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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1


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150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT | Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1

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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 1

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Learn anywhere, any time without pressure and boredom. Flexible learning and learner autonomy are the greatest benefits of e-learning. Thanks to the pandemic, online learning has become popular and has led to questions about the effectiveness of traditional face-to-face classroom instruction and discussions on the need to integrate technology into teaching and learning, to design creative online learning content and to continue flexible learning. When virtual instruction suddenly replaced traditional classroom teaching across the globe, teachers and students initially struggled to use video conferencing tools for learning and communication. Now most of them are comfortable using these tools though the digital divide is a major problem. Now, after a year-long break, educational institutions have reopened partially and students have started attending physical classes. A few weeks ago, a survey group posted a query on social media about whether online education will be as popular as it is now after the pandemic is over. The reactions were mixed and varied. As both modes have their own advantages and disadvantages, some learners and educators prefer a blended approach that combines online material with traditional classroom teaching. It paves the way for flexible learning. Face-to-face interaction with teachers and fellow students is essential to develop the much-needed 21st century skills: the 4Cs of communication, collaboration, creativity and critical thinking. But with online learning, students can learn anywhere, any time, at their own pace. With constant developments in Internet technology and communication channels, students have access to quality materials in the form of videos from top educational institutions. Looking at the pandemic positively, we can say that teachers have learned that they can learn new skills and integrate technology into teaching. Quite astonishingly, more and more teachers are comfortable using video conferencing tools and have realised the importance of being creative and innovative to teach effectively online. Many students have realised that it is not worth attending physical classes in teaching factories. Fortunately, there are some universities that are ready to offer online UG and PG programmes at an affordable cost. Even parents see justification in opting for online courses. Though there are many advantages of online education, in a country like India, where a vast majority of students do not have access to the Internet, it is not possible to focus only on online education. Since students have been exposed to online learning, we should try blended mode of teaching / learning: For example, three hours of classroom teaching/learning + two hours of virtual teaching/learning or three days of classroom learning and three days of virtual learning. It is high time that educational institutions stopped the spoon-feeding system and promote innovative thinking among students. They should promote learner autonomy, which will help students prepare for the workplace.

Q. What is the main theme of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 1

A- the passage talks about promoting both face-to-face and online platforms. It does not focus on online medium replacing traditional classroom teaching.

B- the advantages of both are discussed

C- The learner’s ability to take charge of his/ her own learning is called learner autonomy. The passage focuses on promoting learner autonomy.

D- the problems are discussed, but it is not the main theme of the passage.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 2

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Learn anywhere, any time without pressure and boredom. Flexible learning and learner autonomy are the greatest benefits of e-learning. Thanks to the pandemic, online learning has become popular and has led to questions about the effectiveness of traditional face-to-face classroom instruction and discussions on the need to integrate technology into teaching and learning, to design creative online learning content and to continue flexible learning. When virtual instruction suddenly replaced traditional classroom teaching across the globe, teachers and students initially struggled to use video conferencing tools for learning and communication. Now most of them are comfortable using these tools though the digital divide is a major problem. Now, after a year-long break, educational institutions have reopened partially and students have started attending physical classes. A few weeks ago, a survey group posted a query on social media about whether online education will be as popular as it is now after the pandemic is over. The reactions were mixed and varied. As both modes have their own advantages and disadvantages, some learners and educators prefer a blended approach that combines online material with traditional classroom teaching. It paves the way for flexible learning. Face-to-face interaction with teachers and fellow students is essential to develop the much-needed 21st century skills: the 4Cs of communication, collaboration, creativity and critical thinking. But with online learning, students can learn anywhere, any time, at their own pace. With constant developments in Internet technology and communication channels, students have access to quality materials in the form of videos from top educational institutions. Looking at the pandemic positively, we can say that teachers have learned that they can learn new skills and integrate technology into teaching. Quite astonishingly, more and more teachers are comfortable using video conferencing tools and have realised the importance of being creative and innovative to teach effectively online. Many students have realised that it is not worth attending physical classes in teaching factories. Fortunately, there are some universities that are ready to offer online UG and PG programmes at an affordable cost. Even parents see justification in opting for online courses. Though there are many advantages of online education, in a country like India, where a vast majority of students do not have access to the Internet, it is not possible to focus only on online education. Since students have been exposed to online learning, we should try blended mode of teaching / learning: For example, three hours of classroom teaching/learning + two hours of virtual teaching/learning or three days of classroom learning and three days of virtual learning. It is high time that educational institutions stopped the spoon-feeding system and promote innovative thinking among students. They should promote learner autonomy, which will help students prepare for the workplace.

Q. How did people react to the question posted on the social media by a survey group?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 2 B- the passage says that the reactions were mixed and varied. So, we can say that it was ambiguous.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 3

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Learn anywhere, any time without pressure and boredom. Flexible learning and learner autonomy are the greatest benefits of e-learning. Thanks to the pandemic, online learning has become popular and has led to questions about the effectiveness of traditional face-to-face classroom instruction and discussions on the need to integrate technology into teaching and learning, to design creative online learning content and to continue flexible learning. When virtual instruction suddenly replaced traditional classroom teaching across the globe, teachers and students initially struggled to use video conferencing tools for learning and communication. Now most of them are comfortable using these tools though the digital divide is a major problem. Now, after a year-long break, educational institutions have reopened partially and students have started attending physical classes. A few weeks ago, a survey group posted a query on social media about whether online education will be as popular as it is now after the pandemic is over. The reactions were mixed and varied. As both modes have their own advantages and disadvantages, some learners and educators prefer a blended approach that combines online material with traditional classroom teaching. It paves the way for flexible learning. Face-to-face interaction with teachers and fellow students is essential to develop the much-needed 21st century skills: the 4Cs of communication, collaboration, creativity and critical thinking. But with online learning, students can learn anywhere, any time, at their own pace. With constant developments in Internet technology and communication channels, students have access to quality materials in the form of videos from top educational institutions. Looking at the pandemic positively, we can say that teachers have learned that they can learn new skills and integrate technology into teaching. Quite astonishingly, more and more teachers are comfortable using video conferencing tools and have realised the importance of being creative and innovative to teach effectively online. Many students have realised that it is not worth attending physical classes in teaching factories. Fortunately, there are some universities that are ready to offer online UG and PG programmes at an affordable cost. Even parents see justification in opting for online courses. Though there are many advantages of online education, in a country like India, where a vast majority of students do not have access to the Internet, it is not possible to focus only on online education. Since students have been exposed to online learning, we should try blended mode of teaching / learning: For example, three hours of classroom teaching/learning + two hours of virtual teaching/learning or three days of classroom learning and three days of virtual learning. It is high time that educational institutions stopped the spoon-feeding system and promote innovative thinking among students. They should promote learner autonomy, which will help students prepare for the workplace.

Q. Which of the following is/are the synonym/s for the word ‘integrate’?

(i) amalgamate

(ii) meld

(iii) coalesce

(iv) consolidate

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 3 The word ‘integrate’ means ‘to mix with and join society or a group of people, often changing to suit their way of life, habits, and customs’.

All these words have a meaning similar to ‘integrate’.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 4

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Learn anywhere, any time without pressure and boredom. Flexible learning and learner autonomy are the greatest benefits of e-learning. Thanks to the pandemic, online learning has become popular and has led to questions about the effectiveness of traditional face-to-face classroom instruction and discussions on the need to integrate technology into teaching and learning, to design creative online learning content and to continue flexible learning. When virtual instruction suddenly replaced traditional classroom teaching across the globe, teachers and students initially struggled to use video conferencing tools for learning and communication. Now most of them are comfortable using these tools though the digital divide is a major problem. Now, after a year-long break, educational institutions have reopened partially and students have started attending physical classes. A few weeks ago, a survey group posted a query on social media about whether online education will be as popular as it is now after the pandemic is over. The reactions were mixed and varied. As both modes have their own advantages and disadvantages, some learners and educators prefer a blended approach that combines online material with traditional classroom teaching. It paves the way for flexible learning. Face-to-face interaction with teachers and fellow students is essential to develop the much-needed 21st century skills: the 4Cs of communication, collaboration, creativity and critical thinking. But with online learning, students can learn anywhere, any time, at their own pace. With constant developments in Internet technology and communication channels, students have access to quality materials in the form of videos from top educational institutions. Looking at the pandemic positively, we can say that teachers have learned that they can learn new skills and integrate technology into teaching. Quite astonishingly, more and more teachers are comfortable using video conferencing tools and have realised the importance of being creative and innovative to teach effectively online. Many students have realised that it is not worth attending physical classes in teaching factories. Fortunately, there are some universities that are ready to offer online UG and PG programmes at an affordable cost. Even parents see justification in opting for online courses. Though there are many advantages of online education, in a country like India, where a vast majority of students do not have access to the Internet, it is not possible to focus only on online education. Since students have been exposed to online learning, we should try blended mode of teaching / learning: For example, three hours of classroom teaching/learning + two hours of virtual teaching/learning or three days of classroom learning and three days of virtual learning. It is high time that educational institutions stopped the spoon-feeding system and promote innovative thinking among students. They should promote learner autonomy, which will help students prepare for the workplace.

Q. According to the passage, what is the major problem in using online learning platforms, which still has not been resolved?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 4

A- this was a struggle in the beginning, but was solved as time passed.

B- this is stated in the passage, but not as a difficulty.

C- this statementis not stated in the passage.

D- it is the expansion of the term digital divide.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 5

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Learn anywhere, any time without pressure and boredom. Flexible learning and learner autonomy are the greatest benefits of e-learning. Thanks to the pandemic, online learning has become popular and has led to questions about the effectiveness of traditional face-to-face classroom instruction and discussions on the need to integrate technology into teaching and learning, to design creative online learning content and to continue flexible learning. When virtual instruction suddenly replaced traditional classroom teaching across the globe, teachers and students initially struggled to use video conferencing tools for learning and communication. Now most of them are comfortable using these tools though the digital divide is a major problem. Now, after a year-long break, educational institutions have reopened partially and students have started attending physical classes. A few weeks ago, a survey group posted a query on social media about whether online education will be as popular as it is now after the pandemic is over. The reactions were mixed and varied. As both modes have their own advantages and disadvantages, some learners and educators prefer a blended approach that combines online material with traditional classroom teaching. It paves the way for flexible learning. Face-to-face interaction with teachers and fellow students is essential to develop the much-needed 21st century skills: the 4Cs of communication, collaboration, creativity and critical thinking. But with online learning, students can learn anywhere, any time, at their own pace. With constant developments in Internet technology and communication channels, students have access to quality materials in the form of videos from top educational institutions. Looking at the pandemic positively, we can say that teachers have learned that they can learn new skills and integrate technology into teaching. Quite astonishingly, more and more teachers are comfortable using video conferencing tools and have realised the importance of being creative and innovative to teach effectively online. Many students have realised that it is not worth attending physical classes in teaching factories. Fortunately, there are some universities that are ready to offer online UG and PG programmes at an affordable cost. Even parents see justification in opting for online courses. Though there are many advantages of online education, in a country like India, where a vast majority of students do not have access to the Internet, it is not possible to focus only on online education. Since students have been exposed to online learning, we should try blended mode of teaching / learning: For example, three hours of classroom teaching/learning + two hours of virtual teaching/learning or three days of classroom learning and three days of virtual learning. It is high time that educational institutions stopped the spoon-feeding system and promote innovative thinking among students. They should promote learner autonomy, which will help students prepare for the workplace.

Q. Which of the following is not a characteristic of online learning?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 5 B- it is a characteristic of face-to-face learning.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 6

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

If you pay close attention to soap advertisements, you may hear of its pH value being touted perfect for human skin. But is there really such a thing? pH (Potential Hydrogen) is defined as the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution. pH value ranges between 0 and 14. 7 is the neutral point, 0 being the most acidic and 14 being the most alkaline. More importantly, your skin isn’t exactly pH 5.5. It falls in a range between 4.0 and 7.0, depending on factors as diverse as the body part, age, genetics, ethnicity, environment conditions, to list a few. So, are products formulated at pH 5.5 perfect for the skin? The short answer: not really! First, parameters like surfactants, texture and other ingredients indicate a cleanser’s quality, much better than pH alone. Second, though the skin pH rises slightly immediately after cleaning even with plain water, it reverts to its mild acidic pH in an hour. Healthy skin quickly rebalances the ‘acid mantle’- a protective layer over the skin- and is unaffected in the long term by the cleanser’s pH. Skin modulates pH, making skin products function optimally, not just at various pH levels, but in combination with the overall formula. So, why market pH 5.5 products as ‘perfect’? Well, for certain skin types (e.g. oily skin) and certain skin conditions (like acne), an increase in pH can aggravate these skin situations. This might lead to an interpretation of a product needing to be at a 5.5 pH for optimum cleaning. The Bureau of Indian Standards’ (BIS) mandatory guidelines for soap also exclude pH demonstrating that composition is more relevant to safety and mildness. BIS even approves the use of such soaps for a baby’s skin, underscoring their safety under normal usage conditions. Skincare experts around the country have expressed their reservations about the issue of pH being the sole judge of product safety and acid mantle preservation when factors, including but not limited, to plain water may be contributing to the same. Hence, an ideal product is almost impossible to define. So, can we look at this ‘ideal pH’ as the only ideal measure of a cleansing product? The answer: look well beyond pH alone.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) are true?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 6

A- pH value of skin ranges from 4.0 to 7.0

C- pH is the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 7

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

If you pay close attention to soap advertisements, you may hear of its pH value being touted perfect for human skin. But is there really such a thing? pH (Potential Hydrogen) is defined as the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution. pH value ranges between 0 and 14. 7 is the neutral point, 0 being the most acidic and 14 being the most alkaline. More importantly, your skin isn’t exactly pH 5.5. It falls in a range between 4.0 and 7.0, depending on factors as diverse as the body part, age, genetics, ethnicity, environment conditions, to list a few. So, are products formulated at pH 5.5 perfect for the skin? The short answer: not really! First, parameters like surfactants, texture and other ingredients indicate a cleanser’s quality, much better than pH alone. Second, though the skin pH rises slightly immediately after cleaning even with plain water, it reverts to its mild acidic pH in an hour. Healthy skin quickly rebalances the ‘acid mantle’- a protective layer over the skin- and is unaffected in the long term by the cleanser’s pH. Skin modulates pH, making skin products function optimally, not just at various pH levels, but in combination with the overall formula. So, why market pH 5.5 products as ‘perfect’? Well, for certain skin types (e.g. oily skin) and certain skin conditions (like acne), an increase in pH can aggravate these skin situations. This might lead to an interpretation of a product needing to be at a 5.5 pH for optimum cleaning. The Bureau of Indian Standards’ (BIS) mandatory guidelines for soap also exclude pH demonstrating that composition is more relevant to safety and mildness. BIS even approves the use of such soaps for a baby’s skin, underscoring their safety under normal usage conditions. Skincare experts around the country have expressed their reservations about the issue of pH being the sole judge of product safety and acid mantle preservation when factors, including but not limited, to plain water may be contributing to the same. Hence, an ideal product is almost impossible to define. So, can we look at this ‘ideal pH’ as the only ideal measure of a cleansing product? The answer: look well beyond pH alone.

Q. What does the phrase ‘expressed their reservations’ convey in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 7 The term ‘reservation’ can also be interpreted as ‘a doubt or reason for not accepting or agreeing with something completely.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 8

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

If you pay close attention to soap advertisements, you may hear of its pH value being touted perfect for human skin. But is there really such a thing? pH (Potential Hydrogen) is defined as the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution. pH value ranges between 0 and 14. 7 is the neutral point, 0 being the most acidic and 14 being the most alkaline. More importantly, your skin isn’t exactly pH 5.5. It falls in a range between 4.0 and 7.0, depending on factors as diverse as the body part, age, genetics, ethnicity, environment conditions, to list a few. So, are products formulated at pH 5.5 perfect for the skin? The short answer: not really! First, parameters like surfactants, texture and other ingredients indicate a cleanser’s quality, much better than pH alone. Second, though the skin pH rises slightly immediately after cleaning even with plain water, it reverts to its mild acidic pH in an hour. Healthy skin quickly rebalances the ‘acid mantle’- a protective layer over the skin- and is unaffected in the long term by the cleanser’s pH. Skin modulates pH, making skin products function optimally, not just at various pH levels, but in combination with the overall formula. So, why market pH 5.5 products as ‘perfect’? Well, for certain skin types (e.g. oily skin) and certain skin conditions (like acne), an increase in pH can aggravate these skin situations. This might lead to an interpretation of a product needing to be at a 5.5 pH for optimum cleaning. The Bureau of Indian Standards’ (BIS) mandatory guidelines for soap also exclude pH demonstrating that composition is more relevant to safety and mildness. BIS even approves the use of such soaps for a baby’s skin, underscoring their safety under normal usage conditions. Skincare experts around the country have expressed their reservations about the issue of pH being the sole judge of product safety and acid mantle preservation when factors, including but not limited, to plain water may be contributing to the same. Hence, an ideal product is almost impossible to define. So, can we look at this ‘ideal pH’ as the only ideal measure of a cleansing product? The answer: look well beyond pH alone.

Q. According to the passage, what factors are to be considered to judge product safety and acid mantle preservation?

(i) pH

(ii) water used for taking bath

(iii) ingredients that indicate a cleanser’s quality

(iv) mildness

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 8 All the factors including pH should be considered, as the last sentence asks as to look beyond pH.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 9

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

If you pay close attention to soap advertisements, you may hear of its pH value being touted perfect for human skin. But is there really such a thing? pH (Potential Hydrogen) is defined as the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution. pH value ranges between 0 and 14. 7 is the neutral point, 0 being the most acidic and 14 being the most alkaline. More importantly, your skin isn’t exactly pH 5.5. It falls in a range between 4.0 and 7.0, depending on factors as diverse as the body part, age, genetics, ethnicity, environment conditions, to list a few. So, are products formulated at pH 5.5 perfect for the skin? The short answer: not really! First, parameters like surfactants, texture and other ingredients indicate a cleanser’s quality, much better than pH alone. Second, though the skin pH rises slightly immediately after cleaning even with plain water, it reverts to its mild acidic pH in an hour. Healthy skin quickly rebalances the ‘acid mantle’- a protective layer over the skin- and is unaffected in the long term by the cleanser’s pH. Skin modulates pH, making skin products function optimally, not just at various pH levels, but in combination with the overall formula. So, why market pH 5.5 products as ‘perfect’? Well, for certain skin types (e.g. oily skin) and certain skin conditions (like acne), an increase in pH can aggravate these skin situations. This might lead to an interpretation of a product needing to be at a 5.5 pH for optimum cleaning. The Bureau of Indian Standards’ (BIS) mandatory guidelines for soap also exclude pH demonstrating that composition is more relevant to safety and mildness. BIS even approves the use of such soaps for a baby’s skin, underscoring their safety under normal usage conditions. Skincare experts around the country have expressed their reservations about the issue of pH being the sole judge of product safety and acid mantle preservation when factors, including but not limited, to plain water may be contributing to the same. Hence, an ideal product is almost impossible to define. So, can we look at this ‘ideal pH’ as the only ideal measure of a cleansing product? The answer: look well beyond pH alone.

Q. Why are products with pH 5.5 marketed as perfect?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 9

B- it is just an interpretation, which arises because of certain skin conditions.

C- cannot be considered the reason why they are marketed as perfect.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 10

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

If you pay close attention to soap advertisements, you may hear of its pH value being touted perfect for human skin. But is there really such a thing? pH (Potential Hydrogen) is defined as the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution. pH value ranges between 0 and 14. 7 is the neutral point, 0 being the most acidic and 14 being the most alkaline. More importantly, your skin isn’t exactly pH 5.5. It falls in a range between 4.0 and 7.0, depending on factors as diverse as the body part, age, genetics, ethnicity, environment conditions, to list a few. So, are products formulated at pH 5.5 perfect for the skin? The short answer: not really! First, parameters like surfactants, texture and other ingredients indicate a cleanser’s quality, much better than pH alone. Second, though the skin pH rises slightly immediately after cleaning even with plain water, it reverts to its mild acidic pH in an hour. Healthy skin quickly rebalances the ‘acid mantle’- a protective layer over the skin- and is unaffected in the long term by the cleanser’s pH. Skin modulates pH, making skin products function optimally, not just at various pH levels, but in combination with the overall formula. So, why market pH 5.5 products as ‘perfect’? Well, for certain skin types (e.g. oily skin) and certain skin conditions (like acne), an increase in pH can aggravate these skin situations. This might lead to an interpretation of a product needing to be at a 5.5 pH for optimum cleaning. The Bureau of Indian Standards’ (BIS) mandatory guidelines for soap also exclude pH demonstrating that composition is more relevant to safety and mildness. BIS even approves the use of such soaps for a baby’s skin, underscoring their safety under normal usage conditions. Skincare experts around the country have expressed their reservations about the issue of pH being the sole judge of product safety and acid mantle preservation when factors, including but not limited, to plain water may be contributing to the same. Hence, an ideal product is almost impossible to define. So, can we look at this ‘ideal pH’ as the only ideal measure of a cleansing product? The answer: look well beyond pH alone.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) support that soaps with pH 5.5 is not considered ‘perfect’?

(i) the pH of skin isn’t exactly 5.5

(ii) a cleanser’s quality is indicated by surfactants, texture and other ingredients, better than pH

(iii) BIS excludes pH as a character of a good soap and indicates that soaps with any pH does not cause harm to human skin

(iv) for certain skin types, pH is the only thing that needs to be considered while buying a soap.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 10

(iii)- the sentence is incorrect as soaps with any pH cannot be used for skin

(iv)- for certain skin types, it is important to consider pH along with other factors.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 11

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After a year, Shrishti Art Gallery in Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad, is welcoming visitors into its premises with the exhibition ‘Maadhyam’ (medium). Instead of two-dimensional paintings, Maadhyam has artworks by emerging artists who use a variety of materials to make wall hanging sculptures, tapestries with thread work or combine a painting and a three-dimensional object for a unique narrative. Let’s look at some of the masterpieces by emerging artists. Ajay singh Bhadoria’s wall hanging sculptures are like miniature replicas of archways and latticework that’s synonymous with Hyderabad’s architecture. Ajay uses materials such as bone china, clay, terracotta and stoneware to create miniatures. Art needn’t always be serious or brooding. There’s scope for satire — on people, urbanisation and changing lifestyles. Devesh Upadhyay’s sculptures explore the psychological and emotional state of an individual. In his ‘silent conversations’ series, he presents human forms with amused and vivid expressions, at once making viewers chuckle while appreciating the dexterity of the work. Elsewhere, Bibhu Nath invokes subtle humour when he juxtaposes the old and the new in quirky artworks made of paper pulp. He presents vignettes of rustic life, mythology, folklore and urban men and women, all at once. The plight of farmers becomes the theme for Sayantan Samantha’s work. Growing up in a Kolkata suburb, he witnessed agricultural lands being usurped for industrial use. An image of a factory is central to his artwork and is framed by a mixture of paper pulp, rice husk and concrete to hint at the transformation. An ornate chair placed near the photograph, he explains, is a metaphor that alludes to the shift of seat of power. One of Maadhyam’s focuses is gender sensitivity, particularly identity and freedom. The most telling series on gender comes from Richa Arya who hails from Haryana and has witnessed how education is a formality for women to get ‘a good alliance’. To depict the hardships faced by women as well as their tenacity, she uses heavy metals. Iron is strong and pure but can get rusted without use, similar to what happens to women who aren’t allowed to put their education to use. Iron sheets are hammered and stitched onto steel, bronze and other surfaces to take on different forms. One series where she depicts everyday objects from the kitchen is her way of lamenting that these household utensils define the lives of women.

Q. What is true about ‘Maadhyam’?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 11

A- It not only focuses on paintings, but sculptures and many more.

B- Emerging artists are creating their masterpieces here.

C- There is also art and architecture involved in this exhibition, other than themes which are socially and politically relevant.

D- Since it is said that the Art Gallery is welcoming visitors to its premises, we can understand that it is not a virtual exhibition.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 12

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After a year, Shrishti Art Gallery in Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad, is welcoming visitors into its premises with the exhibition ‘Maadhyam’ (medium). Instead of two-dimensional paintings, Maadhyam has artworks by emerging artists who use a variety of materials to make wall hanging sculptures, tapestries with thread work or combine a painting and a three-dimensional object for a unique narrative. Let’s look at some of the masterpieces by emerging artists. Ajaysingh Bhadoria’s wall hanging sculptures are like miniature replicas of archways and latticework that’s synonymous with Hyderabad’s architecture. Ajay uses materials such as bone china, clay, terracotta and stoneware to create miniatures. Art needn’t always be serious or brooding. There’s scope for satire — on people, urbanisation and changing lifestyles. Devesh Upadhyay’s sculptures explore the psychological and emotional state of an individual. In his ‘silent conversations’ series, he presents human forms with amused and vivid expressions, at once making viewers chuckle while appreciating the dexterity of the work. Elsewhere, Bibhu Nath invokes subtle humour when he juxtaposes the old and the new in quirky artworks made of paper pulp. He presents vignettes of rustic life, mythology, folklore and urban men and women, all at once. The plight of farmers becomes the theme for Sayantan Samantha’s work. Growing up in a Kolkata suburb, he witnessed agricultural lands being usurped for industrial use. An image of a factory is central to his artwork and is framed by a mixture of paper pulp, rice husk and concrete to hint at the transformation. An ornate chair placed near the photograph, he explains, is a metaphor that alludes to the shift of seat of power. One of Maadhyam’s focuses is gender sensitivity, particularly identity and freedom. The most telling series on gender comes from Richa Arya who hails from Haryana and has witnessed how education is a formality for women to get ‘a good alliance’. To depict the hardships faced by women as well as their tenacity, she uses heavy metals. Iron is strong and pure but can get rusted without use, similar to what happens to women who aren’t allowed to put their education to use. Iron sheets are hammered and stitched onto steel, bronze and other surfaces to take on different forms. One series where she depicts everyday objects from the kitchen is her way of lamenting that these household utensils define the lives of women.

Q. Which of the following is/are antonyms of the word ‘dexterity’?

(i) clumsiness

(ii) expertise

(iii) adroitness

(iv) shrewdness

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 12 The word ‘dexterity’ means ‘the ability to perform a difficult action quickly and skilfully with the hands’.

The word ‘clumsiness’ means ‘behaviour that does not show any skill or thought’.

ii- means ‘a high level of knowledge or skill’

iii- means ‘the quality of being skilful and quick in thinking or movement’.

iv- means ‘clear understanding and good judgment of a situation, usually resulting in an advantage’.

So, A is the answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 13

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After a year, Shrishti Art Gallery in Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad, is welcoming visitors into its premises with the exhibition ‘Maadhyam’ (medium). Instead of two-dimensional paintings, Maadhyam has artworks by emerging artists who use a variety of materials to make wall hanging sculptures, tapestries with thread work or combine a painting and a three-dimensional object for a unique narrative. Let’s look at some of the masterpieces by emerging artists. Ajaysingh Bhadoria’s wall hanging sculptures are like miniature replicas of archways and latticework that’s synonymous with Hyderabad’s architecture. Ajay uses materials such as bone china, clay, terracotta and stoneware to create miniatures. Art needn’t always be serious or brooding. There’s scope for satire — on people, urbanisation and changing lifestyles. Devesh Upadhyay’s sculptures explore the psychological and emotional state of an individual. In his ‘silent conversations’ series, he presents human forms with amused and vivid expressions, at once making viewers chuckle while appreciating the dexterity of the work. Elsewhere, Bibhu Nath invokes subtle humour when he juxtaposes the old and the new in quirky artworks made of paper pulp. He presents vignettes of rustic life, mythology, folklore and urban men and women, all at once. The plight of farmers becomes the theme for Sayantan Samantha’s work. Growing up in a Kolkata suburb, he witnessed agricultural lands being usurped for industrial use. An image of a factory is central to his artwork and is framed by a mixture of paper pulp, rice husk and concrete to hint at the transformation. An ornate chair placed near the photograph, he explains, is a metaphor that alludes to the shift of seat of power. One of Maadhyam’s focuses is gender sensitivity, particularly identity and freedom. The most telling series on gender comes from Richa Arya who hails from Haryana and has witnessed how education is a formality for women to get ‘a good alliance’. To depict the hardships faced by women as well as their tenacity, she uses heavy metals. Iron is strong and pure but can get rusted without use, similar to what happens to women who aren’t allowed to put their education to use. Iron sheets are hammered and stitched onto steel, bronze and other surfaces to take on different forms. One series where she depicts everyday objects from the kitchen is her way of lamenting that these household utensils define the lives of women.

Q. What does Richa Arya use to portray the persistence of women?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 13 The word ‘tenacity’ means persistence’. Iron is used to represent tenacity.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 14

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After a year, Shrishti Art Gallery in Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad, is welcoming visitors into its premises with the exhibition ‘Maadhyam’ (medium). Instead of two-dimensional paintings, Maadhyam has artworks by emerging artists who use a variety of materials to make wall hanging sculptures, tapestries with thread work or combine a painting and a three-dimensional object for a unique narrative. Let’s look at some of the masterpieces by emerging artists. Ajaysingh Bhadoria’s wall hanging sculptures are like miniature replicas of archways and latticework that’s synonymous with Hyderabad’s architecture. Ajay uses materials such as bone china, clay, terracotta and stoneware to create miniatures. Art needn’t always be serious or brooding. There’s scope for satire — on people, urbanisation and changing lifestyles. Devesh Upadhyay’s sculptures explore the psychological and emotional state of an individual. In his ‘silent conversations’ series, he presents human forms with amused and vivid expressions, at once making viewers chuckle while appreciating the dexterity of the work. Elsewhere, Bibhu Nath invokes subtle humour when he juxtaposes the old and the new in quirky artworks made of paper pulp. He presents vignettes of rustic life, mythology, folklore and urban men and women, all at once. The plight of farmers becomes the theme for Sayantan Samantha’s work. Growing up in a Kolkata suburb, he witnessed agricultural lands being usurped for industrial use. An image of a factory is central to his artwork and is framed by a mixture of paper pulp, rice husk and concrete to hint at the transformation. An ornate chair placed near the photograph, he explains, is a metaphor that alludes to the shift of seat of power. One of Maadhyam’s focuses is gender sensitivity, particularly identity and freedom. The most telling series on gender comes from Richa Arya who hails from Haryana and has witnessed how education is a formality for women to get ‘a good alliance’. To depict the hardships faced by women as well as their tenacity, she uses heavy metals. Iron is strong and pure but can get rusted without use, similar to what happens to women who aren’t allowed to put their education to use. Iron sheets are hammered and stitched onto steel, bronze and other surfaces to take on different forms. One series where she depicts everyday objects from the kitchen is her way of lamenting that these household utensils define the lives of women.

Q. Which of the following is/are the example(s), stated in the passage, for serious or brooding art?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 14 Since A and B are stated as examples for art that are not serious or brooding, the only viable option is C. And it is a brooding piece.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 15

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After a year, Shrishti Art Gallery in Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad, is welcoming visitors into its premises with the exhibition ‘Maadhyam’ (medium). Instead of two-dimensional paintings, Maadhyam has artworks by emerging artists who use a variety of materials to make wall hanging sculptures, tapestries with thread work or combine a painting and a three-dimensional object for a unique narrative. Let’s look at some of the masterpieces by emerging artists. Ajaysingh Bhadoria’s wall hanging sculptures are like miniature replicas of archways and latticework that’s synonymous with Hyderabad’s architecture. Ajay uses materials such as bone china, clay, terracotta and stoneware to create miniatures. Art needn’t always be serious or brooding. There’s scope for satire — on people, urbanisation and changing lifestyles. Devesh Upadhyay’s sculptures explore the psychological and emotional state of an individual. In his ‘silent conversations’ series, he presents human forms with amused and vivid expressions, at once making viewers chuckle while appreciating the dexterity of the work. Elsewhere, Bibhu Nath invokes subtle humour when he juxtaposes the old and the new in quirky artworks made of paper pulp. He presents vignettes of rustic life, mythology, folklore and urban men and women, all at once. The plight of farmers becomes the theme for Sayantan Samantha’s work. Growing up in a Kolkata suburb, he witnessed agricultural lands being usurped for industrial use. An image of a factory is central to his artwork and is framed by a mixture of paper pulp, rice husk and concrete to hint at the transformation. An ornate chair placed near the photograph, he explains, is a metaphor that alludes to the shift of seat of power. One of Maadhyam’s focuses is gender sensitivity, particularly identity and freedom. The most telling series on gender comes from Richa Arya who hails from Haryana and has witnessed how education is a formality for women to get ‘a good alliance’. To depict the hardships faced by women as well as their tenacity, she uses heavy metals. Iron is strong and pure but can get rusted without use, similar to what happens to women who aren’t allowed to put their education to use. Iron sheets are hammered and stitched onto steel, bronze and other surfaces to take on different forms. One series where she depicts everyday objects from the kitchen is her way of lamenting that these household utensils define the lives of women.

Q. Why is an ornate chair placed near Sayantan Samantha’s work?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 15 The ornate chair represents the chair of wealthy people. Farmers does not use decorated chair. So it shows power transition to industrialists.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 16

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Gandaberunda , the mythical two-headed bird, often seen as one of Lord Vishnu’s many incarnations in Hindu mythology, lies on a circular board of thick brown paper intricately etched out using a black pen. At first glance, a satisfying network of patterns is all one sees. But the motif also opens doors to history; especially that of the temple structures seen in Tamil Nadu. The gandaberunda is one of the many creatures that feature in artist and architect Mathew Samuel’s Divine Fauna, a 12-part series of sketches inspired from temple reliefs, manifested as motifs on circular boards. While taking up a temple project, Samuel came to know more about Tamil mythology and Dravidian style of architecture and observed that throughout history, there have been “additions and subtractions” and various versions of the same elements. For example, the peacock is represented in a certain way in the Chola dynasty, and more vibrantly by the Nayakas. And, it has been in constant change. His first heritage conservation project was of a temple in Udayarpalayam, a small village in Jayankondam taluk, near Gangaikondacholapuram. It dates back to the Cholas but a lot of the following dynasties did their additions to it. Another structure that inspired him lies in Mamallapuram, a cave called Mahishasura Mardini cave, which had representations that were out of the world. The horizontal bands of etchings displaying circular elements that run along temple structures, helped him pin down a circular format to portray the motifs in. The first work was on a bird that is not visually represented much anywhere — andril paravai. It has been mentioned in a lot of Tamil literature; in fact even contemporary Tamil movie songs mention the bird. Andril paravai is spotted in pairs, and if one dies, the other dies too. These birds appear, albeit subtly, in many temple structures. There are very few temple paintings, especially in the pre-Pallava era, that show the andril paravai. In the caves of Chittinavasal, in Pudukkottai, the motif can be seen on ceilings. In a few temples, it can be seen as ornamentation around the deity or a sculptural element. Matthew wanted to give this motif a form. After andril paravai, he moved on to parrots, peacocks and animals like the lion. Then, he started getting suggestions from others, of mythical creatures that he did not know of, like the gandaberunda, which was actually the royal insignia of the Mysore royal family. Also, the Maratha kings of Tanjore have represented gandaberunda in a different format. In Mysore royalty, it is more of a symmetrical one and in the Tanjore way of doing it, the form is not so much. This facet of history, which offers multiple narratives (spanning time periods), of the same idea is what feeds everyone’s interests.

Q. The passage mainly focuses on ____________

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 16

A- the passage doesn’t focus on using modern day technology to bring back history. It just mentions about Matthew’s heritage conservation project, but nothing much about how technology is used.

B- this is just a small part of the passage.

C- the lineage is not discovered.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 17

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Gandaberunda , the mythical two-headed bird, often seen as one of Lord Vishnu’s many incarnations in Hindu mythology, lies on a circular board of thick brown paper intricately etched out using a black pen. At first glance, a satisfying network of patterns is all one sees. But the motif also opens doors to history; especially that of the temple structures seen in Tamil Nadu. The gandaberunda is one of the many creatures that feature in artist and architect Mathew Samuel’s Divine Fauna, a 12-part series of sketches inspired from temple reliefs, manifested as motifs on circular boards. While taking up a temple project, Samuel came to know more about Tamil mythology and Dravidian style of architecture and observed that throughout history, there have been “additions and subtractions” and various versions of the same elements. For example, the peacock is represented in a certain way in the Chola dynasty, and more vibrantly by the Nayakas. And, it has been in constant change. His first heritage conservation project was of a temple in Udayarpalayam, a small village in Jayankondam taluk, near Gangaikondacholapuram. It dates back to the Cholas but a lot of the following dynasties did their additions to it. Another structure that inspired him lies in Mamallapuram, a cave called Mahishasura Mardini cave, which had representations that were out of the world. The horizontal bands of etchings displaying circular elements that run along temple structures, helped him pin down a circular format to portray the motifs in. The first work was on a bird that is not visually represented much anywhere — andril paravai. It has been mentioned in a lot of Tamil literature; in fact even contemporary Tamil movie songs mention the bird. Andril paravai is spotted in pairs, and if one dies, the other dies too. These birds appear, albeit subtly, in many temple structures. There are very few temple paintings, especially in the pre-Pallava era, that show the andril paravai. In the caves of Chittinavasal, in Pudukkottai, the motif can be seen on ceilings. In a few temples, it can be seen as ornamentation around the deity or a sculptural element. Matthew wanted to give this motif a form. After andril paravai, he moved on to parrots, peacocks and animals like the lion. Then, he started getting suggestions from others, of mythical creatures that he did not know of, like the gandaberunda, which was actually the royal insignia of the Mysore royal family. Also, the Maratha kings of Tanjore have represented gandaberunda in a different format. In Mysore royalty, it is more of a symmetrical one and in the Tanjore way of doing it, the form is not so much. This facet of history, which offers multiple narratives (spanning time periods), of the same idea is what feeds everyone’s interests.

Q. Which of the following statements is true about andril paravai ?

(i) although they are mentioned a lot in literature, they are not represented much, visually.

(ii) they are always spotted in pairs and do not survive without the other.

(iii) they are seen as ornamentation around the deity in so many temples.

(iv) the motif can be seen on the ceiling and walls of the Chittinavasal cave.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 17

(iii)- only in very few temples, they are found

(iv)- motif can be seen only in the ceiling, not on walls.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 18

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Gandaberunda , the mythical two-headed bird, often seen as one of Lord Vishnu’s many incarnations in Hindu mythology, lies on a circular board of thick brown paper intricately etched out using a black pen. At first glance, a satisfying network of patterns is all one sees. But the motif also opens doors to history; especially that of the temple structures seen in Tamil Nadu. The gandaberunda is one of the many creatures that feature in artist and architect Mathew Samuel’s Divine Fauna, a 12-part series of sketches inspired from temple reliefs, manifested as motifs on circular boards. While taking up a temple project, Samuel came to know more about Tamil mythology and Dravidian style of architecture and observed that throughout history, there have been “additions and subtractions” and various versions of the same elements. For example, the peacock is represented in a certain way in the Chola dynasty, and more vibrantly by the Nayakas. And, it has been in constant change. His first heritage conservation project was of a temple in Udayarpalayam, a small village in Jayankondam taluk, near Gangaikondacholapuram. It dates back to the Cholas but a lot of the following dynasties did their additions to it. Another structure that inspired him lies in Mamallapuram, a cave called Mahishasura Mardini cave, which had representations that were out of the world. The horizontal bands of etchings displaying circular elements that run along temple structures, helped him pin down a circular format to portray the motifs in. The first work was on a bird that is not visually represented much anywhere — andril paravai. It has been mentioned in a lot of Tamil literature; in fact even contemporary Tamil movie songs mention the bird. Andril paravai is spotted in pairs, and if one dies, the other dies too. These birds appear, albeit subtly, in many temple structures. There are very few temple paintings, especially in the pre-Pallava era, that show the andril paravai. In the caves of Chittinavasal, in Pudukkottai, the motif can be seen on ceilings. In a few temples, it can be seen as ornamentation around the deity or a sculptural element. Matthew wanted to give this motif a form. After andril paravai, he moved on to parrots, peacocks and animals like the lion. Then, he started getting suggestions from others, of mythical creatures that he did not know of, like the gandaberunda, which was actually the royal insignia of the Mysore royal family. Also, the Maratha kings of Tanjore have represented gandaberunda in a different format. In Mysore royalty, it is more of a symmetrical one and in the Tanjore way of doing it, the form is not so much. This facet of history, which offers multiple narratives (spanning time periods), of the same idea is what feeds everyone’s interests.

Q. After portraying the andril paravai motif, what did Matthew do?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 18

A- it is not what he did. It is something he received while portraying other motifs.

D is what he did after portraying the andril paravai motif

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 19

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Gandaberunda , the mythical two-headed bird, often seen as one of Lord Vishnu’s many incarnations in Hindu mythology, lies on a circular board of thick brown paper intricately etched out using a black pen. At first glance, a satisfying network of patterns is all one sees. But the motif also opens doors to history; especially that of the temple structures seen in Tamil Nadu. The gandaberunda is one of the many creatures that feature in artist and architect Mathew Samuel’s Divine Fauna, a 12-part series of sketches inspired from temple reliefs, manifested as motifs on circular boards. While taking up a temple project, Samuel came to know more about Tamil mythology and Dravidian style of architecture and observed that throughout history, there have been “additions and subtractions” and various versions of the same elements. For example, the peacock is represented in a certain way in the Chola dynasty, and more vibrantly by the Nayakas. And, it has been in constant change. His first heritage conservation project was of a temple in Udayarpalayam, a small village in Jayankondam taluk, near Gangaikondacholapuram. It dates back to the Cholas but a lot of the following dynasties did their additions to it. Another structure that inspired him lies in Mamallapuram, a cave called Mahishasura Mardini cave, which had representations that were out of the world. The horizontal bands of etchings displaying circular elements that run along temple structures, helped him pin down a circular format to portray the motifs in. The first work was on a bird that is not visually represented much anywhere — andril paravai. It has been mentioned in a lot of Tamil literature; in fact even contemporary Tamil movie songs mention the bird. Andril paravai is spotted in pairs, and if one dies, the other dies too. These birds appear, albeit subtly, in many temple structures. There are very few temple paintings, especially in the pre-Pallava era, that show the andril paravai. In the caves of Chittinavasal, in Pudukkottai, the motif can be seen on ceilings. In a few temples, it can be seen as ornamentation around the deity or a sculptural element. Matthew wanted to give this motif a form. After andril paravai, he moved on to parrots, peacocks and animals like the lion. Then, he started getting suggestions from others, of mythical creatures that he did not know of, like the gandaberunda, which was actually the royal insignia of the Mysore royal family. Also, the Maratha kings of Tanjore have represented gandaberunda in a different format. In Mysore royalty, it is more of a symmetrical one and in the Tanjore way of doing it, the form is not so much. This facet of history, which offers multiple narratives (spanning time periods), of the same idea is what feeds everyone’s interests.

Q. The “additions and subtractions” were being made to what, according to Samuel?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 19 In the passage, it is stated that while taking up a temple project, Samuel came to know more about Tamil mythology and Dravidian style of architecture and observed that throughout history, there have been “additions and subtractions” and various versions of the same elements. He must be talking about Tamil mythology and Dravidian architecture. So, A is correct.

B- not correct.

C- It talks about Tamil mythology, not history.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 20

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Gandaberunda , the mythical two-headed bird, often seen as one of Lord Vishnu’s many incarnations in Hindu mythology, lies on a circular board of thick brown paper intricately etched out using a black pen. At first glance, a satisfying network of patterns is all one sees. But the motif also opens doors to history; especially that of the temple structures seen in Tamil Nadu. The gandaberunda is one of the many creatures that feature in artist and architect Mathew Samuel’s Divine Fauna, a 12-part series of sketches inspired from temple reliefs, manifested as motifs on circular boards. While taking up a temple project, Samuel came to know more about Tamil mythology and Dravidian style of architecture and observed that throughout history, there have been “additions and subtractions” and various versions of the same elements. For example, the peacock is represented in a certain way in the Chola dynasty, and more vibrantly by the Nayakas. And, it has been in constant change. His first heritage conservation project was of a temple in Udayarpalayam, a small village in Jayankondam taluk, near Gangaikondacholapuram. It dates back to the Cholas but a lot of the following dynasties did their additions to it. Another structure that inspired him lies in Mamallapuram, a cave called Mahishasura Mardini cave, which had representations that were out of the world. The horizontal bands of etchings displaying circular elements that run along temple structures, helped him pin down a circular format to portray the motifs in. The first work was on a bird that is not visually represented much anywhere — andril paravai. It has been mentioned in a lot of Tamil literature; in fact even contemporary Tamil movie songs mention the bird. Andril paravai is spotted in pairs, and if one dies, the other dies too. These birds appear, albeit subtly, in many temple structures. There are very few temple paintings, especially in the pre-Pallava era, that show the andril paravai. In the caves of Chittinavasal, in Pudukkottai, the motif can be seen on ceilings. In a few temples, it can be seen as ornamentation around the deity or a sculptural element. Matthew wanted to give this motif a form. After andril paravai, he moved on to parrots, peacocks and animals like the lion. Then, he started getting suggestions from others, of mythical creatures that he did not know of, like the gandaberunda, which was actually the royal insignia of the Mysore royal family. Also, the Maratha kings of Tanjore have represented gandaberunda in a different format. In Mysore royalty, it is more of a symmetrical one and in the Tanjore way of doing it, the form is not so much. This facet of history, which offers multiple narratives (spanning time periods), of the same idea is what feeds everyone’s interests.

Q. What part of speech is the word ‘albeit’

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 20 The word ‘albeit’ means ‘although’ or ‘even though’. It is a conjunction, that is, a word that connects sentences, phrases or clauses.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 21

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In this world of devastating, unsustainable and rising inequalities, facing a climate crisis and a global deficit of care, we desperately need to rethink how we live and what we value. So, it is wonderful and important to feature indigenous values and ways of life, as we have a great deal to learn from them, not just for the future of India, but for the future of the world. Too often, indigenous communities- like the Adivasis in India- have been cast out from the society as ‘wild’, ‘savage’ and, of course, very poor. But, in fact, many such indigenous people are communities of unfathomable riches that extend beyond crude measures of GDP or income or assets. Adivasi wealth lies in the values they hold, the ways they lead their lives with each other, the kind of communities they build. With just three examples, by considering art, the environment and gender relations in indigenous communities, this point would be clear. Travelling through the forests of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh or Odisha, it is hard not to have our breath taken away by the wonders of these regions- this is not only for the beauty of these forests but for the Adivasi villages therein, which are incredibly clean and picturesque. Further, in these villages, art is not the preserve of elites for exhibition- one can see art in the craftsmanship of a teak door, in the cheery swirls of the hand-painting upon mud walls. One can hear it in the song of monsoon rain drops playing on handmade roof. One can feel it in the linking of arms in the village dancing circle, people singing together and playing drums. Art here is joy, created by everyone for everyone, encompassing life itself. The indigenous worldview around the environment is similar. The environment is not perceived as a commodity to be exploited, harvested and conquered, but it is instead a commons to be enjoyed and shared by all. There is no separation between nature and culture. The ancestors inhabit the waters, the forests and the landscape. And those who have passed have to be cared for, or they would get angry and unleash the forces of the environment. Adivasis therefore deeply nurture and protect the environment around them as our commonwealth, a bridge between the ancestors and those who will follow us after. Equally remarkable is the indigenous perspective on gender relations. What is so extraordinary about these forest areas is the much greater status, respect and freedom women within these have as compared to their counterparts in the agricultural plains. Women danced and drank homemade brew, rice beer and wine made from the mahua flower alongside men. Indigenous women worked outside their homes and they often held the strings of the purse as well. Women had the freedom to leave bad relationships or start new ones without being ostracised. In some ways, indigenous women had many of the freedoms that feminists have so long fought for and that are so hard to find in much of India.

Q. Why does the author say that the riches of indigenous communities cannot be fathomed?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 21 In the passage it is mentioned that “Adivasi wealth lies in the values they hold, the ways they lead their lives with each other, the kind of communities they build.” From that, we can derive at C.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 22

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In this world of devastating, unsustainable and rising inequalities, facing a climate crisis and a global deficit of care, we desperately need to rethink how we live and what we value. So, it is wonderful and important to feature indigenous values and ways of life, as we have a great deal to learn from them, not just for the future of India, but for the future of the world. Too often, indigenous communities- like the Adivasis in India- have been cast out from the society as ‘wild’, ‘savage’ and, of course, very poor. But, in fact, many such indigenous people are communities of unfathomable riches that extend beyond crude measures of GDP or income or assets. Adivasi wealth lies in the values they hold, the ways they lead their lives with each other, the kind of communities they build. With just three examples, by considering art, the environment and gender relations in indigenous communities, this point would be clear. Travelling through the forests of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh or Odisha, it is hard not to have our breath taken away by the wonders of these regions- this is not only for the beauty of these forests but for the Adivasi villages therein, which are incredibly clean and picturesque. Further, in these villages, art is not the preserve of elites for exhibition- one can see art in the craftsmanship of a teak door, in the cheery swirls of the hand-painting upon mud walls. One can hear it in the song of monsoon rain drops playing on handmade roof. One can feel it in the linking of arms in the village dancing circle, people singing together and playing drums. Art here is joy, created by everyone for everyone, encompassing life itself. The indigenous worldview around the environment is similar. The environment is not perceived as a commodity to be exploited, harvested and conquered, but it is instead a commons to be enjoyed and shared by all. There is no separation between nature and culture. The ancestors inhabit the waters, the forests and the landscape. And those who have passed have to be cared for, or they would get angry and unleash the forces of the environment. Adivasis therefore deeply nurture and protect the environment around them as our commonwealth, a bridge between the ancestors and those who will follow us after. Equally remarkable is the indigenous perspective on gender relations. What is so extraordinary about these forest areas is the much greater status, respect and freedom women within these have as compared to their counterparts in the agricultural plains. Women danced and drank homemade brew, rice beer and wine made from the mahua flower alongside men. Indigenous women worked outside their homes and they often held the strings of the purse as well. Women had the freedom to leave bad relationships or start new ones without being ostracised. In some ways, indigenous women had many of the freedoms that feminists have so long fought for and that are so hard to find in much of India.

Q. Which pair of words are synonyms of ‘indigenous’?

(i) aboriginal

(ii) expatriate

(iii) autochthonous

(iv) adventitious

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 22 ‘Expatriate’ and ‘adventitious’ are opposites of ‘indigenous’.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 23

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In this world of devastating, unsustainable and rising inequalities, facing a climate crisis and a global deficit of care, we desperately need to rethink how we live and what we value. So, it is wonderful and important to feature indigenous values and ways of life, as we have a great deal to learn from them, not just for the future of India, but for the future of the world. Too often, indigenous communities- like the Adivasis in India- have been cast out from the society as ‘wild’, ‘savage’ and, of course, very poor. But, in fact, many such indigenous people are communities of unfathomable riches that extend beyond crude measures of GDP or income or assets. Adivasi wealth lies in the values they hold, the ways they lead their lives with each other, the kind of communities they build. With just three examples, by considering art, the environment and gender relations in indigenous communities, this point would be clear. Travelling through the forests of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh or Odisha, it is hard not to have our breath taken away by the wonders of these regions- this is not only for the beauty of these forests but for the Adivasi villages therein, which are incredibly clean and picturesque. Further, in these villages, art is not the preserve of elites for exhibition- one can see art in the craftsmanship of a teak door, in the cheery swirls of the hand-painting upon mud walls. One can hear it in the song of monsoon rain drops playing on handmade roof. One can feel it in the linking of arms in the village dancing circle, people singing together and playing drums. Art here is joy, created by everyone for everyone, encompassing life itself. The indigenous worldview around the environment is similar. The environment is not perceived as a commodity to be exploited, harvested and conquered, but it is instead a commons to be enjoyed and shared by all. There is no separation between nature and culture. The ancestors inhabit the waters, the forests and the landscape. And those who have passed have to be cared for, or they would get angry and unleash the forces of the environment. Adivasis therefore deeply nurture and protect the environment around them as our commonwealth, a bridge between the ancestors and those who will follow us after. Equally remarkable is the indigenous perspective on gender relations. What is so extraordinary about these forest areas is the much greater status, respect and freedom women within these have as compared to their counterparts in the agricultural plains. Women danced and drank homemade brew, rice beer and wine made from the mahua flower alongside men. Indigenous women worked outside their homes and they often held the strings of the purse as well. Women had the freedom to leave bad relationships or start new ones without being ostracised. In some ways, indigenous women had many of the freedoms that feminists have so long fought for and that are so hard to find in much of India.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the women of indigenous community?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 23 A- It is said that women of indigenous community enjoy much greater status and freedom than women in the cities, not men within their community. So, it is wrong.

C- They won’t get ostracised for starting a new relationship. So, C is incorrect.

D- This statement is wrong because feminists are still fighting for freedom and indigenous women already have those. Feminists are not fighting for these women.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 24

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In this world of devastating, unsustainable and rising inequalities, facing a climate crisis and a global deficit of care, we desperately need to rethink how we live and what we value. So, it is wonderful and important to feature indigenous values and ways of life, as we have a great deal to learn from them, not just for the future of India, but for the future of the world. Too often, indigenous communities- like the Adivasis in India- have been cast out from the society as ‘wild’, ‘savage’ and, of course, very poor. But, in fact, many such indigenous people are communities of unfathomable riches that extend beyond crude measures of GDP or income or assets. Adivasi wealth lies in the values they hold, the ways they lead their lives with each other, the kind of communities they build. With just three examples, by considering art, the environment and gender relations in indigenous communities, this point would be clear. Travelling through the forests of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh or Odisha, it is hard not to have our breath taken away by the wonders of these regions- this is not only for the beauty of these forests but for the Adivasi villages therein, which are incredibly clean and picturesque. Further, in these villages, art is not the preserve of elites for exhibition- one can see art in the craftsmanship of a teak door, in the cheery swirls of the hand-painting upon mud walls. One can hear it in the song of monsoon rain drops playing on handmade roof. One can feel it in the linking of arms in the village dancing circle, people singing together and playing drums. Art here is joy, created by everyone for everyone, encompassing life itself. The indigenous worldview around the environment is similar. The environment is not perceived as a commodity to be exploited, harvested and conquered, but it is instead a commons to be enjoyed and shared by all. There is no separation between nature and culture. The ancestors inhabit the waters, the forests and the landscape. And those who have passed have to be cared for, or they would get angry and unleash the forces of the environment. Adivasis therefore deeply nurture and protect the environment around them as our commonwealth, a bridge between the ancestors and those who will follow us after. Equally remarkable is the indigenous perspective on gender relations. What is so extraordinary about these forest areas is the much greater status, respect and freedom women within these have as compared to their counterparts in the agricultural plains. Women danced and drank homemade brew, rice beer and wine made from the mahua flower alongside men. Indigenous women worked outside their homes and they often held the strings of the purse as well. Women had the freedom to leave bad relationships or start new ones without being ostracised. In some ways, indigenous women had many of the freedoms that feminists have so long fought for and that are so hard to find in much of India.

Q. What things make an Adivasi village excel in art?

(i) the exhibitions of art conducted by elites in the villages.

(ii) the craftsmanship that goes into the making of houses, even the doors and walls.

(iii) the way they dance and sing their song.

(iv) the joy created by everyone for everyone.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 24 i is not correct. That is something done by elites. All others are proofs of the craftmanship of Adivasis.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 25

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In this world of devastating, unsustainable and rising inequalities, facing a climate crisis and a global deficit of care, we desperately need to rethink how we live and what we value. So, it is wonderful and important to feature indigenous values and ways of life, as we have a great deal to learn from them, not just for the future of India, but for the future of the world. Too often, indigenous communities- like the Adivasis in India- have been cast out from the society as ‘wild’, ‘savage’ and, of course, very poor. But, in fact, many such indigenous people are communities of unfathomable riches that extend beyond crude measures of GDP or income or assets. Adivasi wealth lies in the values they hold, the ways they lead their lives with each other, the kind of communities they build. With just three examples, by considering art, the environment and gender relations in indigenous communities, this point would be clear. Travelling through the forests of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh or Odisha, it is hard not to have our breath taken away by the wonders of these regions- this is not only for the beauty of these forests but for the Adivasi villages therein, which are incredibly clean and picturesque. Further, in these villages, art is not the preserve of elites for exhibition- one can see art in the craftsmanship of a teak door, in the cheery swirls of the hand-painting upon mud walls. One can hear it in the song of monsoon rain drops playing on handmade roof. One can feel it in the linking of arms in the village dancing circle, people singing together and playing drums. Art here is joy, created by everyone for everyone, encompassing life itself. The indigenous worldview around the environment is similar. The environment is not perceived as a commodity to be exploited, harvested and conquered, but it is instead a commons to be enjoyed and shared by all. There is no separation between nature and culture. The ancestors inhabit the waters, the forests and the landscape. And those who have passed have to be cared for, or they would get angry and unleash the forces of the environment. Adivasis therefore deeply nurture and protect the environment around them as our commonwealth, a bridge between the ancestors and those who will follow us after. Equally remarkable is the indigenous perspective on gender relations. What is so extraordinary about these forest areas is the much greater status, respect and freedom women within these have as compared to their counterparts in the agricultural plains. Women danced and drank homemade brew, rice beer and wine made from the mahua flower alongside men. Indigenous women worked outside their homes and they often held the strings of the purse as well. Women had the freedom to leave bad relationships or start new ones without being ostracised. In some ways, indigenous women had many of the freedoms that feminists have so long fought for and that are so hard to find in much of India.

Q. Why do indigenous people perceive the environment not as a commodity to be exploited, harvested and conquered?

(i) They want everyone to enjoy and share it.

(ii) Their belief that the dead would get angry if their abode is not cared for.

(iii) They could live satisfactorily without invading nature, as their culture and nature are not different.

(iv) If they start exploiting, there will be a bridge between ancestors and the people from cities, who will follow them to exploit these forests.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 25 All there are the reasons, except iv.

iv is wrong because, in the passage, it is only said that Adivasis are “a bridge between the ancestors and those who will follow us after.” This doesn’t mean they will act as a bridge between ancestors and people in the cities.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 26

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In 2022, India will join a select group of countries limiting industrial trans-fat to 2% by mass of the total oils/fats present in the product. India would thus be achieving the WHO target a year in advance. In mid-2016, the trans-fat content limit was halved from 10% to 5%, and in December 2020, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) capped it to 3% by 2021. While trans-fat is naturally present in red meat and dairy products, the focus is on restricting the industrially produced trans-fat used solely to prolong the shelf life of products at less cost. While the government’s notification specifically mentions edible oils and fats that are used as ingredients, it also applies to emulsions such as margarines. Targeting these ingredients would in effect result in reducing the trans-fat content to 2% in all food items as these two are the major sources of industrial trans-fat. Also, even when the fat/oil contains less than 2% trans-fat, repeated use at high temperature can increase the trans-fat content. The focus on cutting down trans-fat content in food arises from its proclivity to negatively alter the lipoprotein cholesterol profile by increasing the level of bad cholesterol (LDL) while decreasing the level of HDL or good cholesterol. These changes in the lipoprotein cholesterol profile increase the risk of cardiovascular diseases. In 2004, when Denmark became the first country to limit industrially produced trans-fat content in all foods to 2% of fats and oils, it faced resistance from much of Europe, including the European Commission. However, many countries have since adopted similar restrictions themselves. The benefits of reducing trans-fat can become quickly apparent, as seen in Denmark; three years after the cap came into effect, it saw a reduction of about 14 deaths attributable to cardiovascular diseases per 1,00,000 population. It is now well known that trans-fat can be completely eliminated and replaced with healthier substitutes without any change in the food taste or cost. According to WHO, a dozen large multinational food companies have already committed to eliminate industrially produced trans-fat from all their products by 2023.

Q. In which year did India originally plan to meet the WHO target of limiting trans-fat to 2% by mass of the total oils/fats present in the product?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 26 It is said that in 2022, India will achieve it and that would be a year earlier than the target year. So, the target year is 2023.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 27

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In 2022, India will join a select group of countries limiting industrial trans-fat to 2% by mass of the total oils/fats present in the product. India would thus be achieving the WHO target a year in advance. In mid-2016, the trans-fat content limit was halved from 10% to 5%, and in December 2020, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) capped it to 3% by 2021. While trans-fat is naturally present in red meat and dairy products, the focus is on restricting the industrially produced trans-fat used solely to prolong the shelf life of products at less cost. While the government’s notification specifically mentions edible oils and fats that are used as ingredients, it also applies to emulsions such as margarines. Targeting these ingredients would in effect result in reducing the trans-fat content to 2% in all food items as these two are the major sources of industrial trans-fat. Also, even when the fat/oil contains less than 2% trans-fat, repeated use at high temperature can increase the trans-fat content. The focus on cutting down trans-fat content in food arises from its proclivity to negatively alter the lipoprotein cholesterol profile by increasing the level of bad cholesterol (LDL) while decreasing the level of HDL or good cholesterol. These changes in the lipoprotein cholesterol profile increase the risk of cardiovascular diseases. In 2004, when Denmark became the first country to limit industrially produced trans-fat content in all foods to 2% of fats and oils, it faced resistance from much of Europe, including the European Commission. However, many countries have since adopted similar restrictions themselves. The benefits of reducing trans-fat can become quickly apparent, as seen in Denmark; three years after the cap came into effect, it saw a reduction of about 14 deaths attributable to cardiovascular diseases per 1,00,000 population. It is now well known that trans-fat can be completely eliminated and replaced with healthier substitutes without any change in the food taste or cost. According to WHO, a dozen large multinational food companies have already committed to eliminate industrially produced trans-fat from all their products by 2023.

Q. Which of the following is a synonym for the word ‘proclivity’?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 27 The word ‘proclivity’ means ‘a natural inclination or tendency to act in a certain way’.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 28

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In 2022, India will join a select group of countries limiting industrial trans-fat to 2% by mass of the total oils/fats present in the product. India would thus be achieving the WHO target a year in advance. In mid-2016, the trans-fat content limit was halved from 10% to 5%, and in December 2020, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) capped it to 3% by 2021. While trans-fat is naturally present in red meat and dairy products, the focus is on restricting the industrially produced trans-fat used solely to prolong the shelf life of products at less cost. While the government’s notification specifically mentions edible oils and fats that are used as ingredients, it also applies to emulsions such as margarines. Targeting these ingredients would in effect result in reducing the trans-fat content to 2% in all food items as these two are the major sources of industrial trans-fat. Also, even when the fat/oil contains less than 2% trans-fat, repeated use at high temperature can increase the trans-fat content. The focus on cutting down trans-fat content in food arises from its proclivity to negatively alter the lipoprotein cholesterol profile by increasing the level of bad cholesterol (LDL) while decreasing the level of HDL or good cholesterol. These changes in the lipoprotein cholesterol profile increase the risk of cardiovascular diseases. In 2004, when Denmark became the first country to limit industrially produced trans-fat content in all foods to 2% of fats and oils, it faced resistance from much of Europe, including the European Commission. However, many countries have since adopted similar restrictions themselves. The benefits of reducing trans-fat can become quickly apparent, as seen in Denmark; three years after the cap came into effect, it saw a reduction of about 14 deaths attributable to cardiovascular diseases per 1,00,000 population. It is now well known that trans-fat can be completely eliminated and replaced with healthier substitutes without any change in the food taste or cost. According to WHO, a dozen large multinational food companies have already committed to eliminate industrially produced trans-fat from all their products by 2023.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true according to the passage?

(i) Food items using industrially produced trans-fat will have more shelf life.

(ii) Use of oil/fat that contains less than 2% trans-fat at high temperatures can increase the trans-fat content, irrespective of the number of times it is used.

(iii) Three years after the cap on trans-fat, Denmark has seen 14% fewer deaths related to cardiovascular diseases.

(iv) Many large food companies have committed to eliminate industrially produced trans-fat from all their products by 2023, though it is going to cost them a dime.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 28

B- There won’t be much problem if it is used only once. Repetitive use at high temperatures create problem.

C- The data is wrong. It is 14 deaths per 1,00,000 population.

D- The reduction in trans-fat use does not put more financial burden on companies. They could continue producing food products at the same cost.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 29

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In 2022, India will join a select group of countries limiting industrial trans-fat to 2% by mass of the total oils/fats present in the product. India would thus be achieving the WHO target a year in advance. In mid-2016, the trans-fat content limit was halved from 10% to 5%, and in December 2020, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) capped it to 3% by 2021. While trans-fat is naturally present in red meat and dairy products, the focus is on restricting the industrially produced trans-fat used solely to prolong the shelf life of products at less cost. While the government’s notification specifically mentions edible oils and fats that are used as ingredients, it also applies to emulsions such as margarines. Targeting these ingredients would in effect result in reducing the trans-fat content to 2% in all food items as these two are the major sources of industrial trans-fat. Also, even when the fat/oil contains less than 2% trans-fat, repeated use at high temperature can increase the trans-fat content. The focus on cutting down trans-fat content in food arises from its proclivity to negatively alter the lipoprotein cholesterol profile by increasing the level of bad cholesterol (LDL) while decreasing the level of HDL or good cholesterol. These changes in the lipoprotein cholesterol profile increase the risk of cardiovascular diseases. In 2004, when Denmark became the first country to limit industrially produced trans-fat content in all foods to 2% of fats and oils, it faced resistance from much of Europe, including the European Commission. However, many countries have since adopted similar restrictions themselves. The benefits of reducing trans-fat can become quickly apparent, as seen in Denmark; three years after the cap came into effect, it saw a reduction of about 14 deaths attributable to cardiovascular diseases per 1,00,000 population. It is now well known that trans-fat can be completely eliminated and replaced with healthier substitutes without any change in the food taste or cost. According to WHO, a dozen large multinational food companies have already committed to eliminate industrially produced trans-fat from all their products by 2023.

Q. To achieve its target in reducing trans-fat, what will India focus on?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 29 It is said that the focus will be on restricting the industrially produced trans-fat used solely to prolong the shelf life of products at less cost. That means B.

All other statements are wrong according to the passage.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 30

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In 2022, India will join a select group of countries limiting industrial trans-fat to 2% by mass of the total oils/fats present in the product. India would thus be achieving the WHO target a year in advance. In mid-2016, the trans-fat content limit was halved from 10% to 5%, and in December 2020, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) capped it to 3% by 2021. While trans-fat is naturally present in red meat and dairy products, the focus is on restricting the industrially produced trans-fat used solely to prolong the shelf life of products at less cost. While the government’s notification specifically mentions edible oils and fats that are used as ingredients, it also applies to emulsions such as margarines. Targeting these ingredients would in effect result in reducing the trans-fat content to 2% in all food items as these two are the major sources of industrial trans-fat. Also, even when the fat/oil contains less than 2% trans-fat, repeated use at high temperature can increase the trans-fat content. The focus on cutting down trans-fat content in food arises from its proclivity to negatively alter the lipoprotein cholesterol profile by increasing the level of bad cholesterol (LDL) while decreasing the level of HDL or good cholesterol. These changes in the lipoprotein cholesterol profile increase the risk of cardiovascular diseases. In 2004, when Denmark became the first country to limit industrially produced trans-fat content in all foods to 2% of fats and oils, it faced resistance from much of Europe, including the European Commission. However, many countries have since adopted similar restrictions themselves. The benefits of reducing trans-fat can become quickly apparent, as seen in Denmark; three years after the cap came into effect, it saw a reduction of about 14 deaths attributable to cardiovascular diseases per 1,00,000 population. It is now well known that trans-fat can be completely eliminated and replaced with healthier substitutes without any change in the food taste or cost. According to WHO, a dozen large multinational food companies have already committed to eliminate industrially produced trans-fat from all their products by 2023.

Q. Why is it important to cut down trans-fat in food?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 30

A- The information in this sentence is wrong, as bad cholesterol is LDL anad goo cholesterol is HDL.

C- The countries have reported reduction in cardiovascular disease related deaths.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 31

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the PM SHRI scheme to turn existing government schools into model schools for implementation of the National Education Policy, 2022. The scheme will be implemented as a centrally sponsored scheme with a total project cost of Rs. 27,360 crores, with the Centre's share being Rs. 18,128 crores for the period of five years from 2022-23 to 2026-27 for transforming nearly 14,500 schools across the country. However, schools will be selected only if the state government agrees to implement the NEP in entirety with the Centre laying down commitments for supporting these schools for achieving specified quality parameters to become PM SHRI schools, according to a press statement of the Ministry of Education. These schools will also be monitored vigorously to assess their progress in implementing NEP. The scheme has been announced at a time when some states, including Tamil Nadu, continue to oppose NEP for imposing a centralised education system on the entire country when education is a state subject as well as enforcing the three-language policy under which students will learn three languages out of which two have to be native to India.

[Source: The Hindu, September 7, 2022]

Q. What is the full form of SHRI?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 31 The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved a new centrally sponsored scheme - PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India). This will be a new scheme for development of more than 14,500 schools across the country as PM SHRI schools by strengthening existing schools being managed by central government/state/UT government/local bodies.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 32

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the PM SHRI scheme to turn existing government schools into model schools for implementation of the National Education Policy, 2022. The scheme will be implemented as a centrally sponsored scheme with a total project cost of Rs. 27,360 crore, with the Centre's share being Rs. 18,128 crores for the period of five years from 2022-23 to 2026-27 for transforming nearly 14,500 schools across the country. However, schools will be selected only if the state government agrees to implement the NEP in entirety with the Centre laying down commitments for supporting these schools for achieving specified quality parameters to become PM SHRI schools, according to a press statement of the Ministry of Education. These schools will also be monitored vigorously to assess their progress in implementing NEP. The scheme has been announced at a time when some states, including Tamil Nadu, continue to oppose NEP for imposing a centralised education system on the entire country when education is a state subject as well as enforcing the three-language policy under which students will learn three languages out of which two have to be native to India.

[Source: The Hindu, September 7, 2022]

Q. Which among the following is not a highlighting feature of the National Education Policy, 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 32 The 10 + 2 structure will be replaced with 5 + 3 + 3 + 4 model covering four stages in order to reinforce the 'holistic development of the student'. This will be implemented as follows

Foundational Stage: This is further subdivided into two parts: 3 years of preschool or anganwadi, followed by classes 1 and 2 in primary school.

Preparatory Stage: Classes 3 to 5

Middle Stage: Classes 6 to 8

Secondary Stage: Classes 9 to 12

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 33

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the PM SHRI scheme to turn existing government schools into model schools for implementation of the National Education Policy, 2022. The scheme will be implemented as a centrally sponsored scheme with a total project cost of Rs. 27,360 crore, with the Centre's share being Rs. 18,128 crore for the period of five years from 2022-23 to 2026-27 for transforming nearly 14,500 schools across the country. However, schools will be selected only if the state government agrees to implement the NEP in entirety with the Centre laying down commitments for supporting these schools for achieving specified quality parameters to become PM SHRI schools, according to a press statement of the Ministry of Education. These schools will also be monitored vigorously to assess their progress in implementing NEP. The scheme has been announced at a time when some states, including Tamil Nadu, continue to oppose NEP for imposing a centralised education system on the entire country when education is a state subject as well as enforcing the three-language policy under which students will learn three languages out of which two have to be native to India.

[Source: The Hindu, September 7, 2022]

Q. According to Census 2011, which state has the highest female literacy rate?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 33 According to Census 2011, Kerala has the highest total literacy rate and female literacy rate whereas Lakshadweep has the highest male literacy rate. Andhra Pradesh has the lowest overall literacy rate. Rajasthan has the lowest male literacy rate, while Bihar has the lowest female literacy rate.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 34

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the PM SHRI scheme to turn existing government schools into model schools for implementation of the National Education Policy, 2022. The scheme will be implemented as a centrally sponsored scheme with a total project cost of Rs. 27,360 crore, with the Centre's share being Rs. 18,128 crore for the period of five years from 2022-23 to 2026-27 for transforming nearly 14,500 schools across the country. However, schools will be selected only if the state government agrees to implement the NEP in entirety with the Centre laying down commitments for supporting these schools for achieving specified quality parameters to become PM SHRI schools, according to a press statement of the Ministry of Education. These schools will also be monitored vigorously to assess their progress in implementing NEP. The scheme has been announced at a time when some states, including Tamil Nadu, continue to oppose NEP for imposing a centralised education system on the entire country when education is a state subject as well as enforcing the three-language policy under which students will learn three languages out of which two have to be native to India.

[Source: The Hindu, September 7, 2022]

Q. Which among the following is/are not the reason(s) for opposition by states to the implementation of the National Education Policy?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 34 States, including Tamil Nadu, continue to oppose the NEP for imposing a centralised education system on the entire country when education is a state subject as well as enforcing the three-language policy under which students will learn three languages out of which two have to be native to India. Other grounds for opposition include mandatory school entry at three years, which could leave out many from marginalised communities, promotion of vocational courses from class 6 at the cost of formal education, as well as the option to exit schools in class 10 with the option to re-enter in class 11.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 35

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the PM SHRI scheme to turn existing government schools into model schools for implementation of the National Education Policy, 2022. The scheme will be implemented as a centrally sponsored scheme with a total project cost of Rs. 27,360 crores, with the Centre's share being Rs. 18,128 crorse for the period of five years from 2022-23 to 2026-27 for transforming nearly 14,500 schools across the country. However, schools will be selected only if the state government agrees to implement the NEP in entirety with the Centre laying down commitments for supporting these schools for achieving specified quality parameters to become PM SHRI schools, according to a press statement of the Ministry of Education. These schools will also be monitored vigorously to assess their progress in implementing NEP. The scheme has been announced at a time when some states, including Tamil Nadu, continue to oppose NEP for imposing a centralised education system on the entire country when education is a state subject as well as enforcing the three-language policy under which students will learn three languages out of which two have to be native to India.

[Source: The Hindu, September 7, 2022]

Q. _____________ released the Academic Collaboration between Indian and Foreign Higher Education Institutions to offer Joint Degree, Dual Degree, and Twinning Programmes Regulations, 2022.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 35 The University Grants Commission released the Academic Collaboration between Indian and Foreign Higher Education Institutions to offer Joint Degree, Dual Degree, and Twinning Programmes Regulations, 2022.

Under these regulations collaborating institutes will be allowed to offer three kinds of programmes - twinning, joint degrees and dual degrees.

The regulations will not be applicable to programmes offered in online and open distance learning (ODL) modes.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 36

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The group of seven advanced economies (G7) agreed to implement a price cap on oil exports from Russia at a virtual meeting of their Finance Ministers on Friday. The move is aimed at cutting off a source of financing for Moscow as its invasion of Ukraine continues. With London being a major global centre for maritime insurance, the plan hinges on denying shipping to oil above the price cap. The group confirmed its joint political intention to finalise and implement a comprehensive prohibition of services which enable maritime transportation of Russian-origin crude oil and petroleum products globally, according to a joint statement from the G7 Finance Ministers. The actual ceiling price was not announced, with the G7 saying it invites all countries to provide input. The initial price cap will be based on a range of technical inputs and revisited subsequently as required. The price cap is being designed, as per the G7, to limit Russia from profiting from its war of aggression while limiting the impact on global energy prices. Inflation is already high globally as well as in most of the G7 countries. Those involved in delivering Russian seaborne petroleum and petroleum products will be permitted to provide services if the price is below or at the cap, the statement said.

Q. Which among the following is not a G7 country?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 36 The Group of Seven (G7) is an inter-governmental political forum consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 37

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The group of seven advanced economies (G7) agreed to implement a price cap on oil exports from Russia at a virtual meeting of their Finance Ministers on Friday. The move is aimed at cutting off a source of financing for Moscow as its invasion of Ukraine continues. With London being a major global centre for maritime insurance, the plan hinges on denying shipping to oil above the price cap. The group confirmed its joint political intention to finalise and implement a comprehensive prohibition of services which enable maritime transportation of Russian-origin crude oil and petroleum products globally, according to a joint statement from the G7 Finance Ministers. The actual ceiling price was not announced, with the G7 saying it invites all countries to provide input. The initial price cap will be based on a range of technical inputs and revisited subsequently as required. The price cap is being designed, as per the G7, to limit Russia from profiting from its war of aggression while limiting the impact on global energy prices. Inflation is already high globally as well as in most of the G7 countries. Those involved in delivering Russian seaborne petroleum and petroleum products will be permitted to provide services if the price is below or at the cap, the statement said.

Q. In which year did the war between Russia and Ukraine initially start following the Ukrainian Revolution of Dignity?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 37 The Russo-Ukrainian War is an ongoing war between Russia (together with Russian separatist forces) and Ukraine. It was started by Russia in February 2014 following the Ukrainian Revolution of Dignity, and initially focused on the status of Crimea and the Donbas, internationally recognised as part of Ukraine.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 38

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The group of seven advanced economies (G7) agreed to implement a price cap on oil exports from Russia at a virtual meeting of their Finance Ministers on Friday. The move is aimed at cutting off a source of financing for Moscow as its invasion of Ukraine continues. With London being a major global centre for maritime insurance, the plan hinges on denying shipping to oil above the price cap. The group confirmed its joint political intention to finalise and implement a comprehensive prohibition of services which enable maritime transportation of Russian-origin crude oil and petroleum products globally, according to a joint statement from the G7 Finance Ministers. The actual ceiling price was not announced, with the G7 saying it invites all countries to provide input. The initial price cap will be based on a range of technical inputs and revisited subsequently as required. The price cap is being designed, as per the G7, to limit Russia from profiting from its war of aggression while limiting the impact on global energy prices. Inflation is already high globally as well as in most of the G7 countries. Those involved in delivering Russian seaborne petroleum and petroleum products will be permitted to provide services if the price is below or at the cap, the statement said.

Q. Russia shares maritime borders with __________ countries.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 38 Russia, the largest country in the world, has international borders with 16 sovereign states, including two maritime boundaries with the United States and Japan, along with 4 borders that are not universally recognised but are recognised by Russia with the partially recognised states of Donetsk People's Republic, Lugansk People's Republic, South Ossetia and Abkhazia.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 39

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The group of seven advanced economies (G7) agreed to implement a price cap on oil exports from Russia at a virtual meeting of their Finance Ministers on Friday. The move is aimed at cutting off a source of financing for Moscow as its invasion of Ukraine continues. With London being a major global centre for maritime insurance, the plan hinges on denying shipping to oil above the price cap. The group confirmed its joint political intention to finalise and implement a comprehensive prohibition of services which enable maritime transportation of Russian-origin crude oil and petroleum products globally, according to a joint statement from the G7 Finance Ministers. The actual ceiling price was not announced, with the G7 saying it invites all countries to provide input. The initial price cap will be based on a range of technical inputs and revisited subsequently as required. The price cap is being designed, as per the G7, to limit Russia from profiting from its war of aggression while limiting the impact on global energy prices. Inflation is already high globally as well as in most of the G7 countries. Those involved in delivering Russian seaborne petroleum and petroleum products will be permitted to provide services if the price is below or at the cap, the statement said.

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: India has taken advantage of discounted prices to ramp up oil imports from Russia at a time when global energy prices have been rising.

Statement II: India, the world's third-biggest oil-importing and consuming nation, has long defended purchases of crude oil from Russia following President Vladimir Putin ordering the invasion of Ukraine.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 39 India's crude oil imports from Russia have jumped over 50 times since April 2022 and now make up for 10 per cent of all crude bought from overseas. India, the world's third-biggest oil-importing and consuming nation, has long defended purchases of crude oil from Russia following President Vladimir Putin ordering the invasion of Ukraine. India has taken advantage of discounted prices to ramp up oil imports from Russia at a time when global energy prices have been rising.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 40

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The group of seven advanced economies (G7) agreed to implement a price cap on oil exports from Russia at a virtual meeting of their Finance Ministers on Friday. The move is aimed at cutting off a source of financing for Moscow as its invasion of Ukraine continues. With London being a major global centre for maritime insurance, the plan hinges on denying shipping to oil above the price cap. The group confirmed its joint political intention to finalise and implement a comprehensive prohibition of services which enable maritime transportation of Russian-origin crude oil and petroleum products globally, according to a joint statement from the G7 Finance Ministers. The actual ceiling price was not announced, with the G7 saying it invites all countries to provide input. The initial price cap will be based on a range of technical inputs and revisited subsequently as required. The price cap is being designed, as per the G7, to limit Russia from profiting from its war of aggression while limiting the impact on global energy prices. Inflation is already high globally as well as in most of the G7 countries. Those involved in delivering Russian seaborne petroleum and petroleum products will be permitted to provide services if the price is below or at the cap, the statement said.

Q. Russian President Vladimir Putin criticised the enlargement of NATO as a threat to his country and demanded Ukraine be barred from ever joining the military alliance. Where is NATO headquartered?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 40 The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation is an intergovernmental military alliance between 30 member states - 28 European and two North American. NATO is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 41

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista Avenue in Delhi. The new-look stretch covers lawns on either side of Rajpath - now renamed as Kartavya Path - from Rashtrapati Bhavan, covering around 101 acres. The New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC) approved a proposal to rename Rajpath as 'Kartavya Path'. Lok Sabha MP and NDMC member Meenakshi Lekhi said the proposal was approved in a special meeting of the NDMC Council. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista avenue. Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his speech said that along with social and digital infrastructure, India is also working on cultural infrastructure. He also said that in the form of Kartavya Path, the country is getting one more excellent example of cultural infrastructure. You will see the India of the future here. It will give you a new vision, new belief. The planning, designing and lighting of the Kartavya Path has been done keeping this in mind, he added. The PM concludes his address with Bharat Mata ki Jai. The PM also highlighted that the Kartavya Path is not just a path of bricks and stones, when people come here, the National War Memorial will inspire people.

Q. Name the freedom fighter whose statue was unveiled by PM Modi in 2022, along with the inauguration of the 'Central Vista Project'.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 41 Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a 28-ft-tall statue of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose at the India Gate. The statue is part of the Centre's Rs. 13,450-crore 'Central Vista Project', which will have a new Parliament building, new office and residences for the Prime Minister and the Vice-President, and new ministry buildings.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 42

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista Avenue in Delhi. The new-look stretch covers lawns on either side of Rajpath - now renamed as Kartavya Path - from Rashtrapati Bhavan, covering around 101 acres. The New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC) approved a proposal to rename Rajpath as 'Kartavya Path'. Lok Sabha MP and NDMC member Meenakshi Lekhi said the proposal was approved in a special meeting of the NDMC Council. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista avenue. Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his speech said that along with social and digital infrastructure, India is also working on cultural infrastructure. He also said that in the form of Kartavya Path, the country is getting one more excellent example of cultural infrastructure. You will see the India of the future here. It will give you a new vision, new belief. The planning, designing and lighting of the Kartavya Path has been done keeping this in mind, he added. The PM concludes his address with Bharat Mata ki Jai. The PM also highlighted that the Kartavya Path is not just a path of bricks and stones, when people come here, the National War Memorial will inspire people.

Q. In which year was the 'Central Vista Redevelopment Project' started?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 42 The 'Central Vista Redevelopment Project' was launched in 2019. The project includes converting the North and South Blocks into public museums, creating an ensemble of new secretariat buildings to house all ministries, relocating the Vice President and the Prime Minister's offices and residences near the North and South blocks, and revamping the 3 km (1.9 mi) long Rajpath between the Rashtrapati Bhavan and the India Gate.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 43

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista Avenue in Delhi. The new-look stretch covers lawns on either side of Rajpath - now renamed as Kartavya Path - from Rashtrapati Bhavan, covering around 101 acres. The New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC) approved a proposal to rename Rajpath as 'Kartavya Path'. Lok Sabha MP and NDMC member Meenakshi Lekhi said the proposal was approved in a special meeting of the NDMC Council. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista avenue. Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his speech said that along with social and digital infrastructure, India is also working on cultural infrastructure. He also said that in the form of Kartavya Path, the country is getting one more excellent example of cultural infrastructure. You will see the India of the future here. It will give you a new vision, new belief. The planning, designing and lighting of the Kartavya Path has been done keeping this in mind, he added. The PM concludes his address with Bharat Mata ki Jai. The PM also highlighted that the Kartavya Path is not just a path of bricks and stones, when people come here, the National War Memorial will inspire people.

Q. Who among the following won the new contract for the construction of the new Parliament building?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 43 Tata Group successfully won the new contract for the construction of the new Parliament building with a bid of Rs. 861.90 crores. The Central Public Works Department had opened the final bid for the construction of the new Parliament building in which Tata Group submitted the lowest bid of Rs. 861.90 crores, beating Larsen & Toubro whose bid was at Rs. 865 crores.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 44

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista Avenue in Delhi. The new-look stretch covers lawns on either side of Rajpath - now renamed as Kartavya Path - from Rashtrapati Bhavan, covering around 101 acres. The New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC) approved a proposal to rename Rajpath as 'Kartavya Path'. Lok Sabha MP and NDMC member Meenakshi Lekhi said the proposal was approved in a special meeting of the NDMC Council. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista avenue. Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his speech said that along with social and digital infrastructure, India is also working on cultural infrastructure. He also said that in the form of Kartavya Path, the country is getting one more excellent example of cultural infrastructure. You will see the India of the future here. It will give you a new vision, new belief. The planning, designing and lighting of the Kartavya Path has been done keeping this in mind, he added. The PM concludes his address with Bharat Mata ki Jai. The PM also highlighted that the Kartavya Path is not just a path of bricks and stones, when people come here, the National War Memorial will inspire people.

Q. Kartavya Path is built from the Rashtrapati Bhavan to the __________, covering around 101 acres.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 44 The new-look of Central Vista Avenue stretch covers lawns on either side of the Rajpath - now renamed as the Kartavya Path - from the Rashtrapati Bhavan to the India Gate, covering around 101 acres. The area was originally designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens and Sir Herbert Baker during British colonial rule and was retained by Government of India after independence.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 45

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista Avenue in Delhi. The new-look stretch covers lawns on either side of Rajpath - now renamed as Kartavya Path - from Rashtrapati Bhavan, covering around 101 acres. The New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC) approved a proposal to rename Rajpath as 'Kartavya Path'. Lok Sabha MP and NDMC member Meenakshi Lekhi said the proposal was approved in a special meeting of the NDMC Council. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the revamped Central Vista avenue. Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his speech said that along with social and digital infrastructure, India is also working on cultural infrastructure. He also said that in the form of Kartavya Path, the country is getting one more excellent example of cultural infrastructure. You will see the India of the future here. It will give you a new vision, new belief. The planning, designing and lighting of the Kartavya Path has been done keeping this in mind, he added. The PM concludes his address with Bharat Mata ki Jai. The PM also highlighted that the Kartavya Path is not just a path of bricks and stones, when people come here, the National War Memorial will inspire people.

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Amar Jawan Jyoti of India Gate was merged with the National War Memorial.

Statement II: The iconic Amar Jawan Jyoti was inaugurated by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 45 The iconic Amar Jawan Jyoti (AJJ), which was inaugurated after the 1971 Liberation War of Bangladesh by the former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, was removed in 2022. Amar Jawan Jyoti of India Gate was merged with the National War Memorial.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 46

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Queen Elizabeth II, who died aged 96 on Thursday, had been on three State visits to India after acceding to the throne in 1952. The late queen cherished the warmth and hospitality she received from the country during the visits over the course of her reign. Her first State visit as Britain's sovereign was in 1961 when she, accompanied by her husband, the late Prince Phillip, toured Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata and visited the Taj Mahal in Agra. She also paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat in New Delhi. During her second visit, she famously presented Mother Teresa with an honorary Order of the Merit. Her third and final visit was significant since it was the first time she made a reference to difficult episodes of colonial history, particularly the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. The Queen and her husband later paid a visit to the massacre site to place a wreath at the memorial. Over the years, the longest-reigning sovereign has hosted three Indian presidents - Dr. Radhakrishnan in 1963, R. Venkataraman in 1990 and Pratibha Patil in 2009.

Q. For how many years did Queen Elizabeth II, Britain's longest-serving monarch, rule?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 46 Queen Elizabeth II, Britain's longest-serving monarch, died after reigning for 70 years. She was 96. In 2022, the 'Platinum Jubilee' of Elizabeth II was an international celebration that marked the 70th anniversary of the accession of Queen Elizabeth II on 6th February, 1952.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 47

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Queen Elizabeth II, who died aged 96 on Thursday, had been on three State visits to India after acceding to the throne in 1952. The late queen cherished the warmth and hospitality she received from the country during the visits over the course of her reign. Her first State visit as Britain's sovereign was in 1961 when she, accompanied by her husband, the late Prince Phillip, toured Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata and visited the Taj Mahal in Agra. She also paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat in New Delhi. During her second visit, she famously presented Mother Teresa with an honorary Order of the Merit. Her third and final visit was significant since it was the first time she made a reference to difficult episodes of colonial history, particularly the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. The Queen and her husband later paid a visit to the massacre site to place a wreath at the memorial. Over the years, the longest-reigning sovereign has hosted three Indian presidents - Dr. Radhakrishnan in 1963, R. Venkataraman in 1990 and Pratibha Patil in 2009.

Q. Consider the following statements about the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and mark the correct option.

Statement I: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13th April, 1919.

Statement II: It was a protest against the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of pro-independence activists Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 47 The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13th April, 1919. A large peaceful crowd had gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar, Punjab, to protest against the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of pro-independence activists Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal. In response to the public gathering, the temporary Brigadier general, R. E. H. Dyer, surrounded the protesters with his Sikh, Gurkha, Baloch and Rajput from 2-9th Gurkhas, the 54th Sikhs and the 59th Sind Rifles of British Indian Army.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 48

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Queen Elizabeth II, who died aged 96 on Thursday, had been on three State visits to India after acceding to the throne in 1952. The late queen cherished the warmth and hospitality she received from the country during the visits over the course of her reign. Her first State visit as Britain's sovereign was in 1961 when she, accompanied by her husband, the late Prince Phillip, toured Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata and visited the Taj Mahal in Agra. She also paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat in New Delhi. During her second visit, she famously presented Mother Teresa with an honorary Order of the Merit. Her third and final visit was significant since it was the first time she made a reference to difficult episodes of colonial history, particularly the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. The Queen and her husband later paid a visit to the massacre site to place a wreath at the memorial. Over the years, the longest-reigning sovereign has hosted three Indian presidents - Dr. Radhakrishnan in 1963, R. Venkataraman in 1990 and Pratibha Patil in 2009.

Q. Mark the incorrect statement.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 48 Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was an Indian philosopher and a politician who served as the 2nd President of India from 1962 to 1967 and as the 1st Vice President of India from 1952 to 1962. He was also the 2nd Ambassador of India to Soviet Union from 1949 to 1952 and the 4th Vice-Chancellor of Banaras Hindu University from 1939 to 1948.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 49

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Queen Elizabeth II, who died aged 96 on Thursday, had been on three State visits to India after acceding to the throne in 1952. The late queen cherished the warmth and hospitality she received from the country during the visits over the course of her reign. Her first State visit as Britain's sovereign was in 1961 when she, accompanied by her husband, the late Prince Phillip, toured Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata and visited the Taj Mahal in Agra. She also paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat in New Delhi. During her second visit, she famously presented Mother Teresa with an honorary Order of the Merit. Her third and final visit was significant since it was the first time she made a reference to difficult episodes of colonial history, particularly the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. The Queen and her husband later paid a visit to the massacre site to place a wreath at the memorial. Over the years, the longest-reigning sovereign has hosted three Indian presidents - Dr. Radhakrishnan in 1963, R. Venkataraman in 1990 and Pratibha Patil in 2009.

Q. Queen Elizabeth II was the Queen of the United Kingdom and other Commonwealth realms. Which among the following is the most recent realm to become a republic?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 49 At her accession in 1952, Elizabeth was the monarch and the head of state of seven independent states: the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, South Africa, Pakistan, and Ceylon (now Sri Lanka). Since then, new realms have been created through the independence of former colonies and dependencies, and some realms have become republics. Barbados is the most recent realm to become a republic; it did so on 30th November, 2021.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 50

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Queen Elizabeth II, who died aged 96 on Thursday, had been on three State visits to India after acceding to the throne in 1952. The late queen cherished the warmth and hospitality she received from the country during the visits over the course of her reign. Her first State visit as Britain's sovereign was in 1961 when she, accompanied by her husband, the late Prince Phillip, toured Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata and visited the Taj Mahal in Agra. She also paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat in New Delhi. During her second visit, she famously presented Mother Teresa with an honorary Order of the Merit. Her third and final visit was significant since it was the first time she made a reference to difficult episodes of colonial history, particularly the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. The Queen and her husband later paid a visit to the massacre site to place a wreath at the memorial. Over the years, the longest-reigning sovereign has hosted three Indian presidents - Dr. Radhakrishnan in 1963, R. Venkataraman in 1990 and Pratibha Patil in 2009.

Q. When did the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan commissioned the Taj Mahal?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 50 The Taj Mahal is an Islamic ivory-white marble mausoleum on the right bank of the river Yamuna in the Indian city of Agra. It was commissioned in 1632 by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan to house the tomb of his favourite wife, Mumtaz Mahal; it also houses the tomb of Shah Jahan himself.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 51

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgement in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.

The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".

The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.

Article 72 of the Constitution deals with the grant of pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death. While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.

The recommendations of the Home Ministry may be returned to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.

There is no fixed time frame to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs.

Q. Who has the pardoning power under Article 72 of the Constitution?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 51 Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgement in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition by approaching the President – directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry. As per the Constitutional framework in India, mercy petition to the President is the last constitutional resort, when he has been punished by the court of law. A convict can present a mercy petition to the President of India under Article 72 of the Constitution of India.

Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence

  • in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court Martial;

  • in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends;

  • in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 52

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgement in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.

The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".

The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.

Article 72 of the Constitution deals with the grant of pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death. While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.

The recommendations of the Home Ministry may be returned to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.

There is no fixed time frame to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs.

Q. Which among the following statements is false?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 52 Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the longest serving Indian President. Freedom fighter and Congress leader Dr. Rajendra Prasad, who served as the first President of India from 1950 to 1962, remains the country's longest serving President. The President can declare three types of emergencies: national, state and financial, under articles 352, 356 & 360 in addition to promulgating ordinances under article 123.

Ram Nath Kovind (born 1 October 1945) is an Indian politician who served as the 14th President of India.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 53

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgement in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.

The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".

The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.

Article 72 of the Constitution deals with the grant of pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death. While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.

The recommendations of the Home Ministry may be returned to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.

There is no fixed time frame to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs.

Q. In the context of the given passage, choose the correct option from the following.

Statement I: Mercy petition is not subject to Judicial Review.

Statement II: Ministry of Human Affairs (MHA) is the Ministry charged with making recommendations with regard to mercy petitions by those on death row.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 53 Statement I: Mercy petition is subject to Judicial Review. Judicial review is a process under which executive or legislative actions are subject to review by the judiciary.

Statement II: MHA recommends the President as what to be done with a mercy petition. Under the settled law, including judgements of the Supreme Court, the President is bound by the advice of the Union council of ministers while deciding mercy petitions.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 54

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgement in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.

The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".

The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.

Article 72 of the Constitution deals with the grant of pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death. While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.

The recommendations of the Home Ministry may be returned to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.

There is no fixed time frame to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs.

Q. Article 58 of the constitution sets the principal qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the president. Which among the following is not a mandatory condition to be a president?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 54 Article 58 of the constitution sets the principal qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the president. A president must be:
  • a citizen of India

  • of 35 years of age or above

  • qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha

A person shall not be eligible for election as president if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 55

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Once the Supreme Court announces its final judgement in a case involving capital punishment, the death row convict may file a mercy petition directly, or through prison officials, or through the governor of the state where he is imprisoned or via the union home ministry.

The philosophy underlying the pardon power is that "every civilised country recognises and provides for the pardoning power as an act of grace and humanity in course of law".

The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments.

Article 72 of the Constitution deals with the grant of pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death. While the state governor also has pardoning powers, death sentences are not part of these.

The recommendations of the Home Ministry may be returned to get further clarifications. The ministry can also itself recall its recommendation to provide a fresh input.

There is no fixed time frame to decide on the recommendation of the ministry of home affairs.

Q. With reference to the procedure of the Mercy petitions in India, consider the following statements:

Statement I: A mercy petition can be filed only by Indian Citizens.

Statement II: There is no time limit for the president to respond on the mercy petition.

Statement III: In India, the authority to pardon a death sentence is with the President only.

Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 55 Anybody, including foreign nationals, can send a mercy petition to the President. President is not the only authority rather mercy pleas can also be sent to the Governors. The Governor cannot pardon a death sentence but can suspend, remit or commute a sentence of death. There is no maximum time-limit within which a mercy petition has to be decided.

Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) recommends the President as what to be done with a mercy petition. Under the settled law, including judgements of the Supreme Court, the President is bound by the advice of the Union Council of Ministers while deciding mercy petitions.

The recommendation of the MHA can be accepted as the view of the entire Council of Ministers on the subject because under the transaction of Business Rules of the Government of India, the MHA is the Ministry charged with making recommendations with regard to mercy petitions by those on death row.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 56

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Decked with the national flag, the 'Golden Joint' of the Chenab railway bridge was launched thereby inaugurating the World's highest railway bridge. To commemorate 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav', the world's highest bridge in Reasi district was decked up with the Tricolour by the workers on this occasion. The workers were seen celebrating and hoisting the national flag with love and pride right in the middle of the bridge at the golden joint. Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnav took to Twitter to showcase a video of the launch of the golden joint and the deck closure ceremony from the Chenab bridge. The 40-second video added in the tweet shows the workers celebrating atop the world's highest bridge as they have worked tirelessly for years to achieve this feat. A few days before laying the golden joint, Afcons Infrastructure Ltd Deputy Managing Director, Giridhar Rajagopalan had told IANS, Both ends will finally meet to complete the bridge overarch deck and the segments will be joined with the help of High Strength Friction Grip (HSFG) bolts to mark the critical 'golden joint' on the iconic structure. This will complete the Chenab River bridge, 359 metres above the riverbed, an extraordinary achievement.

(Source: Business Standard, September 16, 2022)

Q. In 2022, where was the world's highest railway bridge inaugurated?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 56 To commemorate 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav', the world's highest bridge was inaugurated in Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir. The project is a part of the ambitious 272-km long railway line from Udhampur to Baramulla, joining Jammu with the Kashmir valley as an all-weather high-speed alternative, named the 'Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link Project'.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 57

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Decked with the national flag, the 'Golden Joint' of the Chenab railway bridge was launched thereby inaugurating the World's highest railway bridge. To commemorate 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav', the world's highest bridge in Reasi district was decked up with the Tricolour by the workers on this occasion. The workers were seen celebrating and hoisting the national flag with love and pride right in the middle of the bridge at the golden joint. Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnav took to Twitter to showcase a video of the launch of the golden joint and the deck closure ceremony from the Chenab bridge. The 40-second video added in the tweet shows the workers celebrating atop the world's highest bridge as they have worked tirelessly for years to achieve this feat. A few days before laying the golden joint, Afcons Infrastructure Ltd Deputy Managing Director, Giridhar Rajagopalan had told IANS, Both ends will finally meet to complete the bridge overarch deck and the segments will be joined with the help of High Strength Friction Grip (HSFG) bolts to mark the critical 'golden joint' on the iconic structure. This will complete the Chenab River bridge, 359 metres above the riverbed, an extraordinary achievement.

(Source: Business Standard, September 16, 2022)

Q. In which year was the first passenger train in India started?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 57 On 16th April 1853, the first train in India ran between Bori Bunder, Bombay (now Mumbai) and Thane for a distance of around 34 km.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 58

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Decked with the national flag, the 'Golden Joint' of the Chenab railway bridge was launched thereby inaugurating the World's highest railway bridge. To commemorate 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav', the world's highest bridge in Reasi district was decked up with the Tricolour by the workers on this occasion. The workers were seen celebrating and hoisting the national flag with love and pride right in the middle of the bridge at the golden joint. Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnav took to Twitter to showcase a video of the launch of the golden joint and the deck closure ceremony from the Chenab bridge. The 40-second video added in the tweet shows the workers celebrating atop the world's highest bridge as they have worked tirelessly for years to achieve this feat. A few days before laying the golden joint, Afcons Infrastructure Ltd Deputy Managing Director, Giridhar Rajagopalan had told IANS, Both ends will finally meet to complete the bridge overarch deck and the segments will be joined with the help of High Strength Friction Grip (HSFG) bolts to mark the critical 'golden joint' on the iconic structure. This will complete the Chenab River bridge, 359 metres above the riverbed, an extraordinary achievement.

(Source: Business Standard, September 16, 2022)

Q. Mark the incorrect statement about Indian Railways.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 58

Indian Railways is the proud owner of four UNESCO accorded 'World Heritage Sites', namely Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (1999), Nilgiri Mountain Railway (2005), Kalka Shimla Railway (2008), and Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, Mumbai (2004).

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 59

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Decked with the national flag, the 'Golden Joint' of the Chenab railway bridge was launched thereby inaugurating the World's highest railway bridge. To commemorate 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav', the world's highest bridge in Reasi district was decked up with the Tricolour by the workers on this occasion. The workers were seen celebrating and hoisting the national flag with love and pride right in the middle of the bridge at the golden joint. Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnav took to Twitter to showcase a video of the launch of the golden joint and the deck closure ceremony from the Chenab bridge. The 40-second video added in the tweet shows the workers celebrating atop the world's highest bridge as they have worked tirelessly for years to achieve this feat. A few days before laying the golden joint, Afcons Infrastructure Ltd Deputy Managing Director, Giridhar Rajagopalan had told IANS, Both ends will finally meet to complete the bridge overarch deck and the segments will be joined with the help of High Strength Friction Grip (HSFG) bolts to mark the critical 'golden joint' on the iconic structure. This will complete the Chenab River bridge, 359 metres above the riverbed, an extraordinary achievement.

(Source: Business Standard, September 16, 2022)

Q. Which country has the world's longest railway network?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 59 The US rail network, with an operating route length over 250,000 km, is the biggest in the world. Freight lines constitute about 80% of the country's total rail network, while the total passenger network spans about 35,000 km.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 60

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Decked with the national flag, the 'Golden Joint' of the Chenab railway bridge was launched thereby inaugurating the World's highest railway bridge. To commemorate 'Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav', the world's highest bridge in Reasi district was decked up with the Tricolour by the workers on this occasion. The workers were seen celebrating and hoisting the national flag with love and pride right in the middle of the bridge at the golden joint. Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnav took to Twitter to showcase a video of the launch of the golden joint and the deck closure ceremony from the Chenab bridge. The 40-second video added in the tweet shows the workers celebrating atop the world's highest bridge as they have worked tirelessly for years to achieve this feat. A few days before laying the golden joint, Afcons Infrastructure Ltd Deputy Managing Director, Giridhar Rajagopalan had told IANS, Both ends will finally meet to complete the bridge overarch deck and the segments will be joined with the help of High Strength Friction Grip (HSFG) bolts to mark the critical 'golden joint' on the iconic structure. This will complete the Chenab River bridge, 359 metres above the riverbed, an extraordinary achievement.

(Source: Business Standard, September 16, 2022)

Q. Consider the following statements about 'Vande Bharat Express' and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Vande Bharat Express is designed to be capable of running at a maximum speed of 160 kmph.

Statement II: Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the first Vande Bharat Express from New Delhi Railway Station in the year 2020.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 60 Vande Bharat Express, also known as Train 18, is an Indian semi-high-speed, intercity, EMU train which is operated by the Indian Railways. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the first Vande Bharat Express on the New Delhi-Kanpur-Prayagraj-Varanasi route on February 15, 2019. Vande Bharat Express is designed to be capable of running at a maximum speed of 160 kmph that can be touched in only 140 seconds.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 61

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Health-care systems have been stretched beyond their capacity and gross health inequity has been observed in the distribution of vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics across the world. Now, with the World Health Organization (WHO) having declared the monkeypox outbreak as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) with over 32,000 cases from over 80 countries (August 2022), the world faces the risk of another health crisis. In the COVID-19 pandemic, we have seen a multitude of initiatives to address the pandemic and to do better in the future such as the Vaccine Alliance. These are all valuable, but a treaty under the umbrella of WHO would, as highlighted by the journal BMJ, build coherence and avoid fragmentation. For example, as a document by the University of Groningen shows, among high-income countries and low- and middle-income countries, while the difference between the number of reported cases was relatively similar until late March 2021 (65.3 and 61.2 million, respectively), high-income countries shared on average 16.5-fold more sequences per reported case (1.81% and 0.11%, respectively). Thus, as mentioned in the BMJ, such a treaty should cover crucial aspects such as data sharing and genome sequencing of emerging viruses. It should formally commit governments and parliaments to implement an early warning system and a properly funded rapid response mechanism.

Q. Mark the incorrect statement about the World Health Organization (WHO).

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 61 The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health. The WHO was established on 7th April, 1948. The first meeting of the World Health Assembly (WHA), the agency's governing body, took place on 24th July of that year.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 62

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Health-care systems have been stretched beyond their capacity and gross health inequity has been observed in the distribution of vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics across the world. Now, with the World Health Organization (WHO) having declared the monkeypox outbreak as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) with over 32,000 cases from over 80 countries (August 2022), the world faces the risk of another health crisis. In the COVID-19 pandemic, we have seen a multitude of initiatives to address the pandemic and to do better in the future such as the Vaccine Alliance. These are all valuable, but a treaty under the umbrella of WHO would, as highlighted by the journal BMJ, build coherence and avoid fragmentation. For example, as a document by the University of Groningen shows, among high-income countries and low- and middle-income countries, while the difference between the number of reported cases was relatively similar until late March 2021 (65.3 and 61.2 million, respectively), high-income countries shared on average 16.5-fold more sequences per reported case (1.81% and 0.11%, respectively). Thus, as mentioned in the BMJ, such a treaty should cover crucial aspects such as data sharing and genome sequencing of emerging viruses. It should formally commit governments and parliaments to implement an early warning system and a properly funded rapid response mechanism.

Q. Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine, also known as Covishield, was developed in India by:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 62 Covishield is the brand name under which the Covid-19 vaccine from AstraZeneca is distributed in India. Covishield was developed by Oxford University's Jenner Institute and European pharmaceutical company AstraZeneca. The Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine is produced at several sites worldwide. In India, the vaccine is made under the name Covishield and is manufactured by the Serum Institute of India at Pune.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 63

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Health-care systems have been stretched beyond their capacity and gross health inequity has been observed in the distribution of vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics across the world. Now, with the World Health Organization (WHO) having declared the monkeypox outbreak as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) with over 32,000 cases from over 80 countries (August 2022), the world faces the risk of another health crisis. In the COVID-19 pandemic, we have seen a multitude of initiatives to address the pandemic and to do better in the future such as the Vaccine Alliance. These are all valuable, but a treaty under the umbrella of WHO would, as highlighted by the journal BMJ, build coherence and avoid fragmentation. For example, as a document by the University of Groningen shows, among high-income countries and low- and middle-income countries, while the difference between the number of reported cases was relatively similar until late March 2021 (65.3 and 61.2 million, respectively), high-income countries shared on average 16.5-fold more sequences per reported case (1.81% and 0.11%, respectively). Thus, as mentioned in the BMJ, such a treaty should cover crucial aspects such as data sharing and genome sequencing of emerging viruses. It should formally commit governments and parliaments to implement an early warning system and a properly funded rapid response mechanism.

Q. The 'Ayushman Bharat Scheme' was launched in:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 63 The 'Ayushman Bharat Scheme' was launched on 23rd September, 2018 in Ranchi, Jharkhand. It was launched by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi. It is a centrally sponsored scheme and is jointly funded by both the union government and the states.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 64

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Health-care systems have been stretched beyond their capacity and gross health inequity has been observed in the distribution of vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics across the world. Now, with the World Health Organization (WHO) having declared the monkeypox outbreak as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) with over 32,000 cases from over 80 countries (August 2022), the world faces the risk of another health crisis. In the COVID-19 pandemic, we have seen a multitude of initiatives to address the pandemic and to do better in the future such as the Vaccine Alliance. These are all valuable, but a treaty under the umbrella of WHO would, as highlighted by the journal BMJ, build coherence and avoid fragmentation. For example, as a document by the University of Groningen shows, among high-income countries and low- and middle-income countries, while the difference between the number of reported cases was relatively similar until late March 2021 (65.3 and 61.2 million, respectively), high-income countries shared on average 16.5-fold more sequences per reported case (1.81% and 0.11%, respectively). Thus, as mentioned in the BMJ, such a treaty should cover crucial aspects such as data sharing and genome sequencing of emerging viruses. It should formally commit governments and parliaments to implement an early warning system and a properly funded rapid response mechanism.

Q. World Health Day is a global health awareness day celebrated every year on ________.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 64 World Health Day is a global health awareness day celebrated every year on 7th April, under the sponsorship of the World Health Organization, as well as other related organizations. In 1948, the WHO held the first 'World Health Assembly'.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 65

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Health-care systems have been stretched beyond their capacity and gross health inequity has been observed in the distribution of vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics across the world. Now, with the World Health Organization (WHO) having declared the monkeypox outbreak as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) with over 32,000 cases from over 80 countries (August 2022), the world faces the risk of another health crisis. In the COVID-19 pandemic, we have seen a multitude of initiatives to address the pandemic and to do better in the future such as the Vaccine Alliance. These are all valuable, but a treaty under the umbrella of WHO would, as highlighted by the journal BMJ, build coherence and avoid fragmentation. For example, as a document by the University of Groningen shows, among high-income countries and low- and middle-income countries, while the difference between the number of reported cases was relatively similar until late March 2021 (65.3 and 61.2 million, respectively), high-income countries shared on average 16.5-fold more sequences per reported case (1.81% and 0.11%, respectively). Thus, as mentioned in the BMJ, such a treaty should cover crucial aspects such as data sharing and genome sequencing of emerging viruses. It should formally commit governments and parliaments to implement an early warning system and a properly funded rapid response mechanism.

Q. In 2022, the Ministry of Health virtually launched the 'Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 4.0' in which immunization service for children up to the age of _______ will be covered.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 65 The Ministry of Health virtually launched the 'Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 4.0'. It will ensure that 'Routine Immunization' (RI) services reach un-vaccinated and partially vaccinated children and pregnant women. Children up to the age of two years will be covered in this drive.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 66

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Constitution is intended to be permanent and, therefore, it cannot be amended in a way that would injure, maim or destroy its indestructible character. The word "amendment" implies such an addition or change within the lines of the original instrument as will affect an improvement or better carry out the purpose for which it was framed and it cannot be so construed as to enable the Parliament to destroy the permanent character of the Constitution. The fundamental rights are a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and, therefore, the said power can be exercised only to preserve rather than destroy the essence of those rights. The limits on the power to amend are implied in Art. 368 , for the expression "amend" has a limited meaning. The wide phraseology used in the Constitution in other Articles, such as "repeal" and "re-enact" indicates that art. 368 only enables a modification of the Articles within the framework of the Constitution and not a destruction of them. The debates in the Constituent Assembly, particularly the speech of Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, and the reply of Dr. Ambedkar, who piloted the Bill disclose clearly that it was never the intention of the makers of the Constitution by putting in Art. 368 to enable the Parliament to repeal the fundamental rights; the circumstances under which the amendment moved by Mr. H. V. Kamath, one of the members of Constituent Assembly, was withdrawn and Art. 368 was finally adopted, support the contention that amendment of Part III is outside the scope of Art. 368 . Part III of the Constitution is a self-contained Code and its provisions are elastic enough to meet all reasonable requirements of changing situations. The power to amend is sought to be derived from three sources, namely, (i) by implication under Art. 368 itself; the procedure to amend culminating in the amendment of the Constitution necessarily implies that power, (ii) the power and the limits of the power to amend are implied in the Articles sought to be amended, and (iii) Art. 368 only lays down the procedure to amend, but the power to amend is only the legislative power conferred on the Parliament under Arts. 245,246 and 248 of the Constitution. The definition of "law" in Art. 13(2) of the Constitution includes every branch of law, statutory, constitutional, etc., and therefore, the power to amend in whichever branch it may be classified, if it takes away or abridges fundamental rights would be void thereunder. The impugned amendment detracts from the jurisdiction of the High Court under Art. 226 of the Constitution and also the legislative powers of the States and therefore it falls within the scope of the proviso to Art. 368 .

Q. Parliament has enacted the Farmers' Protection Act 2020, which according to a group of activists is violating the fundamental right of freedom of trade of the farmers. The group of activists files a public interest litigation challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 66 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

The court has the right to quash an existing law in this case the Farmer's Protection Act 2020. It can be done if it violates fundamental rights. The case is filed that it violates the right of freedom of trade.

Quash means to annul or reject a particular law and make it invalid. Court has the authority to do that but cannot intimate the Parliament to make a new law.

Therefore, this is the right option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 67

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Constitution is intended to be permanent and, therefore, it cannot be amended in a way that would injure, maim or destroy its indestructible character. The word "amendment" implies such an addition or change within the lines of the original instrument as will affect an improvement or better carry out the purpose for which it was framed and it cannot be so construed as to enable the Parliament to destroy the permanent character of the Constitution. The fundamental rights are a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and, therefore, the said power can be exercised only to preserve rather than destroy the essence of those rights. The limits on the power to amend are implied in Art. 368 , for the expression "amend" has a limited meaning. The wide phraseology used in the Constitution in other Articles, such as "repeal" and "re-enact" indicates that art. 368 only enables a modification of the Articles within the framework of the Constitution and not a destruction of them. The debates in the Constituent Assembly, particularly the speech of Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, and the reply of Dr. Ambedkar, who piloted the Bill disclose clearly that it was never the intention of the makers of the Constitution by putting in Art. 368 to enable the Parliament to repeal the fundamental rights; the circumstances under which the amendment moved by Mr. H. V. Kamath, one of the members of Constituent Assembly, was withdrawn and Art. 368 was finally adopted, support the contention that amendment of Part III is outside the scope of Art. 368 . Part III of the Constitution is a self-contained Code and its provisions are elastic enough to meet all reasonable requirements of changing situations. The power to amend is sought to be derived from three sources, namely, (i) by implication under Art. 368 itself; the procedure to amend culminating in the amendment of the Constitution necessarily implies that power, (ii) the power and the limits of the power to amend are implied in the Articles sought to be amended, and (iii) Art. 368 only lays down the procedure to amend, but the power to amend is only the legislative power conferred on the Parliament under Arts. 245,246 and 248 of the Constitution. The definition of "law" in Art. 13(2) of the Constitution includes every branch of law, statutory, constitutional, etc., and therefore, the power to amend in whichever branch it may be classified, if it takes away or abridges fundamental rights would be void thereunder. The impugned amendment detracts from the jurisdiction of the High Court under Art. 226 of the Constitution and also the legislative powers of the States and therefore it falls within the scope of the proviso to Art. 368 .

Q. AJB Party won the majority of votes in the Parliament against the CPS Party. The main agenda of the AJB party was to chuck out the freedom of press, which was counted as one of the fundamental rights under the constitution. As they had majority in. Parliament, they could easily amend the provision. Now a public-spirited person filed a suit in the Supreme Court against this amendment.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 67 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

An amendment can be brought into place in a particular constitutional law only if it does not affect the fundamental rights. The fundamental rights were never intended to be amended or repealed.

So in this case, the amendment was invalid because it was aimed at affecting the fundamental right which is the freedom of the press.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 68

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Constitution is intended to be permanent and, therefore, it cannot be amended in a way that would injure, maim or destroy its indestructible character. The word "amendment" implies such an addition or change within the lines of the original instrument as will affect an improvement or better carry out the purpose for which it was framed and it cannot be so construed as to enable the Parliament to destroy the permanent character of the Constitution. The fundamental rights are a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and, therefore, the said power can be exercised only to preserve rather than destroy the essence of those rights. The limits on the power to amend are implied in Art. 368 , for the expression "amend" has a limited meaning. The wide phraseology used in the Constitution in other Articles, such as "repeal" and "re-enact" indicates that art. 368 only enables a modification of the Articles within the framework of the Constitution and not a destruction of them. The debates in the Constituent Assembly, particularly the speech of Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, and the reply of Dr. Ambedkar, who piloted the Bill disclose clearly that it was never the intention of the makers of the Constitution by putting in Art. 368 to enable the Parliament to repeal the fundamental rights; the circumstances under which the amendment moved by Mr. H. V. Kamath, one of the members of Constituent Assembly, was withdrawn and Art. 368 was finally adopted, support the contention that amendment of Part III is outside the scope of Art. 368 . Part III of the Constitution is a self-contained Code and its provisions are elastic enough to meet all reasonable requirements of changing situations. The power to amend is sought to be derived from three sources, namely, (i) by implication under Art. 368 itself; the procedure to amend culminating in the amendment of the Constitution necessarily implies that power, (ii) the power and the limits of the power to amend are implied in the Articles sought to be amended, and (iii) Art. 368 only lays down the procedure to amend, but the power to amend is only the legislative power conferred on the Parliament under Arts. 245,246 and 248 of the Constitution. The definition of "law" in Art. 13(2) of the Constitution includes every branch of law, statutory, constitutional, etc., and therefore, the power to amend in whichever branch it may be classified, if it takes away or abridges fundamental rights would be void thereunder. The impugned amendment detracts from the jurisdiction of the High Court under Art. 226 of the Constitution and also the legislative powers of the States and therefore it falls within the scope of the proviso to Art. 368 .

Q. Article 14 does not encompass

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 68 This is the correct answer for the given question.

The article 14 is about the right to equality. It includes treating everyone equally in front of the law and giving equal protection of the law.

The protection against arbitrary action prevents any form of discrimination towards someone.

The protection of life and liberty does not come under this article because it comes under article 21.

Therefore, this is the right option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 69

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Constitution is intended to be permanent and, therefore, it cannot be amended in a way that would injure, maim or destroy its indestructible character. The word "amendment" implies such an addition or change within the lines of the original instrument as will affect an improvement or better carry out the purpose for which it was framed and it cannot be so construed as to enable the Parliament to destroy the permanent character of the Constitution. The fundamental rights are a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and, therefore, the said power can be exercised only to preserve rather than destroy the essence of those rights. The limits on the power to amend are implied in Art. 368 , for the expression "amend" has a limited meaning. The wide phraseology used in the Constitution in other Articles, such as "repeal" and "re-enact" indicates that art. 368 only enables a modification of the Articles within the framework of the Constitution and not a destruction of them. The debates in the Constituent Assembly, particularly the speech of Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, and the reply of Dr. Ambedkar, who piloted the Bill disclose clearly that it was never the intention of the makers of the Constitution by putting in Art. 368 to enable the Parliament to repeal the fundamental rights; the circumstances under which the amendment moved by Mr. H. V. Kamath, one of the members of the Constituent Assembly, was withdrawn and Art. 368 was finally adopted, support the contention that amendment of Part III is outside the scope of Art. 368 . Part III of the Constitution is a self-contained Code and its provisions are elastic enough to meet all reasonable requirements of changing situations. The power to amend is sought to be derived from three sources, namely, (i) by implication under Art. 368 itself; the procedure to amend culminating in the amendment of the Constitution necessarily implies that power, (ii) the power and the limits of the power to amend are implied in the Articles sought to be amended, and (iii) Art. 368 only lays down the procedure to amend, but the power to amend is only the legislative power conferred on the Parliament under Arts. 245,246 and 248 of the Constitution. The definition of "law" in Art. 13(2) of the Constitution includes every branch of law, statutory, constitutional, etc., and therefore, the power to amend in whichever branch it may be classified, if it takes away or abridges fundamental rights would be void thereunder. The impugned amendment detracts from the jurisdiction of the High Court under Art. 226 of the Constitution and also the legislative powers of the States and therefore it falls within the scope of the proviso to Art. 368 .

Q. Fundamental Rights are enshrined under which part of the constitution?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 69 This is the correct answer to the given question.

It is mentioned in the passage, the intention of the constitution that was discussed in the parliament by Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru clarified how it was not intended to be amended or repeal the fundamental rights.

This was included in Part III of the constitution which is a self-contained code.

Therefore, this is the right option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 70

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Constitution is intended to be permanent and, therefore, it cannot be amended in a way that would injure, maim or destroy its indestructible character. The word "amendment" implies such an addition or change within the lines of the original instrument as will affect an improvement or better carry out the purpose for which it was framed and it cannot be so construed as to enable the Parliament to destroy the permanent character of the Constitution. The fundamental rights are a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and, therefore, the said power can be exercised only to preserve rather than destroy the essence of those rights. The limits on the power to amend are implied in Art. 368, for the expression "amend" has a limited meaning. The wide phraseology used in the Constitution in other Articles, such as "repeal" and "re-enact" indicates that art. 368 only enables a modification of the Articles within the framework of the Constitution and not a destruction of them. The debates in the Constituent Assembly, particularly the speech of Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, and the reply of Dr. Ambedkar, who piloted the Bill disclose clearly that it was never the intention of the makers of the Constitution by putting in Art. 368 to enable the Parliament to repeal the fundamental rights; the circumstances under which the amendment moved by Mr. H. V. Kamath, one of the members of Constituent Assembly, was withdrawn and Art. 368 was finally adopted, support the contention that amendment of Part III is outside the scope of Art. 368. Part III of the Constitution is a self-contained Code and its provisions are elastic enough to meet all reasonable requirements of changing situations. The power to amend is sought to be derived from three sources, namely, (i) by implication under Art. 368 itself; the procedure to amend culminating in the amendment of the Constitution necessarily implies that power, (ii) the power and the limits of the power to amend are implied in the Articles sought to be amended, and (iii) Art. 368 only lays down the procedure to amend, but the power to amend is only the legislative power conferred on the Parliament under Arts. 245,246 and 248 of the Constitution. The definition of "law" in Art. 13(2) of the Constitution includes every branch of law, statutory, constitutional, etc., and therefore, the power to amend in whichever branch it may be classified, if it takes away or abridges fundamental rights would be void thereunder. The impugned amendment detracts from the jurisdiction of the High Court under Art. 226 of the Constitution and also the legislative powers of the States and therefore it falls within the scope of the proviso to Art. 368.

Q. Article 14,19,21 is cumulatively called-

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 70 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

The Article 14, 19, 21 together is called the golden triangle of the Indian constitution.

Article 14 is the right to equality.

Article 19 is the right to freedom.

Article 21 is the right to life and liberty.

Therefore, this is the most suitable answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 71

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The hearing in the PILs against media trial, in the wake of sensationalised reportage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, today saw Senior Advocate Aspi Chinoy re-assert that guidelines should be issued by the Court in the matter. Appearing for the petitioners, Chinoy made his rejoinder arguments today." The problem with the law is that if there was a robust mechanism in place, it was surprising to see channels for months on end to call people for arrest", Chinoy observed as he started his arguments today.

Referring to the prevailing media regulation mechanisms, Chinoy went on to argue, "What we need to do is consider what is this so-called mechanism. Has it worked? And what can be done to enhance it or improve it with directions of the court? "He went on to recount that under the Cable Television Networks Act, transmission can be stopped if a media channel violates the Programme Code.

On the other hand, Chinoy submitted that non-statutory mechanisms such as the News Broadcasters Association regulations comprise a code of conduct of ethical standards, "which do not deal with anything we are talking on." He went on to point out that between the two mechanisms, the Government has been slow to act against irresponsible media reportage. In this regard, Chinoy submitted, "Looks at the grievances of the public, there is suo motu action and there is no explanation by the government of the actions they have taken. If they had acted, we wouldn't have had to come here. But they did not see what is going on."

He added, "They are of the view that it does not amount to contempt of court. I am just formulating it just for clarity. Because your Lordships were repeatedly told there was regulation. See the regulation, what have you done with it?"

Chinoy clarified that he is not suggesting that there should not be any commenting or critical reporting. However, he emphasised that there should not be any interference with the administration of justice." You are no judge or jury to decide who should be investigated or hounded", he went on to assert.

As for the Government's response in recent times, and presumably in reference to the media coverage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, Chinoy remarked, "... if a campaign of two months is not looked into, what is the reason of the Government of India? This is not doing its duty or not having power, both which requires judicial intervention."

He added, "Stray incidents are fine, but this sustained reporting for so long with no response! Inputting in guidelines, your Lordships are giving the exposition of the law... for months they did not do anything."

Chinoy proceeded to highlight that Courts can intervene in such scenarios.

"It has been held that the courts of record have the power to punish, to postpone publicity in appropriate cases as a preventive measure without disturbing content. How can media channels destroy reputation, and show they are guilty of an offence? Inform, criticise, consider, but don't judge, that is the kernel."

Q. Referring to the above article what does the reporting done by an eminent journalist calling for arrest of the suspected accused in a national news channel amount to?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 71 This is the correct answer to the given question.

The media trial is when the news channels defame and report crimes by calling out people to be guilty and asking to be arrested even before the verdict of the court.

This can cause issues in the fair trial of the individual and also affects the court's perspective in the eyes of the common public.

Therefore, this is the right option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 72

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The hearing in the PILs against media trial, in the wake of sensationalised reportage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, today saw Senior Advocate Aspi Chinoy re-assert that guidelines should be issued by the Court in the matter. Appearing for the petitioners, Chinoy made his rejoinder arguments today." The problem with the law is that if there was a robust mechanism in place, it was surprising to see channels for months on end to call people for arrest", Chinoy observed as he started his arguments today.

Referring to the prevailing media regulation mechanisms, Chinoy went on to argue, "What we need to do is consider what is this so-called mechanism. Has it worked? And what can be done to enhance it or improve it with directions of the court? "He went on to recount that under the Cable Television Networks Act, transmission can be stopped if a media channel violates the Programme Code.

On the other hand, Chinoy submitted that non-statutory mechanisms such as the News Broadcasters Association regulations comprise a code of conduct of ethical standards, "which do not deal with anything we are talking on." He went on to point out that between the two mechanisms, the Government has been slow to act against irresponsible media reportage. In this regard, Chinoy submitted, "Looks at the grievances of the public, there is suo motu action and there is no explanation by the government of the actions they have taken. If they had acted, we wouldn't have had to come here. But they did not see what is going on."

He added, "They are of the view that it does not amount to contempt of court. I am just formulating it just for clarity. Because your Lordships were repeatedly told there was regulation. See the regulation, what have you done with it?"

Chinoy clarified that he is not suggesting that there should not be any commenting or critical reporting. However, he emphasised that there should not be any interference with the administration of justice." You are no judge or jury to decide who should be investigated or hounded", he went on to assert.

As for the Government's response in recent times, and presumably in reference to the media coverage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, Chinoy remarked, "... if a campaign of two months is not looked into, what is the reason of the Government of India? This is not doing its duty or not having power, both which requires judicial intervention."

He added, "Stray incidents are fine, but this sustained reporting for so long with no response! Inputting in guidelines, your Lordships are giving the exposition of the law... for months they did not do anything."

Chinoy proceeded to highlight that Courts can intervene in such scenarios.

"It has been held that the courts of record have the power to punish, to postpone publicity in appropriate cases as a preventive measure without disturbing content. How can media channels destroy reputation, and show they are guilty of an offence? Inform, criticise, consider, but don't judge, that is the kernel."

Q. In the reporting of murder of Avinash, a leading media house preempted the court and reported that his own father and possibly his mother were involved in her murder. Now decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 72 All the above are correct for the given question.

In this case, the media has affected the right to a fair trial of the people involved.

It also violates the limitations of freedom of the press because it has crossed the line and accused a person before the court's verdict.

This is considered to be a contempt of court.

Therefore, this is the appropriate answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 73

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The hearing in the PILs against media trial, in the wake of sensationalised reportage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, today saw Senior Advocate Aspi Chinoy re-assert that guidelines should be issued by the Court in the matter. Appearing for the petitioners, Chinoy made his rejoinder arguments today." The problem with the law is that if there was a robust mechanism in place, it was surprising to see channels for months on end to call people for arrest", Chinoy observed as he started his arguments today.

Referring to the prevailing media regulation mechanisms, Chinoy went on to argue, "What we need to do is consider what is this so-called mechanism. Has it worked? And what can be done to enhance it or improve it with directions of the court? "He went on to recount that under the Cable Television Networks Act, transmission can be stopped if a media channel violates the Programme Code.

On the other hand, Chinoy submitted that non-statutory mechanisms such as the News Broadcasters Association regulations comprise a code of conduct of ethical standards, "which do not deal with anything we are talking on." He went on to point out that between the two mechanisms, the Government has been slow to act against irresponsible media reportage. In this regard, Chinoy submitted, "Looks at the grievances of the public, there is suo motu action and there is no explanation by the government of the actions they have taken. If they had acted, we wouldn't have had to come here. But they did not see what is going on."

He added, "They are of the view that it does not amount to contempt of court. I am just formulating it just for clarity. Because your Lordships were repeatedly told there was regulation. See the regulation, what have you done with it?"

Chinoy clarified that he is not suggesting that there should not be any commenting or critical reporting. However, he emphasised that there should not be any interference with the administration of justice." You are no judge or jury to decide who should be investigated or hounded", he went on to assert.

As for the Government's response in recent times, and presumably in reference to the media coverage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, Chinoy remarked, "... if a campaign of two months is not looked into, what is the reason of the Government of India? This is not doing its duty or not having power, both which requires judicial intervention."

He added, "Stray incidents are fine, but this sustained reporting for so long with no response! Inputting in guidelines, your Lordships are giving the exposition of the law... for months they did not do anything."

Chinoy proceeded to highlight that Courts can intervene in such scenarios.

"It has been held that the courts of record have the power to punish, to postpone publicity in appropriate cases as a preventive measure without disturbing content. How can media channels destroy reputation, and show they are guilty of an offence? Inform, criticise, consider, but don't judge, that is the kernel."

Q. For framing guidelines regulating media trial, supreme court adopted the process of :

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 73 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

The media trial is when the media violates its limitations and frames a person guilty before the court's verdict.

For setting guidelines to avoid this supreme court used judicial review and stakeholder consultation.

Judicial review is when a judge reviews the actions of a public body.

Therefore, this is the right option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 74

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The hearing in the PILs against media trial, in the wake of sensationalised reportage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, today saw Senior Advocate Aspi Chinoy re-assert that guidelines should be issued by the Court in the matter. Appearing for the petitioners, Chinoy made his rejoinder arguments today." The problem with the law is that if there was a robust mechanism in place, it was surprising to see channels for months on end to call people for arrest", Chinoy observed as he started his arguments today.

Referring to the prevailing media regulation mechanisms, Chinoy went on to argue, "What we need to do is consider what is this so-called mechanism. Has it worked? And what can be done to enhance it or improve it with directions of the court? "He went on to recount that under the Cable Television Networks Act, transmission can be stopped if a media channel violates the Programme Code.

On the other hand, Chinoy submitted that non-statutory mechanisms such as the News Broadcasters Association regulations comprise a code of conduct of ethical standards, "which do not deal with anything we are talking on." He went on to point out that between the two mechanisms, the Government has been slow to act against irresponsible media reportage. In this regard, Chinoy submitted, "Looks at the grievances of the public, there is suo motu action and there is no explanation by the government of the actions they have taken. If they had acted, we wouldn't have had to come here. But they did not see what is going on."

He added, "They are of the view that it does not amount to contempt of court. I am just formulating it just for clarity. Because your Lordships were repeatedly told there was regulation. See the regulation, what have you done with it?"

Chinoy clarified that he is not suggesting that there should not be any commenting or critical reporting. However, he emphasised that there should not be any interference with the administration of justice." You are no judge or jury to decide who should be investigated or hounded", he went on to assert.

As for the Government's response in recent times, and presumably in reference to the media coverage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, Chinoy remarked, "... if a campaign of two months is not looked into, what is the reason of the Government of India? This is not doing its duty or not having power, both which requires judicial intervention."

He added, "Stray incidents are fine, but this sustained reporting for so long with no response! Inputting in guidelines, your Lordships are giving the exposition of the law... for months they did not do anything."

Chinoy proceeded to highlight that Courts can intervene in such scenarios.

"It has been held that the courts of record have the power to punish, to postpone publicity in appropriate cases as a preventive measure without disturbing content. How can media channels destroy reputation, and show they are guilty of an offence? Inform, criticise, consider, but don't judge, that is the kernel."

Q. Media Trial leads to :

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 74 This is the correct answer for the given question.

A media trial is when the national news channels depict a person as a criminal even before the court provides a verdict.

This might cloud the facts about the person involved in the eyes of the public.

It crosses the limitations in freedom of the press and well affects the fundamental rights of the person is being tried fairly and be treated without discrimination.

It also affects the people's perspective on the judgment and the court's opinion on the issue.

Therefore, this is the right option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 75

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The hearing in the PILs against media trial, in the wake of sensationalised reportage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, today saw Senior Advocate Aspi Chinoy re-assert that guidelines should be issued by the Court in the matter. Appearing for the petitioners, Chinoy made his rejoinder arguments today." The problem with the law is that if there was a robust mechanism in place, it was surprising to see channels for months on end to call people for arrest", Chinoy observed as he started his arguments today.

Referring to the prevailing media regulation mechanisms, Chinoy went on to argue, "What we need to do is consider what is this so-called mechanism. Has it worked? And what can be done to enhance it or improve it with directions of the court? "He went on to recount that under the Cable Television Networks Act, transmission can be stopped if a media channel violates the Programme Code.

On the other hand, Chinoy submitted that non-statutory mechanisms such as the News Broadcasters Association regulations comprise a code of conduct of ethical standards, "which do not deal with anything we are talking on." He went on to point out that between the two mechanisms, the Government has been slow to act against irresponsible media reportage. In this regard, Chinoy submitted, "Looks at the grievances of the public, there is suo motu action and there is no explanation by the government of the actions they have taken. If they had acted, we wouldn't have had to come here. But they did not see what is going on."

He added, "They are of the view that it does not amount to contempt of court. I am just formulating it just for clarity. Because your Lordships were repeatedly told there was regulation. See the regulation, what have you done with it?"

Chinoy clarified that he is not suggesting that there should not be any commenting or critical reporting. However, he emphasised that there should not be any interference with the administration of justice." You are no judge or jury to decide who should be investigated or hounded", he went on to assert.

As for the Government's response in recent times, and presumably in reference to the media coverage in the Sushant Singh Rajput case, Chinoy remarked, "... if a campaign of two months is not looked into, what is the reason of the Government of India? This is not doing its duty or not having power, both which requires judicial intervention."

He added, "Stray incidents are fine, but this sustained reporting for so long with no response! Inputting in guidelines, your Lordships are giving the exposition of the law... for months they did not do anything."

Chinoy proceeded to highlight that Courts can intervene in such scenarios.

"It has been held that the courts of record have the power to punish, to postpone publicity in appropriate cases as a preventive measure without disturbing content. How can media channels destroy reputation, and show they are guilty of an offence? Inform, criticise, consider, but don't judge, that is the kernel."

Q. Right to fair trial includes:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 75 This is the appropriate answer to the given question.

The right to a fair trial is treating everyone equally and without any discrimination.

The jury must be impartial towards the people involved in the case.

An adversarial system is where the two advocates representing the parties present their case in front of a group of juries.

The presumption of innocence is that everyone is assumed innocent until they are proven guilty.

Therefore, this is the right option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 76

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Instant Talaq or "Triple Talaq" or "Talaq-e-Biddat" is an Islamic practice that allows men to divorce their wives immediately by uttering the word "talaq" (divorce) three times. The pronouncement can be oral or written, or as in recent times, delivered by electronic means - telephone, SMS, email, or social media.

"Talaq-e-Biddat" or "Talaq-ul-Bain" (Irrevocable divorce) is instant Triple Talaq and is effective as soon as the word "Talaq" has been pronounced thrice. In this form of talaq, three pronouncements can be made during a single tuhr (when the woman is not menstruating) by saying "I divorce thee" thrice at the same instant i.e. there need not be any waiting period between two successive pronouncements.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, in its recent landmark judgment of Sayara bano Vs. Union of India pronounced on August 22, 2017, has set aside the practice of Talaq-e-Biddat or "Triple Talaq" with the majority Ration of 3:2. Shayara Bano, a 35 -year-old woman survivor of domestic violence and dowry harassment, challenged the practice in 2016, a year after her husband of 15 years divorced her via triple talaq. The Judgment by the minority bench further directed the Government of the Union of India to lay proper legislation in order to regularize the proceedings of divorce as per Shariat law.

What is the landmark Judgment passed by The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Sayara Bano Vs UOI.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court heard the Petition for the ban of the practice of Triple Talaq through a Constitution bench comprising of 5 Judges from different religions - Justice Kurian Joseph, a catholic, Justice UU Lalit, a Hindu and Justice RF Nariman, a Parsi, Chief Justice Khehar, a Sikh and Justice Abdul Nazeer, a Muslim. On August 22, 2017, this bench declared Triple Talaq or Talaq-e Biddat as unconstitutional by a 3:2 majority. Justices Kurian, Lalit and Nariman delivered the majority judgement while Chief Justice Khehar and Justice Nazeer dissented with the majority.

The bench held that the practice of Triple talaq is arbitrary in nature by observing the following: "It is clear that this form of Talaq is manifestly arbitrary in the sense that the marital tie can be broken capriciously and whimsically by a Muslim man without any attempt at reconciliation so as to save it. This form of Talaq must, therefore, be held to be violative of the fundamental right contained under Article 14 of the Constitution of India. In our opinion, therefore, the 1937 Act (Muslim Personal Law Shariat Application Act), insofar as it seeks to recognize and enforce Triple Talaq, is within the meaning of the expression "laws in force" in Article 13(1) and must be struck down as being void to the extent that it recognizes and enforces Triple Talaq. Since we have declared Section 2 of the 1937 Act to be void to the extent indicated above on the narrower ground of it being manifestly arbitrary, we do not find the need to go into the ground of discrimination in these cases, as was argued by the learned Attorney General and those supporting him."

Taking into consideration the views of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the Judgment of Shayara bano Vs. Union of India, the Hon'ble Law Minister Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad took an initiative to present the Triple Talaq Bill before the Lower House, Lok Sabha, which was passed by majority by the Lower house on December 28, 2017 . The preamble of the Bill reads as "To protect the rights of the Married Muslim Women and prohibit divorce by pronouncing Talaq by their Husbands and provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto" The main highlights of the said bill are Sections 3 and 4 which criminalize the practice of Triple Talaq. Section 3 of the Bill states that "talaq-e-biddat" shall be 'void' and 'illegal'. This is followed by the consequence of such void action in terms of Section 4 thereof, stating, whoever pronounces talaq-e-biddat shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine. Further Section 7 of the Act makes the offense cognizable and non-bailable offense.

Q. Which one of the following is true?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 76 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage has informed us that instant talaq or triple talaq can only be pronounced by Muslim men by saying the word talaq thrice to their wives.

Further, the author tells us that the form of talaq has changed in recent times as now apart from oral or written talaq, many delivered talaq pronouncements through electronic means.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 77

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Instant Talaq or "Triple Talaq" or "Talaq-e-Biddat" is an Islamic practice that allows men to divorce their wives immediately by uttering the word "talaq" (divorce) three times. The pronouncement can be oral or written, or as in recent times, delivered by electronic means - telephone, SMS, email, or social media.

"Talaq-e-Biddat" or "Talaq-ul-Bain" (Irrevocable divorce) is instant Triple Talaq and is effective as soon as the word "Talaq" has been pronounced thrice. In this form of talaq, three pronouncements can be made during a single tuhr (when the woman is not menstruating) by saying "I divorce thee" thrice at the same instant i.e. there need not be any waiting period between two successive pronouncements.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, in its recent landmark judgment of Sayara bano Vs. Union of India pronounced on August 22, 2017, has set aside the practice of Talaq-e-Biddat or "Triple Talaq" with the majority Ration of 3:2. Shayara Bano, a 35 -year-old woman survivor of domestic violence and dowry harassment, challenged the practice in 2016, a year after her husband of 15 years divorced her via triple talaq. The Judgment by the minority bench further directed the Government of the Union of India to lay proper legislation in order to regularize the proceedings of divorce as per Shariat law.

What is the landmark Judgment passed by The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Sayara Bano Vs UOI.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court heard the Petition for the ban of the practice of Triple Talaq through a Constitution bench comprising of 5 Judges from different religions - Justice Kurian Joseph, a catholic, Justice UU Lalit, a Hindu and Justice RF Nariman, a Parsi, Chief Justice Khehar, a Sikh and Justice Abdul Nazeer, a Muslim. On August 22, 2017, this bench declared Triple Talaq or Talaq-e Biddat as unconstitutional by a 3:2 majority. Justices Kurian, Lalit and Nariman delivered the majority judgement while Chief Justice Khehar and Justice Nazeer dissented with the majority.

The bench held that the practice of Triple talaq is arbitrary in nature by observing the following: "It is clear that this form of Talaq is manifestly arbitrary in the sense that the marital tie can be broken capriciously and whimsically by a Muslim man without any attempt at reconciliation so as to save it. This form of Talaq must, therefore, be held to be violative of the fundamental right contained under Article 14 of the Constitution of India. In our opinion, therefore, the 1937 Act (Muslim Personal Law Shariat Application Act), insofar as it seeks to recognize and enforce Triple Talaq, is within the meaning of the expression "laws in force" in Article 13(1) and must be struck down as being void to the extent that it recognizes and enforces Triple Talaq. Since we have declared Section 2 of the 1937 Act to be void to the extent indicated above on the narrower ground of it being manifestly arbitrary, we do not find the need to go into the ground of discrimination in these cases, as was argued by the learned Attorney General and those supporting him."

Taking into consideration the views of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the Judgment of Shayara bano Vs. Union of India, the Hon'ble Law Minister Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad took an initiative to present the Triple Talaq Bill before the Lower House, Lok Sabha, which was passed by majority by the Lower house on December 28, 2017 . The preamble of the Bill reads as "To protect the rights of the Married Muslim Women and prohibit divorce by pronouncing Talaq by their Husbands and provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto" The main highlights of the said bill are Sections 3 and 4 which criminalize the practice of Triple Talaq. Section 3 of the Bill states that "talaq-e-biddat" shall be 'void' and 'illegal'. This is followed by the consequence of such void action in terms of Section 4 thereof, stating, whoever pronounces talaq-e-biddat shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine. Further Section 7 of the Act makes the offense cognizable and non-bailable offense.

Q. With reference to the Shayara Bano case decide :

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 77 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage has informed us about Shayara Bano a thirty-five years old survivor of domestic violence and dowry harassment whose husband for fifteen years gave her triple talaq arbitrarily.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 78

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Instant Talaq or "Triple Talaq" or "Talaq-e-Biddat" is an Islamic practice that allows men to divorce their wives immediately by uttering the word "talaq" (divorce) three times. The pronouncement can be oral or written, or as in recent times, delivered by electronic means - telephone, SMS, email, or social media.

"Talaq-e-Biddat" or "Talaq-ul-Bain" (Irrevocable divorce) is instant Triple Talaq and is effective as soon as the word "Talaq" has been pronounced thrice. In this form of talaq, three pronouncements can be made during a single tuhr (when the woman is not menstruating) by saying "I divorce thee" thrice at the same instant i.e. there need not be any waiting period between two successive pronouncements.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, in its recent landmark judgment of Sayara bano Vs. Union of India pronounced on August 22, 2017, has set aside the practice of Talaq-e-Biddat or "Triple Talaq" with the majority Ration of 3:2. Shayara Bano, a 35 -year-old woman survivor of domestic violence and dowry harassment, challenged the practice in 2016, a year after her husband of 15 years divorced her via triple talaq. The Judgment by the minority bench further directed the Government of the Union of India to lay proper legislation in order to regularize the proceedings of divorce as per Shariat law.

What is the landmark Judgment passed by The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Sayara Bano Vs UOI.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court heard the Petition for the ban of the practice of Triple Talaq through a Constitution bench comprising of 5 Judges from different religions - Justice Kurian Joseph, a catholic, Justice UU Lalit, a Hindu and Justice RF Nariman, a Parsi, Chief Justice Khehar, a Sikh and Justice Abdul Nazeer, a Muslim. On August 22, 2017, this bench declared Triple Talaq or Talaq-e Biddat as unconstitutional by a 3:2 majority. Justices Kurian, Lalit and Nariman delivered the majority judgement while Chief Justice Khehar and Justice Nazeer dissented with the majority.

The bench held that the practice of Triple talaq is arbitrary in nature by observing the following: "It is clear that this form of Talaq is manifestly arbitrary in the sense that the marital tie can be broken capriciously and whimsically by a Muslim man without any attempt at reconciliation so as to save it. This form of Talaq must, therefore, be held to be violative of the fundamental right contained under Article 14 of the Constitution of India. In our opinion, therefore, the 1937 Act (Muslim Personal Law Shariat Application Act), insofar as it seeks to recognize and enforce Triple Talaq, is within the meaning of the expression "laws in force" in Article 13(1) and must be struck down as being void to the extent that it recognizes and enforces Triple Talaq. Since we have declared Section 2 of the 1937 Act to be void to the extent indicated above on the narrower ground of it being manifestly arbitrary, we do not find the need to go into the ground of discrimination in these cases, as was argued by the learned Attorney General and those supporting him."

Taking into consideration the views of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the Judgment of Shayara bano Vs. Union of India, the Hon'ble Law Minister Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad took an initiative to present the Triple Talaq Bill before the Lower House, Lok Sabha, which was passed by majority by the Lower house on December 28, 2017 . The preamble of the Bill reads as "To protect the rights of the Married Muslim Women and prohibit divorce by pronouncing Talaq by their Husbands and provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto" The main highlights of the said bill are Sections 3 and 4 which criminalize the practice of Triple Talaq. Section 3 of the Bill states that "talaq-e-biddat" shall be 'void' and 'illegal'. This is followed by the consequence of such void action in terms of Section 4 thereof, stating, whoever pronounces talaq-e-biddat shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine. Further Section 7 of the Act makes the offense cognizable and non-bailable offense.

Q. Which of the following is known as the most proper form of talaq in Muslim law ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 78

This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

Amongst Muslims, 'talaq-e-ahsan' is regarded as - 'the most proper' form of divorce.

'Talaq-e-hasan' is pronounced in the same manner, as 'talaq-e-ahsan'.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 79

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Instant Talaq or "Triple Talaq" or "Talaq-e-Biddat" is an Islamic practice that allows men to divorce their wives immediately by uttering the word "talaq" (divorce) three times. The pronouncement can be oral or written, or as in recent times, delivered by electronic means - telephone, SMS, email, or social media.

"Talaq-e-Biddat" or "Talaq-ul-Bain" (Irrevocable divorce) is instant Triple Talaq and is effective as soon as the word "Talaq" has been pronounced thrice. In this form of talaq, three pronouncements can be made during a single tuhr (when the woman is not menstruating) by saying "I divorce thee" thrice at the same instant i.e. there need not be any waiting period between two successive pronouncements.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, in its recent landmark judgment of Sayara bano Vs. Union of India pronounced on August 22, 2017, has set aside the practice of Talaq-e-Biddat or "Triple Talaq" with the majority Ration of 3:2. Shayara Bano, a 35 -year-old woman survivor of domestic violence and dowry harassment, challenged the practice in 2016, a year after her husband of 15 years divorced her via triple talaq. The Judgment by the minority bench further directed the Government of the Union of India to lay proper legislation in order to regularize the proceedings of divorce as per Shariat law.

What is the landmark Judgment passed by The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Sayara Bano Vs UOI.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court heard the Petition for the ban of the practice of Triple Talaq through a Constitution bench comprising of 5 Judges from different religions - Justice Kurian Joseph, a catholic, Justice UU Lalit, a Hindu and Justice RF Nariman, a Parsi, Chief Justice Khehar, a Sikh and Justice Abdul Nazeer, a Muslim. On August 22, 2017, this bench declared Triple Talaq or Talaq-e Biddat as unconstitutional by a 3:2 majority. Justices Kurian, Lalit and Nariman delivered the majority judgement while Chief Justice Khehar and Justice Nazeer dissented with the majority.

The bench held that the practice of Triple talaq is arbitrary in nature by observing the following: "It is clear that this form of Talaq is manifestly arbitrary in the sense that the marital tie can be broken capriciously and whimsically by a Muslim man without any attempt at reconciliation so as to save it. This form of Talaq must, therefore, be held to be violative of the fundamental right contained under Article 14 of the Constitution of India. In our opinion, therefore, the 1937 Act (Muslim Personal Law Shariat Application Act), insofar as it seeks to recognize and enforce Triple Talaq, is within the meaning of the expression "laws in force" in Article 13(1) and must be struck down as being void to the extent that it recognizes and enforces Triple Talaq. Since we have declared Section 2 of the 1937 Act to be void to the extent indicated above on the narrower ground of it being manifestly arbitrary, we do not find the need to go into the ground of discrimination in these cases, as was argued by the learned Attorney General and those supporting him."

Taking into consideration the views of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the Judgment of Shayara bano Vs. Union of India, the Hon'ble Law Minister Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad took an initiative to present the Triple Talaq Bill before the Lower House, Lok Sabha, which was passed by majority by the Lower house on December 28, 2017 . The preamble of the Bill reads as "To protect the rights of the Married Muslim Women and prohibit divorce by pronouncing Talaq by their Husbands and provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto" The main highlights of the said bill are Sections 3 and 4 which criminalize the practice of Triple Talaq. Section 3 of the Bill states that "talaq-e-biddat" shall be 'void' and 'illegal'. This is followed by the consequence of such void action in terms of Section 4 thereof, stating, whoever pronounces talaq-e-biddat shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine. Further Section 7 of the Act makes the offense cognizable and non-bailable offense.

Q. Triple Talaq is violative of :

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 79 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author in the fifth paragraph of the passage informs us that triple talaq violates the fundamental rights of an individual contained under Article 14 of the constitution of India.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 80

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Instant Talaq or "Triple Talaq" or "Talaq-e-Biddat" is an Islamic practice that allows men to divorce their wives immediately by uttering the word "talaq" (divorce) three times. The pronouncement can be oral or written, or as in recent times, delivered by electronic means - telephone, SMS, email, or social media.

"Talaq-e-Biddat" or "Talaq-ul-Bain" (Irrevocable divorce) is instant Triple Talaq and is effective as soon as the word "Talaq" has been pronounced thrice. In this form of talaq, three pronouncements can be made during a single tuhr (when the woman is not menstruating) by saying "I divorce thee" thrice at the same instant i.e. there need not be any waiting period between two successive pronouncements.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court of India, in its recent landmark judgment of Sayara bano Vs. Union of India pronounced on August 22, 2017, has set aside the practice of Talaq-e-Biddat or "Triple Talaq" with the majority Ration of 3:2. Shayara Bano, a 35 -year-old woman survivor of domestic violence and dowry harassment, challenged the practice in 2016, a year after her husband of 15 years divorced her via triple talaq. The Judgment by the minority bench further directed the Government of the Union of India to lay proper legislation in order to regularize the proceedings of divorce as per Shariat law.

What is the landmark Judgment passed by The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Sayara Bano Vs UOI.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court heard the Petition for the ban of the practice of Triple Talaq through a Constitution bench comprising of 5 Judges from different religions - Justice Kurian Joseph, a catholic, Justice UU Lalit, a Hindu and Justice RF Nariman, a Parsi, Chief Justice Khehar, a Sikh and Justice Abdul Nazeer, a Muslim. On August 22, 2017, this bench declared Triple Talaq or Talaq-e Biddat as unconstitutional by a 3:2 majority. Justices Kurian, Lalit and Nariman delivered the majority judgement while Chief Justice Khehar and Justice Nazeer dissented with the majority.

The bench held that the practice of Triple talaq is arbitrary in nature by observing the following: "It is clear that this form of Talaq is manifestly arbitrary in the sense that the marital tie can be broken capriciously and whimsically by a Muslim man without any attempt at reconciliation so as to save it. This form of Talaq must, therefore, be held to be violative of the fundamental right contained under Article 14 of the Constitution of India. In our opinion, therefore, the 1937 Act (Muslim Personal Law Shariat Application Act), insofar as it seeks to recognize and enforce Triple Talaq, is within the meaning of the expression "laws in force" in Article 13(1) and must be struck down as being void to the extent that it recognizes and enforces Triple Talaq. Since we have declared Section 2 of the 1937 Act to be void to the extent indicated above on the narrower ground of it being manifestly arbitrary, we do not find the need to go into the ground of discrimination in these cases, as was argued by the learned Attorney General and those supporting him."

Taking into consideration the views of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the Judgment of Shayara bano Vs. Union of India, the Hon'ble Law Minister Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad took an initiative to present the Triple Talaq Bill before the Lower House, Lok Sabha, which was passed by majority by the Lower house on December 28, 2017 . The preamble of the Bill reads as "To protect the rights of the Married Muslim Women and prohibit divorce by pronouncing Talaq by their Husbands and provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto" The main highlights of the said bill are Sections 3 and 4 which criminalize the practice of Triple Talaq. Section 3 of the Bill states that "talaq-e-biddat" shall be 'void' and 'illegal'. This is followed by the consequence of such void action in terms of Section 4 thereof, stating, whoever pronounces talaq-e-biddat shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine. Further Section 7 of the Act makes the offense cognizable and non-bailable offense.

Q. Refer to the passage and answer-

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 80 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage in the last paragraph tells us that whoever pronounces talaq-e-biddat shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine.

The Act against triple talaq makes the offence cognizable and non-bailable offence.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 81

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

It is no secret that a number of POCSO cases end in acquittals. While a more uninformed opinion is that the cases themselves might not have been genuine, the grim reality is that there is a gross failure to support and rehabilitate the victim and her family. As a result of this, either the victims turn hostile or the family turns hostile, or they simply lose hope and stop cooperating.

Section 33(8) of POCSO provides that in appropriate cases, in addition to punishment, the Special Court may direct payment of compensation to the child for any physical/mental trauma caused to the child or for immediate rehabilitation. Pursuant to the parent Act, the POCSO Rules of 2012 dedicated Rule 7 to the procedure and parameters of providing such compensation. Rule 7(3) enlisted the various parameters/factors to be considered by the Special Court in deciding such compensation, such as gravity of the offence, expenditure incurred/likely to be incurred on medical treatment, loss of educational opportunity, financial conditions, etc. Rule 7(4) and state that after the amount is decided/ granted by the Special Court, it is to be disbursed from the Victim; Compensation Fund or such other scheme by the legal services authority within 30 days of receipt of such order.

It is seen that the grant of compensation by Special Courts under POCSO is both sporadic and erratic. There is also confusion as to who is to apply for compensation on behalf of the victim, with many victims under the impression that the investigating officer would apply for compensation on their behalf. To top it off, even in cases where the compensation was granted by the Special Court, the amounts were rather inconsistent and arbitrary, some being as meagre as Rs. 10,000 .

These issues were raised and argued at length in a PIL filed in the Delhi High Court back in 2016. While the matter was still being heard in the High Court in the captioned PIL, the Supreme Court passed a significant direction on the aspect of compensation under POCSO in Nipun Saxena & Anr v. Union of India \& Ors. It was directed that the Special Court, upon receipt of information as to the commission of any offence under the Act by the registration of FIR, shall on his own or on the application of the victim make an enquiry as to the immediate needs of the child for relief or rehabilitation and pass appropriate order for interim compensation. It was further held that if the court declines to grant interim or final compensation it shall record its reasons for not doing so. Nipun Saxena's case was preceded by another pertinent judgment passed under POCSO by the Supreme Court in Alakh Alok Srivastava v. UOI, wherein the Apex Court directed for each High Court to constitute a three-judge committee to regulate and monitor the progress of trials under POCSO. In addition, each state was directed to constitute a Special Task Force to ensure that investigation is properly conducted under POCSO.

It was the Unnao Rape case and the Supreme Court's suo moto cognizance of it that truly brought many of these issues to the fore. The Supreme Court noted that timelines of the Act are not being followed at all. Besides granting interim compensation of Rs. 25 lakh to the victim, the Supreme Court directed that in each district in the country (if there are more than 100 POCSO cases) an exclusive Special Court will be set up, which will try no offence except those under POCSO Act. Though the Court had granted 60 days for the same, the process of setting up and functioning of these courts all over the country is still underway.

The advent of the new POCSO Rules, 2020 and the directions of the Supreme Court in 2018-2019 have given a sliver of hope to POCSO victims. As is with all laws, the implementation on the ground is a whole new ball game from the promulgation of the law itself. It remains to be seen whether these new developments provide the care and rehabilitation that POCSO victims need and deserve.

Q. Why do you think compensation is granted under POCSO Act to victim?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 81 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

According to the context of the passage, the Special Court may direct payment of compensation to the child (victim) for any physical/mental trauma caused to the child or for immediate rehabilitation of the victims and their families.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 82

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

It is no secret that a number of POCSO cases end in acquittals. While a more uninformed opinion is that the cases themselves might not have been genuine, the grim reality is that there is a gross failure to support and rehabilitate the victim and her family. As a result of this, either the victims turn hostile or the family turns hostile, or they simply lose hope and stop cooperating.

Section 33(8) of POCSO provides that in appropriate cases, in addition to punishment, the Special Court may direct payment of compensation to the child for any physical/mental trauma caused to the child or for immediate rehabilitation. Pursuant to the parent Act, the POCSO Rules of 2012 dedicated Rule 7 to the procedure and parameters of providing such compensation. Rule 7(3) enlisted the various parameters/factors to be considered by the Special Court in deciding such compensation, such as gravity of the offence, expenditure incurred/likely to be incurred on medical treatment, loss of educational opportunity, financial conditions, etc. Rule 7(4) and state that after the amount is decided/ granted by the Special Court, it is to be disbursed from the Victim; Compensation Fund or such other scheme by the legal services authority within 30 days of receipt of such order.

It is seen that the grant of compensation by Special Courts under POCSO is both sporadic and erratic. There is also confusion as to who is to apply for compensation on behalf of the victim, with many victims under the impression that the investigating officer would apply for compensation on their behalf. To top it off, even in cases where the compensation was granted by the Special Court, the amounts were rather inconsistent and arbitrary, some being as meagre as Rs. 10,000 .

These issues were raised and argued at length in a PIL filed in the Delhi High Court back in 2016. While the matter was still being heard in the High Court in the captioned PIL, the Supreme Court passed a significant direction on the aspect of compensation under POCSO in Nipun Saxena & Anr v. Union of India \& Ors. It was directed that the Special Court, upon receipt of information as to the commission of any offence under the Act by the registration of FIR, shall on his own or on the application of the victim make an enquiry as to the immediate needs of the child for relief or rehabilitation and pass appropriate order for interim compensation. It was further held that if the court declines to grant interim or final compensation it shall record its reasons for not doing so. Nipun Saxena's case was preceded by another pertinent judgment passed under POCSO by the Supreme Court in Alakh Alok Srivastava v. UOI, wherein the Apex Court directed for each High Court to constitute a three-judge committee to regulate and monitor the progress of trials under POCSO. In addition, each state was directed to constitute a Special Task Force to ensure that investigation is properly conducted under POCSO.

It was the Unnao Rape case and the Supreme Court's suo moto cognizance of it that truly brought many of these issues to the fore. The Supreme Court noted that timelines of the Act are not being followed at all. Besides granting interim compensation of Rs. 25 lakh to the victim, the Supreme Court directed that in each district in the country (if there are more than 100 POCSO cases) an exclusive Special Court will be set up, which will try no offence except those under POCSO Act. Though the Court had granted 60 days for the same, the process of setting up and functioning of these courts all over the country is still underway.

The advent of the new POCSO Rules, 2020 and the directions of the Supreme Court in 2018-2019 have given a sliver of hope to POCSO victims. As is with all laws, the implementation on the ground is a whole new ball game from the promulgation of the law itself. It remains to be seen whether these new developments provide the care and rehabilitation that POCSO victims need and deserve.

Q. Piyali is the daughter of Rajat. One day when Rajat was out his neighbour entered the house and finding Piyali alone tried to molest her. Knowing this Rajat filed a case in the court. Under which act the neighbour will be liable?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 82 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

According to the context of the given situation, Rajat's neighbour who molested his daughter will be liable under The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012.

This Act is a comprehensive law to provide for the protection of children from the offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 83

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

It is no secret that a number of POCSO cases end in acquittals. While a more uninformed opinion is that the cases themselves might not have been genuine, the grim reality is that there is a gross failure to support and rehabilitate the victim and her family. As a result of this, either the victims turn hostile or the family turns hostile, or they simply lose hope and stop cooperating.

Section 33(8) of POCSO provides that in appropriate cases, in addition to punishment, the Special Court may direct payment of compensation to the child for any physical/mental trauma caused to the child or for immediate rehabilitation. Pursuant to the parent Act, the POCSO Rules of 2012 dedicated Rule 7 to the procedure and parameters of providing such compensation. Rule 7(3) enlisted the various parameters/factors to be considered by the Special Court in deciding such compensation, such as gravity of the offence, expenditure incurred/likely to be incurred on medical treatment, loss of educational opportunity, financial conditions, etc. Rule 7(4) and state that after the amount is decided/ granted by the Special Court, it is to be disbursed from the Victim; Compensation Fund or such other scheme by the legal services authority within 30 days of receipt of such order.

It is seen that the grant of compensation by Special Courts under POCSO is both sporadic and erratic. There is also confusion as to who is to apply for compensation on behalf of the victim, with many victims under the impression that the investigating officer would apply for compensation on their behalf. To top it off, even in cases where the compensation was granted by the Special Court, the amounts were rather inconsistent and arbitrary, some being as meagre as Rs. 10,000 .

These issues were raised and argued at length in a PIL filed in the Delhi High Court back in 2016. While the matter was still being heard in the High Court in the captioned PIL, the Supreme Court passed a significant direction on the aspect of compensation under POCSO in Nipun Saxena & Anr v. Union of India \& Ors. It was directed that the Special Court, upon receipt of information as to the commission of any offence under the Act by the registration of FIR, shall on his own or on the application of the victim make an enquiry as to the immediate needs of the child for relief or rehabilitation and pass appropriate order for interim compensation. It was further held that if the court declines to grant interim or final compensation it shall record its reasons for not doing so. Nipun Saxena's case was preceded by another pertinent judgment passed under POCSO by the Supreme Court in Alakh Alok Srivastava v. UOI, wherein the Apex Court directed for each High Court to constitute a three-judge committee to regulate and monitor the progress of trials under POCSO. In addition, each state was directed to constitute a Special Task Force to ensure that investigation is properly conducted under POCSO.

It was the Unnao Rape case and the Supreme Court's suo moto cognizance of it that truly brought many of these issues to the fore. The Supreme Court noted that timelines of the Act are not being followed at all. Besides granting interim compensation of Rs. 25 lakh to the victim, the Supreme Court directed that in each district in the country (if there are more than 100 POCSO cases) an exclusive Special Court will be set up, which will try no offence except those under POCSO Act. Though the Court had granted 60 days for the same, the process of setting up and functioning of these courts all over the country is still underway.

The advent of the new POCSO Rules, 2020 and the directions of the Supreme Court in 2018-2019 have given a sliver of hope to POCSO victims. As is with all laws, the implementation on the ground is a whole new ball game from the promulgation of the law itself. It remains to be seen whether these new developments provide the care and rehabilitation that POCSO victims need and deserve.

Q. Fast track special courts are courts designated for?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 83 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

Fast Track Special Courts are dedicated courts expected to ensure swift dispensation of justice.

They are designated for special cases in heinous crimes like brutal rapes and crimes against children in the working POCSO Act.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 84

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

It is no secret that a number of POCSO cases end in acquittals. While a more uninformed opinion is that the cases themselves might not have been genuine, the grim reality is that there is a gross failure to support and rehabilitate the victim and her family. As a result of this, either the victims turn hostile or the family turns hostile, or they simply lose hope and stop cooperating.

Section 33(8) of POCSO provides that in appropriate cases, in addition to punishment, the Special Court may direct payment of compensation to the child for any physical/mental trauma caused to the child or for immediate rehabilitation. Pursuant to the parent Act, the POCSO Rules of 2012 dedicated Rule 7 to the procedure and parameters of providing such compensation. Rule 7(3) enlisted the various parameters/factors to be considered by the Special Court in deciding such compensation, such as gravity of the offence, expenditure incurred/likely to be incurred on medical treatment, loss of educational opportunity, financial conditions, etc. Rule 7(4) and state that after the amount is decided/ granted by the Special Court, it is to be disbursed from the Victim; Compensation Fund or such other scheme by the legal services authority within 30 days of receipt of such order.

It is seen that the grant of compensation by Special Courts under POCSO is both sporadic and erratic. There is also confusion as to who is to apply for compensation on behalf of the victim, with many victims under the impression that the investigating officer would apply for compensation on their behalf. To top it off, even in cases where the compensation was granted by the Special Court, the amounts were rather inconsistent and arbitrary, some being as meagre as Rs. 10,000 .

These issues were raised and argued at length in a PIL filed in the Delhi High Court back in 2016. While the matter was still being heard in the High Court in the captioned PIL, the Supreme Court passed a significant direction on the aspect of compensation under POCSO in Nipun Saxena & Anr v. Union of India \& Ors. It was directed that the Special Court, upon receipt of information as to the commission of any offence under the Act by the registration of FIR, shall on his own or on the application of the victim make an enquiry as to the immediate needs of the child for relief or rehabilitation and pass appropriate order for interim compensation. It was further held that if the court declines to grant interim or final compensation it shall record its reasons for not doing so. Nipun Saxena's case was preceded by another pertinent judgment passed under POCSO by the Supreme Court in Alakh Alok Srivastava v. UOI, wherein the Apex Court directed for each High Court to constitute a three-judge committee to regulate and monitor the progress of trials under POCSO. In addition, each state was directed to constitute a Special Task Force to ensure that investigation is properly conducted under POCSO.

It was the Unnao Rape case and the Supreme Court's suo moto cognizance of it that truly brought many of these issues to the fore. The Supreme Court noted that timelines of the Act are not being followed at all. Besides granting interim compensation of Rs. 25 lakh to the victim, the Supreme Court directed that in each district in the country (if there are more than 100 POCSO cases) an exclusive Special Court will be set up, which will try no offence except those under POCSO Act. Though the Court had granted 60 days for the same, the process of setting up and functioning of these courts all over the country is still underway.

The advent of the new POCSO Rules, 2020 and the directions of the Supreme Court in 2018-2019 have given a sliver of hope to POCSO victims. As is with all laws, the implementation on the ground is a whole new ball game from the promulgation of the law itself. It remains to be seen whether these new developments provide the care and rehabilitation that POCSO victims need and deserve.

Q. POCSO cases will be tried in-

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 84 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

On reading the passage we get to know that throughout the passage Special Court is the body of justice that deals with POCSO cases.

And in the second last paragraph of the passage, the author has informed us that the Supreme Court of India directed that in each district of the country (if there are more than a hundred POCSO cases) an exclusive special court will be set up, which will try no offence expect those under POCSO Act.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 85

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

It is no secret that a number of POCSO cases end in acquittals. While a more uninformed opinion is that the cases themselves might not have been genuine, the grim reality is that there is a gross failure to support and rehabilitate the victim and her family. As a result of this, either the victims turn hostile or the family turns hostile, or they simply lose hope and stop cooperating.

Section 33(8) of POCSO provides that in appropriate cases, in addition to punishment, the Special Court may direct payment of compensation to the child for any physical/mental trauma caused to the child or for immediate rehabilitation. Pursuant to the parent Act, the POCSO Rules of 2012 dedicated Rule 7 to the procedure and parameters of providing such compensation. Rule 7(3) enlisted the various parameters/factors to be considered by the Special Court in deciding such compensation, such as gravity of the offence, expenditure incurred/likely to be incurred on medical treatment, loss of educational opportunity, financial conditions, etc. Rule 7(4) and state that after the amount is decided/ granted by the Special Court, it is to be disbursed from the Victim; Compensation Fund or such other scheme by the legal services authority within 30 days of receipt of such order.

It is seen that the grant of compensation by Special Courts under POCSO is both sporadic and erratic. There is also confusion as to who is to apply for compensation on behalf of the victim, with many victims under the impression that the investigating officer would apply for compensation on their behalf. To top it off, even in cases where the compensation was granted by the Special Court, the amounts were rather inconsistent and arbitrary, some being as meagre as Rs. 10,000 .

These issues were raised and argued at length in a PIL filed in the Delhi High Court back in 2016. While the matter was still being heard in the High Court in the captioned PIL, the Supreme Court passed a significant direction on the aspect of compensation under POCSO in Nipun Saxena & Anr v. Union of India \& Ors. It was directed that the Special Court, upon receipt of information as to the commission of any offence under the Act by the registration of FIR, shall on his own or on the application of the victim make an enquiry as to the immediate needs of the child for relief or rehabilitation and pass appropriate order for interim compensation. It was further held that if the court declines to grant interim or final compensation it shall record its reasons for not doing so. Nipun Saxena's case was preceded by another pertinent judgment passed under POCSO by the Supreme Court in Alakh Alok Srivastava v. UOI, wherein the Apex Court directed for each High Court to constitute a three-judge committee to regulate and monitor the progress of trials under POCSO. In addition, each state was directed to constitute a Special Task Force to ensure that investigation is properly conducted under POCSO.

It was the Unnao Rape case and the Supreme Court's suo moto cognizance of it that truly brought many of these issues to the fore. The Supreme Court noted that timelines of the Act are not being followed at all. Besides granting interim compensation of Rs. 25 lakh to the victim, the Supreme Court directed that in each district in the country (if there are more than 100 POCSO cases) an exclusive Special Court will be set up, which will try no offence except those under POCSO Act. Though the Court had granted 60 days for the same, the process of setting up and functioning of these courts all over the country is still underway.

The advent of the new POCSO Rules, 2020 and the directions of the Supreme Court in 2018-2019 have given a sliver of hope to POCSO victims. As is with all laws, the implementation on the ground is a whole new ball game from the promulgation of the law itself. It remains to be seen whether these new developments provide the care and rehabilitation that POCSO victims need and deserve.

Q. Anita is a child of 8 years. One day while she was playing on the roads a Brahmin Pandit kidnapped her and took her to an abandoned temple and raped her. When she was found out after 2 days she was senseless due to excessive bleeding and was grievously hurt. Who can claim compensation for Anita?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 85 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage tells us that in addition to punishment, the Special Court may direct payment of compensation to the child for any physical/mental trauma caused to the child or for immediate rehabilitation.

In the above-given case, the compensation can be claimed by Anita, her parents or the attorney who is fighting on her behalf.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 86

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu is bound, during his or her lifetime, to maintain his or her illegitimate children. The obligation to maintain illegitimate children is now upon both, the father as well as the mother. Not only the illegitimate son but also an illegitimate daughter is entitled to be maintained by her father and mother.

The right to be maintained, however, extends only up to the period of minority. An illegitimate child is not entitled to be maintained by his or her parents after attaining majority. Such a child will also not be entitled to be maintained if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion.

Moreover, under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, an illegitimate son of a deceased Hindu, so long as he is a minor, and an illegitimate daughter of a deceased Hindu, so long as she remains unmarried, are entitled to be maintained by the heirs of the deceased out of the estate inherited by them or by the persons who take the estate of the deceased.

Such a son or daughter, however, will not be entitled to maintenance under the said Act if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion. An illegitimate child who has ceased to be a Hindu can, however, apply for maintenance from his or her father under the Code of Criminal Procedure.

The court has given some landmark judgments in the field of illegitimacy. Some of such decisions are :

The Supreme Court of India in Revanasiddappa vs. Mallikarjun opined that: the constitutional values enshrined in the Preamble of our Constitution that focuses on the concept of equality of status and opportunity and also on individual dignity. The Court has to remember that relationship between the parents may not be sanctioned by law but the birth of a child in such a relationship has to be viewed independently of the relationship of the parents. A child born in such a relationship is innocent and is entitled to all the rights which are given to other children born in a valid marriage.

The Indian Society is a metaphysical society and so, it is going through a transformation stage that consists of two broad categories of people with two distinct ideologies. One of the groups believes in the orthodox methods of Hindu religion where having an illegitimate child is taboo and being one is a bigger stigma.

The other group in the society consists of people who are rational and liberal in their outlook and do not consider illegitimacy as a stigma. They do not blame an illegitimate child for his/her existence instead blame the irresponsible couple. The laws in the society are also being amended accordingly as time and the situation demands.

There is a need to be more liberal towards illegitimate children and the laws should also be amended in such a way that they have the best interest of all the people at heart.

Q. Reema is an illegitimate child of Manoj. Manoj dies leaving behind an estate that is inherited by his legitimate son, Ramesh. Reema is of 19 years is unmarried. Is she entitled to maintenance from the estate inherited by Ramesh?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 86 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage in the third paragraph states that an illegitimate daughter of a deceased Hindu, so long as she remains unmarried, is entitled to be maintained by the heirs of the deceased out of the estate inherited by them or by the persons who take the estate of the deceased.Therefore, in the given case Reema is entitled to maintenance by Ramesh.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 87

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu is bound, during his or her lifetime, to maintain his or her illegitimate children. The obligation to maintain illegitimate children is now upon both, the father as well as the mother. Not only the illegitimate son but also an illegitimate daughter is entitled to be maintained by her father and mother.

The right to be maintained, however, extends only up to the period of minority. An illegitimate child is not entitled to be maintained by his or her parents after attaining majority. Such a child will also not be entitled to be maintained if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion.

Moreover, under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, an illegitimate son of a deceased Hindu, so long as he is a minor, and an illegitimate daughter of a deceased Hindu, so long as she remains unmarried, are entitled to be maintained by the heirs of the deceased out of the estate inherited by them or by the persons who take the estate of the deceased.

Such a son or daughter, however, will not be entitled to maintenance under the said Act if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion. An illegitimate child who has ceased to be a Hindu can, however, apply for maintenance from his or her father under the Code of Criminal Procedure.

The court has given some landmark judgments in the field of illegitimacy. Some of such decisions are :

The Supreme Court of India in Revanasiddappa vs. Mallikarjun opined that: the constitutional values enshrined in the Preamble of our Constitution that focuses on the concept of equality of status and opportunity and also on individual dignity. The Court has to remember that relationship between the parents may not be sanctioned by law but the birth of a child in such a relationship has to be viewed independently of the relationship of the parents. A child born in such a relationship is innocent and is entitled to all the rights which are given to other children born in a valid marriage.

The Indian Society is a metaphysical society and so, it is going through a transformation stage that consists of two broad categories of people with two distinct ideologies. One of the groups believes in the orthodox methods of Hindu religion where having an illegitimate child is taboo and being one is a bigger stigma.

The other group in the society consists of people who are rational and liberal in their outlook and do not consider illegitimacy as a stigma. They do not blame an illegitimate child for his/her existence instead blame the irresponsible couple. The laws in the society are also being amended accordingly as time and the situation demands.

There is a need to be more liberal towards illegitimate children and the laws should also be amended in such a way that they have the best interest of all the people at heart.

Q. Suppose in the above case, Reema converts into a Christian. Is she now entitled to claim the maintenance form Manoj's estate?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 87 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

In the fourth paragraph of the given passage, the author says that a son or daughter will not be entitled to maintenance under the said Act if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion.

Therefore, in this case, Reema cannot claim maintenance from Manoj's estate.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 88

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu is bound, during his or her lifetime, to maintain his or her illegitimate children. The obligation to maintain illegitimate children is now upon both, the father as well as the mother. Not only the illegitimate son but also an illegitimate daughter is entitled to be maintained by her father and mother.

The right to be maintained, however, extends only up to the period of minority. An illegitimate child is not entitled to be maintained by his or her parents after attaining majority. Such a child will also not be entitled to be maintained if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion.

Moreover, under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, an illegitimate son of a deceased Hindu, so long as he is a minor, and an illegitimate daughter of a deceased Hindu, so long as she remains unmarried, are entitled to be maintained by the heirs of the deceased out of the estate inherited by them or by the persons who take the estate of the deceased.

Such a son or daughter, however, will not be entitled to maintenance under the said Act if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion. An illegitimate child who has ceased to be a Hindu can, however, apply for maintenance from his or her father under the Code of Criminal Procedure.

The court has given some landmark judgments in the field of illegitimacy. Some of such decisions are :

The Supreme Court of India in Revanasiddappa vs. Mallikarjun opined that: the constitutional values enshrined in the Preamble of our Constitution that focuses on the concept of equality of status and opportunity and also on individual dignity. The Court has to remember that relationship between the parents may not be sanctioned by law but the birth of a child in such a relationship has to be viewed independently of the relationship of the parents. A child born in such a relationship is innocent and is entitled to all the rights which are given to other children born in a valid marriage.

The Indian Society is a metaphysical society and so, it is going through a transformation stage that consists of two broad categories of people with two distinct ideologies. One of the groups believes in the orthodox methods of Hindu religion where having an illegitimate child is taboo and being one is a bigger stigma.

The other group in the society consists of people who are rational and liberal in their outlook and do not consider illegitimacy as a stigma. They do not blame an illegitimate child for his/her existence instead blame the irresponsible couple. The laws in the society are also being amended accordingly as time and the situation demands.

There is a need to be more liberal towards illegitimate children and the laws should also be amended in such a way that they have the best interest of all the people at heart.

Q. Suppose, in the above given case, Chandu is of 16 years of age and he wants to claim maintenance from his mother. Can he do so?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 88 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage in the first paragraph states that the obligation to maintain illegitimate children is now upon both, the father as well as the mother.

Not only the illegitimate son but also an illegitimate daughter is entitled to be maintained by her father and mother.

Thus, in this case, Chandu can claim maintenance from his mother.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 89

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu is bound, during his or her lifetime, to maintain his or her illegitimate children. The obligation to maintain illegitimate children is now upon both, the father as well as the mother. Not only the illegitimate son but also an illegitimate daughter is entitled to be maintained by her father and mother.

The right to be maintained, however, extends only up to the period of minority. An illegitimate child is not entitled to be maintained by his or her parents after attaining majority. Such a child will also not be entitled to be maintained if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion.

Moreover, under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, an illegitimate son of a deceased Hindu, so long as he is a minor, and an illegitimate daughter of a deceased Hindu, so long as she remains unmarried, are entitled to be maintained by the heirs of the deceased out of the estate inherited by them or by the persons who take the estate of the deceased.

Such a son or daughter, however, will not be entitled to maintenance under the said Act if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion. An illegitimate child who has ceased to be a Hindu can, however, apply for maintenance from his or her father under the Code of Criminal Procedure.

The court has given some landmark judgments in the field of illegitimacy. Some of such decisions are :

The Supreme Court of India in Revanasiddappa vs. Mallikarjun opined that: the constitutional values enshrined in the Preamble of our Constitution that focuses on the concept of equality of status and opportunity and also on individual dignity. The Court has to remember that relationship between the parents may not be sanctioned by law but the birth of a child in such a relationship has to be viewed independently of the relationship of the parents. A child born in such a relationship is innocent and is entitled to all the rights which are given to other children born in a valid marriage.

The Indian Society is a metaphysical society and so, it is going through a transformation stage that consists of two broad categories of people with two distinct ideologies. One of the groups believes in the orthodox methods of Hindu religion where having an illegitimate child is taboo and being one is a bigger stigma.

The other group in the society consists of people who are rational and liberal in their outlook and do not consider illegitimacy as a stigma. They do not blame an illegitimate child for his/her existence instead blame the irresponsible couple. The laws in the society are also being amended accordingly as time and the situation demands.

There is a need to be more liberal towards illegitimate children and the laws should also be amended in such a way that they have the best interest of all the people at heart.

Q. Chandu is another illegitimate son of Manoj who is of 18.5 years now. Is he entitled to maintenance out of Manoj's estate?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 89 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of in the third paragraph of the passage says that under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Acts, an illegitimate son of a deceased Hindu, as long as he is a minor is entitled to be maintained by the heirs of the deceased out of the estate inherited by them or by the persons who take the estate of the deceased.

Therefore, in this case, Chandu is not entitled to maintenance as he is not a minor anymore.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 90

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu is bound, during his or her lifetime, to maintain his or her illegitimate children. The obligation to maintain illegitimate children is now upon both, the father as well as the mother. Not only the illegitimate son but also an illegitimate daughter is entitled to be maintained by her father and mother.

The right to be maintained, however, extends only up to the period of minority. An illegitimate child is not entitled to be maintained by his or her parents after attaining majority. Such a child will also not be entitled to be maintained if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion.

Moreover, under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, an illegitimate son of a deceased Hindu, so long as he is a minor, and an illegitimate daughter of a deceased Hindu, so long as she remains unmarried, are entitled to be maintained by the heirs of the deceased out of the estate inherited by them or by the persons who take the estate of the deceased.

Such a son or daughter, however, will not be entitled to maintenance under the said Act if he or she has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion. An illegitimate child who has ceased to be a Hindu can, however, apply for maintenance from his or her father under the Code of Criminal Procedure.

The court has given some landmark judgments in the field of illegitimacy. Some of such decisions are :

The Supreme Court of India in Revanasiddappa vs. Mallikarjun opined that: the constitutional values enshrined in the Preamble of our Constitution that focuses on the concept of equality of status and opportunity and also on individual dignity. The Court has to remember that relationship between the parents may not be sanctioned by law but the birth of a child in such a relationship has to be viewed independently of the relationship of the parents. A child born in such a relationship is innocent and is entitled to all the rights which are given to other children born in a valid marriage.

The Indian Society is a metaphysical society and so, it is going through a transformation stage that consists of two broad categories of people with two distinct ideologies. One of the groups believes in the orthodox methods of Hindu religion where having an illegitimate child is taboo and being one is a bigger stigma.

The other group in the society consists of people who are rational and liberal in their outlook and do not consider illegitimacy as a stigma. They do not blame an illegitimate child for his/her existence instead blame the irresponsible couple. The laws in the society are also being amended accordingly as time and the situation demands.

There is a need to be more liberal towards illegitimate children and the laws should also be amended in such a way that they have the best interest of all the people at heart.

Q. In the case of Revanasiddappa vs. Mallikarjun, the supreme court supported its judgment on which right?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 90 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author in the sixth paragraph of the passage, informs us that the Supreme Court of India in Revanasiddappa vs. Mallikarjun opined that: the constitutional values enshrined in the Preamble of our Constitution that focuses on the concept of equality of status and opportunity and also on individual dignity.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 91

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under English Law, agreements that restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768 , a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe vs. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promise, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else.

The Court remarked:

"that it was not a promise to marry her, but not to marry anyone else, and yet she was under no obligation to marry him." The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side. Further, under English Law breakage contracts or promises made on the consideration of procuring or bringing about marriage, are held illegal on several social grounds.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements that partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

Partial or Complete Restraint :

Unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only incomplete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

One may be absolutely restrained from marrying at all or from marrying for a fixed period or partially restrained from marrying a particular person, or a class of persons, in any of the above events, the agreement is void. Section 26 does not differentiate between absolute restraint and partial restraint upon the freedom of marriage. This has been strictly followed by the judiciary in various cases.

Rao Rani vs. Gulab Rani :

A division bench of the Allahabad High Court looked into this case wherein the two parties were the widows of the same man, Ram Adhar. After the death of their common husband, a dispute had arisen at the Revenue Court regarding the matter as to who would inherit a certain zamindari landholding.

However, the dispute was amicably settled by the two parties by signing a compromise deed wherein it was stated that both of them would inherit equally but if anyone would re-marry, the entire right over the property would shift to the other. Subsequently, Gulab Rani married again, and the property came under the complete control of Rao Rani.

Q. An uncle offers his nephew that if he doesn't marry for the rest of his life, he will receive a half share in uncle's property. Is this contract valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 91 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage in the first paragraph tells us that under English Law, agreements that restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens.

Therefore, the contract as mentioned in the case above is not valid.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 92

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under English Law, agreements that restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768, a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe vs. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promise, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else.

The Court remarked:

"that it was not a promise to marry her, but not to marry anyone else, and yet she was under no obligation to marry him." The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side. Further, under English Law breakage contracts or promises made on the consideration of procuring or bringing about marriage, are held illegal on several social grounds.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements that partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

Partial or Complete Restraint :

Unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only incomplete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

One may be absolutely restrained from marrying at all or from marrying for a fixed period or partially restrained from marrying a particular person, or a class of persons, in any of the above events, the agreement is void. Section 26 does not differentiate between absolute restraint and partial restraint upon the freedom of marriage. This has been strictly followed by the judiciary in various cases.

Rao Rani vs. Gulab Rani :

A division bench of the Allahabad High Court looked into this case wherein the two parties were the widows of the same man, Ram Adhar. After the death of their common husband, a dispute had arisen at the Revenue Court regarding the matter as to who would inherit a certain zamindari landholding.

However, the dispute was amicably settled by the two parties by signing a compromise deed wherein it was stated that both of them would inherit equally but if anyone would re-marry, the entire right over the property would shift to the other. Subsequently, Gulab Rani married again, and the property came under the complete control of Rao Rani.

Q. What kind of restraint of marriage is void in English law?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 92 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

As mentioned by the author of the passage in the second paragraph, the Court of King's Bench in the Lowe vs. Peers case found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 93

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under English Law, agreements that restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768, a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe vs. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promise, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else.

The Court remarked:

"that it was not a promise to marry her, but not to marry anyone else, and yet she was under no obligation to marry him." The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side. Further, under English Law breakage contracts or promises made on the consideration of procuring or bringing about marriage, are held illegal on several social grounds.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements that partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

Partial or Complete Restraint :

Unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only incomplete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

One may be absolutely restrained from marrying at all or from marrying for a fixed period or partially restrained from marrying a particular person, or a class of persons, in any of the above events, the agreement is void. Section 26 does not differentiate between absolute restraint and partial restraint upon the freedom of marriage. This has been strictly followed by the judiciary in various cases.

Rao Rani vs. Gulab Rani :

A division bench of the Allahabad High Court looked into this case wherein the two parties were the widows of the same man, Ram Adhar. After the death of their common husband, a dispute had arisen at the Revenue Court regarding the matter as to who would inherit a certain zamindari landholding.

However, the dispute was amicably settled by the two parties by signing a compromise deed wherein it was stated that both of them would inherit equally but if anyone would re-marry, the entire right over the property would shift to the other. Subsequently, Gulab Rani married again, and the property came under the complete control of Rao Rani.

Q. Why did the court upheld the validity of the agreement in the case of Rao Rani vs. Gulab Rani?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 93 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

From Rao Rani vs. Gulab Rani's case, we can conclude that the court upheld the validity of the agreement so that the disputed property can be preserved between the two co-widows.

Notably, the agreement does not directly restrict remarriage as it states if the other person remarries the entitlement will go to the other widow.

This way the court ensured proper management.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 94

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under English Law, agreements that restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768 , a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe vs. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promise, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else.

The Court remarked:

"that it was not a promise to marry her, but not to marry anyone else, and yet she was under no obligation to marry him." The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side. Further, under English Law breakage contracts or promises made on the consideration of procuring or bringing about marriage, are held illegal on several social grounds.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements that partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

Partial or Complete Restraint :

Unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only incomplete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

One may be absolutely restrained from marrying at all or from marrying for a fixed period or partially restrained from marrying a particular person, or a class of persons, in any of the above events, the agreement is void. Section 26 does not differentiate between absolute restraint and partial restraint upon the freedom of marriage. This has been strictly followed by the judiciary in various cases.

Rao Rani vs. Gulab Rani :

A division bench of the Allahabad High Court looked into this case wherein the two parties were the widows of the same man, Ram Adhar. After the death of their common husband, a dispute had arisen at the Revenue Court regarding the matter as to who would inherit a certain zamindari landholding.

However, the dispute was amicably settled by the two parties by signing a compromise deed wherein it was stated that both of them would inherit equally but if anyone would re-marry, the entire right over the property would shift to the other. Subsequently, Gulab Rani married again, and the property came under the complete control of Rao Rani.

Q. The contract between co-widows in restraint of marriage for the purpose of inheritance of the deceased husband's property is :

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 94 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage has given the example of the co-widows of Ram Adhar who signed a compromise deed wherein it was stated that both of them would inherit equally but if anyone would re-marry, the entire right over the property would shift to the other.

This case was looked after by a division bench of the Allahabad High Court.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 95

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under English Law, agreements that restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768 , a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe vs. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promise, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else.

The Court remarked:

"that it was not a promise to marry her, but not to marry anyone else, and yet she was under no obligation to marry him." The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side. Further, under English Law breakage contracts or promises made on the consideration of procuring or bringing about marriage, are held illegal on several social grounds.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements that partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

Partial or Complete Restraint :

Unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only incomplete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

One may be absolutely restrained from marrying at all or from marrying for a fixed period or partially restrained from marrying a particular person, or a class of persons, in any of the above events, the agreement is void. Section 26 does not differentiate between absolute restraint and partial restraint upon the freedom of marriage. This has been strictly followed by the judiciary in various cases.

Rao Rani vs. Gulab Rani :

A division bench of the Allahabad High Court looked into this case wherein the two parties were the widows of the same man, Ram Adhar. After the death of their common husband, a dispute had arisen at the Revenue Court regarding the matter as to who would inherit a certain zamindari landholding.

However, the dispute was amicably settled by the two parties by signing a compromise deed wherein it was stated that both of them would inherit equally but if anyone would re-marry, the entire right over the property would shift to the other. Subsequently, Gulab Rani married again, and the property came under the complete control of Rao Rani.

Q. Section 28 makes agreements void which are in complete restraint of :

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 95 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage in the fourth paragraph, tells us that Section 28 makes the agreements void which are in complete restraint of legal proceedings.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 96

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

"The rule of law is better than that of any individual."

The rule of law is the legal principle that law should govern a nation and not arbitrary decisions by individual government officials. It primarily refers to the influence and authority of law within society, particularly as a constraint upon behaviour, including behaviour of government officials.

Viability and Practicality of the Rule of Law :

The rule of law establishes certain strictures that are expected to be followed by the members of a state in order to establish uniformity, order, and propriety in the state. And violation of these rules by the citizens supposedly disturbs the prevailing balance in the society, thus bringing forth legal action against the offender.

The constitution of a particular nation may consider an action to be illegal and devoid of morality because it's against the established norms prevailing in that nation. But the same offence might not be considered illegal in a separate nation. There are many such vehemently debatable issues that has turned into a regular part of the discussion in TV shows, newspapers, and also as a part of our day to day discussions. Some examples are prostitution, capital punishment, euthanasia, and same-sex marriage.

Prostitution, the trade of engaging in sexual practices for payment, is considered to be illegal in many countries (especially the Middle East and other Muslim countries), some countries are silent on its legal status (Norway, Sweden, India) and it is considered to be a profession in likes of Germany and Netherlands. It's considered to be illegal on the basis of moral grounds. It is seen as violence against women and is surmised to be a result of the existing patriarchal society. While others argue that this should be treated as a profession because sometimes it's the only form of livelihood for a woman, who has been compelled to join the trade because of unavoidable circumstances.

Capital Punishment has turned out to be an important topic of discussion in legal spheres of almost every nation. Almost 60% of countries in the world allow execution to take place. It is seen as a tool to deter people from committing heinous crimes. Whereas in many countries capital punishment is seen to be a crime against humanity. In fact, to be a member of the European Union, a nation has to abolish the award of the death penalty.

Euthanasia or the intentional ending of life to emancipate someone from excruciating pain and suffering has recently been legalized in countries like Netherlands and Belgium. This has been done on human grounds, to relieve a person from his agony. But on the very same ground, it is seen as cruelty to end someone's life, and thus, it is still illegal in most of the nations of the world.

Generally, the idea of having different laws by different countries is respected by most of the people because every country is believed to have a different culture, society, beliefs, and opinions. And therefore a country must have laws in proportion with the cultural, political, economic, and social conditions present in the country.

But in this era of globalization and modernization, cosmopolitanism is an upsurge in almost every nation in the world. Thus in a country, we can generally see people from different nationalities, races, religions residing together. So shouldn't there be different laws for different ethnic groups because everyone has their own distinct opinion, personality, and their own particular way of life? And if it becomes necessary for a nation to have a particular set of laws followed by everyone, why can't we have a certain uniform rule of law that determines the legal issues of all the countries?

Q. In case, India wants to join the European Union, what is the criteria for India's eligibility?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 96 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, capital punishment has been completely abolished in all European countries except for Belarus and Russia, the latter of which has a moratorium and has not conducted an execution since September 1996.In 2012, Latvia became the last EU member state to abolish capital punishment in wartime. In India, as per the current position of law, capital punishment is awarded only in the 'Rarest of the rare cases' and the primary mode of execution as given under Section 354(5).

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 97

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

"The rule of law is better than that of any individual."

The rule of law is the legal principle that law should govern a nation and not arbitrary decisions by individual government officials. It primarily refers to the influence and authority of law within society, particularly as a constraint upon behaviour, including behaviour of government officials.

Viability and Practicality of the Rule of Law :

The rule of law establishes certain strictures that are expected to be followed by the members of a state in order to establish uniformity, order, and propriety in the state. And violation of these rules by the citizens supposedly disturbs the prevailing balance in the society, thus bringing forth legal action against the offender.

The constitution of a particular nation may consider an action to be illegal and devoid of morality because it's against the established norms prevailing in that nation. But the same offence might not be considered illegal in a separate nation. There are many such vehemently debatable issues that has turned into a regular part of the discussion in TV shows, newspapers, and also as a part of our day to day discussions. Some examples are prostitution, capital punishment, euthanasia, and same-sex marriage.

Prostitution, the trade of engaging in sexual practices for payment, is considered to be illegal in many countries (especially the Middle East and other Muslim countries), some countries are silent on its legal status (Norway, Sweden, India) and it is considered to be a profession in likes of Germany and Netherlands. It's considered to be illegal on the basis of moral grounds. It is seen as violence against women and is surmised to be a result of the existing patriarchal society. While others argue that this should be treated as a profession because sometimes it's the only form of livelihood for a woman, who has been compelled to join the trade because of unavoidable circumstances.

Capital Punishment has turned out to be an important topic of discussion in legal spheres of almost every nation. Almost 60% of countries in the world allow execution to take place. It is seen as a tool to deter people from committing heinous crimes. Whereas in many countries capital punishment is seen to be a crime against humanity. In fact, to be a member of the European Union, a nation has to abolish the award of the death penalty.

Euthanasia or the intentional ending of life to emancipate someone from excruciating pain and suffering has recently been legalized in countries like Netherlands and Belgium. This has been done on human grounds, to relieve a person from his agony. But on the very same ground, it is seen as cruelty to end someone's life, and thus, it is still illegal in most of the nations of the world.

Generally, the idea of having different laws by different countries is respected by most of the people because every country is believed to have a different culture, society, beliefs, and opinions. And therefore a country must have laws in proportion with the cultural, political, economic, and social conditions present in the country.

But in this era of globalization and modernization, cosmopolitanism is an upsurge in almost every nation in the world. Thus in a country, we can generally see people from different nationalities, races, religions residing together. So shouldn't there be different laws for different ethnic groups because everyone has their own distinct opinion, personality, and their own particular way of life? And if it becomes necessary for a nation to have a particular set of laws followed by everyone, why can't we have a certain uniform rule of law that determines the legal issues of all the countries?

Q. Which of the countries have legalised the practice of Euthanasia?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 97 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

Each of the Benelux countries (Belgium, Luxembourg, Netherlands) has enacted legislation that partially decriminalises euthanasia, defined as an act that intentionally terminates someone's life at their request. Since March 2018, passive euthanasia is legal in India under strict guidelines. Patients must consent through a living will, and must be either terminally ill or in a vegetative state.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 98

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

"The rule of law is better than that of any individual."

The rule of law is the legal principle that law should govern a nation and not arbitrary decisions by individual government officials. It primarily refers to the influence and authority of law within society, particularly as a constraint upon behaviour, including behaviour of government officials.

Viability and Practicality of the Rule of Law :

The rule of law establishes certain strictures that are expected to be followed by the members of a state in order to establish uniformity, order, and propriety in the state. And violation of these rules by the citizens supposedly disturbs the prevailing balance in the society, thus bringing forth legal action against the offender.

The constitution of a particular nation may consider an action to be illegal and devoid of morality because it's against the established norms prevailing in that nation. But the same offence might not be considered illegal in a separate nation. There are many such vehemently debatable issues that has turned into a regular part of the discussion in TV shows, newspapers, and also as a part of our day to day discussions. Some examples are prostitution, capital punishment, euthanasia, and same-sex marriage.

Prostitution, the trade of engaging in sexual practices for payment, is considered to be illegal in many countries (especially the Middle East and other Muslim countries), some countries are silent on its legal status (Norway, Sweden, India) and it is considered to be a profession in likes of Germany and Netherlands. It's considered to be illegal on the basis of moral grounds. It is seen as violence against women and is surmised to be a result of the existing patriarchal society. While others argue that this should be treated as a profession because sometimes it's the only form of livelihood for a woman, who has been compelled to join the trade because of unavoidable circumstances.

Capital Punishment has turned out to be an important topic of discussion in legal spheres of almost every nation. Almost 60% of countries in the world allow execution to take place. It is seen as a tool to deter people from committing heinous crimes. Whereas in many countries capital punishment is seen to be a crime against humanity. In fact, to be a member of the European Union, a nation has to abolish the award of the death penalty.

Euthanasia or the intentional ending of life to emancipate someone from excruciating pain and suffering has recently been legalized in countries like Netherlands and Belgium. This has been done on human grounds, to relieve a person from his agony. But on the very same ground, it is seen as cruelty to end someone's life, and thus, it is still illegal in most of the nations of the world.

Generally, the idea of having different laws by different countries is respected by most of the people because every country is believed to have a different culture, society, beliefs, and opinions. And therefore a country must have laws in proportion with the cultural, political, economic, and social conditions present in the country.

But in this era of globalization and modernization, cosmopolitanism is an upsurge in almost every nation in the world. Thus in a country, we can generally see people from different nationalities, races, religions residing together. So shouldn't there be different laws for different ethnic groups because everyone has their own distinct opinion, personality, and their own particular way of life? And if it becomes necessary for a nation to have a particular set of laws followed by everyone, why can't we have a certain uniform rule of law that determines the legal issues of all the countries?

Q. What is the conclusion emphasized by the author in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 98 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

It must provide a workable similarity of economic and industrial relations. It must protect the health and provide for the education of its own citizens. This policy is already well recognised in the association of the states for the promotion and adoption of uniform laws.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 99

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

"The rule of law is better than that of any individual."

The rule of law is the legal principle that law should govern a nation and not arbitrary decisions by individual government officials. It primarily refers to the influence and authority of law within society, particularly as a constraint upon behaviour, including behaviour of government officials.

Viability and Practicality of the Rule of Law :

The rule of law establishes certain strictures that are expected to be followed by the members of a state in order to establish uniformity, order, and propriety in the state. And violation of these rules by the citizens supposedly disturbs the prevailing balance in the society, thus bringing forth legal action against the offender.

The constitution of a particular nation may consider an action to be illegal and devoid of morality because it's against the established norms prevailing in that nation. But the same offence might not be considered illegal in a separate nation. There are many such vehemently debatable issues that has turned into a regular part of the discussion in TV shows, newspapers, and also as a part of our day to day discussions. Some examples are prostitution, capital punishment, euthanasia, and same sex marriage.

Prostitution, the trade of engaging in sexual practices for payment, is considered to be illegal in many countries (especially the Middle East and other Muslim countries), some countries are silent on its legal status (Norway, Sweden, India) and it is considered to be a profession in likes of Germany and Netherlands. It's considered to be illegal on the basis of moral grounds. It is seen as violence against women and is surmised to be a result of the existing patriarchal society. While others argue that this should be treated as a profession because sometimes it's the only form of livelihood for a woman, who has been compelled to join the trade because of unavoidable circumstances.

Capital Punishment has turned out to be an important topic of discussion in legal spheres of almost every nation. Almost 60% of countries in the world allow execution to take place. It is seen as a tool to deter people from committing heinous crimes. Whereas in many countries capital punishment is seen to be a crime against humanity. In fact, to be a member of the European Union, a nation has to abolish the award of the death penalty.

Euthanasia or the intentional ending of life to emancipate someone from excruciating pain and suffering has recently been legalized in countries like Netherlands and Belgium. This has been done on human grounds, to relieve a person from his agony. But on the very same ground, it is seen as cruelty to end someone's life, and thus, it is still illegal in most of the nations of the world.

Generally, the idea of having different laws by different countries is respected by most of the people because every country is believed to have a different culture, society, beliefs, and opinions. And therefore a country must have laws in proportion with the cultural, political, economic, and social conditions present in the country.

But in this era of globalization and modernization, cosmopolitanism is an upsurge in almost every nation in the world. Thus in a country, we can generally see people from different nationalities, races, religions residing together. So shouldn't there be different laws for different ethnic groups because everyone has their own distinct opinion, personality, and their own particular way of life? And if it becomes necessary for a nation to have a particular set of laws followed by everyone, why can't we have a certain uniform rule of law that determines the legal issues of all the countries?

Q. What do you understand by the term 'Cosmopolitanism'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 99 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

Cosmopolitanism is the idea that all human beings are members of a single community. Its adherents are known as cosmopolitan. In all instances, proponents of cosmopolitanism share an emphasis that all humans should form one cohesive and united community.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 100

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

"The rule of law is better than that of any individual."

The rule of law is the legal principle that law should govern a nation and not arbitrary decisions by individual government officials. It primarily refers to the influence and authority of law within society, particularly as a constraint upon behaviour, including behaviour of government officials.

Viability and Practicality of the Rule of Law :

The rule of law establishes certain strictures that are expected to be followed by the members of a state in order to establish uniformity, order, and propriety in the state. And violation of these rules by the citizens supposedly disturbs the prevailing balance in the society, thus bringing forth legal action against the offender.

The constitution of a particular nation may consider an action to be illegal and devoid of morality because it's against the established norms prevailing in that nation. But the same offence might not be considered illegal in a separate nation. There are many such vehemently debatable issues that has turned into a regular part of the discussion in TV shows, newspapers, and also as a part of our day to day discussions. Some examples are prostitution, capital punishment, euthanasia, and same sex marriage.

Prostitution, the trade of engaging in sexual practices for payment, is considered to be illegal in many countries (especially the Middle East and other Muslim countries), some countries are silent on its legal status (Norway, Sweden, India) and it is considered to be a profession in likes of Germany and Netherlands. It's considered to be illegal on the basis of moral grounds. It is seen as violence against women and is surmised to be a result of the existing patriarchal society. While others argue that this should be treated as a profession because sometimes it's the only form of livelihood for a woman, who has been compelled to join the trade because of unavoidable circumstances.

Capital Punishment has turned out to be an important topic of discussion in legal spheres of almost every nation. Almost 60% of countries in the world allow execution to take place. It is seen as a tool to deter people from committing heinous crimes. Whereas in many countries capital punishment is seen to be a crime against humanity. In fact, to be a member of the European Union, a nation has to abolish the award of the death penalty.

Euthanasia or the intentional ending of life to emancipate someone from excruciating pain and suffering has recently been legalized in countries like Netherlands and Belgium. This has been done on human grounds, to relieve a person from his agony. But on the very same ground, it is seen as cruelty to end someone's life, and thus, it is still illegal in most of the nations of the world.

Generally, the idea of having different laws by different countries is respected by most of the people because every country is believed to have a different culture, society, beliefs, and opinions. And therefore a country must have laws in proportion with the cultural, political, economic, and social conditions present in the country.

But in this era of globalization and modernization, cosmopolitanism is an upsurge in almost every nation in the world. Thus in a country, we can generally see people from different nationalities, races, religions residing together. So shouldn't there be different laws for different ethnic groups because everyone has their own distinct opinion, personality, and their own particular way of life? And if it becomes necessary for a nation to have a particular set of laws followed by everyone, why can't we have a certain uniform rule of law that determines the legal issues of all the countries?

Q. What is the status of India on the practice of Prostitution?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 100 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

In India prostitution is partially legal. Prostitutes can practice the profession privately, but solicitation and organised prostitution such as brothel keeping are illegal. Prostitution can be practiced away from public spaces.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 101

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The right to education was produced under Article 21, read with Article 19(1)(a),(b) and (c) in 1978 in the case of Ananda Vardhan Chandel vs. Delhi University[6]. The judge observed that the mere disparity in the nature of the rights under Part III and IV of the Constitution is that the Fundamental Rights are 'natural rights', which people forever enjoyed and which do not need definite socio-economic conditions to be produced by the State before they can be imposed as is the case with the DPSP which are 'man-made rights'.

The question of right to free and compulsory education was elevated in the case of Mohini Jain, in 1992, popularly known as "capitation fee case". The division bench of the Supreme Court held that the 'right to life' is the compendious phrase for all those rights which the Courts must implement as they are indispensable to the dignified enjoyment of life. Court stated:

"The right to education flows directly from right to life. The right to life under Article 21 and the dignity of an individual are not being assured unless it is accompanied by the right to education. The state is under an obligation to make endeavour to provide educational facilities at all levels to its citizens".

Judges declared that the education in India has never been a commodity for sale. It further settled that "We hold that every citizen has a 'right to education' under the Constitution. The State is under an obligation to establish educational institutions to enable the citizens to enjoy the said right. The State may discharge its obligation through State-owned or State-recognised educational institutions. When the State Government grants recognition to the private educational institutions it creates an agency to fulfil its obligation under the Constitution. The students are given admission to the educational institutions - whether State-owned or State recognised in recognition of their 'right to education' under the Constitution. Charging capitation fee in consideration of admission to educational institutions is a patent denial of a citizen's right to education under the Constitution."

Court considered that the Constitution made it compulsory to give education to all its citizens. This interpretation alone, said the court, would assist the people to differentiate the objectives of dignity, political economic, and social justice. They found that charging capitation fee of large sums by institutions of higher education is a disavowal of the right to education.

The Supreme Court observed the accuracy of the verdict given by the court in Mohini Jain in the case of Unnikrishnan.

The five Judges bench by 3-2 majority partially agreed with the Mohini case decision and held that right to education is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution as it directly flows from "right to life". As consider its content, the court partially overruled the Mohini Jain's decision and held that the right to free education is available only to children until they complete the age of 14 years, then the responsibility of the State to provide education is subject to the limits of its economic capacity and development. The duty created by Articles 41,45&46 can be executed by the State either by establishing its own institutions or by aiding, recognising or granting affiliation to private institutions.

Court held that children of the nation are an extremely important asset. Their nurture and attentiveness are our responsibility, children's program should find a noticeable part in our national plans for the development of human resources, so that our children grow up, to become healthy citizens, physically fit, mentally alert and morally healthy; endowed with the skills and enthusiasms needed by society. Equal opportunities for development to all children during the period of development should be our aim, for this would serve our larger purpose of reducing inequality and ensuring social justice.

Therefore, in the concluding remarks, it is expected that mare passing an act is not sufficient. The need of the hour is to keep a proper check on the functioning of the act. The constant monitoring and strong political will is a must to make it effective. As per the UNESCO's "Education for All Global Monitoring Report 2010'', about 135 countries have constitutional provisions for free and non-discriminatory education for all. The much awaited Right to Education (RTE) Act which has been passed by the parliament of India should play a significant role in attaining universal elementary education in India. The victory and defeat of RTE would largely depend on consistent political care. Financial allocation of funds should be adequate in this respect. The youth in India should come forward and spread the utility of education to illiterate parents who are unable to appreciate the significance of education in limiting the social evils. Social differences and monopolization by any group should not be accepted at any cost. Education which is free of cost up to a certain age must be accessible to each and every one.

Q. What do you understand by the term "capitation fees'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 101 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

Capitation fee refers to an illegal transaction in which an organisation that provides educational services collects a fee higher than that approved by regulatory norms.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 102

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The right to education was produced under Article 21, read with Article 19(1)(a),(b) and (c) in 1978 in the case of Ananda Vardhan Chandel vs. Delhi University[6]. The judge observed that the mere disparity in the nature of the rights under Part III and IV of the Constitution is that the Fundamental Rights are 'natural rights', which people forever enjoyed and which do not need definite socio-economic conditions to be produced by the State before they can be imposed as is the case with the DPSP which are 'man-made rights'.

The question of right to free and compulsory education was elevated in the case of Mohini Jain, in 1992, popularly known as "capitation fee case". The division bench of the Supreme Court held that the 'right to life' is the compendious phrase for all those rights which the Courts must implement as they are indispensable to the dignified enjoyment of life. Court stated:

"The right to education flows directly from right to life. The right to life under Article 21 and the dignity of an individual are not being assured unless it is accompanied by the right to education. The state is under an obligation to make endeavour to provide educational facilities at all levels to its citizens".

Judges declared that the education in India has never been a commodity for sale. It further settled that "We hold that every citizen has a 'right to education' under the Constitution. The State is under an obligation to establish educational institutions to enable the citizens to enjoy the said right. The State may discharge its obligation through State-owned or State-recognised educational institutions. When the State Government grants recognition to the private educational institutions it creates an agency to fulfil its obligation under the Constitution. The students are given admission to the educational institutions - whether State-owned or State recognised in recognition of their 'right to education' under the Constitution. Charging capitation fee in consideration of admission to educational institutions is a patent denial of a citizen's right to education under the Constitution."

Court considered that the Constitution made it compulsory to give education to all its citizens. This interpretation alone, said the court, would assist the people to differentiate the objectives of dignity, political economic, and social justice. They found that charging capitation fee of large sums by institutions of higher education is a disavowal of the right to education.

The Supreme Court observed the accuracy of the verdict given by the court in Mohini Jain in the case of Unnikrishnan.

The five Judges bench by 3-2 majority partially agreed with the Mohini case decision and held that right to education is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution as it directly flows from "right to life". As consider its content, the court partially overruled the Mohini Jain's decision and held that the right to free education is available only to children until they complete the age of 14 years, then the responsibility of the State to provide education is subject to the limits of its economic capacity and development. The duty created by Articles 41,45&46 can be executed by the State either by establishing its own institutions or by aiding, recognising or granting affiliation to private institutions.

Court held that children of the nation are an extremely important asset. Their nurture and attentiveness are our responsibility, children's program should find a noticeable part in our national plans for the development of human resources, so that our children grow up, to become healthy citizens, physically fit, mentally alert and morally healthy; endowed with the skills and enthusiasms needed by society. Equal opportunities for development to all children during the period of development should be our aim, for this would serve our larger purpose of reducing inequality and ensuring social justice.

Therefore, in the concluding remarks, it is expected that mare passing an act is not sufficient. The need of the hour is to keep a proper check on the functioning of the act. The constant monitoring and strong political will is a must to make it effective. As per the UNESCO's "Education for All Global Monitoring Report 2010'', about 135 countries have constitutional provisions for free and non-discriminatory education for all. The much awaited Right to Education (RTE) Act which has been passed by the parliament of India should play a significant role in attaining universal elementary education in India. The victory and defeat of RTE would largely depend on consistent political care. Financial allocation of funds should be adequate in this respect. The youth in India should come forward and spread the utility of education to illiterate parents who are unable to appreciate the significance of education in limiting the social evils. Social differences and monopolization by any group should not be accepted at any cost. Education which is free of cost up to a certain age must be accessible to each and every one.

Q. In the case of Mohini Jain, the supreme court ordered the State to provide free education to its citizen by which type of educational institutions?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 102 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

The Supreme Court of India observed that mention of "life and personal liberty" in Article 21 of the Constitution automatically implies some other rights, those are necessary for the full development of the personality, though they are not enumerated in Part III of the Constitution. Education is one such factor responsible for overall development of an individual and therefore, right to education is integrated in Article 21 of the Constitution.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 103

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The right to education was produced under Article 21, read with Article 19(1)(a),(b) and (c) in 1978 in the case of Ananda Vardhan Chandel vs. Delhi University[6]. The judge observed that the mere disparity in the nature of the rights under Part III and IV of the Constitution is that the Fundamental Rights are 'natural rights', which people forever enjoyed and which do not need definite socio-economic conditions to be produced by the State before they can be imposed as is the case with the DPSP which are 'man-made rights'.

The question of right to free and compulsory education was elevated in the case of Mohini Jain, in 1992, popularly known as "capitation fee case". The division bench of the Supreme Court held that the 'right to life' is the compendious phrase for all those rights which the Courts must implement as they are indispensable to the dignified enjoyment of life. Court stated:

"The right to education flows directly from right to life. The right to life under Article 21 and the dignity of an individual are not being assured unless it is accompanied by the right to education. The state is under an obligation to make endeavour to provide educational facilities at all levels to its citizens".

Judges declared that the education in India has never been a commodity for sale. It further settled that "We hold that every citizen has a 'right to education' under the Constitution. The State is under an obligation to establish educational institutions to enable the citizens to enjoy the said right. The State may discharge its obligation through State-owned or State-recognised educational institutions. When the State Government grants recognition to the private educational institutions it creates an agency to fulfil its obligation under the Constitution. The students are given admission to the educational institutions - whether State-owned or State recognised in recognition of their 'right to education' under the Constitution. Charging capitation fee in consideration of admission to educational institutions is a patent denial of a citizen's right to education under the Constitution."

Court considered that the Constitution made it compulsory to give education to all its citizens. This interpretation alone, said the court, would assist the people to differentiate the objectives of dignity, political economic, and social justice. They found that charging capitation fee of large sums by institutions of higher education is a disavowal of the right to education.

The Supreme Court observed the accuracy of the verdict given by the court in Mohini Jain in the case of Unnikrishnan.

The five Judges bench by 3-2 majority partially agreed with the Mohini case decision and held that right to education is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution as it directly flows from "right to life". As consider its content, the court partially overruled the Mohini Jain's decision and held that the right to free education is available only to children until they complete the age of 14 years, then the responsibility of the State to provide education is subject to the limits of its economic capacity and development. The duty created by Articles 41,45&46 can be executed by the State either by establishing its own institutions or by aiding, recognising or granting affiliation to private institutions.

Court held that children of the nation are an extremely important asset. Their nurture and attentiveness are our responsibility, children's program should find a noticeable part in our national plans for the development of human resources, so that our children grow up, to become healthy citizens, physically fit, mentally alert and morally healthy; endowed with the skills and enthusiasms needed by society. Equal opportunities for development to all children during the period of development should be our aim, for this would serve our larger purpose of reducing inequality and ensuring social justice.

Therefore, in the concluding remarks, it is expected that mare passing an act is not sufficient. The need of the hour is to keep a proper check on the functioning of the act. The constant monitoring and strong political will is a must to make it effective. As per the UNESCO's "Education for All Global Monitoring Report 2010'', about 135 countries have constitutional provisions for free and non-discriminatory education for all. The much awaited Right to Education (RTE) Act which has been passed by the parliament of India should play a significant role in attaining universal elementary education in India. The victory and defeat of RTE would largely depend on consistent political care. Financial allocation of funds should be adequate in this respect. The youth in India should come forward and spread the utility of education to illiterate parents who are unable to appreciate the significance of education in limiting the social evils. Social differences and monopolization by any group should not be accepted at any cost. Education which is free of cost up to a certain age must be accessible to each and every one.

Q. Right to free and compulsory education in India is granted in which of the following case?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 103 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

It has been often referred as 'killing of merit'. In its emphatic judgement in the Mohini Jain V/s State of Karnataka case, the Supreme Court declared that charging of capitation fees was arbitrary, unfair, and in violation of the fundamental right to equality in Article 14 of the Constitution.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 104

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The right to education was produced under Article 21, read with Article 19(1)(a),(b) and (c) in 1978 in the case of Ananda Vardhan Chandel vs. Delhi University[6]. The judge observed that the mere disparity in the nature of the rights under Part III and IV of the Constitution is that the Fundamental Rights are 'natural rights', which people forever enjoyed and which do not need definite socio-economic conditions to be produced by the State before they can be imposed as is the case with the DPSP which are 'man-made rights'.

The question of right to free and compulsory education was elevated in the case of Mohini Jain, in 1992, popularly known as "capitation fee case". The division bench of the Supreme Court held that the 'right to life' is the compendious phrase for all those rights which the Courts must implement as they are indispensable to the dignified enjoyment of life. Court stated:

"The right to education flows directly from right to life. The right to life under Article 21 and the dignity of an individual are not being assured unless it is accompanied by the right to education. The state is under an obligation to make endeavour to provide educational facilities at all levels to its citizens".

Judges declared that the education in India has never been a commodity for sale. It further settled that "We hold that every citizen has a 'right to education' under the Constitution. The State is under an obligation to establish educational institutions to enable the citizens to enjoy the said right. The State may discharge its obligation through State-owned or State-recognised educational institutions. When the State Government grants recognition to the private educational institutions it creates an agency to fulfil its obligation under the Constitution. The students are given admission to the educational institutions - whether State-owned or State recognised in recognition of their 'right to education' under the Constitution. Charging capitation fee in consideration of admission to educational institutions is a patent denial of a citizen's right to education under the Constitution."

Court considered that the Constitution made it compulsory to give education to all its citizens. This interpretation alone, said the court, would assist the people to differentiate the objectives of dignity, political economic, and social justice. They found that charging capitation fee of large sums by institutions of higher education is a disavowal of the right to education.

The Supreme Court observed the accuracy of the verdict given by the court in Mohini Jain in the case of Unnikrishnan.

The five Judges bench by 3-2 majority partially agreed with the Mohini case decision and held that right to education is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution as it directly flows from "right to life". As consider its content, the court partially overruled the Mohini Jain's decision and held that the right to free education is available only to children until they complete the age of 14 years, then the responsibility of the State to provide education is subject to the limits of its economic capacity and development. The duty created by Articles 41,45&46 can be executed by the State either by establishing its own institutions or by aiding, recognising or granting affiliation to private institutions.

Court held that children of the nation are an extremely important asset. Their nurture and attentiveness are our responsibility, children's program should find a noticeable part in our national plans for the development of human resources, so that our children grow up, to become healthy citizens, physically fit, mentally alert and morally healthy; endowed with the skills and enthusiasms needed by society. Equal opportunities for development to all children during the period of development should be our aim, for this would serve our larger purpose of reducing inequality and ensuring social justice.

Therefore, in the concluding remarks, it is expected that mare passing an act is not sufficient. The need of the hour is to keep a proper check on the functioning of the act. The constant monitoring and strong political will is a must to make it effective. As per the UNESCO's "Education for All Global Monitoring Report 2010'', about 135 countries have constitutional provisions for free and non-discriminatory education for all. The much awaited Right to Education (RTE) Act which has been passed by the parliament of India should play a significant role in attaining universal elementary education in India. The victory and defeat of RTE would largely depend on consistent political care. Financial allocation of funds should be adequate in this respect. The youth in India should come forward and spread the utility of education to illiterate parents who are unable to appreciate the significance of education in limiting the social evils. Social differences and monopolization by any group should not be accepted at any cost. Education which is free of cost up to a certain age must be accessible to each and every one.

Q. What is emphasized by the author in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 104 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

Monopolies typically have an unfair advantage over their competition because they are either the only provider of typical education or control most of the school/colleges for their courses/education.It can then lower its prices so much that smaller school/colleges or institutions can't survive which seems unfair.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 105

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Tata Group's consummation of its acquisition of Air India last week marks both the culmination of the airline's return to its original founders after an almost seven-decade hiatus, as well as the start of an arduous long-haul flight for the loss-making, formerly state-owned flag carrier. The Tatas' enthusiasm for winning back what was once the country's iconic airline brand notwithstanding, the skies in which the industry operates have changed considerably. A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market. The Tata group's full-service venture, Vistara, with no less a partner than Singapore Airlines on board, has struggled to establish a foothold and with Air India's addition, the Tatas find themselves saddled with a bulk of their combined domestic market share of 23% being in the less-in-demand full-service segment. Nor is the group's newly combined share from the low-cost segment, comprising Air Asia India's 5.9% and the fractional share that Air India's Air India Express has, significant enough at the moment to give it scale in the high-volume business. That the group is said to be considering consolidating Air India's domestic low-cost services along with Air Asia India's operations is a clear indication that the Tata bosses realise the need to optimise the varied aviation resources that are now in the group's fold. Also, with Vistara now operating to a few select overseas destinations, the Tatas will need to decide if they would want a younger in-house competitor to Air India once COVID-19 restrictions are lifted and normalcy restored as regards international flights. For the Tata group, the choices going forward will need to be strategic.

Q. 'A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market.' Which of the following roles does the given statement play in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 105 The author has based his views about Tatas considering consolidating Air India and Air Asia India's operations on the premise that the low-cost flights now hold a dominant position (about four-fifths). Option C is the answer.

Option A is incorrect as the given statement is not a conclusion.

Option B is incorrect the given statement would not contradict but rather support what is mentioned in the option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 106

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Tata Group's consummation of its acquisition of Air India last week marks both the culmination of the airline's return to its original founders after an almost seven-decade hiatus, as well as the start of an arduous long-haul flight for the loss-making, formerly state-owned flag carrier. The Tatas' enthusiasm for winning back what was once the country's iconic airline brand notwithstanding, the skies in which the industry operates have changed considerably. A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market. The Tata group's full-service venture, Vistara, with no less a partner than Singapore Airlines on board, has struggled to establish a foothold and with Air India's addition, the Tatas find themselves saddled with a bulk of their combined domestic market share of 23% being in the less-in-demand full-service segment. Nor is the group's newly combined share from the low-cost segment, comprising Air Asia India's 5.9% and the fractional share that Air India's Air India Express has, significant enough at the moment to give it scale in the high-volume business. That the group is said to be considering consolidating Air India's domestic low-cost services along with Air Asia India's operations is a clear indication that the Tata bosses realise the need to optimise the varied aviation resources that are now in the group's fold. Also, with Vistara now operating to a few select overseas destinations, the Tatas will need to decide if they would want a younger in-house competitor to Air India once COVID-19 restrictions are lifted and normalcy restored as regards international flights. For the Tata group, the choices going forward will need to be strategic.

Q. As per the passage, which of the following is a major challenge for the Tata Group?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 106 As per the passage, the budget or low-cost flights now command about four-fifths of the market, and the Tata group's full-service venture, Vistara, along with Air India, has struggled to establish its foothold. Even the group's combined share from the low-cost segment is not significant enough at the moment to give it scale in the high-volume business. Thus, it will be a major challenge for the group to enhance viability by catering more to the popular segment. Option B is the answer.

Option A can be a strategy to tackle the issue at hand, but is not a major challenge as per the context.

Option C may not result in capturing the budget segment which is a cause of concern as per the context, hence invalid.

Option D does not get support from the passage.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 107

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Tata Group's consummation of its acquisition of Air India last week marks both the culmination of the airline's return to its original founders after an almost seven-decade hiatus, as well as the start of an arduous long-haul flight for the loss-making, formerly state-owned flag carrier. The Tatas' enthusiasm for winning back what was once the country's iconic airline brand notwithstanding, the skies in which the industry operates have changed considerably. A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market. The Tata group's full-service venture, Vistara, with no less a partner than Singapore Airlines on board, has struggled to establish a foothold and with Air India's addition, the Tatas find themselves saddled with a bulk of their combined domestic market share of 23% being in the less-in-demand full-service segment. Nor is the group's newly combined share from the low-cost segment, comprising Air Asia India's 5.9% and the fractional share that Air India's Air India Express has, significant enough at the moment to give it scale in the high-volume business. That the group is said to be considering consolidating Air India's domestic low-cost services along with Air Asia India's operations is a clear indication that the Tata bosses realise the need to optimise the varied aviation resources that are now in the group's fold. Also, with Vistara now operating to a few select overseas destinations, the Tatas will need to decide if they would want a younger in-house competitor to Air India once COVID-19 restrictions are lifted and normalcy restored as regards international flights. For the Tata group, the choices going forward will need to be strategic.

Q. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author's argument that 'with Air India's addition, the Tatas find themselves saddled with a bulk of their combined domestic market share of 23% being in the less-in-demand full-service segment'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 107 The author's argument for Tata being burdened is that major portion of their domestic market is in full-service segment, which he mentions is less in demand. However, if the revenue generated in full-service segment is six times that in budget segment, then it cannot be a burden. Suppose 8 out of 10 passengers opt budget segment and 2 opt full-service (as premised in the argument that low-cost flights now command about four-fifths of the market). If revenue from low-cost segment is Rs. 800 (8x100), the revenue from full-service segment would be Rs. 1200 (2x600); here revenue in full-segment being six times. Option C is the answer.

Option A only restates that fact that the exposure to full-service segment has increased for Tatas and this is reasoned as a cause of concern.

Option B may rather strengthen the statement.

Option D focuses on flight volume and not segment concentration; moreover, 'equalling' does not mean that no private player is close enough.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 108

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Tata Group's consummation of its acquisition of Air India last week marks both the culmination of the airline's return to its original founders after an almost seven-decade hiatus, as well as the start of an arduous long-haul flight for the loss-making, formerly state-owned flag carrier. The Tatas' enthusiasm for winning back what was once the country's iconic airline brand notwithstanding, the skies in which the industry operates have changed considerably. A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market. The Tata group's full-service venture, Vistara, with no less a partner than Singapore Airlines on board, has struggled to establish a foothold and with Air India's addition, the Tatas find themselves saddled with a bulk of their combined domestic market share of 23% being in the less-in-demand full-service segment. Nor is the group's newly combined share from the low-cost segment, comprising Air Asia India's 5.9% and the fractional share that Air India's Air India Express has, significant enough at the moment to give it scale in the high-volume business. That the group is said to be considering consolidating Air India's domestic low-cost services along with Air Asia India's operations is a clear indication that the Tata bosses realise the need to optimise the varied aviation resources that are now in the group's fold. Also, with Vistara now operating to a few select overseas destinations, the Tatas will need to decide if they would want a younger in-house competitor to Air India once COVID-19 restrictions are lifted and normalcy restored as regards international flights. For the Tata group, the choices going forward will need to be strategic.

Q. Which of the following can be a valid conclusion based on the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 108 Option B gets support from, 'budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position ... Tata Group's full-service venture, Vistara, with no less a partner than Singapore Airlines on board, has struggled ... Air India's addition, the Tatas find themselves saddled ... being in the less-in-demand full-service segment. Nor is the group's newly combined share from the low-cost segment ... significant enough at the moment to give it scale in the high-volume business.'

Option A is a far-fetched idea. The author only mentions that 'with Vistara now operating to a few select overseas destinations, the Tatas will need to decide if they would want a younger in-house competitor to Air India.'

Option C may or may not be true.

The passage does not convey that Air Asia India and Air India Express are the most profitable airlines for Tata; hence option D is incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 109

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Tata Group's consummation of its acquisition of Air India last week marks both the culmination of the airline's return to its original founders after an almost seven-decade hiatus, as well as the start of an arduous long-haul flight for the loss-making, formerly state-owned flag carrier. The Tatas' enthusiasm for winning back what was once the country's iconic airline brand notwithstanding, the skies in which the industry operates have changed considerably. A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market. The Tata group's full-service venture, Vistara, with no less a partner than Singapore Airlines on board, has struggled to establish a foothold and with Air India's addition, the Tatas find themselves saddled with a bulk of their combined domestic market share of 23% being in the less-in-demand full-service segment. Nor is the group's newly combined share from the low-cost segment, comprising Air Asia India's 5.9% and the fractional share that Air India's Air India Express has, significant enough at the moment to give it scale in the high-volume business. That the group is said to be considering consolidating Air India's domestic low-cost services along with Air Asia India's operations is a clear indication that the Tata bosses realise the need to optimise the varied aviation resources that are now in the group's fold. Also, with Vistara now operating to a few select overseas destinations, the Tatas will need to decide if they would want a younger in-house competitor to Air India once COVID-19 restrictions are lifted and normalcy restored as regards international flights. For the Tata group, the choices going forward will need to be strategic.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the author's statement, 'the skies in which the industry operates have changed considerably'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 109 The answer can be inferred from, 'The Tatas' enthusiasm for winning back what was once the country's iconic airline brand notwithstanding, the skies in which the industry operates have changed considerably. A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market.' Option D is the answer.

Option B gets negated because of words "has shifted"; the context only conveys the need of such a shift in the focus. Other options do not get support from the context.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 110

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Tata Group's consummation of its acquisition of Air India last week marks both the culmination of the airline's return to its original founders after an almost seven-decade hiatus, as well as the start of an arduous long-haul flight for the loss-making, formerly state-owned flag carrier. The Tatas' enthusiasm for winning back what was once the country's iconic airline brand notwithstanding, the skies in which the industry operates have changed considerably. A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market. The Tata group's full-service venture, Vistara, with no less a partner than Singapore Airlines on board, has struggled to establish a foothold and with Air India's addition, the Tatas find themselves saddled with a bulk of their combined domestic market share of 23% being in the less-in-demand full-service segment. Nor is the group's newly combined share from the low-cost segment, comprising Air Asia India's 5.9% and the fractional share that Air India's Air India Express has, significant enough at the moment to give it scale in the high-volume business. That the group is said to be considering consolidating Air India's domestic low-cost services along with Air Asia India's operations is a clear indication that the Tata bosses realise the need to optimise the varied aviation resources that are now in the group's fold. Also, with Vistara now operating to a few select overseas destinations, the Tatas will need to decide if they would want a younger in-house competitor to Air India once COVID-19 restrictions are lifted and normalcy restored as regards international flights. For the Tata group, the choices going forward will need to be strategic.

Q. 'A look at the market share data from the domestic air passenger segment clearly shows that budget or low-cost flights now hold a dominant position, commanding about four-fifths of the market.' Which of the following roles does the given statement play in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 110 The author has based his views about Tatas considering consolidating Air India and Air Asia India's operations on the premise that the low-cost flights now hold a dominant position (about four-fifths). Option C is the answer.

Option A is incorrect as the given statement is not a conclusion.

Option B is incorrect the given statement would not contradict but rather support what is mentioned in the option.

Option D does not get support from the context, rather the statement may support instead of contradicting the view given in the option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 111

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Good, bad, sign of hope or hopelessness — making generalisations about the large-scale exodus of Punjabi youths abroad, particularly to Canada, serves little purpose because first, it can't be controlled and second, no one actually wants to. The demand is at an all-time high, and those with an entrepreneurial spirit are employing all means to cater to it. Since the study visa ensures the easiest way through the immigration counter, the business opportunity it provides is exponential. Packed English-learning centres, foreign university seminars, institutions with dubious credentials, and the reality that escapes no one: students desperate for admission, but with little intention of studying.

Research by Punjabi University scholars on the socio-economic profile of those seeking study visa gives new insight. Around 70 per cent of aspirants in the Malwa region, it claims, are from the farming community. That too from the marginal category, a fallout of a sustained agrarian crisis and poor quality of job prospects. So, if moving out of agriculture is what will sustain the family in the long run, why not move out of the country? Family resources may be limited, but if migration for education is the answer, why question the odds? Female students outnumber males in IELTS centres, a sign of new-found confidence and a generation tired of waiting for things to happen. Another key finding is the almost negligible study visa presence of those from the SC community, attributed to the lack of funds, not dreams.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the above context?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 111 Option C can be inferred from the line: 'So, if moving out of agriculture is what will sustain the family in the long run, why not move out of the country ...'
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 112

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Good, bad, sign of hope or hopelessness — making generalisations about the large-scale exodus of Punjabi youths abroad, particularly to Canada, serves little purpose because first, it can't be controlled and second, no one actually wants to. The demand is at an all-time high, and those with an entrepreneurial spirit are employing all means to cater to it. Since the study visa ensures the easiest way through the immigration counter, the business opportunity it provides is exponential. Packed English-learning centres, foreign university seminars, institutions with dubious credentials, and the reality that escapes no one: students desperate for admission, but with little intention of studying.

Research by Punjabi University scholars on the socio-economic profile of those seeking study visa gives new insight. Around 70 per cent of aspirants in the Malwa region, it claims, are from the farming community. That too from the marginal category, a fallout of a sustained agrarian crisis and poor quality of job prospects. So, if moving out of agriculture is what will sustain the family in the long run, why not move out of the country? Family resources may be limited, but if migration for education is the answer, why question the odds? Female students outnumber males in IELTS centres, a sign of new-found confidence and a generation tired of waiting for things to happen. Another key finding is the almost negligible study visa presence of those from the SC community, attributed to the lack of funds, not dreams.

Q. What is the role played by the second paragraph in relation to the first paragraph?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 112 The first paragraph describes the trend of migration in Punjab. It is further supported by including a research study about the observed trend in the second paragraph. Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 113

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Good, bad, sign of hope or hopelessness — making generalisations about the large-scale exodus of Punjabi youths abroad, particularly to Canada, serves little purpose because first, it can't be controlled and second, no one actually wants to. The demand is at an all-time high, and those with an entrepreneurial spirit are employing all means to cater to it. Since the study visa ensures the easiest way through the immigration counter, the business opportunity it provides is exponential. Packed English-learning centres, foreign university seminars, institutions with dubious credentials, and the reality that escapes no one: students desperate for admission, but with little intention of studying.

Research by Punjabi University scholars on the socio-economic profile of those seeking study visa gives new insight. Around 70 per cent of aspirants in the Malwa region, it claims, are from the farming community. That too from the marginal category, a fallout of a sustained agrarian crisis and poor quality of job prospects. So, if moving out of agriculture is what will sustain the family in the long run, why not move out of the country? Family resources may be limited, but if migration for education is the answer, why question the odds? Female students outnumber males in IELTS centres, a sign of new-found confidence and a generation tired of waiting for things to happen. Another key finding is the almost negligible study visa presence of those from the SC community, attributed to the lack of funds, not dreams.

Q. Which of the following, if true, could possibly be the reason behind a greater number of females in IELTS centers than males?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 113

The number of females migrating to a foreign land is greater than the number of males.

The passage states that "female students outnumber males in IELTS centers, a sign of new-found confidence and a generation tired of waiting for things to happen." This suggests that there are more females than males present in IELTS centers, which could be due to a greater number of females seeking to migrate to a foreign land.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 114

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Good, bad, sign of hope or hopelessness — making generalisations about the large-scale exodus of Punjabi youths abroad, particularly to Canada, serves little purpose because first, it can't be controlled and second, no one actually wants to. The demand is at an all-time high, and those with an entrepreneurial spirit are employing all means to cater to it. Since the study visa ensures the easiest way through the immigration counter, the business opportunity it provides is exponential. Packed English-learning centres, foreign university seminars, institutions with dubious credentials, and the reality that escapes no one: students desperate for admission, but with little intention of studying.

Research by Punjabi University scholars on the socio-economic profile of those seeking study visa gives new insight. Around 70 per cent of aspirants in the Malwa region, it claims, are from the farming community. That too from the marginal category, a fallout of a sustained agrarian crisis and poor quality of job prospects. So, if moving out of agriculture is what will sustain the family in the long run, why not move out of the country? Family resources may be limited, but if migration for education is the answer, why question the odds? Female students outnumber males in IELTS centres, a sign of new-found confidence and a generation tired of waiting for things to happen. Another key finding is the almost negligible study visa presence of those from the SC community, attributed to the lack of funds, not dreams.

Q. Which of the following best explains why the conclusion need not be the best explanation for statistics presented in the argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 114 Option A, if considered true, would cast doubt on generalizing the information presented in the argument. What applies to a limited local area might not be true for the other regions also.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 115

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Good, bad, sign of hope or hopelessness — making generalisations about the large-scale exodus of Punjabi youths abroad, particularly to Canada, serves little purpose because first, it can't be controlled and second, no one actually wants to. The demand is at an all-time high, and those with an entrepreneurial spirit are employing all means to cater to it. Since the study visa ensures the easiest way through the immigration counter, the business opportunity it provides is exponential. Packed English-learning centres, foreign university seminars, institutions with dubious credentials, and the reality that escapes no one: students desperate for admission, but with little intention of studying.

Research by Punjabi University scholars on the socio-economic profile of those seeking study visa gives new insight. Around 70 per cent of aspirants in the Malwa region, it claims, are from the farming community. That too from the marginal category, a fallout of a sustained agrarian crisis and poor quality of job prospects. So, if moving out of agriculture is what will sustain the family in the long run, why not move out of the country? Family resources may be limited, but if migration for education is the answer, why question the odds? Female students outnumber males in IELTS centres, a sign of new-found confidence and a generation tired of waiting for things to happen. Another key finding is the almost negligible study visa presence of those from the SC community, attributed to the lack of funds, not dreams.

Q. Which of the following is a situation similar to that of those who wish to go abroad by applying for study visas?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 115 The situation of students willing to move abroad is that they take admissions into educational institutions but do not have any intention of studying. This can be inferred from the line: 'students desperate for admission, but with little intention of studying.' A similar situation is described in option B where a person takes the initiative to go for a job interview in the hopes of getting a job, but he has no intention to work as an employee. Other options don't capture the same relationship as described in the text about students moving abroad.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 1 - Question 116

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

E-commerce in India has seen phenomenal growth over the years — from $39 billion in 2017, it is projected to rise to $200 billion by 2026. This comes in the wake of deepening penetration of the Internet and mobile phones. There has been a steady expansion of online offerings — electronics, apparel, travel, movies, medicine, hotel reservations, books, matrimonial services, cosmetics, footwear, fashion accessories and groceries. The liberal Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy, where 100% business-to-business transactions are allowed, is also fuelling the growth of this market.

This growth, however, comes with challenges. Counterfeiting and pirated goods continue to distort the virtual marketplace. E-commerce sites are regularly being used as common platforms for the sale of counterfeit goods. Whether it is online or offline, the dangers are legitimate market loss and the occupation of economic space by unauthorised and grey market operators, causing loss of revenue to the government, loss of jobs, threat to consumer safety, and growth of organised crime.

While technology offers several solutions to authenticate the original product, the same technological tools, particularly artificial intelligence, help create clones. This makes it more difficult to distinguish between the original and the fake. Moreover, when e-commerce players and brand owners get embroiled in disputes, it is the counterfeiters who reap the benefits. What is needed is constant upgradation and innovation to stay ahead of the counterfeiters. Therefore, it is important that we have regulations for e-commerce.

Q. If the author's arguments in the given passage are true, which of the following must also be true?