Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 2


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2022 | Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 2


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Attempt Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 2 | 150 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for CLAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series for CLAT 2022 for CLAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

Today Korea represents a nexus of the world's challenges and opportunities. Decades of phenomenal political, economic and social progress in the South have prepared it to assume a greater role in international affairs. At the same time, the legacy of unresolved issues on the Korean Peninsula threatens its remarkable achievements and casts a shadow over its future. Korea must at once preserve its hard-earned gains while overcoming a seemingly intractable nuclear dilemma that even the superpowers have been powerless to resolve.

History provides insights into an ultimate solution to the Korean problem. After asserting its freedom from Britain in 1776, it took America nearly a century to translate into practice the ideals enshrined in the Declaration of Independence. The American Civil War abolished slavery.

It also united a loose confederation of states into a strong federal system. In the decades following the end of that war, the energies of the American people were released as never before and the nation quickly rose from obscurity to become the leading economy in the world and a promised land for people of all nations aspiring for freedom and prosperity. The translation of idealistic democratic principles into practical realities was the lever for unleashing the prodigious energies and creativity of the American people for national development and eventual world leadership.

The unity America achieved through a bloody civil war; Germany accomplished more recently by peaceful means. Divided into East and West for nearly five decades, West Germany was sandwiched between two nuclear armed superpowers and helpless to act to restore its own unity. Rather than embracing aggressive hostility toward its brethren in the East, West Germany adopted two very significant strategies. Domestically, it sought to transform an authoritarian state into one of the most vibrant and inclusive democracies in the world, reconciling the tensions between capitalists and workers and fostering tolerance and cultural harmony among an increasingly heterogeneous population. At the same time, internationally, it became a leading proponent of European unification and subordinated nationalistic ambitions to foster unprecedented levels of cooperation and integration with its neighbors. West Germany began its gradual rise as an exemplary world citizen and leader.

These examples offer insights relevant to Korea today.

At the national level the gains of democratization achieved by the Candlelight Movement in South Korea should now be translated more broadly and deeply into greater individual freedom, equality of opportunity, transparency and public participation.

Q. As mentioned in the passage, the word "prodigious" most nearly means

Solution: Option (d) is the correct answer as the passage makes use of the word "prodigious" in its literal sense, which is "very impressive."
QUESTION: 2

Today Korea represents a nexus of the world's challenges and opportunities. Decades of phenomenal political, economic and social progress in the South have prepared it to assume a greater role in international affairs. At the same time, the legacy of unresolved issues on the Korean Peninsula threatens its remarkable achievements and casts a shadow over its future. Korea must at once preserve its hard-earned gains while overcoming a seemingly intractable nuclear dilemma that even the superpowers have been powerless to resolve.

History provides insights into an ultimate solution to the Korean problem. After asserting its freedom from Britain in 1776, it took America nearly a century to translate into practice the ideals enshrined in the Declaration of Independence. The American Civil War abolished slavery.

It also united a loose confederation of states into a strong federal system. In the decades following the end of that war, the energies of the American people were released as never before and the nation quickly rose from obscurity to become the leading economy in the world and a promised land for people of all nations aspiring for freedom and prosperity. The translation of idealistic democratic principles into practical realities was the lever for unleashing the prodigious energies and creativity of the American people for national development and eventual world leadership.

The unity America achieved through a bloody civil war; Germany accomplished more recently by peaceful means. Divided into East and West for nearly five decades, West Germany was sandwiched between two nuclear armed superpowers and helpless to act to restore its own unity. Rather than embracing aggressive hostility toward its brethren in the East, West Germany adopted two very significant strategies. Domestically, it sought to transform an authoritarian state into one of the most vibrant and inclusive democracies in the world, reconciling the tensions between capitalists and workers and fostering tolerance and cultural harmony among an increasingly heterogeneous population. At the same time, internationally, it became a leading proponent of European unification and subordinated nationalistic ambitions to foster unprecedented levels of cooperation and integration with its neighbors. West Germany began its gradual rise as an exemplary world citizen and leader.

These examples offer insights relevant to Korea today.

At the national level the gains of democratization achieved by the Candlelight Movement in South Korea should now be translated more broadly and deeply into greater individual freedom, equality of opportunity, transparency and public participation.

Q. Which of the following factors was responsible for America becoming a world leader?

Solution: Option (a) is correct as the passage talks about the American civil war which culminated in the release of the energies of American people, which was the key reason for the nation's development.

All other options are incorrect as they omit to cite the above reasoning for the principle argument in the concerned paragraph.

QUESTION: 3

Today Korea represents a nexus of the world's challenges and opportunities. Decades of phenomenal political, economic and social progress in the South have prepared it to assume a greater role in international affairs. At the same time, the legacy of unresolved issues on the Korean Peninsula threatens its remarkable achievements and casts a shadow over its future. Korea must at once preserve its hard-earned gains while overcoming a seemingly intractable nuclear dilemma that even the superpowers have been powerless to resolve.

History provides insights into an ultimate solution to the Korean problem. After asserting its freedom from Britain in 1776, it took America nearly a century to translate into practice the ideals enshrined in the Declaration of Independence. The American Civil War abolished slavery.

It also united a loose confederation of states into a strong federal system. In the decades following the end of that war, the energies of the American people were released as never before and the nation quickly rose from obscurity to become the leading economy in the world and a promised land for people of all nations aspiring for freedom and prosperity. The translation of idealistic democratic principles into practical realities was the lever for unleashing the prodigious energies and creativity of the American people for national development and eventual world leadership.

The unity America achieved through a bloody civil war; Germany accomplished more recently by peaceful means. Divided into East and West for nearly five decades, West Germany was sandwiched between two nuclear armed superpowers and helpless to act to restore its own unity. Rather than embracing aggressive hostility toward its brethren in the East, West Germany adopted two very significant strategies. Domestically, it sought to transform an authoritarian state into one of the most vibrant and inclusive democracies in the world, reconciling the tensions between capitalists and workers and fostering tolerance and cultural harmony among an increasingly heterogeneous population. At the same time, internationally, it became a leading proponent of European unification and subordinated nationalistic ambitions to foster unprecedented levels of cooperation and integration with its neighbors. West Germany began its gradual rise as an exemplary world citizen and leader.

These examples offer insights relevant to Korea today.

At the national level the gains of democratization achieved by the Candlelight Movement in South Korea should now be translated more broadly and deeply into greater individual freedom, equality of opportunity, transparency and public participation.

Q. In the context of the passage, the word "exemplary" is synonymous to

Solution: Option (a) is the correct answer. It means deserving to be admired and copied.
QUESTION: 4

There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander. Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.

But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what? It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.

Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi.

It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

Q. Why did John Edward Hollister Montagu need money?

Solution: Option (c) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 13 and 14.
QUESTION: 5

There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander. Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.

But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what? It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.

Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi.

It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

Q. Which of the following definitions best explains the word 'lineage', as used in the passage?

Solution: Option (a) is the right answer as lineage means pedigree.
QUESTION: 6

There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander. Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.

But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what? It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.

Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi.

It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

Q. What kind of people used to be given the title of earl, other than naval commanders?

Solution: Option (d) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 2
QUESTION: 7

There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander. Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.

But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what? It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.

Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi.

It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

Q. What can be said about the exact point of time 'meat and bread' came to be called a Sandwich?

Solution: Option d is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 10 and 11.
QUESTION: 8

There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander. Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.

But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what? It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.

Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi.

It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

Q. What is 'humankind's greatest lazy meal'?

Solution: Option (b) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 10.
QUESTION: 9

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. What does the word 'precipice' as used in the passage mean?

Solution: This question can be answered if you know the meaning of the word precipice - "a dangerous situation".

If you not aware of its meaning, you can infer the meaning from the context in which it is used in the passage. The passage says that the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice which should be even more alarming for policymakers. Since it should more alarming, it can be inferred that the situation is not very bright. The only answer choice that has that tone is (b).

Incorrect Answers

(a), (c) and (d) does not say the situation is negative.

In fact, each of these answer choices has a positive connotation which goes against the tone in which the sentence in the passage is framed.

QUESTION: 10

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. Which one of the following CANNOT be inferred from the information given in the fifth paragraph?

Solution: You are asked to identify the statement which cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage says that West Asia contributes to more than 50% of the total remittance to India. It is not necessary that more than 50% of Indians work in that region.

There is no data which can help us arrive at that claim.

[Consider this example: Say there are two countries A and B. Remittance from A is 100 and remittance from B is 50. If there are 20 people in A and 50 people in B (each person in A sends 5 and each person in B sends 1), it is possible that there can be less number of Indians working in A than in B even though the remittance from A is higher]

Since answer choice (d) cannot be inferred, it is the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - Refer to this sentence: "Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return.". "many more will return" suggests that there have been people who have returned in the past. Answer choice (a) can be inferred.

(b) - The author states that "A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to..." The author states that the places Indians return to will be under pressure if there is a sudden jolt. Answer choice (b) can be inferred.

(c) The author states that more than 50% of all remittances to India is from West Asia. So, all the other region put together would be less than 50% and therefore it would be less than the remittance from West Asia. Answer choice (c) can be inferred.

QUESTION: 11

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

Solution: In the passage the author raises the concern that the US-Iran conflict will have for India. In the passage the author discusses the impact it will have on Indians working in the region and the danger it poses to Indian economy. Answer choice (c) captures this idea completely and accurately.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - This answer choice only considers the impact on Indian worker and leaves out the impact on Indian economy.

(b) - The issue of remittance is a specific issue that the author discusses in the passage. It is a supporting detail of the argument put forth by the author.

(d) - This looks to be a good option; however, it is misleading. The problem is with the word 'unnecessary'. Whether or not the military intervention is unnecessary is something that the author does not discuss. The author talks about the impact of the conflict with regards to India.

Author does not make a judgement on whether the conflict was necessary or unnecessary. This makes answer choice (d) incorrect.

QUESTION: 12

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. Why does the author believe that the heightened tension (fourth paragraph) could jeopardise jobs of Indian working abroad?

Solution: This question asks you to identify the reason as to why the author believes that the Iran conflict could jeopardise jobs of Indians. This is mentioned in paragraph 4. Author justifies this claim by alluding to the events in the past - "inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.". The author apparently believes that since certain events in the region had hurt Indian jobs in the past, the current conflict is also likely to hurt the Indian jobs. This makes answer choice (c) the correct answer.

Incorrect Answer

(a) - The problem with this answer choice is the mention of "outright war". A possibility of outright war is mentioned by the author (paragraph 3).

However, this question specifically asks about the impact of "heightened tension" (paragraph 4). Since this answer choice does not address the question at hand, it is an incorrect answer choice.

(b) - This answer choice has the same problem as answer choice (a). The impact of oil prices is discussed much later.

(d) - Whether or not India can handle the tension is irrelevant to the discussion at hand. The question specifically asks to identify the reason for an author's claim. Author DOES NOT say that India's inability to handle the tension is the reason for the impact on jobs.

QUESTION: 13

India really cannot handle tension in West Asia right now.

That may seem obvious: after all, any escalation in hostilities between Iran and the United States, after the latter killed top Iranian military commander Qassem Soleimani, will have a huge impact across the region and beyond. It's not for nothing that "World War 3" trended on Twitter on Friday.

There are two primary dangers for India, other than the extremely destabilising effects of any outright war in the region.

One, there are 8 million Indians living and working in West Asia, the vast majority of whom live in the Arabian Gulf. Conflict would put them all in danger, as it did at the start of the 1990s, when the US went to war with Iraq and New Delhi had to arrange an airlift of more than 110,000 Indian citizens.

But even if there isn't all-out conflict, heightened tensions could hurt the economies of the region, and endanger the jobs of many Indians. Already the events of the last few years, including inter-regional conflict between Saudi Arabia and Qatar, employment nationalisation drives in a number of countries and Dubai's struggles to recover from economic crisis, have hurt the diaspora.

Kerala has already begun coming to terms with the idea that many more will return. A sudden jolt would put pressure on the places Indians return to, and also endanger the $40 billion in remittances India receives from West Asia - more than 50% of all remittances to the country, a key source of foreign exchange.

Then there is the question of oil prices. Though international prices have gone up by 4% since the strike on Soleimani, analysts do not currently expect them to get much higher - presuming it is in no one's interests for that to happen and that both the US and Iran will back down from outright conflict.

Yet if that presumption is wrong, India will face some difficult times. Although India does not now import much oil from Iran, it is still heavily reliant on the Strait of Hormuz - the tiny span of water through which a quarter of the world's oil and a third of its natural gas travels. Higher oil prices would automatically mean inflation in India, where analysts are already worried about rising food prices.

Even if India's economy were on a more stable footing, conflict in the region would be dangerous. But the current tensions, coming as they do when the Indian economy seems poised on a precipice, should be even more alarming for policymakers.

Q. Why do the analysts expect that the international price of oil will not increase substantially?

Solution: Paragraph 6 discusses oil price. The author states that the analysts do not expect the oil price to get much further based on the assumption that it not in the interest of both US and Iran. This is captured in answer choice (a).

Incorrect Answers

(b) - The stability of the price before the war is not discussed in the passage.

(c) - The author does not specifically mention World War 3 in paragraph 6. What is mentioned is that the countries want to avoid an outright conflict. This outright conflict does not refer to World War 3.

Hence answer choice (c)is incorrect.

(d) - While it is true that an outright war would cause destabilising effect in the region, the question is specifically asking the reason why analysts believe that the price would not get much higher. Not just the destabilising effect in the region - the analyst presume that it will impact US as well. This answer does not capture the specific reason stated by the author. Hence answer choice (d) is incorrect.

QUESTION: 14

The hardest substance in the human body is the white enamel of the teeth. With age, it wears away nonetheless, allowing the softer, darker layers underneath to show through. Meanwhile, the blood supply to the pulp and the roots of the teeth atrophies, and the flow of saliva diminishes; the gums tend to become inflamed and pull away from the teeth, exposing the base, making them unstable and elongating their appearance, especially the lower ones. Experts say they can gauge a person's age to within five years from the examination of a single tooth if the person has any teeth left to examine.

Scrupulous dental care can help avert tooth loss, but growing old gets in the way. Arthritis, tremors, and small strokes, for example, make it difficult to brush and floss, and, because nerves become less sensitive with age, people may not realize that they have cavity and gum problems until it's too late. In the course of a normal lifetime, the muscles of the jaw lose about forty per cent of their mass and the bones of the mandible lose about twenty per cent, becoming porous and weak. The ability to chew declines, and people shift to softer foods, which are generally higher in fermentable carbohydrates and more likely to cause cavities. By the age of sixty, Americans have lost, on average, a third of their teeth.

After eighty-five, almost forty per cent have no teeth at all.

Even as our bones and teeth soften, the rest of our body hardens. Blood vessels, joints, the muscle and valves of the heart, and even the lungs pick up substantial deposits of calcium and turn stiff. Under a microscope, the vessels and soft tissues display the same form of calcium that you find in bone. When you reach inside an elderly patient during surgery, the aorta and other major vessels often feel crunchy under your fingers. A recent study has found that loss of bone density may be an even better predictor of death from atherosclerotic disease than cholesterol levels. As we age, it's as if the calcium flows out of our skeletons and into our tissues.

To maintain the same volume of blood flow through narrowed and stiffened blood vessels, the heart has to generate increased pressure. As a result, more than half of us develop hypertension by the age of sixty-five. The heart becomes thicker-walled from having to pump against the pressure, and less able to respond to the demands of exertion. The peak output of the heart decreases steadily from the age of thirty. People become gradually less able to run as far or as fast as they used to, or to climb a flight of stairs without becoming short of breath.

Q. The passage is most likely an extract from:

Solution: The medical information seems to be coming from an expert but the lack of technical jargons makes research paper an unlikely source. Options (c) and (d) can be ignored straightaway.
QUESTION: 15

The hardest substance in the human body is the white enamel of the teeth. With age, it wears away nonetheless, allowing the softer, darker layers underneath to show through. Meanwhile, the blood supply to the pulp and the roots of the teeth atrophies, and the flow of saliva diminishes; the gums tend to become inflamed and pull away from the teeth, exposing the base, making them unstable and elongating their appearance, especially the lower ones. Experts say they can gauge a person's age to within five years from the examination of a single tooth if the person has any teeth left to examine.

Scrupulous dental care can help avert tooth loss, but growing old gets in the way. Arthritis, tremors, and small strokes, for example, make it difficult to brush and floss, and, because nerves become less sensitive with age, people may not realize that they have cavity and gum problems until it's too late. In the course of a normal lifetime, the muscles of the jaw lose about forty per cent of their mass and the bones of the mandible lose about twenty per cent, becoming porous and weak. The ability to chew declines, and people shift to softer foods, which are generally higher in fermentable carbohydrates and more likely to cause cavities. By the age of sixty, Americans have lost, on average, a third of their teeth.

After eighty-five, almost forty per cent have no teeth at all.

Even as our bones and teeth soften, the rest of our body hardens. Blood vessels, joints, the muscle and valves of the heart, and even the lungs pick up substantial deposits of calcium and turn stiff. Under a microscope, the vessels and soft tissues display the same form of calcium that you find in bone. When you reach inside an elderly patient during surgery, the aorta and other major vessels often feel crunchy under your fingers. A recent study has found that loss of bone density may be an even better predictor of death from atherosclerotic disease than cholesterol levels. As we age, it's as if the calcium flows out of our skeletons and into our tissues.

To maintain the same volume of blood flow through narrowed and stiffened blood vessels, the heart has to generate increased pressure. As a result, more than half of us develop hypertension by the age of sixty-five. The heart becomes thicker-walled from having to pump against the pressure, and less able to respond to the demands of exertion. The peak output of the heart decreases steadily from the age of thirty. People become gradually less able to run as far or as fast as they used to, or to climb a flight of stairs without becoming short of breath.

Q. Which of the following example will find resonance in what the author says?

Solution: Option (a): The author mentions teeth as the strongest indicator or person's age.

Option (b): The author mentions teeth elongates not dugs in

Option (c): The author mentions the reverse

Option (d): The author mentions that dental care is affected by other age related ailments than natural decay.

QUESTION: 16

The hardest substance in the human body is the white enamel of the teeth. With age, it wears away nonetheless, allowing the softer, darker layers underneath to show through. Meanwhile, the blood supply to the pulp and the roots of the teeth atrophies, and the flow of saliva diminishes; the gums tend to become inflamed and pull away from the teeth, exposing the base, making them unstable and elongating their appearance, especially the lower ones. Experts say they can gauge a person's age to within five years from the examination of a single tooth if the person has any teeth left to examine.

Scrupulous dental care can help avert tooth loss, but growing old gets in the way. Arthritis, tremors, and small strokes, for example, make it difficult to brush and floss, and, because nerves become less sensitive with age, people may not realize that they have cavity and gum problems until it's too late. In the course of a normal lifetime, the muscles of the jaw lose about forty per cent of their mass and the bones of the mandible lose about twenty per cent, becoming porous and weak. The ability to chew declines, and people shift to softer foods, which are generally higher in fermentable carbohydrates and more likely to cause cavities. By the age of sixty, Americans have lost, on average, a third of their teeth.

After eighty-five, almost forty per cent have no teeth at all.

Even as our bones and teeth soften, the rest of our body hardens. Blood vessels, joints, the muscle and valves of the heart, and even the lungs pick up substantial deposits of calcium and turn stiff. Under a microscope, the vessels and soft tissues display the same form of calcium that you find in bone. When you reach inside an elderly patient during surgery, the aorta and other major vessels often feel crunchy under your fingers. A recent study has found that loss of bone density may be an even better predictor of death from atherosclerotic disease than cholesterol levels. As we age, it's as if the calcium flows out of our skeletons and into our tissues.

To maintain the same volume of blood flow through narrowed and stiffened blood vessels, the heart has to generate increased pressure. As a result, more than half of us develop hypertension by the age of sixty-five. The heart becomes thicker-walled from having to pump against the pressure, and less able to respond to the demands of exertion. The peak output of the heart decreases steadily from the age of thirty. People become gradually less able to run as far or as fast as they used to, or to climb a flight of stairs without becoming short of breath.

Q. Which of the following statement is definitely false?

Solution: As given in the first paragraph.
QUESTION: 17

The hardest substance in the human body is the white enamel of the teeth. With age, it wears away nonetheless, allowing the softer, darker layers underneath to show through. Meanwhile, the blood supply to the pulp and the roots of the teeth atrophies, and the flow of saliva diminishes; the gums tend to become inflamed and pull away from the teeth, exposing the base, making them unstable and elongating their appearance, especially the lower ones. Experts say they can gauge a person's age to within five years from the examination of a single tooth if the person has any teeth left to examine.

Scrupulous dental care can help avert tooth loss, but growing old gets in the way. Arthritis, tremors, and small strokes, for example, make it difficult to brush and floss, and, because nerves become less sensitive with age, people may not realize that they have cavity and gum problems until it's too late. In the course of a normal lifetime, the muscles of the jaw lose about forty per cent of their mass and the bones of the mandible lose about twenty per cent, becoming porous and weak. The ability to chew declines, and people shift to softer foods, which are generally higher in fermentable carbohydrates and more likely to cause cavities. By the age of sixty, Americans have lost, on average, a third of their teeth.

After eighty-five, almost forty per cent have no teeth at all.

Even as our bones and teeth soften, the rest of our body hardens. Blood vessels, joints, the muscle and valves of the heart, and even the lungs pick up substantial deposits of calcium and turn stiff. Under a microscope, the vessels and soft tissues display the same form of calcium that you find in bone. When you reach inside an elderly patient during surgery, the aorta and other major vessels often feel crunchy under your fingers. A recent study has found that loss of bone density may be an even better predictor of death from atherosclerotic disease than cholesterol levels. As we age, it's as if the calcium flows out of our skeletons and into our tissues.

To maintain the same volume of blood flow through narrowed and stiffened blood vessels, the heart has to generate increased pressure. As a result, more than half of us develop hypertension by the age of sixty-five. The heart becomes thicker-walled from having to pump against the pressure, and less able to respond to the demands of exertion. The peak output of the heart decreases steadily from the age of thirty. People become gradually less able to run as far or as fast as they used to, or to climb a flight of stairs without becoming short of breath.

Q. Which of the following has not been mentioned as an effect of ageing?

Solution: Options (a), (b) and (c) have been clearly mentioned in the passage. Option d has actually been refuted; author says calcium in a way moves from skeleton to tissues and muscles.
QUESTION: 18

The hardest substance in the human body is the white enamel of the teeth. With age, it wears away nonetheless, allowing the softer, darker layers underneath to show through. Meanwhile, the blood supply to the pulp and the roots of the teeth atrophies, and the flow of saliva diminishes; the gums tend to become inflamed and pull away from the teeth, exposing the base, making them unstable and elongating their appearance, especially the lower ones. Experts say they can gauge a person's age to within five years from the examination of a single tooth if the person has any teeth left to examine.

Scrupulous dental care can help avert tooth loss, but growing old gets in the way. Arthritis, tremors, and small strokes, for example, make it difficult to brush and floss, and, because nerves become less sensitive with age, people may not realize that they have cavity and gum problems until it's too late. In the course of a normal lifetime, the muscles of the jaw lose about forty per cent of their mass and the bones of the mandible lose about twenty per cent, becoming porous and weak. The ability to chew declines, and people shift to softer foods, which are generally higher in fermentable carbohydrates and more likely to cause cavities. By the age of sixty, Americans have lost, on average, a third of their teeth.

After eighty-five, almost forty per cent have no teeth at all.

Even as our bones and teeth soften, the rest of our body hardens. Blood vessels, joints, the muscle and valves of the heart, and even the lungs pick up substantial deposits of calcium and turn stiff. Under a microscope, the vessels and soft tissues display the same form of calcium that you find in bone. When you reach inside an elderly patient during surgery, the aorta and other major vessels often feel crunchy under your fingers. A recent study has found that loss of bone density may be an even better predictor of death from atherosclerotic disease than cholesterol levels. As we age, it's as if the calcium flows out of our skeletons and into our tissues.

To maintain the same volume of blood flow through narrowed and stiffened blood vessels, the heart has to generate increased pressure. As a result, more than half of us develop hypertension by the age of sixty-five. The heart becomes thicker-walled from having to pump against the pressure, and less able to respond to the demands of exertion. The peak output of the heart decreases steadily from the age of thirty. People become gradually less able to run as far or as fast as they used to, or to climb a flight of stairs without becoming short of breath.

Q. What could be the purpose of writing the above passage?

Solution: Options(a) and (b) are conjectures with nothing to support the. Option (c) is irrelevant.
QUESTION: 19

India and the EU need to sort out complex issues such as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability as part of the bilateral free trade talks that have been stuck for more than half a decade, Ambassador of the European Union to India, Ugo Astuto, has said. "We need to discuss issues such as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability. These are part and parcel of all our Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). These are complex matters. So, the discussions on technical issues continue," Astuto said during an interaction with mediapersons on Tuesday. The EU Ambassador was answering queries on whether there were particular issues on which negotiations for the bilateral FTA, officially known as the Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA), were stuck. Soon after walking out of the ASEAN-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) pact last month, Commerce & Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, had said India was interested in pushing ahead with the FTA talks, with the EU. "We are working on the technical issues together. Hopefully, we will achieve results," Astuto added.

On the draft personal data protection Bill 2018, that got the Cabinet nod recently, the Ambassador said the process was still ongoing and the EU was watching it.

Q. The above given paragraph shows that the cabinet passed the Data Protection Bill 2018. Which of the following statements shall be true in this regard?

Solution: The paragraph clearly talks about the v isit and comments of EU's Ambassador to India with regards to the FTA. The data protection bill shall help in resolving the technical issues in EU-India FTA negotiations as mentioned here. It is also stated that the EU was observing the bill. Thus, statement (a) is false as it is talking about foreign hackers and the correct option shall be statement (b).

Statement (c) is false because India walked out of the ASEAN-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) pact last month, so this cannot possibly be true.

QUESTION: 20

India and the EU need to sort out complex issues such as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability as part of the bilateral free trade talks that have been stuck for more than half a decade, Ambassador of the European Union to India, Ugo Astuto, has said. "We need to discuss issues such as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability. These are part and parcel of all our Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). These are complex matters. So, the discussions on technical issues continue," Astuto said during an interaction with mediapersons on Tuesday. The EU Ambassador was answering queries on whether there were particular issues on which negotiations for the bilateral FTA, officially known as the Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA), were stuck. Soon after walking out of the ASEAN-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) pact last month, Commerce & Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, had said India was interested in pushing ahead with the FTA talks, with the EU. "We are working on the technical issues together. Hopefully, we will achieve results," Astuto added.

On the draft personal data protection Bill 2018, that got the Cabinet nod recently, the Ambassador said the process was still ongoing and the EU was watching it.

Q. What is the best inference which can be derived from the statement made by the Indian commerce & industry minister Piyush Goyal?

Solution: Statement (a) is true and agrees with the fact that technical issues, when dispensed with shall be a step ahead in signing India-EU FTA. Statement (b) is false as India-EU bilateral trade may or may not increase manifold after signing the FTA. Statement (c) is false as data protection bill is different, even though it is a vital part of FTA deliberations.

Statement (d) is false as these are the prerequisites and not the outcomes of the agreement.

QUESTION: 21

India and the EU need to sort out complex issues such as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability as part of the bilateral free trade talks that have been stuck for more than half a decade, Ambassador of the European Union to India, Ugo Astuto, has said. "We need to discuss issues such as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability. These are part and parcel of all our Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). These are complex matters. So, the discussions on technical issues continue," Astuto said during an interaction with mediapersons on Tuesday. The EU Ambassador was answering queries on whether there were particular issues on which negotiations for the bilateral FTA, officially known as the Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA), were stuck. Soon after walking out of the ASEAN-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) pact last month, Commerce & Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, had said India was interested in pushing ahead with the FTA talks, with the EU. "We are working on the technical issues together. Hopefully, we will achieve results," Astuto added.

On the draft personal data protection Bill 2018, that got the Cabinet nod recently, the Ambassador said the process was still ongoing and the EU was watching it.

Q. With respect to the paragraph which of the statement shall be true?

Solution: Statement (a) is false as bilateral trade deliberations between India and the EU have been going on for the past half a decade (5 years). Statement (b) is false as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability as issues should be discussed and needed to be resolved to get the FTA signed between India and the EU. Statement (c) is true as India walked out of the ASEAN-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) pact last month.
QUESTION: 22

India and the EU need to sort out complex issues such as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability as part of the bilateral free trade talks that have been stuck for more than half a decade, Ambassador of the European Union to India, Ugo Astuto, has said. "We need to discuss issues such as government procurement, labour standards and sustainability. These are part and parcel of all our Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). These are complex matters. So, the discussions on technical issues continue," Astuto said during an interaction with mediapersons on Tuesday. The EU Ambassador was answering queries on whether there were particular issues on which negotiations for the bilateral FTA, officially known as the Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA), were stuck. Soon after walking out of the ASEAN-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) pact last month, Commerce & Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, had said India was interested in pushing ahead with the FTA talks, with the EU. "We are working on the technical issues together. Hopefully, we will achieve results," Astuto added.

On the draft personal data protection Bill 2018, that got the Cabinet nod recently, the Ambassador said the process was still ongoing and the EU was watching it.

Q. Which of the following, based on the paragraph can be considered as the best approach for the governments to improve trade relations?

Solution: Statements (a) and (b) cannot be inferred to be the best approach as per the paragraph. Statement (c) is true as issues like government procurement, labour standards and sustainability are part and parcel of all the Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) which are signed by the EU.
QUESTION: 23

One of the most critical yet troublesome social policy questions is how many actually suffer because of labor market problems. Our social statistics, in many ways, exaggerate the degree of difficulty. Today unemployment does not have similar effects as compared to it in the 1930's. Then, most of the unemployed were primary earning member of their respective families, when income was usually at the level of subsistence, and when there were no social programs for those not succeeding in the labor market. Increasing affluence, arising out of increase in the families with more than single wage earner, the rising predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed, and new social welfare protection schemes have no doubt mitigated the effect of being without a job.

Earnings and income data also exaggerate the extent of suffering. Among many with hourly wage at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority is from relatively well to do families having multiple-earners. Most of those taken into account by the poverty statistics either have family responsibilities or are elderly or handicapped which keep them out of the labor force, so the poverty statistics are by no means correct indicators of labor market indices.

Yet, our social statistics underrate the degree of hardships in the labor-market in many ways. The unemployment counts do not include the millions of fulltime employed workers with wages so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and frequent or long time unemployment often cause lack of ability to support oneself. Because the number of people facing unemployment at some time during the year is many times the number unemployed across the year, those who bear the brunt of forced joblessness can equal or surpass average annual unemployment, even though only a small number of the unemployed in any month actually suffer. For every person included in the monthly data, there is one working part-time because of his incapability to find full-time work, or else outside the labor force but looking for an employment. Finally, social welfare schemes in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, so that the unusual expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those not succeeding are effectively protected.

As a result of such contradicting evidence, number of those suffering seriously as a result of labor market problems is uncertain, and, hence, it is debatable if high levels of unemployment can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one unanimous agreement in this deliberation that the extant poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are not adequate for measuring the consequences of labor market problems, their primary applications.

Q. The author mentions "labor market problems" to mean:

Solution: Option (a) is incorrect as the passage primarily talks about the effects of unemployment rather than its causes. Options (b) and (c) are also wrong because training and labor unions are not discussed in the passage and are hence out of scope. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 24

One of the most critical yet troublesome social policy questions is how many actually suffer because of labor market problems. Our social statistics, in many ways, exaggerate the degree of difficulty. Today unemployment does not have similar effects as compared to it in the 1930's. Then, most of the unemployed were primary earning member of their respective families, when income was usually at the level of subsistence, and when there were no social programs for those not succeeding in the labor market. Increasing affluence, arising out of increase in the families with more than single wage earner, the rising predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed, and new social welfare protection schemes have no doubt mitigated the effect of being without a job.

Earnings and income data also exaggerate the extent of suffering. Among many with hourly wage at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority is from relatively well to do families having multiple-earners. Most of those taken into account by the poverty statistics either have family responsibilities or are elderly or handicapped which keep them out of the labor force, so the poverty statistics are by no means correct indicators of labor market indices.

Yet, our social statistics underrate the degree of hardships in the labor-market in many ways. The unemployment counts do not include the millions of fulltime employed workers with wages so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and frequent or long time unemployment often cause lack of ability to support oneself. Because the number of people facing unemployment at some time during the year is many times the number unemployed across the year, those who bear the brunt of forced joblessness can equal or surpass average annual unemployment, even though only a small number of the unemployed in any month actually suffer. For every person included in the monthly data, there is one working part-time because of his incapability to find full-time work, or else outside the labor force but looking for an employment. Finally, social welfare schemes in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, so that the unusual expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those not succeeding are effectively protected.

As a result of such contradicting evidence, number of those suffering seriously as a result of labor market problems is uncertain, and, hence, it is debatable if high levels of unemployment can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one unanimous agreement in this deliberation that the extant poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are not adequate for measuring the consequences of labor market problems, their primary applications.

Q. The word 'extant', as used in the passage, means:

Solution: Extant means still in existence or current. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 25

One of the most critical yet troublesome social policy questions is how many actually suffer because of labor market problems. Our social statistics, in many ways, exaggerate the degree of difficulty. Today unemployment does not have similar effects as compared to it in the 1930's. Then, most of the unemployed were primary earning member of their respective families, when income was usually at the level of subsistence, and when there were no social programs for those not succeeding in the labor market. Increasing affluence, arising out of increase in the families with more than single wage earner, the rising predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed, and new social welfare protection schemes have no doubt mitigated the effect of being without a job.

Earnings and income data also exaggerate the extent of suffering. Among many with hourly wage at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority is from relatively well to do families having multiple-earners. Most of those taken into account by the poverty statistics either have family responsibilities or are elderly or handicapped which keep them out of the labor force, so the poverty statistics are by no means correct indicators of labor market indices.

Yet, our social statistics underrate the degree of hardships in the labor-market in many ways. The unemployment counts do not include the millions of fulltime employed workers with wages so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and frequent or long time unemployment often cause lack of ability to support oneself. Because the number of people facing unemployment at some time during the year is many times the number unemployed across the year, those who bear the brunt of forced joblessness can equal or surpass average annual unemployment, even though only a small number of the unemployed in any month actually suffer. For every person included in the monthly data, there is one working part-time because of his incapability to find full-time work, or else outside the labor force but looking for an employment. Finally, social welfare schemes in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, so that the unusual expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those not succeeding are effectively protected.

As a result of such contradicting evidence, number of those suffering seriously as a result of labor market problems is uncertain, and, hence, it is debatable if high levels of unemployment can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one unanimous agreement in this deliberation that the extant poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are not adequate for measuring the consequences of labor market problems, their primary applications.

Q. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the issue raised by the author in the passage?

Solution: The author's main concern is that social statistics do not take care of 'employed yet poor' people. As a result they do not reflect a true picture of poverty or hardship due to labor market problems. Therefore, the author is most likely to agree to developing new statistical indices that would offer a more accurate picture of the real situation. The other options do not tackle the issue at hand. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 26

One of the most critical yet troublesome social policy questions is how many actually suffer because of labor market problems. Our social statistics, in many ways, exaggerate the degree of difficulty. Today unemployment does not have similar effects as compared to it in the 1930's. Then, most of the unemployed were primary earning member of their respective families, when income was usually at the level of subsistence, and when there were no social programs for those not succeeding in the labor market. Increasing affluence, arising out of increase in the families with more than single wage earner, the rising predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed, and new social welfare protection schemes have no doubt mitigated the effect of being without a job.

Earnings and income data also exaggerate the extent of suffering. Among many with hourly wage at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority is from relatively well to do families having multiple-earners. Most of those taken into account by the poverty statistics either have family responsibilities or are elderly or handicapped which keep them out of the labor force, so the poverty statistics are by no means correct indicators of labor market indices.

Yet, our social statistics underrate the degree of hardships in the labor-market in many ways. The unemployment counts do not include the millions of fulltime employed workers with wages so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and frequent or long time unemployment often cause lack of ability to support oneself. Because the number of people facing unemployment at some time during the year is many times the number unemployed across the year, those who bear the brunt of forced joblessness can equal or surpass average annual unemployment, even though only a small number of the unemployed in any month actually suffer. For every person included in the monthly data, there is one working part-time because of his incapability to find full-time work, or else outside the labor force but looking for an employment. Finally, social welfare schemes in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, so that the unusual expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those not succeeding are effectively protected.

As a result of such contradicting evidence, number of those suffering seriously as a result of labor market problems is uncertain, and, hence, it is debatable if high levels of unemployment can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one unanimous agreement in this deliberation that the extant poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are not adequate for measuring the consequences of labor market problems, their primary applications.

Q. Which of the following reflects the main idea of the passage?

Solution: Options (a), (b) and (c) are all discussed in the passage but none are complete so as to be called the central theme of the passage. Option (d) is the correct choice; the passage talks about how social statistics are not adequate for measuring the consequences of labor market problems. The same has been elaborated by the author in the passage.

Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 27

One of the most critical yet troublesome social policy questions is how many actually suffer because of labor market problems. Our social statistics, in many ways, exaggerate the degree of difficulty. Today unemployment does not have similar effects as compared to it in the 1930's. Then, most of the unemployed were primary earning member of their respective families, when income was usually at the level of subsistence, and when there were no social programs for those not succeeding in the labor market. Increasing affluence, arising out of increase in the families with more than single wage earner, the rising predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed, and new social welfare protection schemes have no doubt mitigated the effect of being without a job.

Earnings and income data also exaggerate the extent of suffering. Among many with hourly wage at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority is from relatively well to do families having multiple-earners. Most of those taken into account by the poverty statistics either have family responsibilities or are elderly or handicapped which keep them out of the labor force, so the poverty statistics are by no means correct indicators of labor market indices.

Yet, our social statistics underrate the degree of hardships in the labor-market in many ways. The unemployment counts do not include the millions of fulltime employed workers with wages so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and frequent or long time unemployment often cause lack of ability to support oneself. Because the number of people facing unemployment at some time during the year is many times the number unemployed across the year, those who bear the brunt of forced joblessness can equal or surpass average annual unemployment, even though only a small number of the unemployed in any month actually suffer. For every person included in the monthly data, there is one working part-time because of his incapability to find full-time work, or else outside the labor force but looking for an employment. Finally, social welfare schemes in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, so that the unusual expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those not succeeding are effectively protected.

As a result of such contradicting evidence, number of those suffering seriously as a result of labor market problems is uncertain, and, hence, it is debatable if high levels of unemployment can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one unanimous agreement in this deliberation that the extant poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are not adequate for measuring the consequences of labor market problems, their primary applications.

Q. According to the passage, the effect of social welfare schemes for the low-income people is not often felt by:

Solution: The passage clearly states that social welfare schemes in our country have always focused on "the elderly, disabled, and dependent". Also, it is mentioned that "the unemployment counts do not include the millions of full-time employed workers with wages so low that their families remain in poverty". Thus, it is the employed poor who end up being outside the purview of social welfare schemes.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 28

The NITI Aayog's Sustainable Development Goals Index for 2019, released on Monday, does not reveal any surprising information. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Karnataka are joined by Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa as the best performers while the northern/north-central and northeastern States have been sluggish in achieving the U.N.-mandated goals by 2030. Poor performers such as Uttar Pradesh have shown discernible advances in the indices measured between 2018-19 - especially in adopting cleaner energy and improving sanitation. But the regional divide is stark in basic livelihood goals such as "eradication of poverty", and "good health and well-being" or even in measures such as "industry, innovation and infrastructure".

This points to variances in both State governance and in administrative structures and implementation of welfare policies. The South, led by Kerala and Tamil Nadu, has done much more in orienting administrative institutions to deliver on basic welfare, leading to actions on health care, education, poverty eradication and hunger, with a governance structure tuned to competitively monitoring actions on these fronts. The converse is true of northern states Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, where outcomes have remained relatively poor despite there not being much of a difference in the governance structure. The obvious answer to the puzzle could be the presence of historical socio-political movements that have resulted in greater circulation of elites in power and which have addressed issues related to welfare more thoroughly in the South -Kerala and T.N in particular. Yet even these States need to go further in reaching the UN's SDGs and achieving the living standards of both the first world and other developing nations.

The western States, especially Gujarat and Maharashtra, are also better off in economic growth and industry, indicating a diversified economy, higher employment ratios, skilled labour and better entrepreneurial culture.

A major fault-line in India is in achieving gender equality, where barring middling performers such as Himachal Pradesh, Kerala and Jammu & Kashmir, the rest of the country falls short. Low sex ratio (896 females per 1,000 males), poor labour force participation and presence in managerial positions (only 17.5% and 30%, according to the report), high level of informality of labour, a major gender pay gap (females earn 78% of wages earned by males in regular salaried employment), lack of adequate representation in governance (14.4% in Parliament, but 44.4% in local government) besides high crime rates against women and girls are among the major national level indicators that have contributed to this. States need to climb a mountain to achieve gender equality, but immediate steps such as enhancing women's participation in governance through parliamentary reservations would go a long way in addressing several of the issues faced by them.

Q. Which of the following choices best captures the essence of the passage?

Solution: Option (c) is correct as the passage mentions details that point to the regional disparity in the achievements across various states.

Option (a) in incorrect as it omits the key detail about the issue of gender equality discussed in the passage. Option (b) is incorrect as the governance model between the states is quite similar if not same, as stated in the passage. Option (d) is incorrect as it mentions the detail of living standards, which is not central to the idea of the passage.

QUESTION: 29

The NITI Aayog's Sustainable Development Goals Index for 2019, released on Monday, does not reveal any surprising information. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Karnataka are joined by Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa as the best performers while the northern/north-central and northeastern States have been sluggish in achieving the U.N.-mandated goals by 2030. Poor performers such as Uttar Pradesh have shown discernible advances in the indices measured between 2018-19 - especially in adopting cleaner energy and improving sanitation. But the regional divide is stark in basic livelihood goals such as "eradication of poverty", and "good health and well-being" or even in measures such as "industry, innovation and infrastructure".

This points to variances in both State governance and in administrative structures and implementation of welfare policies. The South, led by Kerala and Tamil Nadu, has done much more in orienting administrative institutions to deliver on basic welfare, leading to actions on health care, education, poverty eradication and hunger, with a governance structure tuned to competitively monitoring actions on these fronts. The converse is true of northern states Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, where outcomes have remained relatively poor despite there not being much of a difference in the governance structure. The obvious answer to the puzzle could be the presence of historical socio-political movements that have resulted in greater circulation of elites in power and which have addressed issues related to welfare more thoroughly in the South -Kerala and T.N in particular. Yet even these States need to go further in reaching the UN's SDGs and achieving the living standards of both the first world and other developing nations.

The western States, especially Gujarat and Maharashtra, are also better off in economic growth and industry, indicating a diversified economy, higher employment ratios, skilled labour and better entrepreneurial culture.

A major fault-line in India is in achieving gender equality, where barring middling performers such as Himachal Pradesh, Kerala and Jammu & Kashmir, the rest of the country falls short. Low sex ratio (896 females per 1,000 males), poor labour force participation and presence in managerial positions (only 17.5% and 30%, according to the report), high level of informality of labour, a major gender pay gap (females earn 78% of wages earned by males in regular salaried employment), lack of adequate representation in governance (14.4% in Parliament, but 44.4% in local government) besides high crime rates against women and girls are among the major national level indicators that have contributed to this. States need to climb a mountain to achieve gender equality, but immediate steps such as enhancing women's participation in governance through parliamentary reservations would go a long way in addressing several of the issues faced by them.

Q. Which of the following reason have been cited in the passage for the better performance of the Southern States?

Solution: Option (b) is correct as the passage specifically mentions that the point of difference between these states and others is that the social movements in these states promoted wide-spread welfare.

Option (a) is incorrect because it has not been mentioned in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect as the passage mentions no unique point in the governance of these states. Refer to the second paragraph of the passage, option (d) misinterprets the role of the elites. Thus, it is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 30

The NITI Aayog's Sustainable Development Goals Index for 2019, released on Monday, does not reveal any surprising information. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Karnataka are joined by Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa as the best performers while the northern/north-central and northeastern States have been sluggish in achieving the U.N.-mandated goals by 2030. Poor performers such as Uttar Pradesh have shown discernible advances in the indices measured between 2018-19 - especially in adopting cleaner energy and improving sanitation. But the regional divide is stark in basic livelihood goals such as "eradication of poverty", and "good health and well-being" or even in measures such as "industry, innovation and infrastructure".

This points to variances in both State governance and in administrative structures and implementation of welfare policies. The South, led by Kerala and Tamil Nadu, has done much more in orienting administrative institutions to deliver on basic welfare, leading to actions on health care, education, poverty eradication and hunger, with a governance structure tuned to competitively monitoring actions on these fronts. The converse is true of northern states Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, where outcomes have remained relatively poor despite there not being much of a difference in the governance structure. The obvious answer to the puzzle could be the presence of historical socio-political movements that have resulted in greater circulation of elites in power and which have addressed issues related to welfare more thoroughly in the South -Kerala and T.N in particular. Yet even these States need to go further in reaching the UN's SDGs and achieving the living standards of both the first world and other developing nations.

The western States, especially Gujarat and Maharashtra, are also better off in economic growth and industry, indicating a diversified economy, higher employment ratios, skilled labour and better entrepreneurial culture.

A major fault-line in India is in achieving gender equality, where barring middling performers such as Himachal Pradesh, Kerala and Jammu & Kashmir, the rest of the country falls short. Low sex ratio (896 females per 1,000 males), poor labour force participation and presence in managerial positions (only 17.5% and 30%, according to the report), high level of informality of labour, a major gender pay gap (females earn 78% of wages earned by males in regular salaried employment), lack of adequate representation in governance (14.4% in Parliament, but 44.4% in local government) besides high crime rates against women and girls are among the major national level indicators that have contributed to this. States need to climb a mountain to achieve gender equality, but immediate steps such as enhancing women's participation in governance through parliamentary reservations would go a long way in addressing several of the issues faced by them.

Q. As used in the passage, the word "sluggish" most nearly means

Solution: Option (b) is correct as the passage is conveying that some states have been slow in achieving the UN 2030 goals. The word "sluggish" has been used in this context only.
QUESTION: 31

The NITI Aayog's Sustainable Development Goals Index for 2019, released on Monday, does not reveal any surprising information. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Karnataka are joined by Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa as the best performers while the northern/north-central and northeastern States have been sluggish in achieving the U.N.-mandated goals by 2030. Poor performers such as Uttar Pradesh have shown discernible advances in the indices measured between 2018-19 - especially in adopting cleaner energy and improving sanitation. But the regional divide is stark in basic livelihood goals such as "eradication of poverty", and "good health and well-being" or even in measures such as "industry, innovation and infrastructure".

This points to variances in both State governance and in administrative structures and implementation of welfare policies. The South, led by Kerala and Tamil Nadu, has done much more in orienting administrative institutions to deliver on basic welfare, leading to actions on health care, education, poverty eradication and hunger, with a governance structure tuned to competitively monitoring actions on these fronts. The converse is true of northern states Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, where outcomes have remained relatively poor despite there not being much of a difference in the governance structure. The obvious answer to the puzzle could be the presence of historical socio-political movements that have resulted in greater circulation of elites in power and which have addressed issues related to welfare more thoroughly in the South -Kerala and T.N in particular. Yet even these States need to go further in reaching the UN's SDGs and achieving the living standards of both the first world and other developing nations.

The western States, especially Gujarat and Maharashtra, are also better off in economic growth and industry, indicating a diversified economy, higher employment ratios, skilled labour and better entrepreneurial culture.

A major fault-line in India is in achieving gender equality, where barring middling performers such as Himachal Pradesh, Kerala and Jammu & Kashmir, the rest of the country falls short. Low sex ratio (896 females per 1,000 males), poor labour force participation and presence in managerial positions (only 17.5% and 30%, according to the report), high level of informality of labour, a major gender pay gap (females earn 78% of wages earned by males in regular salaried employment), lack of adequate representation in governance (14.4% in Parliament, but 44.4% in local government) besides high crime rates against women and girls are among the major national level indicators that have contributed to this. States need to climb a mountain to achieve gender equality, but immediate steps such as enhancing women's participation in governance through parliamentary reservations would go a long way in addressing several of the issues faced by them.

Q. The passage puts forth its points using which of the following?

Solution: Option (a) is the correct choice as the passage makes comparisons repeatedly in the form of factual statistical data.
QUESTION: 32

Rs.750 are divided among A, B and C in such a manner that A : B is 5 : 2 and B : C is 7 : 13. What is A’s share?

Solution:

Given 

Total rupees = Rs 750 

Calculation

A : B = 5 : 2 

B : C = 7 : 13 

A : B : C = 5 × 7 : 2 × 7 : 2 × 13 = 35 : 14 : 26 

Total Sum = 750 

⇒ 35 x + 14x + 26x = 750 

⇒ x = 10 

So, A's share = 35 × 10 = Rs 350 

∴ The required answer is Rs 350 

QUESTION: 33

The Supreme Court on Wednesday disagreed with the Central government’s suggestion that the court should wait till the President took a call on Rajiv Gandhi assassination case convict A.G. Perarivalan’s mercy plea referred to him by the [X] for a decision. A Bench of Justices L. Nageswara Rao and B.R. Gavai said the Centre had missed the obvious question posed by the court by a mile. The pertinent question was whether the Governor had, in the first place, the authority to refer the mercy plea to the President. Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor was bound by the aid and advice given by the [Y] in September 2018 to the Governor to release Perarivalan, who has already served over 30 years of his life sentence. The Governor prima facie had no authority to transfer the mercy plea to the President. There was no role for the President here under the Constitution, the court told Additional Solicitor­General K.M. Nataraj, for the Centre. “We cannot shut our eyes to something that is happening against the Constitution. We have to follow our Bible — the Constitution of India,” Justice Rao addressed the Centre. Justice Gavai said no authority, however high, could put a spoke in the working of the Constitution. Mr. Nataraj urged the court, “The file has been referred by the Governor to the President. If the President refers it (mercy plea) back to the Governor, there is no need to discuss this issue at all... The President himself will decide if the Governor could have referred the file to him or not. Leave it to the President to take a call on whether to pardon or reject or send the file back to the Governor...”.

Q. Which article addresses the pardoning power of the President of India?

Solution: Under this, the President has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.
QUESTION: 34

The Supreme Court on Wednesday disagreed with the Central government’s suggestion that the court should wait till the President took a call on Rajiv Gandhi assassination case convict A.G. Perarivalan’s mercy plea referred to him by the [X] for a decision. A Bench of Justices L. Nageswara Rao and B.R. Gavai said the Centre had missed the obvious question posed by the court by a mile. The pertinent question was whether the Governor had, in the first place, the authority to refer the mercy plea to the President. Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor was bound by the aid and advice given by the [Y] in September 2018 to the Governor to release Perarivalan, who has already served over 30 years of his life sentence. The Governor prima facie had no authority to transfer the mercy plea to the President. There was no role for the President here under the Constitution, the court told Additional Solicitor­General K.M. Nataraj, for the Centre. “We cannot shut our eyes to something that is happening against the Constitution. We have to follow our Bible — the Constitution of India,” Justice Rao addressed the Centre. Justice Gavai said no authority, however high, could put a spoke in the working of the Constitution. Mr. Nataraj urged the court, “The file has been referred by the Governor to the President. If the President refers it (mercy plea) back to the Governor, there is no need to discuss this issue at all... The President himself will decide if the Governor could have referred the file to him or not. Leave it to the President to take a call on whether to pardon or reject or send the file back to the Governor...”.

Q. Pardoning Court Martial is under scope of?

Solution: The power of the President (and not the Governor) extends in cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial.
QUESTION: 35

The Supreme Court on Wednesday disagreed with the Central government’s suggestion that the court should wait till the President took a call on Rajiv Gandhi assassination case convict A.G. Perarivalan’s mercy plea referred to him by the [X] for a decision. A Bench of Justices L. Nageswara Rao and B.R. Gavai said the Centre had missed the obvious question posed by the court by a mile. The pertinent question was whether the Governor had, in the first place, the authority to refer the mercy plea to the President. Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor was bound by the aid and advice given by the [Y] in September 2018 to the Governor to release Perarivalan, who has already served over 30 years of his life sentence. The Governor prima facie had no authority to transfer the mercy plea to the President. There was no role for the President here under the Constitution, the court told Additional Solicitor­General K.M. Nataraj, for the Centre. “We cannot shut our eyes to something that is happening against the Constitution. We have to follow our Bible — the Constitution of India,” Justice Rao addressed the Centre. Justice Gavai said no authority, however high, could put a spoke in the working of the Constitution. Mr. Nataraj urged the court, “The file has been referred by the Governor to the President. If the President refers it (mercy plea) back to the Governor, there is no need to discuss this issue at all... The President himself will decide if the Governor could have referred the file to him or not. Leave it to the President to take a call on whether to pardon or reject or send the file back to the Governor...”.

Q. Perarivalan was pardoned by which state government?

Solution: The Governor was bound by the aid and advice given by the Tamil Nadu Council of Ministers under Article 161 to release Perarivalan, who had already spent more than 30 years of his life sentence
QUESTION: 36

The Supreme Court on Wednesday disagreed with the Central government’s suggestion that the court should wait till the President took a call on Rajiv Gandhi assassination case convict A.G. Perarivalan’s mercy plea referred to him by the [X] for a decision. A Bench of Justices L. Nageswara Rao and B.R. Gavai said the Centre had missed the obvious question posed by the court by a mile. The pertinent question was whether the Governor had, in the first place, the authority to refer the mercy plea to the President. Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor was bound by the aid and advice given by the [Y] in September 2018 to the Governor to release Perarivalan, who has already served over 30 years of his life sentence. The Governor prima facie had no authority to transfer the mercy plea to the President. There was no role for the President here under the Constitution, the court told Additional Solicitor­General K.M. Nataraj, for the Centre. “We cannot shut our eyes to something that is happening against the Constitution. We have to follow our Bible — the Constitution of India,” Justice Rao addressed the Centre. Justice Gavai said no authority, however high, could put a spoke in the working of the Constitution. Mr. Nataraj urged the court, “The file has been referred by the Governor to the President. If the President refers it (mercy plea) back to the Governor, there is no need to discuss this issue at all... The President himself will decide if the Governor could have referred the file to him or not. Leave it to the President to take a call on whether to pardon or reject or send the file back to the Governor...”.

Q. Which article addresses the pardoning power of the Governor?

Solution: It grants the Governor the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence.

The governor can do so for any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.

QUESTION: 37

The Supreme Court on Wednesday disagreed with the Central government’s suggestion that the court should wait till the President took a call on Rajiv Gandhi assassination case convict A.G. Perarivalan’s mercy plea referred to him by the [X] for a decision. A Bench of Justices L. Nageswara Rao and B.R. Gavai said the Centre had missed the obvious question posed by the court by a mile. The pertinent question was whether the Governor had, in the first place, the authority to refer the mercy plea to the President. Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor was bound by the aid and advice given by the [Y] in September 2018 to the Governor to release Perarivalan, who has already served over 30 years of his life sentence. The Governor prima facie had no authority to transfer the mercy plea to the President. There was no role for the President here under the Constitution, the court told Additional Solicitor­General K.M. Nataraj, for the Centre. “We cannot shut our eyes to something that is happening against the Constitution. We have to follow our Bible — the Constitution of India,” Justice Rao addressed the Centre. Justice Gavai said no authority, however high, could put a spoke in the working of the Constitution. Mr. Nataraj urged the court, “The file has been referred by the Governor to the President. If the President refers it (mercy plea) back to the Governor, there is no need to discuss this issue at all... The President himself will decide if the Governor could have referred the file to him or not. Leave it to the President to take a call on whether to pardon or reject or send the file back to the Governor...”.

Q. Pardoning power of The President and The Governor overrides which section of CrPC?

Solution: Pardoning powers overrides Section 433A: The Governor’s power to pardon overrides Section 433A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) - which mandates that a prisoner’s sentence can be remitted only after 14 years of jail.
QUESTION: 38

According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE)’s Consumer Pyramids Household Survey, employment in India fell from 408.9 million in 2019-­20 to 387.2 million in 2020­21 and then recovered to 401.8 million in 2021-­22. The recovery in 2021-­22 was inadequate. Employment was still 1.7%, or 7 million short of the employment level of the pre pandemic year of 2019-­20. But this overstates the impact of the pandemic. Employment was on a declining trend even before the pandemic: it was falling at the rate of about 0.31% per annum. If that trend had continued uninterrupted by the pandemic, employment would have fallen by about 2.5 million from 408.9 million in 2019­-20 to 406.3 million in 2021-­22. And so, the hit to employment that can be attributed to the shock of the pandemic is about 4.5 million jobs, which is the more lasting net impact. The immediate impact was much bigger. Nearly 78 million jobs were lost during the quarter of June 2020, which roughly coincides with the first wave of COVID­19. Similarly, 13 million jobs were lost during the second wave during the quarter of June 2021. Most jobs lost during lockdowns were of the informal kinds. These come back when the restrictions on mobility were lifted. If the economy expands by about 7.5% in 2022-­23, we expect about 6 million jobs to come back. That would still leave a deficit of a million even as many more get added to the working age population and the labour force.

Q. What percent of employment in India is salaried?

Solution: Only 21% of all employment in India is in the form of a salaried employment as per CMIE.
QUESTION: 39

According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE)’s Consumer Pyramids Household Survey, employment in India fell from 408.9 million in 2019-­20 to 387.2 million in 2020­21 and then recovered to 401.8 million in 2021-­22. The recovery in 2021-­22 was inadequate. Employment was still 1.7%, or 7 million short of the employment level of the pre pandemic year of 2019-­20. But this overstates the impact of the pandemic. Employment was on a declining trend even before the pandemic: it was falling at the rate of about 0.31% per annum. If that trend had continued uninterrupted by the pandemic, employment would have fallen by about 2.5 million from 408.9 million in 2019­-20 to 406.3 million in 2021-­22. And so, the hit to employment that can be attributed to the shock of the pandemic is about 4.5 million jobs, which is the more lasting net impact. The immediate impact was much bigger. Nearly 78 million jobs were lost during the quarter of June 2020, which roughly coincides with the first wave of COVID­19. Similarly, 13 million jobs were lost during the second wave during the quarter of June 2021. Most jobs lost during lockdowns were of the informal kinds. These come back when the restrictions on mobility were lifted. If the economy expands by about 7.5% in 2022-­23, we expect about 6 million jobs to come back. That would still leave a deficit of a million even as many more get added to the working age population and the labour force.

Q. As per 2019 report how much percent of Indians were employed in Agriculture?

Solution: In 2019, 42.39% of the workforce in India was employed in agriculture.
QUESTION: 40

According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE)’s Consumer Pyramids Household Survey, employment in India fell from 408.9 million in 2019-­20 to 387.2 million in 2020­21 and then recovered to 401.8 million in 2021-­22. The recovery in 2021-­22 was inadequate. Employment was still 1.7%, or 7 million short of the employment level of the pre pandemic year of 2019-­20. But this overstates the impact of the pandemic. Employment was on a declining trend even before the pandemic: it was falling at the rate of about 0.31% per annum. If that trend had continued uninterrupted by the pandemic, employment would have fallen by about 2.5 million from 408.9 million in 2019­-20 to 406.3 million in 2021-­22. And so, the hit to employment that can be attributed to the shock of the pandemic is about 4.5 million jobs, which is the more lasting net impact. The immediate impact was much bigger. Nearly 78 million jobs were lost during the quarter of June 2020, which roughly coincides with the first wave of COVID­19. Similarly, 13 million jobs were lost during the second wave during the quarter of June 2021. Most jobs lost during lockdowns were of the informal kinds. These come back when the restrictions on mobility were lifted. If the economy expands by about 7.5% in 2022-­23, we expect about 6 million jobs to come back. That would still leave a deficit of a million even as many more get added to the working age population and the labour force.

Q. Unemployment rate in India as per April was?

Solution: As per April 2022 unemployment rate dropped to 7.5 percent from 7.6 percent in March this year.
QUESTION: 41

According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE)’s Consumer Pyramids Household Survey, employment in India fell from 408.9 million in 2019-­20 to 387.2 million in 2020­21 and then recovered to 401.8 million in 2021-­22. The recovery in 2021-­22 was inadequate. Employment was still 1.7%, or 7 million short of the employment level of the pre pandemic year of 2019-­20. But this overstates the impact of the pandemic. Employment was on a declining trend even before the pandemic: it was falling at the rate of about 0.31% per annum. If that trend had continued uninterrupted by the pandemic, employment would have fallen by about 2.5 million from 408.9 million in 2019­-20 to 406.3 million in 2021-­22. And so, the hit to employment that can be attributed to the shock of the pandemic is about 4.5 million jobs, which is the more lasting net impact. The immediate impact was much bigger. Nearly 78 million jobs were lost during the quarter of June 2020, which roughly coincides with the first wave of COVID­19. Similarly, 13 million jobs were lost during the second wave during the quarter of June 2021. Most jobs lost during lockdowns were of the informal kinds. These come back when the restrictions on mobility were lifted. If the economy expands by about 7.5% in 2022-­23, we expect about 6 million jobs to come back. That would still leave a deficit of a million even as many more get added to the working age population and the labour force.

Q. Non salaried employment is what percent of total employment?

Solution: This category of employment accounted for about 32% of the total employment but it suffered 75% of the hit in April 2020.
QUESTION: 42

According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE)’s Consumer Pyramids Household Survey, employment in India fell from 408.9 million in 2019-­20 to 387.2 million in 2020­21 and then recovered to 401.8 million in 2021-­22. The recovery in 2021-­22 was inadequate. Employment was still 1.7%, or 7 million short of the employment level of the pre pandemic year of 2019-­20. But this overstates the impact of the pandemic. Employment was on a declining trend even before the pandemic: it was falling at the rate of about 0.31% per annum. If that trend had continued uninterrupted by the pandemic, employment would have fallen by about 2.5 million from 408.9 million in 2019­-20 to 406.3 million in 2021-­22. And so, the hit to employment that can be attributed to the shock of the pandemic is about 4.5 million jobs, which is the more lasting net impact. The immediate impact was much bigger. Nearly 78 million jobs were lost during the quarter of June 2020, which roughly coincides with the first wave of COVID­19. Similarly, 13 million jobs were lost during the second wave during the quarter of June 2021. Most jobs lost during lockdowns were of the informal kinds. These come back when the restrictions on mobility were lifted. If the economy expands by about 7.5% in 2022-­23, we expect about 6 million jobs to come back. That would still leave a deficit of a million even as many more get added to the working age population and the labour force.

Q. CMIE was established in which year?

Solution: CMIE is a leading business information company. It was established in 1976, primarily as an independent think tank.
QUESTION: 43

The Supreme Court on Monday upheld the right of an individual against forcible vaccination and the government’s COVID­19 vaccination policy to protect communitarian health, but found certain vaccine mandates imposed by the State governments and Union Territory administrations disproportionate as they tend to deny access to basic welfare measures and freedom of movement to unvaccinated individuals. A Bench led by Justice L. Nageswara Rao said such mandates wilted in the face of “emerging scientific opinion” that the risk of transmission of the infection from unvaccinated individuals was almost on a par with that from those vaccinated. “With respect to bodily integrity and personal autonomy of an individual in the light of vaccines and other public health measures introduced to deal with the COVID­19 pandemic, we are of the opinion that bodily integrity is protected under Article [X] of the Constitution and no individual can be forced to be vaccinated,” the court said. The court struck a balance between individual right to bodily integrity and refuse treatment with the government’s concern for public health. A person has the right under [X] to refuse treatment, it said. “Personal autonomy of an individual, which is a recognised facet of protection guaranteed under [X] encompasses the right to refuse to undergo any medical treatment in the sphere of individual health,” Justice Rao observed.

Q. Bodily autonomy and integrity are protected under?

Solution: The Supreme Court (SC) of India has ruled that no one can be forced to get vaccinated because bodily autonomy and integrity are protected under Article 21 (right to life) of the Indian Constitution.
QUESTION: 44

The Supreme Court on Monday upheld the right of an individual against forcible vaccination and the government’s COVID­19 vaccination policy to protect communitarian health, but found certain vaccine mandates imposed by the State governments and Union Territory administrations disproportionate as they tend to deny access to basic welfare measures and freedom of movement to unvaccinated individuals. A Bench led by Justice L. Nageswara Rao said such mandates wilted in the face of “emerging scientific opinion” that the risk of transmission of the infection from unvaccinated individuals was almost on a par with that from those vaccinated. “With respect to bodily integrity and personal autonomy of an individual in the light of vaccines and other public health measures introduced to deal with the COVID­19 pandemic, we are of the opinion that bodily integrity is protected under Article [X] of the Constitution and no individual can be forced to be vaccinated,” the court said. The court struck a balance between individual right to bodily integrity and refuse treatment with the government’s concern for public health. A person has the right under [X] to refuse treatment, it said. “Personal autonomy of an individual, which is a recognised facet of protection guaranteed under [X] encompasses the right to refuse to undergo any medical treatment in the sphere of individual health,” Justice Rao observed.

Q. Which of the following is not a COVID-19 vaccine?

Solution: Tdap is a combination vaccine that protects against three potentially life-threatening bacterial diseases: tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (whooping cough).
QUESTION: 45

The Supreme Court on Monday upheld the right of an individual against forcible vaccination and the government’s COVID­19 vaccination policy to protect communitarian health, but found certain vaccine mandates imposed by the State governments and Union Territory administrations disproportionate as they tend to deny access to basic welfare measures and freedom of movement to unvaccinated individuals. A Bench led by Justice L. Nageswara Rao said such mandates wilted in the face of “emerging scientific opinion” that the risk of transmission of the infection from unvaccinated individuals was almost on a par with that from those vaccinated. “With respect to bodily integrity and personal autonomy of an individual in the light of vaccines and other public health measures introduced to deal with the COVID­19 pandemic, we are of the opinion that bodily integrity is protected under Article [X] of the Constitution and no individual can be forced to be vaccinated,” the court said. The court struck a balance between individual right to bodily integrity and refuse treatment with the government’s concern for public health. A person has the right under [X] to refuse treatment, it said. “Personal autonomy of an individual, which is a recognised facet of protection guaranteed under [X] encompasses the right to refuse to undergo any medical treatment in the sphere of individual health,” Justice Rao observed.

Q. Which of the following is not a three fold test requirement of the judgement?

Solution: This restriction on the freedom of speech of any citizen may be imposed as much by an action of the State as by its inaction.
QUESTION: 46

The Supreme Court on Monday upheld the right of an individual against forcible vaccination and the government’s COVID­19 vaccination policy to protect communitarian health, but found certain vaccine mandates imposed by the State governments and Union Territory administrations disproportionate as they tend to deny access to basic welfare measures and freedom of movement to unvaccinated individuals. A Bench led by Justice L. Nageswara Rao said such mandates wilted in the face of “emerging scientific opinion” that the risk of transmission of the infection from unvaccinated individuals was almost on a par with that from those vaccinated. “With respect to bodily integrity and personal autonomy of an individual in the light of vaccines and other public health measures introduced to deal with the COVID­19 pandemic, we are of the opinion that bodily integrity is protected under Article [X] of the Constitution and no individual can be forced to be vaccinated,” the court said. The court struck a balance between individual right to bodily integrity and refuse treatment with the government’s concern for public health. A person has the right under [X] to refuse treatment, it said. “Personal autonomy of an individual, which is a recognised facet of protection guaranteed under [X] encompasses the right to refuse to undergo any medical treatment in the sphere of individual health,” Justice Rao observed.

Q. Which case upheld the right of privacy as a constitutional right under Article 21?

Solution: In 2017, a 9-judge bench of the SC delivered a unanimous verdict affirming that the Constitution of India guarantees to each individual a fundamental right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
QUESTION: 47

The Supreme Court on Monday upheld the right of an individual against forcible vaccination and the government’s COVID­19 vaccination policy to protect communitarian health, but found certain vaccine mandates imposed by the State governments and Union Territory administrations disproportionate as they tend to deny access to basic welfare measures and freedom of movement to unvaccinated individuals. A Bench led by Justice L. Nageswara Rao said such mandates wilted in the face of “emerging scientific opinion” that the risk of transmission of the infection from unvaccinated individuals was almost on a par with that from those vaccinated. “With respect to bodily integrity and personal autonomy of an individual in the light of vaccines and other public health measures introduced to deal with the COVID­19 pandemic, we are of the opinion that bodily integrity is protected under Article [X] of the Constitution and no individual can be forced to be vaccinated,” the court said. The court struck a balance between individual right to bodily integrity and refuse treatment with the government’s concern for public health. A person has the right under [X] to refuse treatment, it said. “Personal autonomy of an individual, which is a recognised facet of protection guaranteed under [X] encompasses the right to refuse to undergo any medical treatment in the sphere of individual health,” Justice Rao observed.

Q. Which phrase is outside the scope of Article 21?

Solution: The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution. These are important Fundamental Rights that guarantee every citizen protection from any kind of forced labour.
QUESTION: 48

The Isak­Muivah faction of the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN­IM) was involved in 44% of insurgency related incidents in Nagaland in 2020, the annual report of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has said. In 2015, the Union government signed a framework agreement with the NSCNIM, one of the largest Naga groups, to find a solution to the Naga political issue. The negotiation is yet to be concluded. Before this, the Government of India signed a formal ceasefire agreement with the NSCN IM in [X] and it was extended indefinitely since 2007. Split into many groups The umbrella NSCN group that came into being in 1980 following the failure of the 1975 [Y] Accord has further split into many groups. According to the 2019-­20 annual report of the MHA, these insurgent groups are the NSCN (IM) led by Thuingaleng Muivah, the NSCN (K), NSCN/NK led by Neopao Konyak­Kitovi and the NSCN/R led by Y. Wangtin Konyak.

Q. NNC was formed in?

Solution: The Naga National Council (NNC) was formed in April 1946 to carry out social and political upliftment of the Nagas.
QUESTION: 49

The Isak­Muivah faction of the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN­IM) was involved in 44% of insurgency related incidents in Nagaland in 2020, the annual report of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has said. In 2015, the Union government signed a framework agreement with the NSCNIM, one of the largest Naga groups, to find a solution to the Naga political issue. The negotiation is yet to be concluded. Before this, the Government of India signed a formal ceasefire agreement with the NSCN IM in [X] and it was extended indefinitely since 2007. Split into many groups The umbrella NSCN group that came into being in 1980 following the failure of the 1975 [Y] Accord has further split into many groups. According to the 2019-­20 annual report of the MHA, these insurgent groups are the NSCN (IM) led by Thuingaleng Muivah, the NSCN (K), NSCN/NK led by Neopao Konyak­Kitovi and the NSCN/R led by Y. Wangtin Konyak.

Q. Which country is part of greater Nagaland demand?

Solution: One was an independent nation of Nagaland Comprising the present Nagaland, the Naga inhabited areas of Manipur and Myanmar.
QUESTION: 50

The Isak­Muivah faction of the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN­IM) was involved in 44% of insurgency related incidents in Nagaland in 2020, the annual report of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has said. In 2015, the Union government signed a framework agreement with the NSCNIM, one of the largest Naga groups, to find a solution to the Naga political issue. The negotiation is yet to be concluded. Before this, the Government of India signed a formal ceasefire agreement with the NSCN IM in [X] and it was extended indefinitely since 2007. Split into many groups The umbrella NSCN group that came into being in 1980 following the failure of the 1975 [Y] Accord has further split into many groups. According to the 2019-­20 annual report of the MHA, these insurgent groups are the NSCN (IM) led by Thuingaleng Muivah, the NSCN (K), NSCN/NK led by Neopao Konyak­Kitovi and the NSCN/R led by Y. Wangtin Konyak.

Q. In 2020 talks between government of India and which group failed?

Solution: The dialogue between the Union Government and the NSCN-IM collapsed in 2020 when the largest Naga group refused to hold any further talks with the interlocutor
QUESTION: 51

The Isak­Muivah faction of the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN­IM) was involved in 44% of insurgency related incidents in Nagaland in 2020, the annual report of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has said. In 2015, the Union government signed a framework agreement with the NSCNIM, one of the largest Naga groups, to find a solution to the Naga political issue. The negotiation is yet to be concluded. Before this, the Government of India signed a formal ceasefire agreement with the NSCN IM in [X] and it was extended indefinitely since 2007. Split into many groups The umbrella NSCN group that came into being in 1980 following the failure of the 1975 [Y] Accord has further split into many groups. According to the 2019-­20 annual report of the MHA, these insurgent groups are the NSCN (IM) led by Thuingaleng Muivah, the NSCN (K), NSCN/NK led by Neopao Konyak­Kitovi and the NSCN/R led by Y. Wangtin Konyak.

Q. Which accord was signed by GOI with a section of NNC leaders?

Solution: The Shillong Accord was signed in 1975 by Government of India with a section of the NNC leaders.

As part of the accord, the leaders agreed to abjure violence and work towards the solution of the Naga problem within the framework of the Indian Constitution.

QUESTION: 52

The Isak­Muivah faction of the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN­IM) was involved in 44% of insurgency related incidents in Nagaland in 2020, the annual report of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has said. In 2015, the Union government signed a framework agreement with the NSCNIM, one of the largest Naga groups, to find a solution to the Naga political issue. The negotiation is yet to be concluded. Before this, the Government of India signed a formal ceasefire agreement with the NSCN IM in [X] and it was extended indefinitely since 2007. Split into many groups The umbrella NSCN group that came into being in 1980 following the failure of the 1975 [Y] Accord has further split into many groups. According to the 2019-­20 annual report of the MHA, these insurgent groups are the NSCN (IM) led by Thuingaleng Muivah, the NSCN (K), NSCN/NK led by Neopao Konyak­Kitovi and the NSCN/R led by Y. Wangtin Konyak/

Q. Devolution of more powers to Nagaland is comprised in which article?

Solution: The government could go for devolution of more powers to Nagaland under provisions of Article 371 (A) of the Constitution of India.
QUESTION: 53

There is a delay in the delivery of the second regiment of S­400 from Russia due to the ongoing war in Ukraine. However, some training equipment and simulators arrived in India, official sources confirmed. “Simulators and training equipment have arrived. The second operational unit is likely to be delayed by a few months,” a defence source said and this was confirmed by another official. Last December, India took delivery of the first S­400 regiment, five of which were contracted from Russia under a $5.43 billion deal signed in October 2018. The first unit has been deployed in Punjab and is operational, officials have confirmed. With the threat of U.S. sanctions under CAATSA (Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act), New Delhi and Moscow had worked out payments through rupee­ rouble exchange for this deal.The two sides are now exploring the same payment route for larger bilateral trade. The Defence Ministry and Services have carried out assessments and are closely monitoring the impact of sanctions can have on timely deliveries and supplies from Russia. Officials had expressed concern that there could be some shipping delays given the prevailing situation. China too possesses the S­400 Triumf long ­range air defence system, currently being inducted by India. Earlier, an Indian Air Force representative had told the parliamentary standing committee on defence that “direct tactical planning” would be a key requirement for India in countering Chinese forces.

Q. S-400 Triumf is a _____ missile

Solution: The S-400 Triumf is a mobile, surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by Russia.

It is the most dangerous operationally deployed modern long-range SAM (MLR SAM) in the world, considered much ahead of the US-developed Terminal High Altitude Area Defense system (THAAD).

QUESTION: 54

There is a delay in the delivery of the second regiment of S­400 from Russia due to the ongoing war in Ukraine. However, some training equipment and simulators arrived in India, official sources confirmed. “Simulators and training equipment have arrived. The second operational unit is likely to be delayed by a few months,” a defence source said and this was confirmed by another official. Last December, India took delivery of the first S­400 regiment, five of which were contracted from Russia under a $5.43 billion deal signed in October 2018. The first unit has been deployed in Punjab and is operational, officials have confirmed. With the threat of U.S. sanctions under CAATSA (Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act), New Delhi and Moscow had worked out payments through rupee­ rouble exchange for this deal.The two sides are now exploring the same payment route for larger bilateral trade. The Defence Ministry and Services have carried out assessments and are closely monitoring the impact of sanctions can have on timely deliveries and supplies from Russia. Officials had expressed concern that there could be some shipping delays given the prevailing situation. China too possesses the S­400 Triumf long ­range air defence system, currently being inducted by India. Earlier, an Indian Air Force representative had told the parliamentary standing committee on defence that “direct tactical planning” would be a key requirement for India in countering Chinese forces.

Q. C-17 Globmaster-III is an aircraft bought from ____ by IAF?

Solution: Globemaster is a strategic airlifter bought by Indian Air Force from United States Air Force which executes intensive altitude airlifts for the defence forces and also carries out rescue operations in other countries.
QUESTION: 55

There is a delay in the delivery of the second regiment of S­400 from Russia due to the ongoing war in Ukraine. However, some training equipment and simulators arrived in India, official sources confirmed. “Simulators and training equipment have arrived. The second operational unit is likely to be delayed by a few months,” a defence source said and this was confirmed by another official. Last December, India took delivery of the first S­400 regiment, five of which were contracted from Russia under a $5.43 billion deal signed in October 2018. The first unit has been deployed in Punjab and is operational, officials have confirmed. With the threat of U.S. sanctions under CAATSA (Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act), New Delhi and Moscow had worked out payments through rupee­ rouble exchange for this deal.The two sides are now exploring the same payment route for larger bilateral trade. The Defence Ministry and Services have carried out assessments and are closely monitoring the impact of sanctions can have on timely deliveries and supplies from Russia. Officials had expressed concern that there could be some shipping delays given the prevailing situation. China too possesses the S­400 Triumf long ­range air defence system, currently being inducted by India. Earlier, an Indian Air Force representative had told the parliamentary standing committee on defence that “direct tactical planning” would be a key requirement for India in countering Chinese forces.

Q. How many units of S-400 have been ordered by India?

Solution: All the five units of the S-400 system, which can take down a hostile aircraft or missile at a range between 40km and 400km, are expected to be operational by next year. All five units of Indian S-400 anti missile system will be deployed to tackle the threat from China.
QUESTION: 56

There is a delay in the delivery of the second regiment of S­400 from Russia due to the ongoing war in Ukraine. However, some training equipment and simulators arrived in India, official sources confirmed. “Simulators and training equipment have arrived. The second operational unit is likely to be delayed by a few months,” a defence source said and this was confirmed by another official. Last December, India took delivery of the first S­400 regiment, five of which were contracted from Russia under a $5.43 billion deal signed in October 2018. The first unit has been deployed in Punjab and is operational, officials have confirmed. With the threat of U.S. sanctions under CAATSA (Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act), New Delhi and Moscow had worked out payments through rupee­ rouble exchange for this deal.The two sides are now exploring the same payment route for larger bilateral trade. The Defence Ministry and Services have carried out assessments and are closely monitoring the impact of sanctions can have on timely deliveries and supplies from Russia. Officials had expressed concern that there could be some shipping delays given the prevailing situation. China too possesses the S­400 Triumf long ­range air defence system, currently being inducted by India. Earlier, an Indian Air Force representative had told the parliamentary standing committee on defence that “direct tactical planning” would be a key requirement for India in countering Chinese forces.

Q. CAATSA was initially meant to counter?

Solution:

Countering America’s Adversaries through Sanctions Act (CAATSA)‘s core objective is to counter Iran, Russia and North Korea through punitive measures.

Enacted in 2017.

QUESTION: 57

There is a delay in the delivery of the second regiment of S­400 from Russia due to the ongoing war in Ukraine. However, some training equipment and simulators arrived in India, official sources confirmed. “Simulators and training equipment have arrived. The second operational unit is likely to be delayed by a few months,” a defence source said and this was confirmed by another official. Last December, India took delivery of the first S­400 regiment, five of which were contracted from Russia under a $5.43 billion deal signed in October 2018. The first unit has been deployed in Punjab and is operational, officials have confirmed. With the threat of U.S. sanctions under CAATSA (Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act), New Delhi and Moscow had worked out payments through rupee­ rouble exchange for this deal.The two sides are now exploring the same payment route for larger bilateral trade. The Defence Ministry and Services have carried out assessments and are closely monitoring the impact of sanctions can have on timely deliveries and supplies from Russia. Officials had expressed concern that there could be some shipping delays given the prevailing situation. China too possesses the S­400 Triumf long ­range air defence system, currently being inducted by India. Earlier, an Indian Air Force representative had told the parliamentary standing committee on defence that “direct tactical planning” would be a key requirement for India in countering Chinese forces.

Q. Which of the following is an indigeneous fighter jet?

Solution: The HAL Tejas is an Indian, single engine, delta wing, light multirole fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency in collaboration with Aircraft Research and Design Centre of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy.
QUESTION: 58

On May 14, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a Request for Proposal (RFP) to select a private agency for creating a National Database of Sexual Offenders for India. The said RFP states that the purpose of establishing the database of sex offenders is to help in the early detection and prevention of crime against women, arrests of persons accused of criminal offences and to keep a watch on habitual offenders. Media reports suggest that the public will have access to the details regarding convicted sex offenders and law enforcement officials will have access to data about persons on trial for sexual offences. This registry seems to be one more knee-jerk and populist reaction to the problem of sexual violence against women and children in India.

The ministry seems to have launched this initiative without analysing the evidence on the limited efficacy of such registries in other jurisdictions in reducing rates of repeat offending and without examining its appropriateness in the Indian context. Various states in the US have had such publicly accessible registries for around 28 years and multiple studies have shown that they have limited public safety benefits and significant social costs. Sex offender registries are predicated on the assumption that convicted sex offenders have a high likelihood of committing offences after serving their sentences. This assumption is not borne out by data. In India, the percentage of recidivism among arrested persons according to data collected by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for 2016 is only 6.4%.

The registry is being proposed in response to widelyreported horrific incidents of rape. The logic seems to be that if the police have a list of offenders living in the area, investigation becomes simpler and people, especially parents, can be more vigilant if they are aware of offenders living around them. However in India, as per the NCRB data for 2016, in 94.6% of reported cases of rape against women and children, the perpetrator is known to the victim. Such a registry offers little protection from such offenders. In fact, the fear of the offender being included in the registry may exacerbate the problem of underreporting by making people apprehensive about reporting sexual violence involving family members and acquaintances.

Once the general public has unfettered access to data about sex offenders online, it can open a Pandora's Box.

The fears of offenders being ostracised and vilified become very real. Among a host of foreseeable problems, they will find it particularly tough to find employment or housing. India has already witnessed cases of lynchings of people suspected to be child kidnappers. It is not paranoid to expect the public reaction to convicted offenders to be much worse. Once offenders are pushed into the margins, their access to treatment, supervision and support systems becomes diminished, which may be quite counterproductive. If the state imposes restrictions on where such offenders can live, the housing crisis they will face will be exacerbated. They may become homeless or be compelled to live in areas far from home where they may face less scrutiny. The stigma and ostracisation that such offenders will face will invariably extend to their families. Studies in the US have shown that a combination of social ostracisation, lack of psychiatric support and the inability to find a job or housing, can even increase chances of recidivism; thus, defeating the very purpose of the registry. In such circumstances, registration in such a database can turn into a 'scarlet letter' like badge of shame that can punish offenders much beyond their sentences and make their rehabilitation and reintegration into society next to impossible.

As per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) data from 2015-2016, we know that 85% of cases of sexual violence against women, which excludes cases of marital rape and assault, go unreported. Such a registry does not begin to address this problem.

Before implementing this registry, the Ministry of Home Affairs must create a research base on recidivism among sex offenders and the risk factors and hold a much broader public debate on the need for the registry. This is not to say that sexual offences are not an urgent problem. In the Indian context, the focus needs to be shifted to tackling barriers to reporting, training law enforcement officials and providing support to survivors rather than this ill-conceived registry.

Q. Which of the following is mentioned in the statement of RFP?

Solution: Refer to the 1st paragraph of the given passage"The said RFP states that …in the early detection and prevention of crime against women…" This makes only option (b), the correct answer.
QUESTION: 59

On May 14, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a Request for Proposal (RFP) to select a private agency for creating a National Database of Sexual Offenders for India. The said RFP states that the purpose of establishing the database of sex offenders is to help in the early detection and prevention of crime against women, arrests of persons accused of criminal offences and to keep a watch on habitual offenders. Media reports suggest that the public will have access to the details regarding convicted sex offenders and law enforcement officials will have access to data about persons on trial for sexual offences. This registry seems to be one more knee-jerk and populist reaction to the problem of sexual violence against women and children in India.

The ministry seems to have launched this initiative without analysing the evidence on the limited efficacy of such registries in other jurisdictions in reducing rates of repeat offending and without examining its appropriateness in the Indian context. Various states in the US have had such publicly accessible registries for around 28 years and multiple studies have shown that they have limited public safety benefits and significant social costs. Sex offender registries are predicated on the assumption that convicted sex offenders have a high likelihood of committing offences after serving their sentences. This assumption is not borne out by data. In India, the percentage of recidivism among arrested persons according to data collected by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for 2016 is only 6.4%.

The registry is being proposed in response to widelyreported horrific incidents of rape. The logic seems to be that if the police have a list of offenders living in the area, investigation becomes simpler and people, especially parents, can be more vigilant if they are aware of offenders living around them. However in India, as per the NCRB data for 2016, in 94.6% of reported cases of rape against women and children, the perpetrator is known to the victim. Such a registry offers little protection from such offenders. In fact, the fear of the offender being included in the registry may exacerbate the problem of underreporting by making people apprehensive about reporting sexual violence involving family members and acquaintances.

Once the general public has unfettered access to data about sex offenders online, it can open a Pandora's Box.

The fears of offenders being ostracised and vilified become very real. Among a host of foreseeable problems, they will find it particularly tough to find employment or housing. India has already witnessed cases of lynchings of people suspected to be child kidnappers. It is not paranoid to expect the public reaction to convicted offenders to be much worse. Once offenders are pushed into the margins, their access to treatment, supervision and support systems becomes diminished, which may be quite counterproductive. If the state imposes restrictions on where such offenders can live, the housing crisis they will face will be exacerbated. They may become homeless or be compelled to live in areas far from home where they may face less scrutiny. The stigma and ostracisation that such offenders will face will invariably extend to their families. Studies in the US have shown that a combination of social ostracisation, lack of psychiatric support and the inability to find a job or housing, can even increase chances of recidivism; thus, defeating the very purpose of the registry. In such circumstances, registration in such a database can turn into a 'scarlet letter' like badge of shame that can punish offenders much beyond their sentences and make their rehabilitation and reintegration into society next to impossible.

As per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) data from 2015-2016, we know that 85% of cases of sexual violence against women, which excludes cases of marital rape and assault, go unreported. Such a registry does not begin to address this problem.

Before implementing this registry, the Ministry of Home Affairs must create a research base on recidivism among sex offenders and the risk factors and hold a much broader public debate on the need for the registry. This is not to say that sexual offences are not an urgent problem. In the Indian context, the focus needs to be shifted to tackling barriers to reporting, training law enforcement officials and providing support to survivors rather than this ill-conceived registry.

Q. Which of the following is an assumption on which the Sex offender registries are predicated?

Solution: Refer to-"Sex offender registries are predicated on the assumption that convicted sex offenders have a high likelihood of committing offences after serving their sentences." This makes option (d) a clear-cut answer. The use of the word 'more' makes option (b) incorrect. Other options are invalid as far as the given context is concerned.
QUESTION: 60

On May 14, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a Request for Proposal (RFP) to select a private agency for creating a National Database of Sexual Offenders for India. The said RFP states that the purpose of establishing the database of sex offenders is to help in the early detection and prevention of crime against women, arrests of persons accused of criminal offences and to keep a watch on habitual offenders. Media reports suggest that the public will have access to the details regarding convicted sex offenders and law enforcement officials will have access to data about persons on trial for sexual offences. This registry seems to be one more knee-jerk and populist reaction to the problem of sexual violence against women and children in India.

The ministry seems to have launched this initiative without analysing the evidence on the limited efficacy of such registries in other jurisdictions in reducing rates of repeat offending and without examining its appropriateness in the Indian context. Various states in the US have had such publicly accessible registries for around 28 years and multiple studies have shown that they have limited public safety benefits and significant social costs. Sex offender registries are predicated on the assumption that convicted sex offenders have a high likelihood of committing offences after serving their sentences. This assumption is not borne out by data. In India, the percentage of recidivism among arrested persons according to data collected by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for 2016 is only 6.4%.

The registry is being proposed in response to widelyreported horrific incidents of rape. The logic seems to be that if the police have a list of offenders living in the area, investigation becomes simpler and people, especially parents, can be more vigilant if they are aware of offenders living around them. However in India, as per the NCRB data for 2016, in 94.6% of reported cases of rape against women and children, the perpetrator is known to the victim. Such a registry offers little protection from such offenders. In fact, the fear of the offender being included in the registry may exacerbate the problem of underreporting by making people apprehensive about reporting sexual violence involving family members and acquaintances.

Once the general public has unfettered access to data about sex offenders online, it can open a Pandora's Box.

The fears of offenders being ostracised and vilified become very real. Among a host of foreseeable problems, they will find it particularly tough to find employment or housing. India has already witnessed cases of lynchings of people suspected to be child kidnappers. It is not paranoid to expect the public reaction to convicted offenders to be much worse. Once offenders are pushed into the margins, their access to treatment, supervision and support systems becomes diminished, which may be quite counterproductive. If the state imposes restrictions on where such offenders can live, the housing crisis they will face will be exacerbated. They may become homeless or be compelled to live in areas far from home where they may face less scrutiny. The stigma and ostracisation that such offenders will face will invariably extend to their families. Studies in the US have shown that a combination of social ostracisation, lack of psychiatric support and the inability to find a job or housing, can even increase chances of recidivism; thus, defeating the very purpose of the registry. In such circumstances, registration in such a database can turn into a 'scarlet letter' like badge of shame that can punish offenders much beyond their sentences and make their rehabilitation and reintegration into society next to impossible.

As per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) data from 2015-2016, we know that 85% of cases of sexual violence against women, which excludes cases of marital rape and assault, go unreported. Such a registry does not begin to address this problem.

Before implementing this registry, the Ministry of Home Affairs must create a research base on recidivism among sex offenders and the risk factors and hold a much broader public debate on the need for the registry. This is not to say that sexual offences are not an urgent problem. In the Indian context, the focus needs to be shifted to tackling barriers to reporting, training law enforcement officials and providing support to survivors rather than this ill-conceived registry.

Q. The author gives which of the following suggestions to the concerned ministry?

Solution: Refer to the line, "Before implementing this registry, the Ministry of Home Affairs must create a research base on recidivism among sex offenders and the risk factors and hold a much broader public debate on the need for the registry." Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. The author doesn't suggest that such a database should not be made public at all.
QUESTION: 61

On May 14, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a Request for Proposal (RFP) to select a private agency for creating a National Database of Sexual Offenders for India. The said RFP states that the purpose of establishing the database of sex offenders is to help in the early detection and prevention of crime against women, arrests of persons accused of criminal offences and to keep a watch on habitual offenders. Media reports suggest that the public will have access to the details regarding convicted sex offenders and law enforcement officials will have access to data about persons on trial for sexual offences. This registry seems to be one more knee-jerk and populist reaction to the problem of sexual violence against women and children in India.

The ministry seems to have launched this initiative without analysing the evidence on the limited efficacy of such registries in other jurisdictions in reducing rates of repeat offending and without examining its appropriateness in the Indian context. Various states in the US have had such publicly accessible registries for around 28 years and multiple studies have shown that they have limited public safety benefits and significant social costs. Sex offender registries are predicated on the assumption that convicted sex offenders have a high likelihood of committing offences after serving their sentences. This assumption is not borne out by data. In India, the percentage of recidivism among arrested persons according to data collected by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for 2016 is only 6.4%.

The registry is being proposed in response to widelyreported horrific incidents of rape. The logic seems to be that if the police have a list of offenders living in the area, investigation becomes simpler and people, especially parents, can be more vigilant if they are aware of offenders living around them. However in India, as per the NCRB data for 2016, in 94.6% of reported cases of rape against women and children, the perpetrator is known to the victim. Such a registry offers little protection from such offenders. In fact, the fear of the offender being included in the registry may exacerbate the problem of underreporting by making people apprehensive about reporting sexual violence involving family members and acquaintances.

Once the general public has unfettered access to data about sex offenders online, it can open a Pandora's Box.

The fears of offenders being ostracised and vilified become very real. Among a host of foreseeable problems, they will find it particularly tough to find employment or housing. India has already witnessed cases of lynchings of people suspected to be child kidnappers. It is not paranoid to expect the public reaction to convicted offenders to be much worse. Once offenders are pushed into the margins, their access to treatment, supervision and support systems becomes diminished, which may be quite counterproductive. If the state imposes restrictions on where such offenders can live, the housing crisis they will face will be exacerbated. They may become homeless or be compelled to live in areas far from home where they may face less scrutiny. The stigma and ostracisation that such offenders will face will invariably extend to their families. Studies in the US have shown that a combination of social ostracisation, lack of psychiatric support and the inability to find a job or housing, can even increase chances of recidivism; thus, defeating the very purpose of the registry. In such circumstances, registration in such a database can turn into a 'scarlet letter' like badge of shame that can punish offenders much beyond their sentences and make their rehabilitation and reintegration into society next to impossible.

As per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) data from 2015-2016, we know that 85% of cases of sexual violence against women, which excludes cases of marital rape and assault, go unreported. Such a registry does not begin to address this problem.

Before implementing this registry, the Ministry of Home Affairs must create a research base on recidivism among sex offenders and the risk factors and hold a much broader public debate on the need for the registry. This is not to say that sexual offences are not an urgent problem. In the Indian context, the focus needs to be shifted to tackling barriers to reporting, training law enforcement officials and providing support to survivors rather than this ill-conceived registry.

Q. Which of the following focuses on the mistake of the Home Ministry which issued the RFP?

Solution: The ministry "...have launched this initiative without analysing the evidence on the limited efficacy of such registries in other jurisdictions in reducing rates of repeat offending and without examining its appropriateness in the Indian context." Option (b) is partially correct but the main criticism is not 'the efficiency' of the RFP. Option (c), therefore, is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 62

On May 14, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a Request for Proposal (RFP) to select a private agency for creating a National Database of Sexual Offenders for India. The said RFP states that the purpose of establishing the database of sex offenders is to help in the early detection and prevention of crime against women, arrests of persons accused of criminal offences and to keep a watch on habitual offenders. Media reports suggest that the public will have access to the details regarding convicted sex offenders and law enforcement officials will have access to data about persons on trial for sexual offences. This registry seems to be one more knee-jerk and populist reaction to the problem of sexual violence against women and children in India.

The ministry seems to have launched this initiative without analysing the evidence on the limited efficacy of such registries in other jurisdictions in reducing rates of repeat offending and without examining its appropriateness in the Indian context. Various states in the US have had such publicly accessible registries for around 28 years and multiple studies have shown that they have limited public safety benefits and significant social costs. Sex offender registries are predicated on the assumption that convicted sex offenders have a high likelihood of committing offences after serving their sentences. This assumption is not borne out by data. In India, the percentage of recidivism among arrested persons according to data collected by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for 2016 is only 6.4%.

The registry is being proposed in response to widelyreported horrific incidents of rape. The logic seems to be that if the police have a list of offenders living in the area, investigation becomes simpler and people, especially parents, can be more vigilant if they are aware of offenders living around them. However in India, as per the NCRB data for 2016, in 94.6% of reported cases of rape against women and children, the perpetrator is known to the victim. Such a registry offers little protection from such offenders. In fact, the fear of the offender being included in the registry may exacerbate the problem of underreporting by making people apprehensive about reporting sexual violence involving family members and acquaintances.

Once the general public has unfettered access to data about sex offenders online, it can open a Pandora's Box.

The fears of offenders being ostracised and vilified become very real. Among a host of foreseeable problems, they will find it particularly tough to find employment or housing. India has already witnessed cases of lynchings of people suspected to be child kidnappers. It is not paranoid to expect the public reaction to convicted offenders to be much worse. Once offenders are pushed into the margins, their access to treatment, supervision and support systems becomes diminished, which may be quite counterproductive. If the state imposes restrictions on where such offenders can live, the housing crisis they will face will be exacerbated. They may become homeless or be compelled to live in areas far from home where they may face less scrutiny. The stigma and ostracisation that such offenders will face will invariably extend to their families. Studies in the US have shown that a combination of social ostracisation, lack of psychiatric support and the inability to find a job or housing, can even increase chances of recidivism; thus, defeating the very purpose of the registry. In such circumstances, registration in such a database can turn into a 'scarlet letter' like badge of shame that can punish offenders much beyond their sentences and make their rehabilitation and reintegration into society next to impossible.

As per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) data from 2015-2016, we know that 85% of cases of sexual violence against women, which excludes cases of marital rape and assault, go unreported. Such a registry does not begin to address this problem.

Before implementing this registry, the Ministry of Home Affairs must create a research base on recidivism among sex offenders and the risk factors and hold a much broader public debate on the need for the registry. This is not to say that sexual offences are not an urgent problem. In the Indian context, the focus needs to be shifted to tackling barriers to reporting, training law enforcement officials and providing support to survivors rather than this ill-conceived registry.

Q. Which of the following is true as far as the limitations of this registry are concerned?

Solution: Refer to – "The registry records only a tiny proportion …we know that 85% of cases of sexual violence against women…go unreported...address this problem." This clearly makes option (d) the only correct option. Option (1) talks about 'some crime.' The registry deals with a particular type of crime.
QUESTION: 63

Juvenile delinquency is defined as "the habitual committing of criminal acts or offences by a young person, especially one below the age at which ordinary criminal prosecution is possible." These acts are committed mostly by teenagers, cumulative in today's civilization, which is a very concerning matter and cannot be snubbed. The more concerning matter is that generations of youth are believed to be the future of the world. Their behavior shows how tomorrow's future will be.

Juvenile delinquency has become a major problem, and only by addressing the basics can it be tackled. Attention towards co-curricular activities should be given to mould the child in the right and engaging way. The more he is forced to obey rules at school, diktats at home, mores of the society, the more he will escape to criminal acts in order to vent out his frustration. Forcing him will only make him hate it all. Hence, the approach should be to make exercises of discipline, etiquettes, and moral sense interesting. This is where cocurricular activities come into play.

Juvenile offenders have the same set of constitutional guarantees as an adult, such as a fair trial. But very often, adult offenders are able to secure bail faster than a juvenile offender. Merely because the juvenile is not punished, it can in no way take away his/her constitutional guarantees of liberty. The only difference is that, unlike adult offenders, the state must protect, and ultimately rehabilitate, juvenile offenders. But protection cannot become custody. Also, the statute stresses on privacy as a right for the juvenile offender.

But in the garb of privacy, there is very little effort for scrutiny and transparency in the process. The statute focuses on necessary infrastructure with a significant involvement of informal systems, specifically the family, voluntary organizations, and the community, to provide a system separate from the criminal justice system.

For this to become a reality, we must build effective linkages between districts and states, among various government agencies in association with child rights groups, along with effective legal services for the children and their families. Otherwise, juvenile justice will become a poor copy of the criminal justice system, only hardening the children caught in it.

Therefore, the Juvenile Justice law should address the issues relating to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation through processes provided, and institutions and bodies established.

Q. With reference to the above passage, which of the following will be effective in tackling the problems associated with juvenile delinquency?

1. Providing bails easily for the minor offender

2. Giving the minor offender a proper right to privacy

3. Providing services which are parallel to the criminal justice system

4. Making sure that the offender is not unnecessarily imprisoned Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution: The author mentions that the juvenile offender faces difficulty in getting bail. That doesn't mean that every minor offender should be given bail easily. "Services which are parallel to the criminal justice system" goes beyond what the author says. The author says that we need separate system. The right of the minor to privacy is raised as a concern by the author.

So, 2 is correct. 4 is correct because the author says, "But protection cannot become custody."

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 64

Juvenile delinquency is defined as "the habitual committing of criminal acts or offences by a young person, especially one below the age at which ordinary criminal prosecution is possible." These acts are committed mostly by teenagers, cumulative in today's civilization, which is a very concerning matter and cannot be snubbed. The more concerning matter is that generations of youth are believed to be the future of the world. Their behavior shows how tomorrow's future will be.

Juvenile delinquency has become a major problem, and only by addressing the basics can it be tackled. Attention towards co-curricular activities should be given to mould the child in the right and engaging way. The more he is forced to obey rules at school, diktats at home, mores of the society, the more he will escape to criminal acts in order to vent out his frustration. Forcing him will only make him hate it all. Hence, the approach should be to make exercises of discipline, etiquettes, and moral sense interesting. This is where cocurricular activities come into play.

Juvenile offenders have the same set of constitutional guarantees as an adult, such as a fair trial. But very often, adult offenders are able to secure bail faster than a juvenile offender. Merely because the juvenile is not punished, it can in no way take away his/her constitutional guarantees of liberty. The only difference is that, unlike adult offenders, the state must protect, and ultimately rehabilitate, juvenile offenders. But protection cannot become custody. Also, the statute stresses on privacy as a right for the juvenile offender.

But in the garb of privacy, there is very little effort for scrutiny and transparency in the process. The statute focuses on necessary infrastructure with a significant involvement of informal systems, specifically the family, voluntary organizations, and the community, to provide a system separate from the criminal justice system.

For this to become a reality, we must build effective linkages between districts and states, among various government agencies in association with child rights groups, along with effective legal services for the children and their families. Otherwise, juvenile justice will become a poor copy of the criminal justice system, only hardening the children caught in it.

Therefore, the Juvenile Justice law should address the issues relating to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation through processes provided, and institutions and bodies established.

Q. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

Solution: Option c is the correct answer. Option a is incorrect because of the use of the word 'only'. Option b contradicts the author's opinion. Option d speaks about social responsibility, which is not mentioned in the passage.
QUESTION: 65

Juvenile delinquency is defined as "the habitual committing of criminal acts or offences by a young person, especially one below the age at which ordinary criminal prosecution is possible." These acts are committed mostly by teenagers, cumulative in today's civilization, which is a very concerning matter and cannot be snubbed. The more concerning matter is that generations of youth are believed to be the future of the world. Their behavior shows how tomorrow's future will be.

Juvenile delinquency has become a major problem, and only by addressing the basics can it be tackled. Attention towards co-curricular activities should be given to mould the child in the right and engaging way. The more he is forced to obey rules at school, diktats at home, mores of the society, the more he will escape to criminal acts in order to vent out his frustration. Forcing him will only make him hate it all. Hence, the approach should be to make exercises of discipline, etiquettes, and moral sense interesting. This is where cocurricular activities come into play.

Juvenile offenders have the same set of constitutional guarantees as an adult, such as a fair trial. But very often, adult offenders are able to secure bail faster than a juvenile offender. Merely because the juvenile is not punished, it can in no way take away his/her constitutional guarantees of liberty. The only difference is that, unlike adult offenders, the state must protect, and ultimately rehabilitate, juvenile offenders. But protection cannot become custody. Also, the statute stresses on privacy as a right for the juvenile offender.

But in the garb of privacy, there is very little effort for scrutiny and transparency in the process. The statute focuses on necessary infrastructure with a significant involvement of informal systems, specifically the family, voluntary organizations, and the community, to provide a system separate from the criminal justice system.

For this to become a reality, we must build effective linkages between districts and states, among various government agencies in association with child rights groups, along with effective legal services for the children and their families. Otherwise, juvenile justice will become a poor copy of the criminal justice system, only hardening the children caught in it.

Therefore, the Juvenile Justice law should address the issues relating to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation through processes provided, and institutions and bodies established.

Q. Which of the following is a correct inference that can be drawn about the author of the passage?

1. The author is criminal lawyer.

2. The author is in favour of judicial reform.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution: We can't infer anything about the author's profession.

S/he may or may not be a lawyer. So, there is inadequate data. The second one is correct. The author talks about reforming the juvenile delinquency laws. So, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 66

Juvenile delinquency is defined as "the habitual committing of criminal acts or offences by a young person, especially one below the age at which ordinary criminal prosecution is possible." These acts are committed mostly by teenagers, cumulative in today's civilization, which is a very concerning matter and cannot be snubbed. The more concerning matter is that generations of youth are believed to be the future of the world. Their behavior shows how tomorrow's future will be.

Juvenile delinquency has become a major problem, and only by addressing the basics can it be tackled. Attention towards co-curricular activities should be given to mould the child in the right and engaging way. The more he is forced to obey rules at school, diktats at home, mores of the society, the more he will escape to criminal acts in order to vent out his frustration. Forcing him will only make him hate it all. Hence, the approach should be to make exercises of discipline, etiquettes, and moral sense interesting. This is where cocurricular activities come into play.

Juvenile offenders have the same set of constitutional guarantees as an adult, such as a fair trial. But very often, adult offenders are able to secure bail faster than a juvenile offender. Merely because the juvenile is not punished, it can in no way take away his/her constitutional guarantees of liberty. The only difference is that, unlike adult offenders, the state must protect, and ultimately rehabilitate, juvenile offenders. But protection cannot become custody. Also, the statute stresses on privacy as a right for the juvenile offender.

But in the garb of privacy, there is very little effort for scrutiny and transparency in the process. The statute focuses on necessary infrastructure with a significant involvement of informal systems, specifically the family, voluntary organizations, and the community, to provide a system separate from the criminal justice system.

For this to become a reality, we must build effective linkages between districts and states, among various government agencies in association with child rights groups, along with effective legal services for the children and their families. Otherwise, juvenile justice will become a poor copy of the criminal justice system, only hardening the children caught in it.

Therefore, the Juvenile Justice law should address the issues relating to children alleged and found to be in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection by catering to their basic needs through proper care, protection, development, treatment, social re-integration, by adopting a child-friendly approach in the adjudication and disposal of matters in the best interest of children and for their rehabilitation through processes provided, and institutions and bodies established.

Q. By addressing the basics issues the problem of Juvenile delinquency can be tackled…here by basics the author refers to

Solution: By basics the author is referring to all of the above.

In order to mould the child in the right and engaging way, all three are very much necessary.

QUESTION: 67

The Supreme Court has restated the basic principles of granting bail while ordering the conditional release of former Union Minister P. Chidambaram in the INX Media 'money-laundering' case. That these principles required fresh iteration indicates a problem in the way courts have been handling certain applications for bail in recent times.

In a case largely turning on documentary evidence - and one being probed by two agencies concerning the same transactions - it was quite astonishing that the former Minister was incarcerated for over 100 days, even after being subjected to prolonged custodial interrogation. As rightly pointed out by the three-judge Bench, bail remains the norm and its refusal the exception. The denial of bail is directly related to the possibility that a remand prisoner who has been released may not appear before the court to face trial. As securing the presence of a suspect is the primary ground for keeping a person in judicial custody prior to trial, there is no reason to jail someone who is unlikely to abscond.

Another valid reason is the potential for a person to tamper with evidence or influence and threaten witnesses.

Therefore, courts considering bail are required to conduct a triple test to find out if a person is likely to hinder the trial by fleeing from justice, tampering with evidence, or influencing witnesses. The apex court has conceded that sometimes the gravity of the offence may be an additional consideration, but underscored that it cannot be used to deny bail based on allegations yet to be tested in a trial.

It is a matter of concern that larger issues of due process have to be revisited each time a public figure is arrested in the course of investigation, giving rise to a perception of political vendetta. Investigative agencies would be better advised to focus on gathering relevant material and moving for an early trial. The legal system is already in place for expedited trial against political leaders through special courts. There is no necessity to vitiate the process through dramatic arrests and prolonged pre-trial imprisonment.

Q. Under the SC/ST Atrocity Act bail is completely barred. Mohan abused 'X', a person of SC community.

He is arrested under the SC/ST Atrocity Act. Whether Mohan should be granted bail or be jailed?

Solution: Correct Answer is (b) Mohan should not be granted bail because under the Act there is an express bar against the bail.

Hence, his jail is justified and lawful.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. Consequently other options are not valid. 'X' is a victim and his arrest is out of question.

QUESTION: 68

The Supreme Court has restated the basic principles of granting bail while ordering the conditional release of former Union Minister P. Chidambaram in the INX Media 'money-laundering' case. That these principles required fresh iteration indicates a problem in the way courts have been handling certain applications for bail in recent times.

In a case largely turning on documentary evidence - and one being probed by two agencies concerning the same transactions - it was quite astonishing that the former Minister was incarcerated for over 100 days, even after being subjected to prolonged custodial interrogation. As rightly pointed out by the three-judge Bench, bail remains the norm and its refusal the exception. The denial of bail is directly related to the possibility that a remand prisoner who has been released may not appear before the court to face trial. As securing the presence of a suspect is the primary ground for keeping a person in judicial custody prior to trial, there is no reason to jail someone who is unlikely to abscond.

Another valid reason is the potential for a person to tamper with evidence or influence and threaten witnesses.

Therefore, courts considering bail are required to conduct a triple test to find out if a person is likely to hinder the trial by fleeing from justice, tampering with evidence, or influencing witnesses. The apex court has conceded that sometimes the gravity of the offence may be an additional consideration, but underscored that it cannot be used to deny bail based on allegations yet to be tested in a trial.

It is a matter of concern that larger issues of due process have to be revisited each time a public figure is arrested in the course of investigation, giving rise to a perception of political vendetta. Investigative agencies would be better advised to focus on gathering relevant material and moving for an early trial. The legal system is already in place for expedited trial against political leaders through special courts. There is no necessity to vitiate the process through dramatic arrests and prolonged pre-trial imprisonment.

Q. Supreme Court ruled that that in case of arrest of a public servant prior sanction of appointing public authority is to be obtained. Mr. Rakesh, a government officer appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, abuses a person of ST community. A case under the SC/ST Atrocities Act is registered against him.

Decide the correct course of action in this case as per the judgment.

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

Mr. Rakesh cannot be arrested until sanction from the Ministry of Home Affairs is obtained. It was ruled in this case that in case of arrest of a public servant prior sanction of appointing public authority is to obtained. Hence, option (c) is the best option.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. Options (a), (b) and (d) are therefore incorrect.

QUESTION: 69

The Supreme Court has restated the basic principles of granting bail while ordering the conditional release of former Union Minister P. Chidambaram in the INX Media 'money-laundering' case. That these principles required fresh iteration indicates a problem in the way courts have been handling certain applications for bail in recent times.

In a case largely turning on documentary evidence - and one being probed by two agencies concerning the same transactions - it was quite astonishing that the former Minister was incarcerated for over 100 days, even after being subjected to prolonged custodial interrogation. As rightly pointed out by the three-judge Bench, bail remains the norm and its refusal the exception. The denial of bail is directly related to the possibility that a remand prisoner who has been released may not appear before the court to face trial. As securing the presence of a suspect is the primary ground for keeping a person in judicial custody prior to trial, there is no reason to jail someone who is unlikely to abscond.

Another valid reason is the potential for a person to tamper with evidence or influence and threaten witnesses.

Therefore, courts considering bail are required to conduct a triple test to find out if a person is likely to hinder the trial by fleeing from justice, tampering with evidence, or influencing witnesses. The apex court has conceded that sometimes the gravity of the offence may be an additional consideration, but underscored that it cannot be used to deny bail based on allegations yet to be tested in a trial.

It is a matter of concern that larger issues of due process have to be revisited each time a public figure is arrested in the course of investigation, giving rise to a perception of political vendetta. Investigative agencies would be better advised to focus on gathering relevant material and moving for an early trial. The legal system is already in place for expedited trial against political leaders through special courts. There is no necessity to vitiate the process through dramatic arrests and prolonged pre-trial imprisonment.

Q. Contract to bail is frustrated when Contractor is in a dominant position with respect to contractee.

John Snow ends in jail one day. He calls his girlfriend Daenerys to bail him out. She agrees on the condition that John signs a contract agreeing to buy her a particular estate worth Rs. 10 lakh. John signs the contract as he wants to get out of jail and keep the affection of his girlfriend. Decide the validity of contract of bail.

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Daenerys was in such a relation with John so as to dominate his will.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 70

The Supreme Court has restated the basic principles of granting bail while ordering the conditional release of former Union Minister P. Chidambaram in the INX Media 'money-laundering' case. That these principles required fresh iteration indicates a problem in the way courts have been handling certain applications for bail in recent times.

In a case largely turning on documentary evidence - and one being probed by two agencies concerning the same transactions - it was quite astonishing that the former Minister was incarcerated for over 100 days, even after being subjected to prolonged custodial interrogation. As rightly pointed out by the three-judge Bench, bail remains the norm and its refusal the exception. The denial of bail is directly related to the possibility that a remand prisoner who has been released may not appear before the court to face trial. As securing the presence of a suspect is the primary ground for keeping a person in judicial custody prior to trial, there is no reason to jail someone who is unlikely to abscond.

Another valid reason is the potential for a person to tamper with evidence or influence and threaten witnesses.

Therefore, courts considering bail are required to conduct a triple test to find out if a person is likely to hinder the trial by fleeing from justice, tampering with evidence, or influencing witnesses. The apex court has conceded that sometimes the gravity of the offence may be an additional consideration, but underscored that it cannot be used to deny bail based on allegations yet to be tested in a trial.

It is a matter of concern that larger issues of due process have to be revisited each time a public figure is arrested in the course of investigation, giving rise to a perception of political vendetta. Investigative agencies would be better advised to focus on gathering relevant material and moving for an early trial. The legal system is already in place for expedited trial against political leaders through special courts. There is no necessity to vitiate the process through dramatic arrests and prolonged pre-trial imprisonment.

Q. Under the Triple Talak Law, accused should be jailed and bail is the last resort. Fiza married Abdul.

Abdul wanted to marry Soha who placed a condition that Abdul should first divorce Fiza. Abdul gave instant triple talaq to Fiza. Abdul is arrested immediately.

Decide whether Abdul is entitled to get the bail?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d) Abdul should not be granted bail because under the Act there is an express bar against the bail as a first resort. Bail is the last resort. Hence, his jail is justified and lawful.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is external information therefore incorrect.

  • Option (b) is also incorrect as it is not one of the grounds mentioned.

  • Option (c) based on the passage not a valid legal ground.

QUESTION: 71

The Supreme Court has restated the basic principles of granting bail while ordering the conditional release of former Union Minister P. Chidambaram in the INX Media 'money-laundering' case. That these principles required fresh iteration indicates a problem in the way courts have been handling certain applications for bail in recent times.

In a case largely turning on documentary evidence - and one being probed by two agencies concerning the same transactions - it was quite astonishing that the former Minister was incarcerated for over 100 days, even after being subjected to prolonged custodial interrogation. As rightly pointed out by the three-judge Bench, bail remains the norm and its refusal the exception. The denial of bail is directly related to the possibility that a remand prisoner who has been released may not appear before the court to face trial. As securing the presence of a suspect is the primary ground for keeping a person in judicial custody prior to trial, there is no reason to jail someone who is unlikely to abscond.

Another valid reason is the potential for a person to tamper with evidence or influence and threaten witnesses.

Therefore, courts considering bail are required to conduct a triple test to find out if a person is likely to hinder the trial by fleeing from justice, tampering with evidence, or influencing witnesses. The apex court has conceded that sometimes the gravity of the offence may be an additional consideration, but underscored that it cannot be used to deny bail based on allegations yet to be tested in a trial.

It is a matter of concern that larger issues of due process have to be revisited each time a public figure is arrested in the course of investigation, giving rise to a perception of political vendetta. Investigative agencies would be better advised to focus on gathering relevant material and moving for an early trial. The legal system is already in place for expedited trial against political leaders through special courts. There is no necessity to vitiate the process through dramatic arrests and prolonged pre-trial imprisonment.

Q. Foreign Exchange Laws require that possession of gold above 5 tolas and possession of silver above 1 mound is to be informed to the Central Bank failing which offender is to be jailed. Popat Lal, one of the partners of a firm of jewelers. On search it was found that he has been carrying 103 Tolas of gold and over 2 mounds of silver. He was kept in police lockup.

Decide whether Popat Lal's arrest is lawful?

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

Popat Lal's arrest is lawful as he failed to inform the Central Bank when he was possessing the commodities beyond the requisite amount. Law says Foreign Exchange Laws require that possession of gold above 5 tolas and possession of silver above 1 mound is to be informed to the Central Bank failing which offender is to be jailed.

Therefore, option c is the appropriate option.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. Options (a), (b) and (d) are therefore incorrect.

QUESTION: 72

The Supreme Court has restated the basic principles of granting bail while ordering the conditional release of former Union Minister P. Chidambaram in the INX Media 'money-laundering' case. That these principles required fresh iteration indicates a problem in the way courts have been handling certain applications for bail in recent times.

In a case largely turning on documentary evidence - and one being probed by two agencies concerning the same transactions - it was quite astonishing that the former Minister was incarcerated for over 100 days, even after being subjected to prolonged custodial interrogation. As rightly pointed out by the three-judge Bench, bail remains the norm and its refusal the exception. The denial of bail is directly related to the possibility that a remand prisoner who has been released may not appear before the court to face trial. As securing the presence of a suspect is the primary ground for keeping a person in judicial custody prior to trial, there is no reason to jail someone who is unlikely to abscond.

Another valid reason is the potential for a person to tamper with evidence or influence and threaten witnesses.

Therefore, courts considering bail are required to conduct a triple test to find out if a person is likely to hinder the trial by fleeing from justice, tampering with evidence, or influencing witnesses. The apex court has conceded that sometimes the gravity of the offence may be an additional consideration, but underscored that it cannot be used to deny bail based on allegations yet to be tested in a trial.

It is a matter of concern that larger issues of due process have to be revisited each time a public figure is arrested in the course of investigation, giving rise to a perception of political vendetta. Investigative agencies would be better advised to focus on gathering relevant material and moving for an early trial. The legal system is already in place for expedited trial against political leaders through special courts. There is no necessity to vitiate the process through dramatic arrests and prolonged pre-trial imprisonment.

Q. Based on the author's arguments in the passage above, which of the following statements can be considered in support of the bail?

(1) Stringent application of law.

(2) Giving bail to the accused who are unlikely to abscond.

(3) Person not showing propensity in fleeing from justice.

(4) Individuals tampering with evidence.

(5) Jail to offender who can influence the witnesses.

(6) Make Bail a rule and Jail an exception.

(7) Making Jail a rule and Bail an exception.

Choose the appropriate statements from the following:

Solution: Correct Answer is (a)

Option 1, 2, 3 and 6 are the only options which are in support to make jail an exception and bail as a rule. Option 4, 5 and 7 will run counter to the cause.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other statements set out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 73

It is a fact that air and noise pollution in Delhi and NCR is increasing day-by-day. The measures for abatement of pollution are taken under the provisions of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rules made thereunder. Noise pollution is regulated under Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The legal framework provided by above rules is adequate to deal with the problem of pollution and allows for revision of norms related to noise, emission or effluent to bring about a stricter regime.

Government has taken several other steps to address the issue of pollution which inter alia, include notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards; setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality; introduction of cleaner / alternate fuels like gaseous fuel (CNG, LPG etc.), ethanol blending, launching of National Air Quality index; universalization of BS-IV by 2017; leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI fuel standards by 1st April, 2020; notification of Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules; banning of burning of biomass; promotion of public transport network; Pollution Under Control Certificate; issuance of directions under Section 18(1)(b) of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprising of action points to counter air pollution in major cities include control and mitigation measures related to vehicular emissions, re-suspension of road dust and other fugitive emissions, bio-mass/ municipal solid waste burning, industrial pollution, construction and demolition activities, and other general steps; installation of on-line continuous (24x7) monitoring devices by major industries; collection of Environmental Protection Charge on more than 2000 CC diesel vehicles; ban on bursting of sound emitting crackers between 10 PM to 6 AM; wide publicity on the ill effects of firecrackers and awareness programme among students and public at large to avoid bursting of fire-crackers; advisories for noise monitoring on the occasion of Deepawali; notification of graded response action plan for Delhi and NCR etc.

Q. Every person is entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion. Activities that are not an essential part of religion can be reasonably restricted. In a recent study conducted by the Ministry of Health, it was found that air pollution level rises by 450% on the day immediately after Diwali causing increased risk of lung cancer and respiratory disorders. Government of Delhi decided to issue a ban on use of crackers on Diwali eve after 8 pm to cut down pollution level.

An NGO named United India challenged this ban as violation of fundamental right to freely practice religion.

Decide.

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

The practise of bursting crackers after 8 pm is not an essential part of the festival. Ban on crackers after 8 pm was meant to regulate a practice, which is not essential for the religion and hence is justified.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 74

It is a fact that air and noise pollution in Delhi and NCR is increasing day-by-day. The measures for abatement of pollution are taken under the provisions of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rules made thereunder. Noise pollution is regulated under Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The legal framework provided by above rules is adequate to deal with the problem of pollution and allows for revision of norms related to noise, emission or effluent to bring about a stricter regime.

Government has taken several other steps to address the issue of pollution which inter alia, include notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards; setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality; introduction of cleaner / alternate fuels like gaseous fuel (CNG, LPG etc.), ethanol blending, launching of National Air Quality index; universalization of BS-IV by 2017; leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI fuel standards by 1st April, 2020; notification of Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules; banning of burning of biomass; promotion of public transport network; Pollution Under Control Certificate; issuance of directions under Section 18(1)(b) of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprising of action points to counter air pollution in major cities include control and mitigation measures related to vehicular emissions, re-suspension of road dust and other fugitive emissions, bio-mass/ municipal solid waste burning, industrial pollution, construction and demolition activities, and other general steps; installation of on-line continuous (24x7) monitoring devices by major industries; collection of Environmental Protection Charge on more than 2000 CC diesel vehicles; ban on bursting of sound emitting crackers between 10 PM to 6 AM; wide publicity on the ill effects of firecrackers and awareness programme among students and public at large to avoid bursting of fire-crackers; advisories for noise monitoring on the occasion of Deepawali; notification of graded response action plan for Delhi and NCR etc.

Q. No person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty, except in accordance with procedure established by law. Procedure established by law includes only such statutes and law which may be enacted by the state only. Right to life includes the right to a wholesome environment. The Health Ministry decided to impose a ban on smoking in public places, especially since it was reported that a large number of youngsters were taking up this habit. The Free Living Association protested against the move of the Government on the ground that this was an infringement on the right to life and personal liberty of individuals. Can their challenge be accepted?

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Health ministry is justified in imposing such a ban because the habit of smoking affects passive smokers.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 75

It is a fact that air and noise pollution in Delhi and NCR is increasing day-by-day. The measures for abatement of pollution are taken under the provisions of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rules made thereunder. Noise pollution is regulated under Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The legal framework provided by above rules is adequate to deal with the problem of pollution and allows for revision of norms related to noise, emission or effluent to bring about a stricter regime.

Government has taken several other steps to address the issue of pollution which inter alia, include notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards; setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality; introduction of cleaner / alternate fuels like gaseous fuel (CNG, LPG etc.), ethanol blending, launching of National Air Quality index; universalization of BS-IV by 2017; leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI fuel standards by 1st April, 2020; notification of Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules; banning of burning of biomass; promotion of public transport network; Pollution Under Control Certificate; issuance of directions under Section 18(1)(b) of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprising of action points to counter air pollution in major cities include control and mitigation measures related to vehicular emissions, re-suspension of road dust and other fugitive emissions, bio-mass/ municipal solid waste burning, industrial pollution, construction and demolition activities, and other general steps; installation of on-line continuous (24x7) monitoring devices by major industries; collection of Environmental Protection Charge on more than 2000 CC diesel vehicles; ban on bursting of sound emitting crackers between 10 PM to 6 AM; wide publicity on the ill effects of firecrackers and awareness programme among students and public at large to avoid bursting of fire-crackers; advisories for noise monitoring on the occasion of Deepawali; notification of graded response action plan for Delhi and NCR etc.

Q. Whoever causes an unreasonable interference with someone's use or enjoyment of land thereby causing damage is said to have committed the tort of nuisance. Mr. Raman owns a building where he rents out rooms to tenants. Mr. Raman's building lies adjacent to a cotton mill. The noise and smoke emanating from the mill is proving problematic for Mr. Raman as his tenants keep steadily vacating the apartments in the building. It is also becoming increasingly difficult for him to find new tenants who are willing to reside next to such a noisy cotton mill.

Aggrieved by his dwindling profits, Mr. Raman has filed a case against the mill owners for nuisance.

Decide.

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Mr. Raman will succeed with his claim because it is largely affecting the use of his property as people are not coming to stay in the premises anymore.

Moreover, the noise and the smoke coming from the mill is also a major harm being caused to the people there.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 76

It is a fact that air and noise pollution in Delhi and NCR is increasing day-by-day. The measures for abatement of pollution are taken under the provisions of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rules made thereunder. Noise pollution is regulated under Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The legal framework provided by above rules is adequate to deal with the problem of pollution and allows for revision of norms related to noise, emission or effluent to bring about a stricter regime.

Government has taken several other steps to address the issue of pollution which inter alia, include notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards; setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality; introduction of cleaner / alternate fuels like gaseous fuel (CNG, LPG etc.), ethanol blending, launching of National Air Quality index; universalization of BS-IV by 2017; leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI fuel standards by 1st April, 2020; notification of Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules; banning of burning of biomass; promotion of public transport network; Pollution Under Control Certificate; issuance of directions under Section 18(1)(b) of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprising of action points to counter air pollution in major cities include control and mitigation measures related to vehicular emissions, re-suspension of road dust and other fugitive emissions, bio-mass/ municipal solid waste burning, industrial pollution, construction and demolition activities, and other general steps; installation of on-line continuous (24x7) monitoring devices by major industries; collection of Environmental Protection Charge on more than 2000 CC diesel vehicles; ban on bursting of sound emitting crackers between 10 PM to 6 AM; wide publicity on the ill effects of firecrackers and awareness programme among students and public at large to avoid bursting of fire-crackers; advisories for noise monitoring on the occasion of Deepawali; notification of graded response action plan for Delhi and NCR etc.

Q. Astronauts hav e left behind spanners, cameras and plastic bags full of excrement in space. Russian nuclear- powered spy craft, 'parked' at high orbits, has begun to leak irradiated fuel. The cost for armour plating the International Space Station, against manmade garbage which is traveling faster than any bullet, has added at least five billion dollars to its bill. Not content with contaminating the Earth, the military-industrial combine now seems to be hellbent on polluting the space too, with the result that we may ultimately create a Jupiter-like artificial ring, made of trash, around our planet. Each of the following, if true, weakens the inference presented above EXCEPT:

Solution: Correct Answer is (a)

Sterilization does not prevent the spacecraft from disposing trash irresponsibly.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 77

It is a fact that air and noise pollution in Delhi and NCR is increasing day-by-day. The measures for abatement of pollution are taken under the provisions of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rules made thereunder. Noise pollution is regulated under Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The legal framework provided by above rules is adequate to deal with the problem of pollution and allows for revision of norms related to noise, emission or effluent to bring about a stricter regime.

Government has taken several other steps to address the issue of pollution which inter alia, include notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards; setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality; introduction of cleaner / alternate fuels like gaseous fuel (CNG, LPG etc.), ethanol blending, launching of National Air Quality index; universalization of BS-IV by 2017; leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI fuel standards by 1st April, 2020; notification of Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules; banning of burning of biomass; promotion of public transport network; Pollution Under Control Certificate; issuance of directions under Section 18(1)(b) of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprising of action points to counter air pollution in major cities include control and mitigation measures related to vehicular emissions, re-suspension of road dust and other fugitive emissions, bio-mass/ municipal solid waste burning, industrial pollution, construction and demolition activities, and other general steps; installation of on-line continuous (24x7) monitoring devices by major industries; collection of Environmental Protection Charge on more than 2000 CC diesel vehicles; ban on bursting of sound emitting crackers between 10 PM to 6 AM; wide publicity on the ill effects of firecrackers and awareness programme among students and public at large to avoid bursting of fire-crackers; advisories for noise monitoring on the occasion of Deepawali; notification of graded response action plan for Delhi and NCR etc.

Q. No person of any age shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Right to life includes right to clean environment. Delhi is world's highest polluted city.

Delhi government's new fleet of diesel buses exacerbated the situation. Prachi, aged 16 years, an aspirant appearing for CLAT filed a writ petition against Delhi government for violation of her fundamental right to life. Decide.

Solution: Correct Answer is (a)

Prachi will succeed.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 78

It is a fact that air and noise pollution in Delhi and NCR is increasing day-by-day. The measures for abatement of pollution are taken under the provisions of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rules made thereunder. Noise pollution is regulated under Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The legal framework provided by above rules is adequate to deal with the problem of pollution and allows for revision of norms related to noise, emission or effluent to bring about a stricter regime.

Government has taken several other steps to address the issue of pollution which inter alia, include notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards; setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality; introduction of cleaner / alternate fuels like gaseous fuel (CNG, LPG etc.), ethanol blending, launching of National Air Quality index; universalization of BS-IV by 2017; leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI fuel standards by 1st April, 2020; notification of Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules; banning of burning of biomass; promotion of public transport network; Pollution Under Control Certificate; issuance of directions under Section 18(1)(b) of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprising of action points to counter air pollution in major cities include control and mitigation measures related to vehicular emissions, re-suspension of road dust and other fugitive emissions, bio-mass/ municipal solid waste burning, industrial pollution, construction and demolition activities, and other general steps; installation of on-line continuous (24x7) monitoring devices by major industries; collection of Environmental Protection Charge on more than 2000 CC diesel vehicles; ban on bursting of sound emitting crackers between 10 PM to 6 AM; wide publicity on the ill effects of firecrackers and awareness programme among students and public at large to avoid bursting of fire-crackers; advisories for noise monitoring on the occasion of Deepawali; notification of graded response action plan for Delhi and NCR etc.

Q. The right to life and liberty includes the right to a clean and free environment. The 'polluter pays principle' states that whoever is responsible for damage to the environment should bear the costs associated with it. Carbonator was a multi-national corporation that had set up one of its factories in Surat. They released voluminous effluents into the river that flowed near the factory without employing any methods to filter them. P.C.Gupta was a conscientious citizen who filed a PIL against them asking them to employ some filtration methods so that the river would not be polluted to such a great extent. The corporation opted instead for the 'polluter pays' way of compensation. The petitioner challenged their option in Court asking for a motion to compel the corporation to adopt the filtration method instead.

Can he do so?

Solution: Correct Answer is (a)

The 'polluter pays' principle does not in fact improve the situation as it only acts as damages for the damage already done. The individuals affected will receive compensation, but the ideal for a clean and free environment cannot be compromised. Thus, Gupta can challenge their option to follow the 'polluter pays' principle and move the court for a remedial, reformative order instead.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 79

It is a fact that air and noise pollution in Delhi and NCR is increasing day-by-day. The measures for abatement of pollution are taken under the provisions of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rules made thereunder. Noise pollution is regulated under Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The legal framework provided by above rules is adequate to deal with the problem of pollution and allows for revision of norms related to noise, emission or effluent to bring about a stricter regime.

Government has taken several other steps to address the issue of pollution which inter alia, include notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards; setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality; introduction of cleaner / alternate fuels like gaseous fuel (CNG, LPG etc.), ethanol blending, launching of National Air Quality index; universalization of BS-IV by 2017; leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI fuel standards by 1st April, 2020; notification of Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules; banning of burning of biomass; promotion of public transport network; Pollution Under Control Certificate; issuance of directions under Section 18(1)(b) of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprising of action points to counter air pollution in major cities include control and mitigation measures related to vehicular emissions, re-suspension of road dust and other fugitive emissions, bio-mass/ municipal solid waste burning, industrial pollution, construction and demolition activities, and other general steps; installation of on-line continuous (24x7) monitoring devices by major industries; collection of Environmental Protection Charge on more than 2000 CC diesel vehicles; ban on bursting of sound emitting crackers between 10 PM to 6 AM; wide publicity on the ill effects of firecrackers and awareness programme among students and public at large to avoid bursting of fire-crackers; advisories for noise monitoring on the occasion of Deepawali; notification of graded response action plan for Delhi and NCR etc.

Q. Every citizen of India has a fundamental right to carry on any trade or business or profession of his choice subject to the imposition of reasonable restrictions by the State. The government of Rajasthan concerned with the high rise of pollution in the city of Jaipur banned all those four wheeler vehicles in the city that do not conform to pollution norms laid down by the Ministry of Environment. Rathore Motor Corp., a distributor of four wheeler cars in Jaipur, challenged this ban as violative of its fundamental right to trade and profession. Is the state action valid? Decide.

Solution: The restriction by the state is valid and not ultra vires because fundamental right is not absolute in nature and is subject to reasonable restrictions.

State can reasonably restrict the fundamental rights.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 80

It is a fact that air and noise pollution in Delhi and NCR is increasing day-by-day. The measures for abatement of pollution are taken under the provisions of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rules made thereunder. Noise pollution is regulated under Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The legal framework provided by above rules is adequate to deal with the problem of pollution and allows for revision of norms related to noise, emission or effluent to bring about a stricter regime.

Government has taken several other steps to address the issue of pollution which inter alia, include notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards; setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality; introduction of cleaner / alternate fuels like gaseous fuel (CNG, LPG etc.), ethanol blending, launching of National Air Quality index; universalization of BS-IV by 2017; leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI fuel standards by 1st April, 2020; notification of Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules; banning of burning of biomass; promotion of public transport network; Pollution Under Control Certificate; issuance of directions under Section 18(1)(b) of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 comprising of action points to counter air pollution in major cities include control and mitigation measures related to vehicular emissions, re-suspension of road dust and other fugitive emissions, bio-mass/ municipal solid waste burning, industrial pollution, construction and demolition activities, and other general steps; installation of on-line continuous (24x7) monitoring devices by major industries; collection of Environmental Protection Charge on more than 2000 CC diesel vehicles; ban on bursting of sound emitting crackers between 10 PM to 6 AM; wide publicity on the ill effects of firecrackers and awareness programme among students and public at large to avoid bursting of fire-crackers; advisories for noise monitoring on the occasion of Deepawali; notification of graded response action plan for Delhi and NCR etc.

Q. Greenhouse gas emissions are considered a form of pollution because they cause potential harm and damage through impacts on the climate. However, in this case, because society has been slow to recognise the link between greenhouse gases and climate change, and because the atmosphere is considered by some to be a 'global commons' (that everyone shares and has a right to use), emitters are generally not held responsible for controlling this form of pollution. Which of the following statements best summarises the inference above?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Out of options (c) and (d), option (d) is correct because the paragraph does not mention that this belief is 'widely held.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. Option (a) is incorrect as it states that 'the link between greenhouse gases and climate change has not been proven. The paragraph does not support this. Option (b) is incomplete.

QUESTION: 81

Parliament has made into law the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019, which had been framed for the welfare of transgender persons. The community had organised protests across the country, urging changes to the Bill, claiming that in the form in which the Central government had conceived it, it showed a poor understanding of gender and sexual identity.

Activists had problems right from the beginning, starting with the name. 'Transgender' was restrictive, they argued, and it showed a lack of understanding of the complexities in people who do not conform to the gender binary, male/ female. Charging that the Bill had serious flaws, because of this basic lack of comprehension about gender, some activists also wrote an alternative wish Bill, outlining their demands.

Activists chastised the Union government for failing to live up to the opportunity to ensure that fundamental rights are guaranteed to all people regardless of their sex characteristics or gender identity. Rejecting 'Transgender' as the nomenclature, they suggested instead that the title should be a comprehensive "Gender Identity, Gender Expression and Sex Characteristics (Protection of Rights) Bill", and in definition, sought to introduce the distinction between transgenders and intersex persons upfront. Members of the community perceive transgender as different from intersex, and were insistent that the distinction be made in the Bill.

While the community is miffed that the Bill has become an Act without any effort to make valid or relevant changes to its original composition, it worries about how implementation will address the pressing needs of the community. It only hopes that the National Council for Transgender Persons will allow for a more favourable implementation of the law, and thus provide more elbow room for genuine representations of the community that the Bill itself failed to accommodate.

Q. An Act is passed in the parliament amending the existing Transgender Act. The Amendment Act has the objective to confer the right to recognition as a person before the law. Act says Persons of diverse sexual orientations and gender identities shall enjoy legal capacity in all aspects of life. Right to each person to self-define sexual orientation and gender identity. In such a case, based on the author's reasoning, will the Amending Act allay the fear of the Activist and the transgender community:

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

The Amendment Act would allay the fear. The bill seeks to remedy the discriminatory provisions.

Amendment Act seeks to insert provisions related to sexual orientation, identity, recognition as a person and conferring legal capacity. Thus the act will address the concern mentioned in the last line of the First paragraph which says "it showed a poor understanding of gender and sexual identity."

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (b) - It is directly contradictory to the substance of the Amending Act.

  • Choice (a) - It is too generic to pick. Better version of Choice (a) can been found in Choice (c)

  • Choice (d) - There is nothing in the passage to support the option.

QUESTION: 82

Parliament has made into law the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019, which had been framed for the welfare of transgender persons. The community had organised protests across the country, urging changes to the Bill, claiming that in the form in which the Central government had conceived it, it showed a poor understanding of gender and sexual identity.

Activists had problems right from the beginning, starting with the name. 'Transgender' was restrictive, they argued, and it showed a lack of understanding of the complexities in people who do not conform to the gender binary, male/ female. Charging that the Bill had serious flaws, because of this basic lack of comprehension about gender, some activists also wrote an alternative wish Bill, outlining their demands.

Activists chastised the Union government for failing to live up to the opportunity to ensure that fundamental rights are guaranteed to all people regardless of their sex characteristics or gender identity. Rejecting 'Transgender' as the nomenclature, they suggested instead that the title should be a comprehensive "Gender Identity, Gender Expression and Sex Characteristics (Protection of Rights) Bill", and in definition, sought to introduce the distinction between transgenders and intersex persons upfront. Members of the community perceive transgender as different from intersex, and were insistent that the distinction be made in the Bill.

While the community is miffed that the Bill has become an Act without any effort to make valid or relevant changes to its original composition, it worries about how implementation will address the pressing needs of the community. It only hopes that the National Council for Transgender Persons will allow for a more favourable implementation of the law, and thus provide more elbow room for genuine representations of the community that the Bill itself failed to accommodate.

Q. Royappa got married to Srija. When the parties submitted a memorandum for registration of marriage, Registrar refused to register the same.

Registrar had the opinion that a "Bride" can only refer to a "Woman". In the case on hand, Srija is a transgender and not a woman. Questioning the said decision, Srija filed a writ petition in the High Court.

Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above, what kind of interpretation should the High Court give:

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

Only choice is option (c) which is in the interest of transgender and provide immediate relief to the community. By giving the beneficial interpretation, a marriage solemnized between a male and a transwoman will be considered a valid marriage and the Registrar of Marriages is bound to register the same.

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) - It is directly contradictory to the substance of the author's argument and the interest of the community.

  • Choice (b) - This is a matter which needs court's intervention. Sending back the case back to registrar will not be appropriate and consistent with the essence of the passage.

  • Choice (d) - It can be a possible answer however question is asking about giving interpretation therefor any suggestion to delay and referring the case will run counter to the interest of the community.

QUESTION: 83

Parliament has made into law the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019, which had been framed for the welfare of transgender persons. The community had organised protests across the country, urging changes to the Bill, claiming that in the form in which the Central government had conceived it, it showed a poor understanding of gender and sexual identity.

Activists had problems right from the beginning, starting with the name. 'Transgender' was restrictive, they argued, and it showed a lack of understanding of the complexities in people who do not conform to the gender binary, male/ female. Charging that the Bill had serious flaws, because of this basic lack of comprehension about gender, some activists also wrote an alternative wish Bill, outlining their demands.

Activists chastised the Union government for failing to live up to the opportunity to ensure that fundamental rights are guaranteed to all people regardless of their sex characteristics or gender identity. Rejecting 'Transgender' as the nomenclature, they suggested instead that the title should be a comprehensive "Gender Identity, Gender Expression and Sex Characteristics (Protection of Rights) Bill", and in definition, sought to introduce the distinction between transgenders and intersex persons upfront. Members of the community perceive transgender as different from intersex, and were insistent that the distinction be made in the Bill.

While the community is miffed that the Bill has become an Act without any effort to make valid or relevant changes to its original composition, it worries about how implementation will address the pressing needs of the community. It only hopes that the National Council for Transgender Persons will allow for a more favourable implementation of the law, and thus provide more elbow room for genuine representations of the community that the Bill itself failed to accommodate.

Q. Recently, there is a boom of Sex reassignm ent surgery (SRS). Intersex and transgender people are subjected to SRS during their infancy and childhood, to alter their bodies, particularly the sexual organs, to make them conform to gendered physical norms, including through repeated surgeries, hormonal interventions and other measures. Based on the author's reasoning should the consent of the Parents to conduct SRS over their children be considered as the consent of the child:

They always take decisions in the best interest of the children.

Solution: Correct Answer is (c)

Option (c) upholds the given essence of the passage to protect the interest of transgender by checking the consent of the parent does not operate in detriment of the infants having intersex/transgender features.

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) - Majority age principle cannot be deduced from the passage and it is inconsistent with the author's reasoning.

  • Choice (b) - Children can express with clarity, certainty and objectivity. However the choice (b) is totally irrelevant considering the passage.

  • Choice (d) - An extreme choice to choose which is contradictory to the essence of the passage.

QUESTION: 84

Parliament has made into law the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019, which had been framed for the welfare of transgender persons. The community had organised protests across the country, urging changes to the Bill, claiming that in the form in which the Central government had conceived it, it showed a poor understanding of gender and sexual identity.

Activists had problems right from the beginning, starting with the name. 'Transgender' was restrictive, they argued, and it showed a lack of understanding of the complexities in people who do not conform to the gender binary, male/ female. Charging that the Bill had serious flaws, because of this basic lack of comprehension about gender, some activists also wrote an alternative wish Bill, outlining their demands.

Activists chastised the Union government for failing to live up to the opportunity to ensure that fundamental rights are guaranteed to all people regardless of their sex characteristics or gender identity. Rejecting 'Transgender' as the nomenclature, they suggested instead that the title should be a comprehensive "Gender Identity, Gender Expression and Sex Characteristics (Protection of Rights) Bill", and in definition, sought to introduce the distinction between transgenders and intersex persons upfront. Members of the community perceive transgender as different from intersex, and were insistent that the distinction be made in the Bill.

While the community is miffed that the Bill has become an Act without any effort to make valid or relevant changes to its original composition, it worries about how implementation will address the pressing needs of the community. It only hopes that the National Council for Transgender Persons will allow for a more favourable implementation of the law, and thus provide more elbow room for genuine representations of the community that the Bill itself failed to accommodate.

Q. Based on the author's arguments in the passage above, which of the following would be most correct?

Solution: Correct Answer is (a)

The author, in the entire passage is seeking to change the contours of the law. Only option (a) aligns with the author's reasoning to improve the understanding around the gender identity and orientation.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (b) - Passage is completely silent about the defeat of the bill.

  • Choice (c) - There is nothing in the passage to support the withdrawal of the Act

  • Choice (d) - Challenging the constitutionality of the Act cannot be inferred from the passage.

QUESTION: 85

Parliament has made into law the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019, which had been framed for the welfare of transgender persons. The community had organised protests across the country, urging changes to the Bill, claiming that in the form in which the Central government had conceived it, it showed a poor understanding of gender and sexual identity.

Activists had problems right from the beginning, starting with the name. 'Transgender' was restrictive, they argued, and it showed a lack of understanding of the complexities in people who do not conform to the gender binary, male/ female. Charging that the Bill had serious flaws, because of this basic lack of comprehension about gender, some activists also wrote an alternative wish Bill, outlining their demands.

Activists chastised the Union government for failing to live up to the opportunity to ensure that fundamental rights are guaranteed to all people regardless of their sex characteristics or gender identity. Rejecting 'Transgender' as the nomenclature, they suggested instead that the title should be a comprehensive "Gender Identity, Gender Expression and Sex Characteristics (Protection of Rights) Bill", and in definition, sought to introduce the distinction between transgenders and intersex persons upfront. Members of the community perceive transgender as different from intersex, and were insistent that the distinction be made in the Bill.

While the community is miffed that the Bill has become an Act without any effort to make valid or relevant changes to its original composition, it worries about how implementation will address the pressing needs of the community. It only hopes that the National Council for Transgender Persons will allow for a more favourable implementation of the law, and thus provide more elbow room for genuine representations of the community that the Bill itself failed to accommodate.

Q. A legal principle says that Penal laws should be provided a strict interpretation. Bala, a trangender, while returning from office encountered some goons.

Goons subjected her to sexual assault, including molestation and rape. Bala immediately reports the said incident to a nearest Police Station. Officer Incharge of the station refused to register the information as the crime of rape can only be committed against a woman. Bala files the writ.

Based upon the principle of strict interpretation and author's argument which of the following represents the best recourse:

Simultaneously, rape laws must be made inclusive.

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Option (b) upholds the given strict interpretation principle as well as protects the interest of transgender by making law inclusive.

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) - Officer has upheld the strict interpretation of principle. Therefore the suspension is an extreme step to adopt.

  • Choice (c) - Training or anything cannot be inferred from the passage.

  • Choice (d) - An extreme choice to choose which is contradictory to the essence of the passage.

QUESTION: 86

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can but few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limit to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical inference to the above passage?

Solution: Option (a) is the correct choice. Option (b) is incorrect as there is no implication that all governmental actions require absolute transparency in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect because of the phrase 'this is not possible' as there may be other ways to achieve the same. Option (d) incorrectly singles out flexibility and opaqueness of laws but there could be other institutional reasons for delays as well.
QUESTION: 87

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can but few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limit to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. Suppose a Writ Petition is filed with the aim to have effective implementation of the Right to Information Act. This petition was dismissed by the High Court.

An appeal is filed against the judgment of the High Court. Based on the author's reasoning, what should be the decision of the court:

Solution: Correct Answer is (C)

Given answer encompasses the substance of the Right to information. Paragraph 4th mentions "The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process."

Going by the reading of this only appropriate option is choice(c)

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (d) - Given options are contradictory to the essence of the passage. Statements given offers compelling reasoning against RTI however the passage is silent on the same and any inference cannot be extracted.

QUESTION: 88

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can but few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limit to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?

Solution: Correct Answer is (d) Option (d) is the correct choice. Option (d) correctly identifies the idea from the line mentioning that "The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security."

Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage say RTI is not an absolute right therefore no question of it being an unrestricted right.

  • Choice (b) - Though RTI is the method to check corruption, red-tapism and lobbying however passage does not say it is ONLY method.

  • Choice (c) - Passage is silent on this aspect.

QUESTION: 89

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can but few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limit to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. The Official Secrets Act and National Security Act is sought to be repealed. Both the Acts contain the provisions relating to official secrets. These statutes are time tested legislations securing the India's sovereignty and Integrity. If this is true, then, based on the author's reasoning in the passage above:

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Option (d) is the correct choice. Option (d) correctly identifies the idea from the line mentioning that "The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security."

Therefore only sound choice is option d

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (c) - Given options are opposite to the essence of the passage. Author will not support any action converting RTI into an absolutist character.

QUESTION: 90

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can but few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limit to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. Aditya appeared for the Board Examination. When he got the mark sheet he was disappointed with his marks. He thought that he had done well in the examination but his answer-books were not properly valued and that improper valuation had resulted in low marks. Therefore he made an application for inspection and re-evaluation of his answer-books.

Board rejected the said request. If this is true, then, based on the author's reasoning in the passage above:

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Given answer encompasses the substance of the Right to information. Paragraph 4th mentions "The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process."

Going by the reading of this line only appropriate option is choice (d).

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (b) and Choice (c) - Giv en options are contradictory to the essence of the passage. Statements given offers compelling reasoning against RTI however the passage is silent on the same and any inference cannot be extracted.

QUESTION: 91

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can but few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limit to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. It is witnessed neither the Central Government nor the State Government are filling the vacancies for the appointment of Commissioners in a timely manner. As a result the functioning of RTI Act is stifled. It is leading to huge backlogs of appeals and complaints in many Commissions across the country. What, according to the author, would be the effect of not filling the vacancies:

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Central idea of the passage is that the steps are to taken to strengthen the RTI. It is axiomatic that vacancies in any institution lead to arrears and backlog. Therefore only sound choice is option b.

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (c) and Choice (d) - Giv en options are opposite to the essence of the passage. Author does not offer any reasoning against RTI there no any inference cannot be extracted.

QUESTION: 92

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can but few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limit to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. Parliament has passed The Right to Information (Amendment) Bill which seeks to give the government powers to fix salaries, tenures and other terms and conditions of employment of information commissioners. Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on the amending Act:

Solution: Correct Answer is (d)

Central idea of the passage is that the steps are to taken to strengthen the RTI. It is given that through the Amending Act there is conferred huge power in the government. Government may abuse the same.

Therefore only sound choice is option d

Incorrect Answers

  • Choice (a) and Choice (c) - Given options are opposite to the essence of the passage. Author will not support any action diluting the RTI.

  • Choice (b)- It can be an answer however the passage is silent on whether right to know comes within right to life.

QUESTION: 93

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography, controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.

Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.

Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography.

Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-toend encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Q. Under the POCSO Act, 2012, school management should be responsible for safety of children within schools and any other programmes with which the school is associated. A high-school girl, incapacitated by alcohol, was publicly and repeatedly sexually assaulted by her peers in the school, several of whom documented the acts on social media. Based on the author's reasoning and the mandate of the law in the passage above, choose the most appropriate option.

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Option (b) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author and information given in the passage.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 94

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography, controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.

Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.

Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography.

Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-toend encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Q. A man is said to commit "rape" who has sexual intercourse with woman against her will. Lax was madly in love with Shi. Shi loved Joy. Joy loved Aparna and Aparna loved Lax. Lax confessed his love to Shi but she rejected with disdain. Lax couldn't bear this.

He decided to teach Shi a lesson. In order to take revenge he kidnapped her took her to a secluded place and disrobed her entirely. He video-taped the entire act in his camera and said he would put it on internet. Shi apologizes and promises to marry him if he lets her go. Lax declines and puts the clip on internet. Decide.

Solution: Correct Answer is (b)

Option (b) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author. Lax is not guilty of rape as there was no sexual intercourse. He shall be liable under other laws / provisions but not rape.

Incorrect Answers

Choice (a), Choice (c) and Choice (d) - Given options are opposite to the law of rape.

QUESTION: 95

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography, controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.

Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.

Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography.

Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-toend encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Q. Inspite of many penal laws and the recent POSCO Act, 2012 prescribing severe punishment for crimes against children, the number of such cases has increased. There are a few of the cases of abuse of children, ranging from 11 months to 10 years, reported in the Media. Based on the author's argument, which is the most plausible cause behind rising crimes against children?

1. Collective failure of technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiative.

2. Lack of a broader definition of child pornography.

3. Non-cooperation of Internet Service Provider with Law enforcement agencies in providing decryption keys.

4. Existence of inefficient Police Administration

Choose the most appropriate choices.

Solution: Correct Answer is (d) Option (d) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author and information given in the passage.

Incorrect Answers

Existence of inefficient Police Administration is nowhere expressly mentioned in the passage or can be inferred.

QUESTION: 96

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography, controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.

Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.

Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography.

Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-toend encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Q. Union Government shall be empowered through its designated authority to block and/or prohibit all websites/intermediaries that carry child sexual abuse material. In such a situation, according to the author, should the Government be empowered?

Solution: Correct Answer is (c) Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is irrelevant, since it does not even reflect the idea of the passage.

  • Option (b) cannot be the correct answer, since it is against basic argument protecting the child from sexual abuse.

  • Option (d) cannot be the correct answer, since it delays the swiftness in conferring power in the interest of children.

QUESTION: 97

When we corked open the champagne on January 1, 2010, we believed technology was a force leading us to a digitally enabled Promised Land. In the bright future that beckoned, all the world’s knowledge would be at everyone’s fingertips and 1984 would be just another book on the shelf rather than one that should be re-read for its cautionary tale of modern tyranny. Fast-forward as we ready to uncork the champagne once again, this time to greet the Roaring ’20s and even more disruption than we saw in the teen decade lies ahead. Quick-fire technological change has opened up whole new landscapes and minefields. Back in the early days of the past decade, we still thought we’d shape technology. Right now, though, that’s not happened and you’re happily working from home as you can be “virtually” in touch with your office 24x7. With the help of data mining, information have become freely accessible.

Q. Out of the following options, which one is the most appropriate logical corollary to the given passage?

Solution: Refer to the last sentence of the caselet. Option (b) is the most appropriate logical corollary because data mining might lead to an invasion of privacy.

Option (c) is out of scope because there is nothing to suggest that employers will now ask employees to work 24x7. Option (a) is out of scope because there is nothing to suggest that the government will step up its surveillance. Option (d) is wrong because the given passage does not give us any information on whether people have the option to safeguard their private space. Option (d) is merely a conjecture.

QUESTION: 98

When we corked open the champagne on January 1, 2010, we believed technology was a force leading us to a digitally enabled Promised Land. In the bright future that beckoned, all the world’s knowledge would be at everyone’s fingertips and 1984 would be just another book on the shelf rather than one that should be re-read for its cautionary tale of modern tyranny. Fast-forward as we ready to uncork the champagne once again, this time to greet the Roaring ’20s and even more disruption than we saw in the teen decade lies ahead. Quick-fire technological change has opened up whole new landscapes and minefields. Back in the early days of the past decade, we still thought we’d shape technology. Right now, though, that’s not happened and you’re happily working from home as you can be “virtually” in touch with your office 24x7. With the help of data mining, information have become freely accessible.

Q. Out of the following options, which one can be inferred from the given passage?

Solution: Refer to the sentences: “When we corked open the champagne on January 1, 2010, we believed technology was a force leading us to a digitally enabled Promised Land. In the bright future that beckoned, all the world’s knowledge would be at everyone’s fingertips and 1984 would be just another book on the shelf rather than one that should be reread for its cautionary tale of modern tyranny. Fast forward as we ready to uncork the champagne once again, this time to greet the Roaring ’20s and even more disruption than we saw in the teen decade lies ahead.” Options (a) and (b) are out of scope. In the light of the passage, options (a) and (b) cannot be inferred. Option (c) is wrong because the author lists many disadvantages of technological advancements.
QUESTION: 99

When we corked open the champagne on January 1, 2010, we believed technology was a force leading us to a digitally enabled Promised Land. In the bright future that beckoned, all the world’s knowledge would be at everyone’s fingertips and 1984 would be just another book on the shelf rather than one that should be re-read for its cautionary tale of modern tyranny. Fast-forward as we ready to uncork the champagne once again, this time to greet the Roaring ’20s and even more disruption than we saw in the teen decade lies ahead. Quick-fire technological change has opened up whole new landscapes and minefields. Back in the early days of the past decade, we still thought we’d shape technology. Right now, though, that’s not happened and you’re happily working from home as you can be “virtually” in touch with your office 24x7. With the help of data mining, information have become freely accessible.

Q. The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following statements:

Solution: Option (a) is the correct answer when we analyse the following sentence: “Quick-fire technological change has opened up whole new landscapes and minefields.” The author never says that technological advancements are fraught only with risks. There are positive aspects as well. The author mentions that knowledge will be at everyone’s fingertips. He doesn’t mention the redundancy of a seminal text. Option (d) is out of scope.
QUESTION: 100

We are bombarded with misguided advertisements that give advice on healthy-eating, and this has had the effect of making food seem hugely complicated. People are demoralized because they are trying to follow this advice, yet they are getting fatter and fatter. For lots of people, food has become a minefield of dos and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.

Q. What can be concluded from the above?

Solution: The use of ‘continuously’ in option (a) and ‘only’ in option (d) makes these two incorrect, as they are extreme in their analysis. Option (c) contradicts the information given in the passage. This makes option (b) correct.
QUESTION: 101

We are bombarded with misguided advertisements that give advice on healthy-eating, and this has had the effect of making food seem hugely complicated. People are demoralized because they are trying to follow this advice, yet they are getting fatter and fatter. For lots of people, food has become a minefield of dos and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.

Q. Which of the following is not another possible explanation for the paradox presented in the passage?

Solution: The paradox that is discussed in the passage is that inspite of following health advices, people are getting fatter and fatter. Thus, it is possible that there are some other factors that are contributing to this rise in obesity. Options (a), (b) and (c) all provide alternative explanations for this paradox.

However, option (d) does not resolve it.

QUESTION: 102

We are bombarded with misguided advertisements that give advice on healthy-eating, and this has had the effect of making food seem hugely complicated. People are demoralized because they are trying to follow this advice, yet they are getting fatter and fatter. For lots of people, food has become a minefield of dos and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.

Q. Which of the following proverbs is the closest in meaning to the central argument made in the passage?

Solution: Refer to the lines, “For lots of people, food has become a minefield of do’s and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.” Thus, the author wishes to highlight the importance of focusing on the basics while considering a healthy lifestyle. The proverb that captures this relationship is given in option (d). The other options are unrelated.
QUESTION: 103

We are bombarded with misguided advertisements that give advice on healthy-eating, and this has had the effect of making food seem hugely complicated. People are demoralized because they are trying to follow this advice, yet they are getting fatter and fatter. For lots of people, food has become a minefield of dos and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.

Q. Neha, a dietician by profession, reads this article and decides to revamp her offerings based on it.

Which of the following will be in line with the argument presented in the passage?

Solution: The passage clearly states that eating well is simply a process of applying a few basic principles.

Thus, any focus on superfoods or trending diets or exotic food items will prove contrary to the idea discussed. Hence, Neha should focus on developing a diet plan that emphasizes on eating properly and one that talks about the normal food habits of people.

QUESTION: 104

Griselda Blanco de Trujillo, in a plain white dress, with a rosary in her hand and a hole in her head, was laid to rest in the Jardines Montesacro, a posh cemetery on the southwestern extreme of Medellín. She was buried in a gold-finished coffin with a domed lid. Eight tough-looking young men, wearing sneakers, jeans, and sunglasses, carried it from the chapel to the grave site on their shoulders. Reporters had gathered to witness the end of La Madrina-"the Godmother"-as the Medellín newspapers had been calling Griselda since the 1970s. But they were warned, brusquely, not to approach closely or photograph the scene, even from a distance. They could only stand and marvel at the strange theatrics they were seeing. Some of the boys banged violently on the coffin, others smoked marijuana, and mourners cried "No te vayas, Tía!" and "La buena, Tía!" while a group of mariachis played and sang.

The mourners had arrived in buses from Barrio Antioquia, the neighborhood where Griselda grew up, which remains a stubborn hive of vice and rosary in a rapidly pacifying, revitalizing city. They departed at dusk, leaving the grounds littered with their empty bottles of aguardiente, Colombia's ubiquitous anise liquor. Some three hundred feet away, in a lush family grave ringed by green marble and shaded by palms, lay Griselda's onetime friend and apprentice-and eventual mortal enemy-Pablo Escobar.

Q. Which of the following is least likely to be true about Griselda Blanco de Trujillo?

Solution: The giv en paragraph describes the death and the funeral ritual of a lady named Griselda Blanc de Trujillo, who was referred to as 'Godmother'. Option (a) is incorrect as the paragraph clearly mentions 'Barrio Antioquia, the neighborhood where Griselda grew up, which remains a stubborn hive of vice and misery'. Option (b) is also incorrect as the passage again, mentions the way she died i.e with 'a hole in her head,'. Option (d) is also incorrect as it is mentioned that the 8 men who carried the coffin to the place where it was to be buried, created a great ruckus by banging violently on the coffin, smoking marijuana, while a group of mariachis i.e street musicians, played and sang. Such things only happen when the dead person is a criminal and becomes a source of inspiration for youth looking for a life of crime.
QUESTION: 105

Griselda Blanco de Trujillo, in a plain white dress, with a rosary in her hand and a hole in her head, was laid to rest in the Jardines Montesacro, a posh cemetery on the southwestern extreme of Medellín. She was buried in a gold-finished coffin with a domed lid. Eight tough-looking young men, wearing sneakers, jeans, and sunglasses, carried it from the chapel to the grave site on their shoulders. Reporters had gathered to witness the end of La Madrina-"the Godmother"-as the Medellín newspapers had been calling Griselda since the 1970s. But they were warned, brusquely, not to approach closely or photograph the scene, even from a distance. They could only stand and marvel at the strange theatrics they were seeing. Some of the boys banged violently on the coffin, others smoked marijuana, and mourners cried "No te vayas, Tía!" and "La buena, Tía!" while a group of mariachis played and sang.

The mourners had arrived in buses from Barrio Antioquia, the neighborhood where Griselda grew up, which remains a stubborn hive of vice and rosary in a rapidly pacifying, revitalizing city. They departed at dusk, leaving the grounds littered with their empty bottles of aguardiente, Colombia's ubiquitous anise liquor. Some three hundred feet away, in a lush family grave ringed by green marble and shaded by palms, lay Griselda's onetime friend and apprentice-and eventual mortal enemy-Pablo Escobar.

Q. Which of the following best explains the reason for the celebration at Griselda Blanco de Trujillo's death?

Solution: Option (a) is incorrect. Option (c) cannot be adequately inferred. Options (b) and (d) are close.

However uncontrollable grief will manifest as acts of despair and not celebration.

QUESTION: 106

Griselda Blanco de Trujillo, in a plain white dress, with a rosary in her hand and a hole in her head, was laid to rest in the Jardines Montesacro, a posh cemetery on the southwestern extreme of Medellín. She was buried in a gold-finished coffin with a domed lid. Eight tough-looking young men, wearing sneakers, jeans, and sunglasses, carried it from the chapel to the grave site on their shoulders. Reporters had gathered to witness the end of La Madrina-"the Godmother"-as the Medellín newspapers had been calling Griselda since the 1970s. But they were warned, brusquely, not to approach closely or photograph the scene, even from a distance. They could only stand and marvel at the strange theatrics they were seeing. Some of the boys banged violently on the coffin, others smoked marijuana, and mourners cried "No te vayas, Tía!" and "La buena, Tía!" while a group of mariachis played and sang.

The mourners had arrived in buses from Barrio Antioquia, the neighborhood where Griselda grew up, which remains a stubborn hive of vice and rosary in a rapidly pacifying, revitalizing city. They departed at dusk, leaving the grounds littered with their empty bottles of aguardiente, Colombia's ubiquitous anise liquor. Some three hundred feet away, in a lush family grave ringed by green marble and shaded by palms, lay Griselda's onetime friend and apprentice-and eventual mortal enemy-Pablo Escobar.

Q. Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn from the passage above?

Solution: Option (a) cannot be inferred as she is the only such example mentioned.
QUESTION: 107

Griselda Blanco de Trujillo, in a plain white dress, with a rosary in her hand and a hole in her head, was laid to rest in the Jardines Montesacro, a posh cemetery on the southwestern extreme of Medellín. She was buried in a gold-finished coffin with a domed lid. Eight tough-looking young men, wearing sneakers, jeans, and sunglasses, carried it from the chapel to the grave site on their shoulders. Reporters had gathered to witness the end of La Madrina-"the Godmother"-as the Medellín newspapers had been calling Griselda since the 1970s. But they were warned, brusquely, not to approach closely or photograph the scene, even from a distance. They could only stand and marvel at the strange theatrics they were seeing. Some of the boys banged violently on the coffin, others smoked marijuana, and mourners cried "No te vayas, Tía!" and "La buena, Tía!" while a group of mariachis played and sang.

The mourners had arrived in buses from Barrio Antioquia, the neighborhood where Griselda grew up, which remains a stubborn hive of vice and rosary in a rapidly pacifying, revitalizing city. They departed at dusk, leaving the grounds littered with their empty bottles of aguardiente, Colombia's ubiquitous anise liquor. Some three hundred feet away, in a lush family grave ringed by green marble and shaded by palms, lay Griselda's onetime friend and apprentice-and eventual mortal enemy-Pablo Escobar.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Solution: The passage indicates that the lady was a rev ered mafia boss, therefore option (a) is incorrect. Pablo Escobar was an apprentice and hence (b) is incorrect. It’s clearly mentioned that she came from an impoverished locality, therefore option (d) is incorrect. The conduct of her cohorts and the press at the time of her funeral shows that she carries a lot of clout even now.
QUESTION: 108

Griselda Blanco de Trujillo, in a plain white dress, with a rosary in her hand and a hole in her head, was laid to rest in the Jardines Montesacro, a posh cemetery on the southwestern extreme of Medellín. She was buried in a gold-finished coffin with a domed lid. Eight tough-looking young men, wearing sneakers, jeans, and sunglasses, carried it from the chapel to the grave site on their shoulders. Reporters had gathered to witness the end of La Madrina-"the Godmother"-as the Medellín newspapers had been calling Griselda since the 1970s. But they were warned, brusquely, not to approach closely or photograph the scene, even from a distance. They could only stand and marvel at the strange theatrics they were seeing. Some of the boys banged violently on the coffin, others smoked marijuana, and mourners cried "No te vayas, Tía!" and "La buena, Tía!" while a group of mariachis played and sang.

The mourners had arrived in buses from Barrio Antioquia, the neighborhood where Griselda grew up, which remains a stubborn hive of vice and rosary in a rapidly pacifying, revitalizing city. They departed at dusk, leaving the grounds littered with their empty bottles of aguardiente, Colombia's ubiquitous anise liquor. Some three hundred feet away, in a lush family grave ringed by green marble and shaded by palms, lay Griselda's onetime friend and apprentice-and eventual mortal enemy-Pablo Escobar.

Q. Which of the following is the most UNLIKELY to be the reason for the death of Griselda Blanco de Trujillo?

Solution: She had a hole in her head. Hence, (d) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 109

In the late nineteen-sixties, Carolyn Weisz, a four-year old with long brown hair, was invited into a "game room" at the Bing Nursery School, on the campus of Stanford University. The room was little more than a large closet, containing a desk and a chair. Carolyn was asked to sit down in the chair and pick a treat from a tray of marshmallows, cookies, and pretzel sticks. Carolyn chose the marshmallow.

Although she's now forty-four, Carolyn still has a weakness for those air-puffed balls of corn syrup and gelatine. "I know I shouldn't like them," she says. "But they're just so delicious!" A researcher then made Carolyn an offer: she could either eat one marshmallow right away or, if she was willing to wait while he stepped out for a few minutes, she could have two marshmallows when he returned. He said that if she rang a bell on the desk while he was away he would come running back, and she could eat one marshmallow but would forfeit the second. Then he left the room.

Q. What could have been the purpose of the experiment mentioned above?

Solution: The above paragraph shows an experiment done on a four year old girl where she chooses to eat a marshmallow, but is placed with 3 options in front of her: 1. To eat it right away; 2. To eat 2 marshmallows when the researcher returns after exiting the room. and 3. After the researcher exists, and if she can’t resist herself from gulping down the marshmallow, she can ring the bell, the researcher will enter and as a punishment, she'll be allowed only one marshmallow. So basically, the researcher is trying to see how long she can control herself for not eating her favourite treat.

Hence, option (d) is correct. Option (c) is unrelated, option (a) is incorrect as merely making the girl understand the instruction wouldn't require so much of action. Option (b) is false because there is no risk involved in the above experiment.

QUESTION: 110

In the late nineteen-sixties, Carolyn Weisz, a four-yearold with long brown hair, was invited into a "game room" at the Bing Nursery School, on the campus of Stanford University. The room was little more than a large closet, containing a desk and a chair. Carolyn was asked to sit down in the chair and pick a treat from a tray of marshmallows, cookies, and pretzel sticks. Carolyn chose the marshmallow.

Although she's now forty-four, Carolyn still has a weakness for those air-puffed balls of corn syrup and gelatine. "I know I shouldn't like them," she says. "But they're just so delicious!" A researcher then made Carolyn an offer: she could either eat one marshmallow right away or, if she was willing to wait while he stepped out for a few minutes, she could have two marshmallows when he returned. He said that if she rang a bell on the desk while he was away he would come running back, and she could eat one marshmallow but would forfeit the second. Then he left the room.

Q. Which of the following is NOT an assumption implicit in the research methodology to give the subject the decision making power?

Solution: Weakness for marshmallows isn't the necessary criteria for the experiment. Children like sweets with different degrees of fondness for a particular sweet.
QUESTION: 111

In the late nineteen-sixties, Carolyn Weisz, a four-yearold with long brown hair, was invited into a "game room" at the Bing Nursery School, on the campus of Stanford University. The room was little more than a large closet, containing a desk and a chair. Carolyn was asked to sit down in the chair and pick a treat from a tray of marshmallows, cookies, and pretzel sticks. Carolyn chose the marshmallow.

Although she's now forty-four, Carolyn still has a weakness for those air-puffed balls of corn syrup and gelatine. "I know I shouldn't like them," she says. "But they're just so delicious!" A researcher then made Carolyn an offer: she could either eat one marshmallow right away or, if she was willing to wait while he stepped out for a few minutes, she could have two marshmallows when he returned. He said that if she rang a bell on the desk while he was away he would come running back, and she could eat one marshmallow but would forfeit the second. Then he left the room.

Q. Which of the following is the most unlikely outcome of the experiment that was conducted on over 100 children?

Solution: The chances of all children waiting patiently for the eventual higher reward is a very unlikely scenario.
QUESTION: 112

In the late nineteen-sixties, Carolyn Weisz, a four-yearold with long brown hair, was invited into a "game room" at the Bing Nursery School, on the campus of Stanford University. The room was little more than a large closet, containing a desk and a chair. Carolyn was asked to sit down in the chair and pick a treat from a tray of marshmallows, cookies, and pretzel sticks. Carolyn chose the marshmallow.

Although she's now forty-four, Carolyn still has a weakness for those air-puffed balls of corn syrup and gelatine. "I know I shouldn't like them," she says. "But they're just so delicious!" A researcher then made Carolyn an offer: she could either eat one marshmallow right away or, if she was willing to wait while he stepped out for a few minutes, she could have two marshmallows when he returned. He said that if she rang a bell on the desk while he was away he would come running back, and she could eat one marshmallow but would forfeit the second. Then he left the room.

Q. Which of the following would be the most irrational decision taken by the child?

Solution: The child would have wanted to have more than one marshmallow, so she would not have rung the bell.
QUESTION: 113

In the late nineteen-sixties, Carolyn Weisz, a four-yearold with long brown hair, was invited into a "game room" at the Bing Nursery School, on the campus of Stanford University. The room was little more than a large closet, containing a desk and a chair. Carolyn was asked to sit down in the chair and pick a treat from a tray of marshmallows, cookies, and pretzel sticks. Carolyn chose the marshmallow.

Although she's now forty-four, Carolyn still has a weakness for those air-puffed balls of corn syrup and gelatine. "I know I shouldn't like them," she says. "But they're just so delicious!" A researcher then made Carolyn an offer: she could either eat one marshmallow right away or, if she was willing to wait while he stepped out for a few minutes, she could have two marshmallows when he returned. He said that if she rang a bell on the desk while he was away he would come running back, and she could eat one marshmallow but would forfeit the second. Then he left the room.

Q. Which of the following cannot be a valid criticism of the experiment?

Solution: W hile option (b) scientifically counters the merit of securing a rational decision from a 4 year old kid., option (c) mentions general behaviour pattern and hence is a weak option.
QUESTION: 114

Parkinson's disease robbed Ryan Kennedy of the cardinal gifts that any footballer prizes. Neurological diseases do not spare sportsmen and is primarily genetic in nature.

The unstoppable hero had no other option left than retiring early from the sport.

Q. Which of the following can be clearly concluded from the above statement?

Solution: It is apparent that football, like most physical sports is dependent on factors like mobility, strength and stamina. The statement mentions that the disease had robbed Kennedy of his important gifts.

This forced him to retire, a defeat for a sportsman in every sense. (d) is incorrect since an athlete requiring to be quick does not mean that they are one of the quickest. The other options cannot be inferred from the given statement due to lack of data.

QUESTION: 115

Human activities, such as research, innovation and industry, concentrate disproportionately in large cities.

The ten most innovative cities in the United States account for 23% of the national population, but for 48% of its patents and 33% of its gross domestic product. But why has human activity become increasingly concentrated? Here we use data on scientific papers, patents, employment and gross domestic product, for 353 metropolitan areas in the United States, to show that the spatial concentration of productive activities increases with their complexity.

Complex economic activities, such as biotechnology, neurobiology and semiconductors, concentrate disproportionately in a few large cities compared to less-complex activities, such as apparel or paper manufacturing. We use multiple proxies to measure the complexity of activities, finding that complexity explains from 40% to 80% of the variance in urban concentration of occupations, industries, scientific fields and technologies.

Using historical patent data, we show that the spatial concentration of cutting-edge technologies has increased since 1850, suggesting a reinforcing cycle between the increase in the complexity of activities and urbanization.

These findings suggest that the growth of spatial inequality may be connected to the increasing complexity of the economy.

Q. Which of the following sentences BEST conveys the central idea of the passage?

Solution: Option (a) gives the complete picture of the passage. This can also be seen in the first line of the text following which author tries to justify this idea. Option (b) is just a comparative example of complex activity. (c) is inconclusive as the text talks about only the Unites States. (d) is inconclusive as well.
QUESTION: 116

Human activities, such as research, innovation and industry, concentrate disproportionately in large cities.

The ten most innovative cities in the United States account for 23% of the national population, but for 48% of its patents and 33% of its gross domestic product. But why has human activity become increasingly concentrated? Here we use data on scientific papers, patents, employment and gross domestic product, for 353 metropolitan areas in the United States, to show that the spatial concentration of productive activities increases with their complexity.

Complex economic activities, such as biotechnology, neurobiology and semiconductors, concentrate disproportionately in a few large cities compared to less-complex activities, such as apparel or paper manufacturing. We use multiple proxies to measure the complexity of activities, finding that complexity explains from 40% to 80% of the variance in urban concentration of occupations, industries, scientific fields and technologies.

Using historical patent data, we show that the spatial concentration of cutting-edge technologies has increased since 1850, suggesting a reinforcing cycle between the increase in the complexity of activities and urbanization.

These findings suggest that the growth of spatial inequality may be connected to the increasing complexity of the economy.

Q. Which of the following statements weakens the authors argument?

Solution: Option (a) is an example of complex activity and it neither strengthens or weakens the author's argument. Option (b) strengthens the author's argument with an example outside of Unites States where complex activities happen in a metropolis.

Option (c) suggests that in Europe, most complex research happen in remote locations.

This is in contradiction to the case of US and hence weakens the author's argument.

QUESTION: 117

Human activities, such as research, innovation and industry, concentrate disproportionately in large cities.

The ten most innovative cities in the United States account for 23% of the national population, but for 48% of its patents and 33% of its gross domestic product. But why has human activity become increasingly concentrated? Here we use data on scientific papers, patents, employment and gross domestic product, for 353 metropolitan areas in the United States, to show that the spatial concentration of productive activities increases with their complexity.

Complex economic activities, such as biotechnology, neurobiology and semiconductors, concentrate disproportionately in a few large cities compared to less-complex activities, such as apparel or paper manufacturing. We use multiple proxies to measure the complexity of activities, finding that complexity explains from 40% to 80% of the variance in urban concentration of occupations, industries, scientific fields and technologies.

Using historical patent data, we show that the spatial concentration of cutting-edge technologies has increased since 1850, suggesting a reinforcing cycle between the increase in the complexity of activities and urbanization.

These findings suggest that the growth of spatial inequality may be connected to the increasing complexity of the economy.

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given text?

Solution: Semiconductor business is stated as an example of complex activity which means manufacturing and research for it has to come in the purview of complex processes. Options (b), (c) and (d) are inconclusive from the given text.
QUESTION: 118

Human activities, such as research, innovation and industry, concentrate disproportionately in large cities.

The ten most innovative cities in the United States account for 23% of the national population, but for 48% of its patents and 33% of its gross domestic product. But why has human activity become increasingly concentrated? Here we use data on scientific papers, patents, employment and gross domestic product, for 353 metropolitan areas in the United States, to show that the spatial concentration of productive activities increases with their complexity.

Complex economic activities, such as biotechnology, neurobiology and semiconductors, concentrate disproportionately in a few large cities compared to less-complex activities, such as apparel or paper manufacturing. We use multiple proxies to measure the complexity of activities, finding that complexity explains from 40% to 80% of the variance in urban concentration of occupations, industries, scientific fields and technologies.

Using historical patent data, we show that the spatial concentration of cutting-edge technologies has increased since 1850, suggesting a reinforcing cycle between the increase in the complexity of activities and urbanization.

These findings suggest that the growth of spatial inequality may be connected to the increasing complexity of the economy.

Q. Which of the following is not an example of complex economic activity?

Solution: Options (c) and (d) can be cancelled due their close relation to biotechnology and semiconductors; two sectors where the activities are complex as stated in the text. Option (a) involves an interaction of lot of people and activities which vary at least on daily basis if not quicker. Option (b) may be a largescale activity, but the processes involved are simple and don't change much with time.
QUESTION: 119

Human activities, such as research, innovation and industry, concentrate disproportionately in large cities.

The ten most innovative cities in the United States account for 23% of the national population, but for 48% of its patents and 33% of its gross domestic product. But why has human activity become increasingly concentrated? Here we use data on scientific papers, patents, employment and gross domestic product, for 353 metropolitan areas in the United States, to show that the spatial concentration of productive activities increases with their complexity.

Complex economic activities, such as biotechnology, neurobiology and semiconductors, concentrate disproportionately in a few large cities compared to less-complex activities, such as apparel or paper manufacturing. We use multiple proxies to measure the complexity of activities, finding that complexity explains from 40% to 80% of the variance in urban concentration of occupations, industries, scientific fields and technologies.

Using historical patent data, we show that the spatial concentration of cutting-edge technologies has increased since 1850, suggesting a reinforcing cycle between the increase in the complexity of activities and urbanization.

These findings suggest that the growth of spatial inequality may be connected to the increasing complexity of the economy.

Q. Which of the following can be a reason why using patent data as a measure of complexity may be incorrect?

Solution: Options (a) and (b) support the use of patents filed as a parameter to gauge complex activity. Option (c) may be a correct choice but we have no information if one needs to go and file patents at these offices. Option (d) is the correct choice because if most patents are for equipment related to simple tasks, it doesn't add to the complexity to economic activity.
QUESTION: 120

A deer came inside the runaway of an airport and the flight had to be rescheduled. As what happens nowadays the incident has gone viral. Birds frequently fly into aeroplane screens. The hazard caused by birds flying into aeroplanes while it prepares to take off is a sign that our environment is completely haywire.

Q. Which of the following strengthens the argument?

Solution: (b) is wrong since, it merely mentions rainfall and has nothing to do with environmental damages.

Similarly, (c) is incorrect because a warm sun is not a sing of environmental degradation. (d) if factually correct points to problems with conservation rather than environmental problems.

QUESTION: 121

The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.

Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.

To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument presented in the third paragraph?

Solution: You are asked to identify the statement which weakens the argument in the third paragraph. In the third paragraph, the author highlights that research to identify whether the remains found in Flores are humans or anything else is still going on, and nothing definite can be said. In answer choice (c), it has been made clear that humans and the child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores are different species, which means that the conclusion that the author has drawn from the passage is contradicted. Answer choice (c) weakens the argument based on a similar reasoning.

Incorrect answers:

(a), (b) and (d) give information that supports the argument and hence cannot weaken the argument.

QUESTION: 122

The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.

Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.

To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Q. Which of the following is LEAST consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage?

Solution: The correct answer is (d) as it is against the thoughts expressed by the author in the passage. The author emphasizes the confusion caused after the child sized skeletal bones were discovered in Flores.

Since (d) opposes the notion expressed by the author in the passage, it is least consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage.

Incorrect Answers:

(a), (b) and (c) are incorrect as each of them is consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage.

QUESTION: 123

The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.

Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.

To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Q. The argument of the author depends on which one of the following assumptions?

Solution:

(a) is an assumption that supports the argument of the author. It is clear from the first line wherein the author states that the child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit, meaning he believes that there are more species than humans.

So, (a) is the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers:

Assumptions (b) and (d) are not true as the author expresses them nowhere in the passage. Assumption (c) opposes the idea presented by the author in the passage. So, (b), (c) and (d) cannot be assumed.

QUESTION: 124

The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.

Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.

To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred as a view that the author will most definitely agree with?

Solution: The correct answer is (b) as the author focuses on how interesting the conflict between the real identity of the child-skeletal bones found in Flores is and how there is no definite answer to it. Option (b) supports this view and hence can be inferred as a view that the author will most definitely agree with.

Incorrect Answers:

Information contained in statements (a) and (d) has neither been mentioned nor supported anywhere in the passage. Statement (c) confirms the identity of the bones discovered, which is not true. So, the author is not likely to agree with any of these statements.

QUESTION: 125

The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.

Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.

To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Q. Which one of the following is the main conclusion of the passage?

Solution: (c) is the main conclusion of the passage as the author has pointed out how more research is needed to ascertain the correct identity of the bones discovered in Flores. He points out at different possibilities such as hobbits, and humans with microcephaly. So, answer choice (c) sums up the main views of the author well.

Incorrect Answers:

(b) is opposed to the main thought of the passage. Statements (a) and (d) have not been discussed anywhere in the passage.

QUESTION: 126

The judiciary is considered as the guardian and protector of Indian Constitution and supervises the implementation of fundamental rights and duties in the country. In the case of L. Chandra Kumar V. Union of India it has been held that the power of judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Indian Constitution.

The emergence of judicial review gave birth to a new movement which is called Judicial Activism. Judicial Activism refers to a philosophy of judicial decision-making whereby judges allow their personal views about public policy to guide their decisions. The Constitution of India divides the powers of government into three branches i.e. legislature, executive and judiciary and has defined their roles clearly.

Legislature and executive are responsible for making the law of the land and judiciary is responsible for interpreting these laws and also has the power to review the law i.e. whether it is made in consonance with the basic principles of constitution or not. So, it is when the judiciary steps into the shoes of the executive and legislature and embarks on the work of lawmaking rather than interpreting laws, it is deemed to be judicial activism.

Q. The argument presented in the second paragraph can be best described as:

Solution: The author tells how the emergence of judicial review gave birth to a movement called Judicial Activism and states its definition. He also explains how the Constitution of India divides the powers of government into three branches and has defined their roles clearly. Since, this paragraph is focussed on Judicial Activism, and how the emergence of judicial review caused it, the correct answer is (a).

Incorrect Answers:

(b), (c) and (d) - These are not the reasoning used by the author.

QUESTION: 127

The judiciary is considered as the guardian and protector of Indian Constitution and supervises the implementation of fundamental rights and duties in the country. In the case of L. Chandra Kumar V. Union of India it has been held that the power of judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Indian Constitution.

The emergence of judicial review gave birth to a new movement which is called Judicial Activism. Judicial Activism refers to a philosophy of judicial decision-making whereby judges allow their personal views about public policy to guide their decisions. The Constitution of India divides the powers of government into three branches i.e. legislature, executive and judiciary and has defined their roles clearly.

Legislature and executive are responsible for making the law of the land and judiciary is responsible for interpreting these laws and also has the power to review the law i.e. whether it is made in consonance with the basic principles of constitution or not. So, it is when the judiciary steps into the shoes of the executive and legislature and embarks on the work of lawmaking rather than interpreting laws, it is deemed to be judicial activism.

Q. Why does the author outline the powers of the three branches of the Government of India in the passage?

Solution: The correct answer is (b) as the author wants the reader to learn about a few basic concepts before introducing her to the concept of judicial activism.

This explanation helps develop a better understanding. Since, this option supports the argument it is the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers:

(c) and (d) are incorrect as they contain information that has not been mentioned anywhere in the passage. (a) is incorrect as only judiciary can exercise judicial activism.

QUESTION: 128

The judiciary is considered as the guardian and protector of Indian Constitution and supervises the implementation of fundamental rights and duties in the country. In the case of L. Chandra Kumar V. Union of India it has been held that the power of judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Indian Constitution.

The emergence of judicial review gave birth to a new movement which is called Judicial Activism. Judicial Activism refers to a philosophy of judicial decision-making whereby judges allow their personal views about public policy to guide their decisions. The Constitution of India divides the powers of government into three branches i.e. legislature, executive and judiciary and has defined their roles clearly.

Legislature and executive are responsible for making the law of the land and judiciary is responsible for interpreting these laws and also has the power to review the law i.e. whether it is made in consonance with the basic principles of constitution or not. So, it is when the judiciary steps into the shoes of the executive and legislature and embarks on the work of lawmaking rather than interpreting laws, it is deemed to be judicial activism.

Q. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the author's argument?

Solution: Statem ent (d), if true, strengthens the author's argument as the author talks about Judicial Activism and its functioning. Since he talks about the positive aspects, this argument will support the author's idea and hence strengthens the author's argument.

So, (d) is the correct option.

Incorrect Answers:

(a), (b) and (c) weaken the argument of the author as they oppose the main idea of the passage and talks about the negative aspects of Judicial Activism. So, these are incorrect statements.

QUESTION: 129

The judiciary is considered as the guardian and protector of Indian Constitution and supervises the implementation of fundamental rights and duties in the country. In the case of L. Chandra Kumar V. Union of India it has been held that the power of judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Indian Constitution.

The emergence of judicial review gave birth to a new movement which is called Judicial Activism. Judicial Activism refers to a philosophy of judicial decision-making whereby judges allow their personal views about public policy to guide their decisions. The Constitution of India divides the powers of government into three branches i.e. legislature, executive and judiciary and has defined their roles clearly.

Legislature and executive are responsible for making the law of the land and judiciary is responsible for interpreting these laws and also has the power to review the law i.e. whether it is made in consonance with the basic principles of constitution or not. So, it is when the judiciary steps into the shoes of the executive and legislature and embarks on the work of lawmaking rather than interpreting laws, it is deemed to be judicial activism.

Q. Which of the following is similar to the line of reasoning of the author in the last paragraph?

Otherwise he lets us manage the administration and office. He takes on our tasks too if we falter anywhere which helps to keep a check.

Solution: This is a parallel reasoning question - you are asked to identify the answer choice which has a similar reasoning to that of the argument presented in the last paragraph. The author explains judicial activism in the last passage and mentions how the judiciary steps in if the laws made by the legislature and executive branches are not in consonance with the Constitution.

This can be represented as - Entities (A) and (B) have certain functions, (C) has another primary function but (C) steps in if needed.

This reasoning can be found in answer choice (b).

My boss (C) only makes important decisions.

Otherwise he lets us (A and B) manage the administration and office. He (C) takes on our tasks too if we falter anywhere which helps to keep a check.

Incorrect answers:

(a), (c) and (d) - These do not evaluate the relationship of one entity interfering in the decision of two other entities, so It is not in line with the last paragraph.

QUESTION: 130

The judiciary is considered as the guardian and protector of Indian Constitution and supervises the implementation of fundamental rights and duties in the country. In the case of L. Chandra Kumar V. Union of India it has been held that the power of judicial review is a part of basic structure of the Indian Constitution.

The emergence of judicial review gave birth to a new movement which is called Judicial Activism. Judicial Activism refers to a philosophy of judicial decision-making whereby judges allow their personal views about public policy to guide their decisions. The Constitution of India divides the powers of government into three branches i.e. legislature, executive and judiciary and has defined their roles clearly.

Legislature and executive are responsible for making the law of the land and judiciary is responsible for interpreting these laws and also has the power to review the law i.e. whether it is made in consonance with the basic principles of constitution or not. So, it is when the judiciary steps into the shoes of the executive and legislature and embarks on the work of lawmaking rather than interpreting laws, it is deemed to be judicial activism.

Q. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument made by the author?

Solution: (b) is the correct answer, if true, as it highlights the negative aspects of Judicial activism. Since, this statement opposes the concept of Judicial Activism and weakens this argument.

Incorrect Answers:

(a), (c) and (d) are incorrect answers as they support the argument of the author mentioned in the passage and strengthen his argument instead of weakening it.

QUESTION: 131

Good standard of living defined on the basis of availability of five indicators - Electricity, Drinking water, Sanitation facility, Clean Fuel and Health Scheme cover. The bar graph given below shows the percentage population of each of the seven states for which these five indicators of good standard of living are available.

Q. In which states are these indicators for Standard of Living - Electricity, Drinking-Water and Sanitation Facility - available to the least percentage of population?

Solution: By observing the bar graph we can see that among the given states the availability of Electricity to percentage of population is least for Bihar(58.6%), the availability of Drinking water is least for Andhra Pradesh (72.7%) and the availability of Sanitation Facility is least for Jharkhand (24.4%).
QUESTION: 132

Good standard of living defined on the basis of availability of five indicators - Electricity, Drinking water, Sanitation facility, Clean Fuel and Health Scheme cover. The bar graph given below shows the percentage population of each of the seven states for which these five indicators of good standard of living are available.

Q. If the average of the percentages across the states is calculated for each of the above mentioned indicators, then which indicators for Standard of Living have the lowest and highest average scores?

Solution: By observing the bar graph we can see that the availability of Electricity is the highest across all the states whereas the availability of Health Insurance is the lowest. So the averages of these indicators will be highest and lowest respectively.
QUESTION: 133

Good standard of living defined on the basis of availability of five indicators - Electricity, Drinking water, Sanitation facility, Clean Fuel and Health Scheme cover. The bar graph given below shows the percentage population of each of the seven states for which these five indicators of good standard of living are available.

Q. If the average of percentage points across each of these indicators defines the standard of living of a state, then which two states are ranked first and second in Good Standard of Living?

Solution: The average can be calculated as follows

Hence, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh are first and second.

QUESTION: 134

Good standard of living defined on the basis of availability of five indicators - Electricity, Drinking water, Sanitation facility, Clean Fuel and Health Scheme cover. The bar graph given below shows the percentage population of each of the seven states for which these five indicators of good standard of living are available.

Q. Identify the state and the indicator with the lowest percentage score and the state and the indicator with the highest percentage score across all indicators for Good Standard of Living.

Solution: By observing the bar graph we can see that among the given states the availability Health Insurance to the population is lowest in Haryana (12.2%) whereas the availability of Electricity in Kerala is the highest (99.2%).
QUESTION: 135

Good standard of living defined on the basis of availability of five indicators - Electricity, Drinking water, Sanitation facility, Clean Fuel and Health Scheme cover. The bar graph given below shows the percentage population of each of the seven states for which these five indicators of good standard of living are available.

Q. Which state has the maximum percentage point score difference between its highest and lowest percentage point scores across all indicators for Standard of Living and what is the difference?

Solution: By observing the bar graph we can see that Haryana has the maximum difference between the highest and lowest percentage point scores.

The difference is 98.8 – 12.2 = 86.6.

QUESTION: 136

Mr.Jindal purchases shares of six companies - A, B, C, D, E and F - in January 2018 and reviews his investment portfolio after a year. The six companies fall under three broad categories - IT, Pharmaceutical and FMCG.

The line graph given below shows the share prices of the 6 companies in January 2018 and 2019.

Q. It is known that the share prices of the two IT companies in which Mr.Jindal invested showed the highest absolute variation. Which of the following options shows the percentage increase in the share price of these two IT companies?

Solution: The change in share values from Jan 2018 to Jan 2019 is shown in the table below

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