the various entries in the Central list of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription".

The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs. Over the years, benefits of this reservation were mostly cornered mostly by dominant OBC groups.

Q. Constitution makes a prov ision that "the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life'. A policy is made reserving and assigning forest produce to a particular backward community residing in forest for thousands of years, based on the author's argument, which is the most plausible ground to strike down such a policy?

Solution: Correct Answer is (a)

Only choice (a) assimilate the inference and the principle of law given. Passage talks about the reservation and corrective measures to be taken by the committee. Fact situation depicts backward community's presence for thousands of years which can be secured through reservation.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (b) - Passage is completely silent about the morality and philosophy of constitutions.

  • Choice (c) - There is nothing in the passage to support the argument about how the policy will not promote socio-economic and political justice.

  • Choice (d) - Giv en statement is inaccurate and inappropriate as nowhere passage suggests anything about Forest Rights Act, 2006.

QUESTION: 89

The Government has constituted a Commission on 2nd October, 2017 under article 340 of the Constitution to examine the issues of the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes with the following terms of reference:

  • To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of Other Backward Classes with reference to such classes included in the Central List;

  • To work out the mechanism , criteria, norm s and parameters in a scientific approach for sub categorisation within such Other Backward Classes; and

  • To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of Other Backward Classes and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

The Cabinet also approved an addition to the commission's terms of reference. The commission will now also "study the various entries in the Central list of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription".

The commission has been formed under Article 340 of the Constitution which was also used to establish landmark Mandal Commission (set up in 1979) more than two decades ago which recommended 27% reservation for socially and educationally backward classes in higher education and government jobs. Over the years, benefits of this reservation were mostly cornered mostly by dominant OBC groups.

Q. Parminder is an OBC category candidate and belongs to the Gujjar community falling under the OBC category. He ought to have been considered for the post of Constable (GD) under the OBC category. Parminder contended that as he was not considered as an OBC candidate. During enquiry it came out that he didn't furnish the OBC certificate. If Parminder's selection is challenged, would the petition deserve to be dismissed?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

It can be inferred from the passage that author is in favour of reservation policy however the identification are done through the certificate showing the category. In this case Parminder has failed to furnish the requisite documents therefore his candidature is liable to be rejected. Thus, only option which is aligned is option c.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Given choice is contrary to the facts given whereupon the enquiry it was found Parminder is not a rightful candidate.

  • Choice (b) - There is nothing in the passage to support the argument about the non-meritorious candidate.

  • Choice (c) - Given choice is contrary to the facts given whereupon the enquiry it was found Parminder is not a rightful candidate.

QUESTION: 90

The Centre's move to extend the limit of medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks needs to be appreciated. The extension is significant, the government reasoned, because in the first five months of pregnancy, some women realise the need for an abortion very late.

Usually, the foetal anomaly scan is done during the 20th21st week of pregnancy. If there is a delay in doing this scan, and it reveals a lethal anomaly in the foetus, 20 weeks is limiting. Obstetricians argue that this has also spurred a cottage industry of places providing unsafe abortion services, even leading, in the worst of cases, to the death of the mother. When women take the legal route to get formal permission for termination after 20 weeks, the tedium is often frustrating and stressful for a mother already distressed by the bad news regarding her baby. The extension of limit would ease the process for these women, allowing the mainstream system itself to take care of them, delivering quality medical attention.

A key aspect of the legality governing abortions has always been the 'viability' of the foetus. This indicates, in human gestation, the period from which a foetus is capable of living outside the womb. As technology improves, with infrastructure up gradation, and with skillful professionals driving medical care, this 'viability' naturally improves. In the landmark U.S. Supreme Court judgment in Roe v. Wade, the judges held that the U.S. Constitution protects a woman's right to terminate her pregnancy and defined viability as potentially the ability to live outside the mother's womb, albeit with artificial aid. The question of abortion needs to be decided on the basis of human rights, the principles of solid science, and in step with advancements in technology.

Q. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, no where provides for the express or implied consent of the husband. Seema Malhotra was medically examined and she was adamant to get the foetus aborted but the husband refused. The husband refused to sign the papers giving his consent to terminate the pregnancy. Medical Termination was conducted anyway. Husband filed a suit for the recovery of Rs. 30 lacs towards damages on account of mental pain, agony and harassment against the wife. Based on the author's reasoning should the damages be awarded to the husband?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Option (d) is the appropriate option as it encapsulates the essence of the passage and the law. Facts are asking whether the damages be awarded to the husband or not. Taking into the letter and spirit of law option (d) is the most logical choice.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 91

The Centre's move to extend the limit of medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks needs to be appreciated. The extension is significant, the government reasoned, because in the first five months of pregnancy, some women realise the need for an abortion very late.

Usually, the foetal anomaly scan is done during the 20th21st week of pregnancy. If there is a delay in doing this scan, and it reveals a lethal anomaly in the foetus, 20 weeks is limiting. Obstetricians argue that this has also spurred a cottage industry of places providing unsafe abortion services, even leading, in the worst of cases, to the death of the mother. When women take the legal route to get formal permission for termination after 20 weeks, the tedium is often frustrating and stressful for a mother already distressed by the bad news regarding her baby. The extension of limit would ease the process for these women, allowing the mainstream system itself to take care of them, delivering quality medical attention.

A key aspect of the legality governing abortions has always been the 'viability' of the foetus. This indicates, in human gestation, the period from which a foetus is capable of living outside the womb. As technology improves, with infrastructure up gradation, and with skillful professionals driving medical care, this 'viability' naturally improves. In the landmark U.S. Supreme Court judgment in Roe v. Wade, the judges held that the U.S. Constitution protects a woman's right to terminate her pregnancy and defined viability as potentially the ability to live outside the mother's womb, albeit with artificial aid. The question of abortion needs to be decided on the basis of human rights, the principles of solid science, and in step with advancements in technology.

Q. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 carves out an exception for carrying out termination of pregnancy immediately to save the life of a pregnant woman irrespective of the length of pregnancy.

Doctors will not be unnecessarily prosecuted if they act in accordance with the rules in good faith. A minor girl, who is an alleged victim of rape, as the continuation of pregnancy would cause grave injury to her and would also be unsafe and dangerous for the life of the victim. Dr. Raghu conducted the abortion to save her life. Dr. Raghu sought to be prosecuted by the police. Based on the author's reasoning, what shall be the result of the prosecution?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Option (d) is the appropriate option as it encapsulates the essence of the passage and the law. Facts are asking whether the prosecution should fail or succeed. Taking into the letter and spirit of law option (d) is the most logical choice.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Given choice is contrary to the facts given since Dr. Raghu acted in good faith.

  • Choice (b) - There is nothing in the passage/ facts to support the argument about the high stature of Dr. Raghu.

  • Choice (c) - Given choice is contrary to the facts given since Dr. Raghu was within the confines of law.

QUESTION: 92

The Centre's move to extend the limit of medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks needs to be appreciated. The extension is significant, the government reasoned, because in the first five months of pregnancy, some women realise the need for an abortion very late.

Usually, the foetal anomaly scan is done during the 20th21st week of pregnancy. If there is a delay in doing this scan, and it reveals a lethal anomaly in the foetus, 20 weeks is limiting. Obstetricians argue that this has also spurred a cottage industry of places providing unsafe abortion services, even leading, in the worst of cases, to the death of the mother. When women take the legal route to get formal permission for termination after 20 weeks, the tedium is often frustrating and stressful for a mother already distressed by the bad news regarding her baby. The extension of limit would ease the process for these women, allowing the mainstream system itself to take care of them, delivering quality medical attention.

A key aspect of the legality governing abortions has always been the 'viability' of the foetus. This indicates, in human gestation, the period from which a foetus is capable of living outside the womb. As technology improves, with infrastructure up gradation, and with skillful professionals driving medical care, this 'viability' naturally improves. In the landmark U.S. Supreme Court judgment in Roe v. Wade, the judges held that the U.S. Constitution protects a woman's right to terminate her pregnancy and defined viability as potentially the ability to live outside the mother's womb, albeit with artificial aid. The question of abortion needs to be decided on the basis of human rights, the principles of solid science, and in step with advancements in technology.

Q. Srija has 5 daughters and she was again pregnant.

Srija visited Dr. Roli. Srija wanted to determine sex of the foetus. Dr. Roli determined the sex of foetus.

It was a female foetus. Enforcement Authority booked Dr. Roli under the Act. The Act is recently amended prohibiting the bail to anyone accused under the Act.

Based on the author's reasoning should the bail be granted?

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Option (b) is the appropriate option as it encapsulates the essence of the passage and recently amended law. Factual story is asking whether the bail will be granting of not. Taking into the letter and spirit of law option (b) is the most logical choice.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 93

The Centre's move to extend the limit of medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks needs to be appreciated. The extension is significant, the government reasoned, because in the first five months of pregnancy, some women realise the need for an abortion very late.

Usually, the foetal anomaly scan is done during the 20th21st week of pregnancy. If there is a delay in doing this scan, and it reveals a lethal anomaly in the foetus, 20 weeks is limiting. Obstetricians argue that this has also spurred a cottage industry of places providing unsafe abortion services, even leading, in the worst of cases, to the death of the mother. When women take the legal route to get formal permission for termination after 20 weeks, the tedium is often frustrating and stressful for a mother already distressed by the bad news regarding her baby. The extension of limit would ease the process for these women, allowing the mainstream system itself to take care of them, delivering quality medical attention.

A key aspect of the legality governing abortions has always been the 'viability' of the foetus. This indicates, in human gestation, the period from which a foetus is capable of living outside the womb. As technology improves, with infrastructure up gradation, and with skillful professionals driving medical care, this 'viability' naturally improves. In the landmark U.S. Supreme Court judgment in Roe v. Wade, the judges held that the U.S. Constitution protects a woman's right to terminate her pregnancy and defined viability as potentially the ability to live outside the mother's womb, albeit with artificial aid. The question of abortion needs to be decided on the basis of human rights, the principles of solid science, and in step with advancements in technology.

Q. Parents should have the right to know of a child's pregnancy or abortion because they are ultimately responsible for their child's care until she is eighteen.

With the exception of a few circumstances, parents are responsible for their children's mental and physical health until they are adults. A child should not be allowed to make such a huge and potentially damaging decision about her health without the parent's knowledge. Which of the following weakens the author's argument above?

Solution:

Correct Answer is (d)

Option (d) weakens the reason that is presented in the given argument for letting the parents know of their child's pregnancy, which is them being able to make a more informed and balanced decision for their child's health. Since they have no bearing on the decision to be made, the question of them knowing or not knowing becomes immaterial.

Hence, option (d) weakens the given argument. The argument here is that parents should have the right to know of their child's pregnancy or abortion because they are responsible for their children's mental and physical health until they are adults.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Option (a) strengthens the argument that the parents should have the right to know about their child's pregnancy or abortion.

Option (b) looks like a weakening argument as it presents a concern, which if true, would affect the child negatively. But this is not a very strong basis for denying the parents their right to know about their child's wellbeing. Just because there is a fear of parents reacting negatively to a certain situation, it is not justified that the child should be allowed to take such a big decision independently.

Option (c) is incomplete and logically unrelated to the main argument. It doesn't state whether the parents should have the right to know about their child's pregnancy.

QUESTION: 94

Fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution are, in the absence of specific constitutional provisions, mainly enforceable against "the State". The definition of 'the State' in article 12 being an "inclusive" one, courts have ruled that where there is pervasive or predominant governmental control or significant involvement in its activity, such bodies, entities and organizations fall within the definition of "the State".

Article 14 is one of the most important Articles of the Indian constitution and it is also regarded as part of the golden triangle of the Constitution along with Article 19 and 21.In India, this right is very important because there has been a widespread socio-economic difference which has been in existence from a long time. People have been discriminated on the basis of their gender or the religion they follow, therefore Article 14 was included in the Constitution to remove such inequalities and bring all the people under the equal protection of the law.

Another important point about this Article is that it not only imposes a duty on the State to abstain from discriminating people but it also puts a positive duty to take such action by which the inequalities can be bridged between the people. Article 19(1)(a) refers to "freedom of speech and expression". Article 21 refers to right to life.

Following Constitutional principles are need to be taken into perspective while dealing with questions:

  1. Fundamental rights shall be made applicable only to the legislative or administrative actions of the state and not the private actions.

  2. The State includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

  3. State means Parliament of India, State Legislatures, Government of India, State Governments and local authorities wherein the Government exercises voting right or right to appoint the management committee.

  4. State shall provide and ensure fundamental right to free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.

  5. State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of sex, religion and place of birth.

  6. Fundamental right of equality before the law means treating equals equally and unequal's unequally.

  7. Any law or administrative action of the state which takes away or abridges fundamental right guaranteed to the citizen, to the extent of contravention, shall be void.

Q. Kavita Madhukar, daughter of famous freedom fighter Late Raghu Madhukar, runs a chain of private unaided schools in the State of Madhya Bharat. Madhukar Vidyalaya introduces a new compulsory subject in the curriculum named 'Sex Education and Maternity Care' for all the girls above the age of 11 years. Child rights activist, Veena Dave challenges the new curriculum as violative of fundamental right of compulsory education and discriminates on basis of sex. Decide which of the following statements can most reasonably be inferred by application of the above mentioned principles?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Aforesaid facts clearly demonstrate that issue of unequal treatment in law and gender based discrimination cannot be raised as Madhukar Vidyalaya is a private unaided chain of schools.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 95

Fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution are, in the absence of specific constitutional provisions, mainly enforceable against "the State". The definition of 'the State' in article 12 being an "inclusive" one, courts have ruled that where there is pervasive or predominant governmental control or significant involvement in its activity, such bodies, entities and organizations fall within the definition of "the State".

Article 14 is one of the most important Articles of the Indian constitution and it is also regarded as part of the golden triangle of the Constitution along with Article 19 and 21.In India, this right is very important because there has been a widespread socio-economic difference which has been in existence from a long time. People have been discriminated on the basis of their gender or the religion they follow, therefore Article 14 was included in the Constitution to remove such inequalities and bring all the people under the equal protection of the law.

Another important point about this Article is that it not only imposes a duty on the State to abstain from discriminating people but it also puts a positive duty to take such action by which the inequalities can be bridged between the people. Article 19(1)(a) refers to "freedom of speech and expression". Article 21 refers to right to life.

Following Constitutional principles are need to be taken into perspective while dealing with questions:

  1. Fundamental rights shall be made applicable only to the legislative or administrative actions of the state and not the private actions.

  2. The State includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

  3. State means Parliament of India, State Legislatures, Government of India, State Governments and local authorities wherein the Government exercises voting right or right to appoint the management committee.

  4. State shall provide and ensure fundamental right to free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.

  5. State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of sex, religion and place of birth.

  6. Fundamental right of equality before the law means treating equals equally and unequal's unequally.

  7. Any law or administrative action of the state which takes away or abridges fundamental right guaranteed to the citizen, to the extent of contravention, shall be void.

Q. If State of Madhya Bharat enacts legislation granting an option to all the students above the age of eleven years to choose for subject of 'Sex Education and Maternity Care', whether the same can be held in violation of fundamental right?

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Right to free and compulsory education does not bar the State from granting an option to choose a new subject. Further, granting such an option to all students does not violate equality before law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 96

Fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution are, in the absence of specific constitutional provisions, mainly enforceable against "the State". The definition of 'the State' in article 12 being an "inclusive" one, courts have ruled that where there is pervasive or predominant governmental control or significant involvement in its activity, such bodies, entities and organizations fall within the definition of "the State".

Article 14 is one of the most important Articles of the Indian constitution and it is also regarded as part of the golden triangle of the Constitution along with Article 19 and 21.In India, this right is very important because there has been a widespread socio-economic difference which has been in existence from a long time. People have been discriminated on the basis of their gender or the religion they follow, therefore Article 14 was included in the Constitution to remove such inequalities and bring all the people under the equal protection of the law.

Another important point about this Article is that it not only imposes a duty on the State to abstain from discriminating people but it also puts a positive duty to take such action by which the inequalities can be bridged between the people. Article 19(1)(a) refers to "freedom of speech and expression". Article 21 refers to right to life.

Following Constitutional principles are need to be taken into perspective while dealing with questions:

  1. Fundamental rights shall be made applicable only to the legislative or administrative actions of the state and not the private actions.

  2. The State includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

  3. State means Parliament of India, State Legislatures, Government of India, State Governments and local authorities wherein the Government exercises voting right or right to appoint the management committee.

  4. State shall provide and ensure fundamental right to free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.

  5. State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of sex, religion and place of birth.

  6. Fundamental right of equality before the law means treating equals equally and unequal's unequally.

  7. Any law or administrative action of the state which takes away or abridges fundamental right guaranteed to the citizen, to the extent of contravention, shall be void.

Q. If the legislature of Madhya Bharat introduces a similar change in curriculum of all the government schools, whether the same can be challenged to be in violation of fundamental right to free and compulsory education?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Fundamental Right of free and compulsory education does not encompass the right to have education of a particular subject. If at all the new curriculum by state can be challenged, it could be only as violation of equality before law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 97

We are the species that have emerged from the forest, settled the globe, traveled to edge of the solar system and peered into distant corners of the universe. Who is in charge of human evolution? We have invented money and now let it possess us. We have created markets and now in the name of neo-liberalism let them rule us. We have fashioned an endless succession of technological wonders and now let them replace us. We have developed rule of law and democratic governance to promote freedom and equality and now passively succumb to new forms of tyranny. We reject countless superstitions of earlier generations in favor of new knowledge, yet continue to uphold the right of citizens to own weapons capable of firing 900 rounds a minute over a distance of 1000 yards based on a law established at a time when a flintlock musket could fire a single shot per minute over a distance of less than 100 meters. Is this really what human rights stand for? So long as governments refuse to ban gun-carrying and passively condone the frequent death of innocents, they have no right to criticize terrorists or fundamentalists.

Q. Which one of the following statements falls in line with the arguments given in the passage?

Solution: Option (d) is correct as it builds up on an argument already present in the passage. The point about getting replaced by technological wonders has been explained through a specific detail in this option.

Option (a) is incorrect as there is no negative connotation involved with this option as is the case with the many points that the passage mentions.

Option (b) is inaccurate as option (d) makes a stronger argument in line with the context of the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect as it favours the point about the shortcoming in knowledge whereas the passage points in the other direction.

QUESTION: 98

We are the species that have emerged from the forest, settled the globe, traveled to edge of the solar system and peered into distant corners of the universe. Who is in charge of human evolution? We have invented money and now let it possess us. We have created markets and now in the name of neo-liberalism let them rule us. We have fashioned an endless succession of technological wonders and now let them replace us. We have developed rule of law and democratic governance to promote freedom and equality and now passively succumb to new forms of tyranny. We reject countless superstitions of earlier generations in favor of new knowledge, yet continue to uphold the right of citizens to own weapons capable of firing 900 rounds a minute over a distance of 1000 yards based on a law established at a time when a flintlock musket could fire a single shot per minute over a distance of less than 100 meters. Is this really what human rights stand for? So long as governments refuse to ban gun-carrying and passively condone the frequent death of innocents, they have no right to criticize terrorists or fundamentalists.

Q. What can be inferred from the author's point about democracy and tyranny?

Solution: Option (c) is correct as descent of democracy into tyranny is not possible without the misuse of democratic institutions.

All other options are incorrect as they fail to provide any link between democracy and its demotion to tyranny.

QUESTION: 99

We are the species that have emerged from the forest, settled the globe, traveled to edge of the solar system and peered into distant corners of the universe. Who is in charge of human evolution? We have invented money and now let it possess us. We have created markets and now in the name of neo-liberalism let them rule us. We have fashioned an endless succession of technological wonders and now let them replace us. We have developed rule of law and democratic governance to promote freedom and equality and now passively succumb to new forms of tyranny. We reject countless superstitions of earlier generations in favor of new knowledge, yet continue to uphold the right of citizens to own weapons capable of firing 900 rounds a minute over a distance of 1000 yards based on a law established at a time when a flintlock musket could fire a single shot per minute over a distance of less than 100 meters. Is this really what human rights stand for? So long as governments refuse to ban gun-carrying and passively condone the frequent death of innocents, they have no right to criticize terrorists or fundamentalists.

Q. What moral obligation has the author cited as a tool to strengthen his points?

Solution: Option (b) is correct as the author is quite particularly trying to establish a link between the sympathizers of the gun law and those who support extremist cause. This link is evidently established by the point made in option (b).

All other options are incorrect as they fail to refer to any argument that has a strong moral argument as its main focus.

QUESTION: 100

We are the species that have emerged from the forest, settled the globe, traveled to edge of the solar system and peered into distant corners of the universe. Who is in charge of human evolution? We have invented money and now let it possess us. We have created markets and now in the name of neo-liberalism let them rule us. We have fashioned an endless succession of technological wonders and now let them replace us. We have developed rule of law and democratic governance to promote freedom and equality and now passively succumb to new forms of tyranny. We reject countless superstitions of earlier generations in favor of new knowledge, yet continue to uphold the right of citizens to own weapons capable of firing 900 rounds a minute over a distance of 1000 yards based on a law established at a time when a flintlock musket could fire a single shot per minute over a distance of less than 100 meters. Is this really what human rights stand for? So long as governments refuse to ban gun-carrying and passively condone the frequent death of innocents, they have no right to criticize terrorists or fundamentalists.

Q. Which of the following choices captures the intention of the author as evident from the arguments of the passage?

Solution: Option (a) is correct as the primary point that the passage discusses with most specificity is the argument against gun violence and access to heavy ammunition.

Options (b) and (c) are incorrect as they mention a literal point that relates to the passage without providing any detail that clarifies the intention of the author.

Option (d) is incorrect as not everyone details about human progress can be categorized as harmful effects of social evolution.

QUESTION: 101

We are the species that have emerged from the forest, settled the globe, traveled to edge of the solar system and peered into distant corners of the universe. Who is in charge of human evolution? We have invented money and now let it possess us. We have created markets and now in the name of neo-liberalism let them rule us. We have fashioned an endless succession of technological wonders and now let them replace us. We have developed rule of law and democratic governance to promote freedom and equality and now passively succumb to new forms of tyranny. We reject countless superstitions of earlier generations in favor of new knowledge, yet continue to uphold the right of citizens to own weapons capable of firing 900 rounds a minute over a distance of 1000 yards based on a law established at a time when a flintlock musket could fire a single shot per minute over a distance of less than 100 meters. Is this really what human rights stand for? So long as governments refuse to ban gun-carrying and passively condone the frequent death of innocents, they have no right to criticize terrorists or fundamentalists.

Q. Which of the following offers the best reasoning behind the obsolete nature of the gun laws?

Solution: Option (c) is correct as it is the only option which justifies the reasoning for scraping the law on the basis of the enhanced lethality of guns.

All other options are incorrect as they fail to mention any specific detail that points to the obsoleteness of the law.

QUESTION: 102

Genius perceives relationships between disparate, apparently unrelated facts. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle was a literary genius who portrayed with remarkable insight the working of genius through his immortal character Sherlock Holmes. Where the police placed all their confidence in the apparent evidence on the crime scene, Holmes always insisted on an explanation consistent with every facet of the people, circumstances and social context, human nature and the character of life itself. His perspective was all-inclusive. In one instance, he identified the criminal based on something that did not even occur - the fact that the dog did not bark signified to him that the criminal must have been known to the animal. Genius sees the whole picture.

Genius perceives universal truths of life and human nature.

At the age of 21, Jane Austen whimsically began her great novel Pride and Prejudice with a profound insight: "It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife."

Shakespeare captured immortal truth in the lines "Whoever loved that loved not at first sight?" He understood that what is eternally valuable occurs instantaneously. "All the world's a stage." His perspective was universal. Genius sees life in its profundity and totality.

Q. Which of the following perspectives about genius would agree with the facts of the preceding passage?

Solution: Option (b) is correct as the author mentions that genius analyse every facet with the character of life itself. Here the analysis of "every facet" conveys interest in minor details and "character of life" represents a wide context.
QUESTION: 103

Genius perceives relationships between disparate, apparently unrelated facts. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle was a literary genius who portrayed with remarkable insight the working of genius through his immortal character Sherlock Holmes. Where the police placed all their confidence in the apparent evidence on the crime scene, Holmes always insisted on an explanation consistent with every facet of the people, circumstances and social context, human nature and the character of life itself. His perspective was all-inclusive. In one instance, he identified the criminal based on something that did not even occur - the fact that the dog did not bark signified to him that the criminal must have been known to the animal. Genius sees the whole picture.

Genius perceives universal truths of life and human nature.

At the age of 21, Jane Austen whimsically began her great novel Pride and Prejudice with a profound insight: "It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife."

Shakespeare captured immortal truth in the lines "Whoever loved that loved not at first sight?" He understood that what is eternally valuable occurs instantaneously. "All the world's a stage." His perspective was universal. Genius sees life in its profundity and totality.

Q. The true factor behind the genius of Sherlock Holmes could be attributed to which of the following?

Solution: Option (d) is correct as the author mentions that it was Sir Doyle's literary genius and insight which was presented through his creation, Sherlock Holmes.

All other options are incorrect as they mention the character's attributes which can't be seen as "true factor behind" his genius, primarily because they are attributes of being a genius itself.

QUESTION: 104

Genius perceives relationships between disparate, apparently unrelated facts. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle was a literary genius who portrayed with remarkable insight the working of genius through his immortal character Sherlock Holmes. Where the police placed all their confidence in the apparent evidence on the crime scene, Holmes always insisted on an explanation consistent with every facet of the people, circumstances and social context, human nature and the character of life itself. His perspective was all-inclusive. In one instance, he identified the criminal based on something that did not even occur - the fact that the dog did not bark signified to him that the criminal must have been known to the animal. Genius sees the whole picture.

Genius perceives universal truths of life and human nature.

At the age of 21, Jane Austen whimsically began her great novel Pride and Prejudice with a profound insight: "It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife."

Shakespeare captured immortal truth in the lines "Whoever loved that loved not at first sight?" He understood that what is eternally valuable occurs instantaneously. "All the world's a stage." His perspective was universal. Genius sees life in its profundity and totality.

Q. Which of the following offers that most accurate explanation of Shakespeare's line: "Whoever loved that loved not at first sight?"

Solution: Option (a) is correct as it is v alidated by the proceeding line of the passage. Shakespeare is trying to convey that love at first sight is superior, which is also evident from the line, "what is eternally valuable occurs instantaneously."

Option (b) is incorrect as it offers an extreme version of the correct answer.

Option (c) is incorrect as it deals with the truth in love, something that has not been dealt with in the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect as it mentions the argument about love being blind, something that is alien to the context of the passage.

QUESTION: 105

Genius perceives relationships between disparate, apparently unrelated facts. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle was a literary genius who portrayed with remarkable insight the working of genius through his immortal character Sherlock Holmes. Where the police placed all their confidence in the apparent evidence on the crime scene, Holmes always insisted on an explanation consistent with every facet of the people, circumstances and social context, human nature and the character of life itself. His perspective was all-inclusive. In one instance, he identified the criminal based on something that did not even occur - the fact that the dog did not bark signified to him that the criminal must have been known to the animal. Genius sees the whole picture.

Genius perceives universal truths of life and human nature.

At the age of 21, Jane Austen whimsically began her great novel Pride and Prejudice with a profound insight: "It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife."

Shakespeare captured immortal truth in the lines "Whoever loved that loved not at first sight?" He understood that what is eternally valuable occurs instantaneously. "All the world's a stage." His perspective was universal. Genius sees life in its profundity and totality.

Q. Which of the following scenarios inv okes the logic mentioned between the attitudes of police and detectives?

Solution: Option (c) is correct as the author mentions that police tends to focus on apparent evidences while Holmes (detective) tends to analyse minor details of the crime scene. In this option as the police can't make sense of the crime scene, the services of a detective are in order.

All other options are incorrect as they do not mention the point about evidences and observing details which distinguish the working of police from a detective (genius).

QUESTION: 106

Genius perceives relationships between disparate, apparently unrelated facts. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle was a literary genius who portrayed with remarkable insight the working of genius through his immortal character Sherlock Holmes. Where the police placed all their confidence in the apparent evidence on the crime scene, Holmes always insisted on an explanation consistent with every facet of the people, circumstances and social context, human nature and the character of life itself. His perspective was all-inclusive. In one instance, he identified the criminal based on something that did not even occur - the fact that the dog did not bark signified to him that the criminal must have been known to the animal. Genius sees the whole picture.

Genius perceives universal truths of life and human nature.

At the age of 21, Jane Austen whimsically began her great novel Pride and Prejudice with a profound insight: "It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife."

Shakespeare captured immortal truth in the lines "Whoever loved that loved not at first sight?" He understood that what is eternally valuable occurs instantaneously. "All the world's a stage." His perspective was universal. Genius sees life in its profundity and totality.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Solution: Option (b) is correct as the passage stresses upon the ability of a genius to observe the surroundings with a greater perspective than others. The primary point exploited by the author to distinguish the working mechanism of a genius' brain is the ability to view life in all its totality.

Options (a) and (c) are incorrect as they mention the details that the author uses to make the wider point about geniuses in general.

Option (d) is incorrect as it reverses the sequence of the point made by the author. This makes it quite a rigid point as it says that only a genius could understand life in its totality, which has not been addressed in the passage.

QUESTION: 107

Till 2016, the GBP Company had all its operations in one location- New Delhi. The New Delhi office of GPB was a whirlwind of activity. The company went from strength to strength and posted good profits. In 2016, the founder of GPB retired and the reins of the company passed to his son and heir who had different ideas on how to run the company. One of the first moves of the new CEO was to expand the operations of the company. Between 2016 and 2019, ten new offices of GBP opened in various locations across the country. The move was welcomed by all the stakeholders. However, profits in the last two years and especially the last two quarters have been dropping. In fact, it was more profitable when it had all its operations in one location than it is today. Therefore, to become more profitable GBP should close down its field offices and conduct all its operations from a single location.

Such centralization would improve profitability by cutting costs and also ensure better accountability and supervision of all employees.

Q. Which of the following options is the main conclusion of the argument?

Solution: The author cites increasing profits, accountability and supervision as effects of a one location operation. So the main conclusion is that the GBP should close down its field offices and conduct its operations from a single location.
QUESTION: 108

Till 2016, the GBP Company had all its operations in one location- New Delhi. The New Delhi office of GPB was a whirlwind of activity. The company went from strength to strength and posted good profits. In 2016, the founder of GPB retired and the reins of the company passed to his son and heir who had different ideas on how to run the company. One of the first moves of the new CEO was to expand the operations of the company. Between 2016 and 2019, ten new offices of GBP opened in various locations across the country. The move was welcomed by all the stakeholders. However, profits in the last two years and especially the last two quarters have been dropping. In fact, it was more profitable when it had all its operations in one location than it is today. Therefore, to become more profitable GBP should close down its field offices and conduct all its operations from a single location.

Such centralization would improve profitability by cutting costs and also ensure better accountability and supervision of all employees.

Q. Which of the following options, if true, strengthens the author's conclusion?

Solution: The author claims that to increase profits, the field offices be closed down and the company operate from one location only. Option (d) strengthens the conclusion by stating that the overheads were high and since they were in unsuitable locations , even business would not have been good. So it gives support to the conclusion that profits would increase if the field offices closed down.
QUESTION: 109

Till 2016, the GBP Company had all its operations in one location- New Delhi. The New Delhi office of GPB was a whirlwind of activity. The company went from strength to strength and posted good profits. In 2016, the founder of GPB retired and the reins of the company passed to his son and heir who had different ideas on how to run the company. One of the first moves of the new CEO was to expand the operations of the company. Between 2016 and 2019, ten new offices of GBP opened in various locations across the country. The move was welcomed by all the stakeholders. However, profits in the last two years and especially the last two quarters have been dropping. In fact, it was more profitable when it had all its operations in one location than it is today. Therefore, to become more profitable GBP should close down its field offices and conduct all its operations from a single location.

Such centralization would improve profitability by cutting costs and also ensure better accountability and supervision of all employees.

Q. Which of the following options mimics the logic of the argument?

It should shut down operations and launch it operations afresh

However, it has been witnessing a decline since a new management took over. The shareholders should oust the new management and get back the old team to get back on track

Solution: The option mimics the central argument presented by the author in the passage.
QUESTION: 110

Till 2016, the GBP Company had all its operations in one location- New Delhi. The New Delhi office of GPB was a whirlwind of activity. The company went from strength to strength and posted good profits. In 2016, the founder of GPB retired and the reins of the company passed to his son and heir who had different ideas on how to run the company. One of the first moves of the new CEO was to expand the operations of the company. Between 2016 and 2019, ten new offices of GBP opened in various locations across the country. The move was welcomed by all the stakeholders. However, profits in the last two years and especially the last two quarters have been dropping. In fact, it was more profitable when it had all its operations in one location than it is today. Therefore, to become more profitable GBP should close down its field offices and conduct all its operations from a single location.

Such centralization would improve profitability by cutting costs and also ensure better accountability and supervision of all employees.

Q. The conclusion is based on which of the following assumptions?

Solution: The author says that to become more profitable, GBP should close down its field offices. Therefore his assumption is that field offices are cutting into profits.
QUESTION: 111

Till 2016, the GBP Company had all its operations in one location- New Delhi. The New Delhi office of GPB was a whirlwind of activity. The company went from strength to strength and posted good profits. In 2016, the founder of GPB retired and the reins of the company passed to his son and heir who had different ideas on how to run the company. One of the first moves of the new CEO was to expand the operations of the company. Between 2016 and 2019, ten new offices of GBP opened in various locations across the country. The move was welcomed by all the stakeholders. However, profits in the last two years and especially the last two quarters have been dropping. In fact, it was more profitable when it had all its operations in one location than it is today. Therefore, to become more profitable GBP should close down its field offices and conduct all its operations from a single location.

Such centralization would improve profitability by cutting costs and also ensure better accountability and supervision of all employees.

Q. What is the major flaw in the argument?

Solution: The argument states that the company will make more profits if it closed down its offices and went back to operating from a single location. So the flaw is assuming that opening field offices caused the slump in profits and closing down field offices would increase profitability. It ignores that fact that some other cause or causes could have resulted in the slump.
QUESTION: 112

About 35% of India's installed electricity generation capacity is from renewable sources. These renewable sources generate 17% of total energy in the country. Wind power saw a steady growth in India for about three decades (1985-2015). The country currently ranks fourth in the world in wind power, with 37.5 gigawatts (GW) of capacity installed.

In 2015, India announced an ambitious goal of installing 175 GW of renewable energy (RE) by December 2022.

However, it accorded a somewhat modest target of 60 GW to wind as the focus shifted to solar power. At that point, the domestic wind industry had already matured, with an installed capacity of 25 GW.

However, despite its promise, the wind power sector is losing its sheen, with dropping capacity addition, lukewarm response to new auctions, and a plummeting manufacturing sector. India has a high wind energy potential which is commercially realisable.

Nearly 97 per cent of this potential is concentrated in seven states - Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

It would be a great idea if our company grabs this opportunity and pursues wind power. Adding wind turbines to the top of the building would be a cheap and effective energy solution. We should use this solution in all our buildings in the seven wind power friendly states

Q. What is the main point of the argument?

Solution: Options a and b are facts mentioned in the passage but they are not the main point of the argument.

Option (d) is in correct as the author only mentions the benefits of wind power . Moreover the comparison is not the main point of the argument

QUESTION: 113

About 35% of India's installed electricity generation capacity is from renewable sources. These renewable sources generate 17% of total energy in the country. Wind power saw a steady growth in India for about three decades (1985-2015). The country currently ranks fourth in the world in wind power, with 37.5 gigawatts (GW) of capacity installed.

In 2015, India announced an ambitious goal of installing 175 GW of renewable energy (RE) by December 2022.

However, it accorded a somewhat modest target of 60 GW to wind as the focus shifted to solar power. At that point, the domestic wind industry had already matured, with an installed capacity of 25 GW.

However, despite its promise, the wind power sector is losing its sheen, with dropping capacity addition, lukewarm response to new auctions, and a plummeting manufacturing sector. India has a high wind energy potential which is commercially realisable.

Nearly 97 per cent of this potential is concentrated in seven states - Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

It would be a great idea if our company grabs this opportunity and pursues wind power. Adding wind turbines to the top of the building would be a cheap and effective energy solution. We should use this solution in all our buildings in the seven wind power friendly states

Q. Which of the following, if true would explain why wind power has not grown in India?

Solution: India's target for renewable energy is ambitious, however wind has a smaller share. Passage mentions that focus has shifted to Solar. Choice (c) gives a signifcant reason for that shift.
QUESTION: 114

About 35% of India's installed electricity generation capacity is from renewable sources. These renewable sources generate 17% of total energy in the country. Wind power saw a steady growth in India for about three decades (1985-2015). The country currently ranks fourth in the world in wind power, with 37.5 gigawatts (GW) of capacity installed.

In 2015, India announced an ambitious goal of installing 175 GW of renewable energy (RE) by December 2022.

However, it accorded a somewhat modest target of 60 GW to wind as the focus shifted to solar power. At that point, the domestic wind industry had already matured, with an installed capacity of 25 GW.

However, despite its promise, the wind power sector is losing its sheen, with dropping capacity addition, lukewarm response to new auctions, and a plummeting manufacturing sector. India has a high wind energy potential which is commercially realisable.

Nearly 97 per cent of this potential is concentrated in seven states - Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

It would be a great idea if our company grabs this opportunity and pursues wind power. Adding wind turbines to the top of the building would be a cheap and effective energy solution. We should use this solution in all our buildings in the seven wind power friendly states

Q. The author’s argument rests on which of the following assumption?

Solution:

The author cites v arious facts to state that wind power has lost its sheen (modest target, drop in capacity etc). However, he still belives that wind has great potential and is viable

QUESTION: 115

About 35% of India's installed electricity generation capacity is from renewable sources. These renewable sources generate 17% of total energy in the country. Wind power saw a steady growth in India for about three decades (1985-2015). The country currently ranks fourth in the world in wind power, with 37.5 gigawatts (GW) of capacity installed.

In 2015, India announced an ambitious goal of installing 175 GW of renewable energy (RE) by December 2022.

However, it accorded a somewhat modest target of 60 GW to wind as the focus shifted to solar power. At that point, the domestic wind industry had already matured, with an installed capacity of 25 GW.

However, despite its promise, the wind power sector is losing its sheen, with dropping capacity addition, lukewarm response to new auctions, and a plummeting manufacturing sector. India has a high wind energy potential which is commercially realisable.

Nearly 97 per cent of this potential is concentrated in seven states - Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

It would be a great idea if our company grabs this opportunity and pursues wind power. Adding wind turbines to the top of the building would be a cheap and effective energy solution. We should use this solution in all our buildings in the seven wind power friendly states.

Q. Which of the following options, if true, most strongly weakens the argument?

Solution: Option a points to the biggest problem with wind power, hence it weaken the argument most.

The second part of option (b) makes it incorrect. If it is economical in the long run, it does not weaken the argument c is incorrect as the argument does not claim that wind power is the only alternative to carbon fuels. Similarly, just because solar power is better than wind power, it does not weaken the argument which points to the benefits of wind power.

The argument does not claim that wind is the best alternative energy source.

QUESTION: 116

About 35% of India's installed electricity generation capacity is from renewable sources. These renewable sources generate 17% of total energy in the country. Wind power saw a steady growth in India for about three decades (1985-2015). The country currently ranks fourth in the world in wind power, with 37.5 gigawatts (GW) of capacity installed.

In 2015, India announced an ambitious goal of installing 175 GW of renewable energy (RE) by December 2022.

However, it accorded a somewhat modest target of 60 GW to wind as the focus shifted to solar power. At that point, the domestic wind industry had already matured, with an installed capacity of 25 GW.

However, despite its promise, the wind power sector is losing its sheen, with dropping capacity addition, lukewarm response to new auctions, and a plummeting manufacturing sector. India has a high wind energy potential which is commercially realisable.

Nearly 97 per cent of this potential is concentrated in seven states - Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

It would be a great idea if our company grabs this opportunity and pursues wind power. Adding wind turbines to the top of the building would be a cheap and effective energy solution. We should use this solution in all our buildings in the seven wind power friendly states.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the conclusion of the author?

Solution:

W hile all options raise objections, the others can be overcome. However choice (b) cites a safety issue which is serious enough to weaken the authors conclusion.

QUESTION: 117

Finland's new prime minister, 34-year-old Sanna Marin, has floated the idea of a four-day week. It sounds quite glorious, doesn't it? However, critics of reduced working hours, such as the Tory MEP Daniel Hannan, think the idea is bonkers.

He believes we could all work four-day weeks, but we just don't want to. Is he right? The evidence says not.

Reducing the length of the working week boosts productivity. When, in August, Microsoft Japan tested a four-day week, productivity work shot up by about 40%.

One Melbourne organisation found a six-hour working day forced employees to eliminate unproductive activities such as sending pointless emails, sitting in lengthy meetings and cyber-loafing (messing around on the internet).

Q. Out of the following options, which of the following statements is consistent with the idea that is propagated in the passage?

Solution: The entire passage talks about productivity and its different aspects. Option (c) is vague. A productive 4 day working week doesn't necessarily mean that a 3 day working week will produce better results in terms of productivity. The decision to reduce the number of work days doesn't necessarily mean that the existing workforce is idle and incompetent.

Hence, option (b) is negated. Option (d) is out because the proposal of a 4 day working week does not mean that Finnish companies have bad HR policies or anti-welfare rules in workplaces.

QUESTION: 118

Finland's new prime minister, 34-year-old Sanna Marin, has floated the idea of a four-day week. It sounds quite glorious, doesn't it? However, critics of reduced working hours, such as the Tory MEP Daniel Hannan, think the idea is bonkers.

He believes we could all work four-day weeks, but we just don't want to. Is he right? The evidence says not.

Reducing the length of the working week boosts productivity. When, in August, Microsoft Japan tested a four-day week, productivity work shot up by about 40%.

One Melbourne organisation found a six-hour working day forced employees to eliminate unproductive activities such as sending pointless emails, sitting in lengthy meetings and cyber-loafing (messing around on the internet).

Q. Out of the following options, which one is a logical corollary to the given passage?

Solution:

Option (d) is out of context. The passage ends with the benefit of reduced working hours. Hence, option (a) is the answer because it mentions that reduced working hours can impact the environment in a positive way as well. Options (b) and (c) are logical inferences.

QUESTION: 119

Finland's new prime minister, 34-year-old Sanna Marin, has floated the idea of a four-day week. It sounds quite glorious, doesn't it? However, critics of reduced working hours, such as the Tory MEP Daniel Hannan, think the idea is bonkers.

He believes we could all work four-day weeks, but we just don't want to. Is he right? The evidence says not.

Reducing the length of the working week boosts productivity. When, in August, Microsoft Japan tested a four-day week, productivity work shot up by about 40%.

One Melbourne organisation found a six-hour working day forced employees to eliminate unproductive activities such as sending pointless emails, sitting in lengthy meetings and cyber-loafing (messing around on the internet).

Q. Out of the following options, which one will weaken Sanna Marin's proposal?

Solution: Sanna Marin believ es that a 4 day work week will increase productivity. This implies that the employees get a 3 day off. If people start to work on those 3 days as well, the very idea of providing them holidays is defeated. Hence, option (d) weakens Marin's proposal. Options (a) and (b) strengthen Marin's idea. Option (c) is out of scope.
QUESTION: 120

The resting places of more than 50 adults and children have been found in an unusual Roman cemetery unearthed during building work for a new school in Somerset.

Archaeologists say the discovery at Somerton, near Glastonbury, sheds significant light on life and death in the south-west of Britain after the Roman invasion. Some of the people buried in the Romano-British cemetery were clearly of high status, with the position of one woman's skull indicating her head was initially resting on a pillow.

Tiny nails were also found at the foot of the graves, suggesting most of the people were buried wearing hobnail boots. But it is the structure of the graves that is fascinating.

Q. Out of the following options, which one is a logical corollary to the given passage?

Solution: The passage ends with an observation on the structure of the graves. In that context, option (b) is the most logical corollary to the given passage.

The other options are out of scope

QUESTION: 121

The resting places of more than 50 adults and children have been found in an unusual Roman cemetery unearthed during building work for a new school in Somerset.

Archaeologists say the discovery at Somerton, near Glastonbury, sheds significant light on life and death in the south-west of Britain after the Roman invasion. Some of the people buried in the Romano-British cemetery were clearly of high status, with the position of one woman's skull indicating her head was initially resting on a pillow.

Tiny nails were also found at the foot of the graves, suggesting most of the people were buried wearing hobnail boots. But it is the structure of the graves that is fascinating.

Q. In the light of the passage, what can be inferred?

Solution: Refer to the sentence: "Archaeologists say the discovery at Somerton, near Glastonbury, sheds significant light on life and death in the south-west of Britain after the Roman invasion." Nothing is said about literature or architecture. Hence, options (a) and (b) are negated. Option (d) states exactly the opposite of what the passage says.
QUESTION: 122

The resting places of more than 50 adults and children have been found in an unusual Roman cemetery unearthed during building work for a new school in Somerset.

Archaeologists say the discovery at Somerton, near Glastonbury, sheds significant light on life and death in the south-west of Britain after the Roman invasion. Some of the people buried in the Romano-British cemetery were clearly of high status, with the position of one woman's skull indicating her head was initially resting on a pillow.

Tiny nails were also found at the foot of the graves, suggesting most of the people were buried wearing hobnail boots. But it is the structure of the graves that is fascinating.

Q. The author's belief in the passage is most likely weakened by which of the following:

Solution: The author believes that the woman's skull's position indicates that it was resting on a pillow. However, if vandals had pilfered the graves, the skull's position might have been different. Hence, the author's observation might not be correct. Option (b) is out of scope. Options (a) and (d) strengthen the author's belief.
QUESTION: 123

The acceptability of imposing death as a form of judicial punishment has declined steadily over Connecticut's nearly 400-year history. Secularization, evolving moral standards, new constitutional and procedural protections, and the availability of incarceration as a viable alternative to execution have resulted in capital punishment being available for far fewer crimes and criminals, and being imposed far less frequently, with a concomitant deterioration in public acceptance.

What has not changed is that, throughout every period of our state's history, the death penalty has been imposed disproportionately on those whom society has marginalized socially, politically, and economically: people of color, the poor and uneducated, and unpopular immigrant and ethnic groups. It always has been easier for us to execute those we see as inferior or less intrinsically worthy.

The legislature necessarily has made a determination that he who lives by the sword need not die by it; that life imprisonment without the possibility of release is an adequate and sufficient penalty even for the most horrific of crimes; and that we can express our moral outrage, mete out justice, bring some measure of solace to the families of the victims, and purge the blemish of murder on our community whilst the offender yet lives. If this is true, then, although the death penalty still might serve some minimal retributive function in Connecticut, it lacks any retributive justification.

Q. The argument presented in the first paragraph can be best described as:

Solution: The author claims that imposing death penalty is steadily declining. The author justifies this claim by positing that secularization, evolving of moral standards and other things have resulted in the decline. Here, the author uses a cause and effect reasoning.

The key indicator to identify the causal reasoning is "have resulted in" which clearly suggests a cause and effect relation.

Incorrect Answers

(b), (c), and (d) - These are not the reasoning used by the author.

QUESTION: 124

The acceptability of imposing death as a form of judicial punishment has declined steadily over Connecticut's nearly 400-year history. Secularization, evolving moral standards, new constitutional and procedural protections, and the availability of incarceration as a viable alternative to execution have resulted in capital punishment being available for far fewer crimes and criminals, and being imposed far less frequently, with a concomitant deterioration in public acceptance.

What has not changed is that, throughout every period of our state's history, the death penalty has been imposed disproportionately on those whom society has marginalized socially, politically, and economically: people of color, the poor and uneducated, and unpopular immigrant and ethnic groups. It always has been easier for us to execute those we see as inferior or less intrinsically worthy.

The legislature necessarily has made a determination that he who lives by the sword need not die by it; that life imprisonment without the possibility of release is an adequate and sufficient penalty even for the most horrific of crimes; and that we can express our moral outrage, mete out justice, bring some measure of solace to the families of the victims, and purge the blemish of murder on our community whilst the offender yet lives. If this is true, then, although the death penalty still might serve some minimal retributive function in Connecticut, it lacks any retributive justification.

Q. Why does the author say that "he who lives by the sword need not die by it"?

Solution: The author's argument is that "life imprisonment without the possibility of release is an adequate and sufficient penalty even for the most horrific of crimes." So, someone who committed murder need not be given death penalty because an alternative punishment exists - life imprisonment without the possibility of release. This makes answer choice (c) the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - There is no mention of reformation of criminals.

(b) - It is mentioned in the passage that the family of victims needs solace. However, that is not the reason as to why the author says that the criminal need not die. The criminal need not die because life imprisonment is an adequate punishment which in turn can provide solace.

(d) - What the author says is that death penalty lacks retributive justification, however it may have some retributive function. So, to say that death penalty does not have retributive function would be incorrect.

QUESTION: 125

The acceptability of imposing death as a form of judicial punishment has declined steadily over Connecticut's nearly 400-year history. Secularization, evolving moral standards, new constitutional and procedural protections, and the availability of incarceration as a viable alternative to execution have resulted in capital punishment being available for far fewer crimes and criminals, and being imposed far less frequently, with a concomitant deterioration in public acceptance.

What has not changed is that, throughout every period of our state's history, the death penalty has been imposed disproportionately on those whom society has marginalized socially, politically, and economically: people of color, the poor and uneducated, and unpopular immigrant and ethnic groups. It always has been easier for us to execute those we see as inferior or less intrinsically worthy.

The legislature necessarily has made a determination that he who lives by the sword need not die by it; that life imprisonment without the possibility of release is an adequate and sufficient penalty even for the most horrific of crimes; and that we can express our moral outrage, mete out justice, bring some measure of solace to the families of the victims, and purge the blemish of murder on our community whilst the offender yet lives. If this is true, then, although the death penalty still might serve some minimal retributive function in Connecticut, it lacks any retributive justification.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred as a view that the author will most definitely agree with?

(1) We must protect the rights of society's marginalized.

(2) Opposing the death penalty does not indicate a lack of sympathy for murder victims.

Solution: The author would agree with both the statements. (1) - In the second paragraph the author presents how the society treats those who are viewed as inferior and marginalized. The author makes his disapproval of society's biasness clear. Therefore, author would agree with statement (1)

(2) - In the last paragraph, the author rejects death penalty and chooses life imprisonment without the possibility of release as an adequate alternative.

The author goes on to say that it will give some measure of solace to the families of the victims.

Therefore, the author clearly holds the view that opposing death penalty does not indicate a lack of sympathy for murder victims.

QUESTION: 126

The acceptability of imposing death as a form of judicial punishment has declined steadily over Connecticut's nearly 400-year history. Secularization, evolving moral standards, new constitutional and procedural protections, and the availability of incarceration as a viable alternative to execution have resulted in capital punishment being available for far fewer crimes and criminals, and being imposed far less frequently, with a concomitant deterioration in public acceptance.

What has not changed is that, throughout every period of our state's history, the death penalty has been imposed disproportionately on those whom society has marginalized socially, politically, and economically: people of color, the poor and uneducated, and unpopular immigrant and ethnic groups. It always has been easier for us to execute those we see as inferior or less intrinsically worthy.

The legislature necessarily has made a determination that he who lives by the sword need not die by it; that life imprisonment without the possibility of release is an adequate and sufficient penalty even for the most horrific of crimes; and that we can express our moral outrage, mete out justice, bring some measure of solace to the families of the victims, and purge the blemish of murder on our community whilst the offender yet lives. If this is true, then, although the death penalty still might serve some minimal retributive function in Connecticut, it lacks any retributive justification.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument presented in the second paragraph?

Solution: You are asked to identify the statement which weakens the argument in the second paragraph. In the second paragraph, the author claims that the death penalty has been disproportionately imposed on the marginalized people. The author indicates biasness as the reason for the same.

The argument can be weakened by showing that biasness may not be the cause. What if there are a greater number of marginalized people who committed these crimes.

For instance, let's say that someone accuses CLAT to be biased against people from a state X - out of the 1000 NLU graduates only 50 (5%) are from state X. But, what if out of the 50,000 who take the CLAT, only 2500 (5%) are from state X. This calls into question the original claim that CLAT is biased. It is just that lesser percentage of students from state X take the CLAT and therefore lesser percentage of students from state X get admitted to NLU.

Answer choice (b) weakens the argument based on a similar reasoning.

Answer choice (b), if true, would weaken the argument. 80% of all who committed crimes eligible for death penalty, are poor and uneducated. This would mean that prejudice may not be the cause.

The reason is that they commit these crimes disproportionately and therefore get death penalty disproportionately.

Incorrect Answers

(a) and (c) give data that support the argument.

Both give data where there is a disproportionate number of death sentences being awarded to people of colour.

(d) - This is irrelevant information. Even if the statement given in (d) is true, it would not impact the argument in any way since it talks about robbery and assault. Answer choice (d) does not address the issue of death penalty.

QUESTION: 127

The acceptability of imposing death as a form of judicial punishment has declined steadily over Connecticut's nearly 400-year history. Secularization, evolving moral standards, new constitutional and procedural protections, and the availability of incarceration as a viable alternative to execution have resulted in capital punishment being available for far fewer crimes and criminals, and being imposed far less frequently, with a concomitant deterioration in public acceptance.

What has not changed is that, throughout every period of our state's history, the death penalty has been imposed disproportionately on those whom society has marginalized socially, politically, and economically: people of color, the poor and uneducated, and unpopular immigrant and ethnic groups. It always has been easier for us to execute those we see as inferior or less intrinsically worthy.

The legislature necessarily has made a determination that he who lives by the sword need not die by it; that life imprisonment without the possibility of release is an adequate and sufficient penalty even for the most horrific of crimes; and that we can express our moral outrage, mete out justice, bring some measure of solace to the families of the victims, and purge the blemish of murder on our community whilst the offender yet lives. If this is true, then, although the death penalty still might serve some minimal retributive function in Connecticut, it lacks any retributive justification.

Q. Which of the following is similar to the line of reasoning of the author in the last paragraph?

Since consumption of animal products harm animals, and the same nutrients can be got from a vegan diet, veganism is a better alternative.

Solution: This is a parallel reasoning question - you are asked to identify the answer choice which has a similar reasoning to that of the argument presented in the last paragraph.

The argument in the passage is that life imprisonment without a possibility of release is an alternative to death penalty because it is an adequate punishment and death penalty does not have a justification.

This can be represented as - An alternative A is chosen over B because A is adequate, and B is not justified.

This reasoning can be found in answer choice (a).

An alternative veganism (A) is chosen over animal products (B), because veganism (A) is nutritious (adequate) and animals are harmed (not justified).

Incorrect Answers

(b), (c) and (d) - These do not evaluate two alternatives and choose one of them. The line of reasoning in the last paragraph is about evaluating two alternatives and choosing one.

QUESTION: 128

"Nobody has the right to not be offended. That right doesn't exist in any declaration I have ever read. If you are offended, it is your problem, and frankly lots of things offend lots of people." Acclaimed novelist Salman Rushdie's words, however, will have very few takers in today's India. In a pluralistic society like India, the periphery of free speech is always opaque, and the nebulous distinction between right to dissent and right to offend is even more vague, leaving even the absolutists in an enigmatic dilemma.

The right to offend and hate speech are inextricable. Though there is no legal definition of hate speech, a Law Commission report released in March enlists a few criteria to identify it. The report says that the speech must be 'offensive' and project the 'extreme' form of emotion. "The term hate speech has been used invariably to mean expression which is abusive, insulting, intimidating, harassing or which incites violence, hatred or discrimination against groups identified by characteristics such as one's race, religion, language, caste or community, sexual orientation or personal convictions." Sounds like a farrago?

The fact that defining feature of sentiments is subjective leads to the rampant misuse of this clause and ultimately to the suppression of free speech.

Q. Which one of the following is the main conclusion of the passage?

Solution: The author's argument that "…defining feature of sentiments is subjective leads to the rampant misuse of this clause and ultimately to the suppression of free speech." This is captured accurately in option (b).

Incorrect Answers

(a) - The author does not address the motive for misuse. This answer choice suggests that the motive is furthering the political agenda. This is not mentioned in the passage.

(c) - The problem with this answer choice is that this alleges a motive as to why the clauses are the way they are. This answer choice attacks the motivation of the law commission - something that is not suggested by the author. All that the author says that subjective nature of the clause creates a problem.

(d) - Firstly, Salman Rushdie's quote is a supporting detail of the argument and not the main conclusion.

Secondly, the author does not give any indication that 'many authors' have highlighted it.

QUESTION: 129

"Nobody has the right to not be offended. That right doesn't exist in any declaration I have ever read. If you are offended, it is your problem, and frankly lots of things offend lots of people." Acclaimed novelist Salman Rushdie's words, however, will have very few takers in today's India. In a pluralistic society like India, the periphery of free speech is always opaque, and the nebulous distinction between right to dissent and right to offend is even more vague, leaving even the absolutists in an enigmatic dilemma.

The right to offend and hate speech are inextricable. Though there is no legal definition of hate speech, a Law Commission report released in March enlists a few criteria to identify it. The report says that the speech must be 'offensive' and project the 'extreme' form of emotion. "The term hate speech has been used invariably to mean expression which is abusive, insulting, intimidating, harassing or which incites violence, hatred or discrimination against groups identified by characteristics such as one's race, religion, language, caste or community, sexual orientation or personal convictions." Sounds like a farrago?

The fact that defining feature of sentiments is subjective leads to the rampant misuse of this clause and ultimately to the suppression of free speech.

Q. The argument of the author depends on which one of the following assumptions:

Solution: Assumption is something that is necessary for the argument and so assumption when denied or made negative will make the argument void.

Applying the negation test to answer choice (d) - If subjective interpretation DOES NOT lead to confusion, then the author's argument becomes void. The author says that the term hate speech sounds like a farrago (or confusion). The reason suggested is that it has subjectivity. So, the author is assuming that subjective interpretation can lead to confusion.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - What the author states is that the features of sentiment are subjective. These are - abusive, insulting, intimidating etc. The author is NOT suggesting that terms such as race and religion are subjective.

(b) - The problem with this answer choice is the word "only". This is not necessary for the argument.

Misuse is one of the ways of suppressing free speech - that would be the assumption. Not that misuse is the only way to suppress free speech.

(c) - This completely contradicts the author's position and therefore cannot be an assumption.

QUESTION: 130

"Nobody has the right to not be offended. That right doesn't exist in any declaration I have ever read. If you are offended, it is your problem, and frankly lots of things offend lots of people." Acclaimed novelist Salman Rushdie's words, however, will have very few takers in today's India. In a pluralistic society like India, the periphery of free speech is always opaque, and the nebulous distinction between right to dissent and right to offend is even more vague, leaving even the absolutists in an enigmatic dilemma.

The right to offend and hate speech are inextricable. Though there is no legal definition of hate speech, a Law Commission report released in March enlists a few criteria to identify it. The report says that the speech must be 'offensive' and project the 'extreme' form of emotion. "The term hate speech has been used invariably to mean expression which is abusive, insulting, intimidating, harassing or which incites violence, hatred or discrimination against groups identified by characteristics such as one's race, religion, language, caste or community, sexual orientation or personal convictions." Sounds like a farrago?

The fact that defining feature of sentiments is subjective leads to the rampant misuse of this clause and ultimately to the suppression of free speech.

Q. Answer the question considering only the following two statements from the passage:

(1) The right to offend and hate speech are inextricable.

(2) The [Law Commission] report says that [hate] speech must be 'offensive' and project the 'extreme' form of emotion.

The relation between the above two statements can be best described as follows:

Solution: In the statement (1), the author claims that right to offend and hate speech are impossible to separate (or inextricable). (2) acts as a support for that claim.

In the Law Commission report, hate speech is something that is offensive. So, (2) is the premise and (1) is the conclusion.

The argument can be written as follows

Premise: Law commission report says that hate speech is something that is offensive (2)

Conclusion: Therefore, right to offend and hate speech are impossible to separate (1).

(1) is the conclusion; (2) is the evidence used to justify the conclusion.

Incorrect Answer

(a), (b), and (d) - Each of these answer choices identifies the components incorrectly.

QUESTION: 131

There are 450 coupons which can be used in Pedicure and Hair cutting. Ratio between males to females who use their coupons in Hair cutting is 13 : 7. Number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure is 72 more than number of females who use their coupons in Hair cutting.

Total number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure and Hair cutting together is 174 more than total number of females who use their coupons in Pedicure and Haircutting together.

Q. Males who use their coupons in Pedicure is what percent of the males who use their coupons in Hair cutting?

Solution: Let, males and females who use their coupons in Hair cutting be 13x and 7x respectively.

∴ Males who use their coupons in Pedicure = 7x + 72

⇒ Females who use their coupons in Pedicure

= 450 13x 7x 7x 72 = 378 72x

7x + 72 + 13x – (7x + 378 – 27x) = 174

⇒ 40x – 306 = 174

⇒ x = 12

Required percentage

QUESTION: 132

There are 450 coupons which can be used in Pedicure and Hair cutting. Ratio between males to females who use their coupons in Hair cutting is 13 : 7. Number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure is 72 more than number of females who use their coupons in Hair cutting.

Total number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure and Hair cutting together is 174 more than total number of females who use their coupons in Pedicure and Haircutting together.

Q. Females who use their coupons in Hair cutting is how much more than females who use their coupons in Pedicure?

Solution: Let, males and females who use their coupons in Hair cutting be 13x and 7x respectively.

∴ Males who use their coupons in Pedicure = 7x + 72

⇒ Females who use their coupons in Pedicure

= 450 13x 7x 7x 72 = 378 72x

7x + 72 + 13x – (7x + 378 – 27x) = 174

⇒ 40x – 306 = 174

⇒ x = 12

Required difference = 84 – 54 = 30.

QUESTION: 133

There are 450 coupons which can be used in Pedicure and Hair cutting. Ratio between males to females who use their coupons in Hair cutting is 13 : 7. Number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure is 72 more than number of females who use their coupons in Hair cutting.

Total number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure and Hair cutting together is 174 more than total number of females who use their coupons in Pedicure and Haircutting together.

Q. Find the ratio between the total number of persons who use their coupons in Pedicure to the total number of persons who use their coupons in Hair cutting.

Solution: Let, males and females who use their coupons in Hair cutting be 13x and 7x respectively.

∴ Males who use their coupons in Pedicure = 7x + 72

⇒ Females who use their coupons in Pedicure

= 450 13x 7x 7x 72 = 378 72x

7x + 72 + 13x – (7x + 378 – 27x) = 174

⇒ 40x – 306 = 174

⇒ x = 12

QUESTION: 134

There are 450 coupons which can be used in Pedicure and Hair cutting. Ratio between males to females who use their coupons in Hair cutting is 13 : 7. Number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure is 72 more than number of females who use their coupons in Hair cutting.

Total number of males who use their coupons in Pedicure and Hair cutting together is 174 more than total number of females who use their coupons in Pedicure and Haircutting together.

Q. Out of males who use their coupons in Hair cutting, 25% belongs to city A, then find the number of males who use their coupons in Hair cutting who do not belong to city A.

Solution: Let, males and females who use their coupons in Hair cutting be 13x and 7x respectively.

∴ Males who use their coupons in Pedicure = 7x + 72

⇒ Females who use their coupons in Pedicure

= 450 13x 7x 7x 72 = 378 72x

7x + 72 + 13x – (7x + 378 – 27x) = 174

⇒ 40x – 306 = 174

⇒ x = 12

Number of males who use their coupons in Hair cutting but do not belong to city A

QUESTION: 135

The table given below shows the information about the toys manufactured by 6 different companies. Each company manufactures only two types of toys – vehicles and dolls. Among toy vehicles each company manufactures Cars and Trucks only. The table shows the number of toy vehicles as a percentage of total toys manufactured by each company. It also shows the ratio of Cars and Trucks manufactured. Each company manufactured a total of 50000 toys in a year.

Q. What is the total number of toy cars manufactured by company T and S together?

Solution: The correct option is (b). According to the information given in the table, the number of toy cars manufactured by T and S can be calculated as follows

∴ Total number of toy cars manufactured by company T and S together = 10000 + 26250 = 36250.

QUESTION: 136

The table given below shows the information about the toys manufactured by 6 different companies. Each company manufactures only two types of toys – vehicles and dolls. Among toy vehicles each company manufactures Cars and Trucks only. The table shows the number of toy vehicles as a percentage of total toys manufactured by each company. It also shows the ratio of Cars and Trucks manufactured. Each company manufactured a total of 50000 toys in a year.

Q. Which of the following options is the closest to the average number of dolls manufactured by these six companies mentioned above?