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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10


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150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT | Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 for CLAT 2023 is part of Mock Test Series for CLAT preparation. The Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus.The Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 MCQs are made for CLAT 2023 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 below.
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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 1

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

So apparently, I need to work on pushing my grades up in a few subjects. Okay, okay, I need to push my grades up in all my subjects, but there are some subjects that need a bigger push than others. And no, pushing my grades and subjects off the sides of a cliff into dark, angry waters is not an option. Believe me. I asked.

So, since the grownups decided that Grade VI Maths, Physics and Chemistry were too hard for them to teach, they decided I needed a tutor. I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it? Does anyone else see the unfairness here?

First of all, since we live so far away from civilisation, no one wanted to come and take classes for me! My joy was short-lived when K Sir, my math tutor from Grade IV called the parents up and asked how I was doing. Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called. Like he's some Jedi Math Whiz. Great. I just ruined Star Wars for myself. Anyway, it was decided that K Sir would come for 'extra help', 'doubt clearing' and 'homework assistance'. AKA TUITION! Cue screaming.

Now, I don't hate tuition. But I don't love it either. I mean after seven hours in school, I don't think anyone would want to come home and do more studies. It's like asking grownups to come home after a long day at work and do more work. Okay, okay, I know our parents are always saying that they're on a 'work call' and need to 'check their email', but is it fair I have to suffer too?

When I used this argument on my parents, do you know what they did? DO YOU? They organised my tuitions… FOR THE WEEKEND! What new form of torture was this? Are these people even my parents or are they evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me?

If after school hours are for brain rest and relaxation, weekend hours are for TV, cricket, swimming and more TV. Not algebra, simple machines and the periodic table. As if a Sunday tuition wasn't bad enough, they fixed it from 6 p.m. to 7 p.m.! That's peak playground time. Who does that? Evil alien parent doppelgängers that's who!

To make this entire situation even worse — if that were possible — the Pesky Brother, academic superstar that he is, gets to go down and play! Smiling, singing and SMUG!

Q. Which of the following, according to the author, best describes the main problem in the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 1 The correct answer is option b. Much of the passage is spent discussing how the author feels about his parents asking him to take tuition. In the fourth paragraph, the author questions the fairness of having to take tuition as indicated by 'but is it fair I have to suffer too?'
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 2

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

So apparently, I need to work on pushing my grades up in a few subjects. Okay, okay, I need to push my grades up in all my subjects, but there are some subjects that need a bigger push than others. And no, pushing my grades and subjects off the sides of a cliff into dark, angry waters is not an option. Believe me. I asked.

So, since the grownups decided that Grade VI Maths, Physics and Chemistry were too hard for them to teach, they decided I needed a tutor. I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it? Does anyone else see the unfairness here?

First of all, since we live so far away from civilisation, no one wanted to come and take classes for me! My joy was short-lived when K Sir, my math tutor from Grade IV called the parents up and asked how I was doing. Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called. Like he's some Jedi Math Whiz. Great. I just ruined Star Wars for myself. Anyway, it was decided that K Sir would come for 'extra help', 'doubt clearing' and 'homework assistance'. AKA TUITION! Cue screaming.

Now, I don't hate tuition. But I don't love it either. I mean after seven hours in school, I don't think anyone would want to come home and do more studies. It's like asking grownups to come home after a long day at work and do more work. Okay, okay, I know our parents are always saying that they're on a 'work call' and need to 'check their email', but is it fair I have to suffer too?

When I used this argument on my parents, do you know what they did? DO YOU? They organised my tuitions… FOR THE WEEKEND! What new form of torture was this? Are these people even my parents or are they evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me?

If after school hours are for brain rest and relaxation, weekend hours are for TV, cricket, swimming and more TV. Not algebra, simple machines and the periodic table. As if a Sunday tuition wasn't bad enough, they fixed it from 6 p.m. to 7 p.m.! That's peak playground time. Who does that? Evil alien parent doppelgängers that's who!

To make this entire situation even worse — if that were possible — the Pesky Brother, academic superstar that he is, gets to go down and play! Smiling, singing and SMUG!

Q. How did the author's mother feel when K Sir called the author's parents to check on him?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 2 The correct answer is option (c). The answer can be inferred from these lines: "Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 3

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

So apparently, I need to work on pushing my grades up in a few subjects. Okay, okay, I need to push my grades up in all my subjects, but there are some subjects that need a bigger push than others. And no, pushing my grades and subjects off the sides of a cliff into dark, angry waters is not an option. Believe me. I asked.

So, since the grownups decided that Grade VI Maths, Physics and Chemistry were too hard for them to teach, they decided I needed a tutor. I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it? Does anyone else see the unfairness here?

First of all, since we live so far away from civilisation, no one wanted to come and take classes for me! My joy was short-lived when K Sir, my math tutor from Grade IV called the parents up and asked how I was doing. Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called. Like he's some Jedi Math Whiz. Great. I just ruined Star Wars for myself. Anyway, it was decided that K Sir would come for 'extra help', 'doubt clearing' and 'homework assistance'. AKA TUITION! Cue screaming.

Now, I don't hate tuition. But I don't love it either. I mean after seven hours in school, I don't think anyone would want to come home and do more studies. It's like asking grownups to come home after a long day at work and do more work. Okay, okay, I know our parents are always saying that they're on a 'work call' and need to 'check their email', but is it fair I have to suffer too?

When I used this argument on my parents, do you know what they did? DO YOU? They organised my tuitions… FOR THE WEEKEND! What new form of torture was this? Are these people even my parents or are they evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me?

If after school hours are for brain rest and relaxation, weekend hours are for TV, cricket, swimming and more TV. Not algebra, simple machines and the periodic table. As if a Sunday tuition wasn't bad enough, they fixed it from 6 p.m. to 7 p.m.! That's peak playground time. Who does that? Evil alien parent doppelgängers that's who!

To make this entire situation even worse — if that were possible — the Pesky Brother, academic superstar that he is, gets to go down and play! Smiling, singing and SMUG!

Q. What can be inferred about the timings of the author's tution?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 3 The correct answer is option (a). We can infer this when the author discusses all the activities he could do on Sunday evenings; 'That's peak playground time.'
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 4

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

So apparently, I need to work on pushing my grades up in a few subjects. Okay, okay, I need to push my grades up in all my subjects, but there are some subjects that need a bigger push than others. And no, pushing my grades and subjects off the sides of a cliff into dark, angry waters is not an option. Believe me. I asked.

So, since the grownups decided that Grade VI Maths, Physics and Chemistry were too hard for them to teach, they decided I needed a tutor. I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it? Does anyone else see the unfairness here?

First of all, since we live so far away from civilisation, no one wanted to come and take classes for me! My joy was short-lived when K Sir, my math tutor from Grade IV called the parents up and asked how I was doing. Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called. Like he's some Jedi Math Whiz. Great. I just ruined Star Wars for myself. Anyway, it was decided that K Sir would come for 'extra help', 'doubt clearing' and 'homework assistance'. AKA TUITION! Cue screaming.

Now, I don't hate tuition. But I don't love it either. I mean after seven hours in school, I don't think anyone would want to come home and do more studies. It's like asking grownups to come home after a long day at work and do more work. Okay, okay, I know our parents are always saying that they're on a 'work call' and need to 'check their email', but is it fair I have to suffer too?

When I used this argument on my parents, do you know what they did? DO YOU? They organised my tuitions… FOR THE WEEKEND! What new form of torture was this? Are these people even my parents or are they evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me?

If after school hours are for brain rest and relaxation, weekend hours are for TV, cricket, swimming and more TV. Not algebra, simple machines and the periodic table. As if a Sunday tuition wasn't bad enough, they fixed it from 6 p.m. to 7 p.m.! That's peak playground time. Who does that? Evil alien parent doppelgängers that's who!

To make this entire situation even worse — if that were possible — the Pesky Brother, academic superstar that he is, gets to go down and play! Smiling, singing and SMUG!

Q. Why, according to the author, is it unfair to expect him to top the subjects he has?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 4 The correct answer is option (b). This is supported in the second paragraph which states: "I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it?" Here, the author compares himself to his parents and questions the validity of the expectation from him to ace his courses if his parents can't handle the same subjects.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 5

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

So apparently, I need to work on pushing my grades up in a few subjects. Okay, okay, I need to push my grades up in all my subjects, but there are some subjects that need a bigger push than others. And no, pushing my grades and subjects off the sides of a cliff into dark, angry waters is not an option. Believe me. I asked.

So, since the grownups decided that Grade VI Maths, Physics and Chemistry were too hard for them to teach, they decided I needed a tutor. I'd just like to point out here that my super old parents who have white hair and life experiences can't manage chem and algebra, but I, an 11-year-old who isn't allowed to have his own phone, am expected to be acing it? Does anyone else see the unfairness here?

First of all, since we live so far away from civilisation, no one wanted to come and take classes for me! My joy was short-lived when K Sir, my math tutor from Grade IV called the parents up and asked how I was doing. Amma believes that it's divine destiny or something, that he somehow sensed I needed help and that's why he called. Like he's some Jedi Math Whiz. Great. I just ruined Star Wars for myself. Anyway, it was decided that K Sir would come for 'extra help', 'doubt clearing' and 'homework assistance'. AKA TUITION! Cue screaming.

Now, I don't hate tuition. But I don't love it either. I mean after seven hours in school, I don't think anyone would want to come home and do more studies. It's like asking grownups to come home after a long day at work and do more work. Okay, okay, I know our parents are always saying that they're on a 'work call' and need to 'check their email', but is it fair I have to suffer too?

When I used this argument on my parents, do you know what they did? DO YOU? They organised my tuitions… FOR THE WEEKEND! What new form of torture was this? Are these people even my parents or are they evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me?

If after school hours are for brain rest and relaxation, weekend hours are for TV, cricket, swimming and more TV. Not algebra, simple machines and the periodic table. As if a Sunday tuition wasn't bad enough, they fixed it from 6 p.m. to 7 p.m.! That's peak playground time. Who does that? Evil alien parent doppelgängers that's who!

To make this entire situation even worse — if that were possible — the Pesky Brother, academic superstar that he is, gets to go down and play! Smiling, singing and SMUG!

Q. What does the word 'doppelgänger' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 5 From the passage, we can understand that the author believes that the author's parents were not his own but were someone else who had come from outer space and resembled his parents. He describes them as: "evil alien parent doppelgängers conducting mind experiments on me".
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 6

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The friendship between India and Bangladesh is historic, evolving over the last 50 years. India's political, diplomatic, military and humanitarian support during Bangladesh's Liberation War played an important role towards Bangladesh's independence.

Post-Independence, the India-Bangladesh relationship has oscillated as Bangladesh passed through different regimes. The relationship remained cordial until the assassination of Bangladesh's founding President Sheikh Mujibur Rahman in August 15, 1975, followed by a period of military rule and the rise of General Ziaur Rahman who became President and also assassinated in 1981. It thawed again between 1982-1991 when a military-led government by General H.M. Ershad ruled the country. Since Bangladesh's return to parliamentary democracy in 1991, relations have gone through highs and lows. However, in the last decade, India-Bangladesh relations have warmed up, entering a new era of cooperation, and moving beyond historical and cultural ties to become more assimilated in the areas of trade, connectivity, energy, and defence.

Bangladesh and India have achieved the rare feat of solving their border issues peacefully by ratifying the historic Land Boundary Agreement in 2015, where enclaves were swapped allowing inhabitants to choose their country of residence and become citizens of either India or Bangladesh. The Bangladesh government led by Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina has uprooted anti-India insurgency elements from its borders, making the India-Bangladesh border one of the region's most peaceful, and allowing India to make a massive redeployment of resources to its more contentious borders elsewhere.

Bangladesh today is India's biggest trading partner in South Asia with exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018-19 at $9.21 billion and imports at $1.04 billion. Trade could be more balanced if non-tariff barriers from the Indian side could be removed. Bangladeshis make up a large portion of tourists in India, outnumbering all tourists arriving from Western Europe in 2017, with one in every five tourists being a Bangladeshi. Bangladesh accounts for more than 35% of India's international medical patients and contributes more than 50% of India's revenue from medical tourism.

India-Bangladesh relations have been gaining positive momentum over the last decade. As Bangladesh celebrates its 50 years of independence (March 26, 1971), India continues to be one of its most important neighbours and strategic partners. As the larger country, the onus is on India to be generous enough to let the water flow as this issue is constraining positive relations between the two neighbours. These small but important steps can remove long-standing snags in a relationship which otherwise is gradually coming of age in 50 years. To make the recent gains irreversible, both countries need to continue working on the three C's — cooperation, collaboration, and consolidation.

Q. What is the main theme of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 6 The passage presents a summary of bilateral relationship between India and Bangladesh. The author mentions post independence variations in India-Bangladesh ties, border issues and trade relations. Thus, option (b) correctly portrays the main theme of the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 7

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The friendship between India and Bangladesh is historic, evolving over the last 50 years. India's political, diplomatic, military and humanitarian support during Bangladesh's Liberation War played an important role towards Bangladesh's independence.

Post-Independence, the India-Bangladesh relationship has oscillated as Bangladesh passed through different regimes. The relationship remained cordial until the assassination of Bangladesh's founding President Sheikh Mujibur Rahman in August 15, 1975, followed by a period of military rule and the rise of General Ziaur Rahman who became President and also assassinated in 1981. It thawed again between 1982-1991 when a military-led government by General H.M. Ershad ruled the country. Since Bangladesh's return to parliamentary democracy in 1991, relations have gone through highs and lows. However, in the last decade, India-Bangladesh relations have warmed up, entering a new era of cooperation, and moving beyond historical and cultural ties to become more assimilated in the areas of trade, connectivity, energy, and defence.

Bangladesh and India have achieved the rare feat of solving their border issues peacefully by ratifying the historic Land Boundary Agreement in 2015, where enclaves were swapped allowing inhabitants to choose their country of residence and become citizens of either India or Bangladesh. The Bangladesh government led by Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina has uprooted anti-India insurgency elements from its borders, making the India-Bangladesh border one of the region's most peaceful, and allowing India to make a massive redeployment of resources to its more contentious borders elsewhere.

Bangladesh today is India's biggest trading partner in South Asia with exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018-19 at $9.21 billion and imports at $1.04 billion. Trade could be more balanced if non-tariff barriers from the Indian side could be removed. Bangladeshis make up a large portion of tourists in India, outnumbering all tourists arriving from Western Europe in 2017, with one in every five tourists being a Bangladeshi. Bangladesh accounts for more than 35% of India's international medical patients and contributes more than 50% of India's revenue from medical tourism.

India-Bangladesh relations have been gaining positive momentum over the last decade. As Bangladesh celebrates its 50 years of independence (March 26, 1971), India continues to be one of its most important neighbours and strategic partners. As the larger country, the onus is on India to be generous enough to let the water flow as this issue is constraining positive relations between the two neighbours. These small but important steps can remove long-standing snags in a relationship which otherwise is gradually coming of age in 50 years. To make the recent gains irreversible, both countries need to continue working on the three C's — cooperation, collaboration, and consolidation.

Q. Which of the following is TRUE about the relations between India and Bangladesh?

(A) Under the Land Boundary Agreement between, the Bangladeshi enclaves in India and Indian enclaves in Bangladesh were transferred.

(B) Despite all the political roadblocks over time, the two countries have maintained close relations.

(C) India has extended its hand of friendship whenever Bangladesh faced crisis.

(D) Mujibur Rahman's assassination in 1975 acted as a turning point for India-Bangladesh relations.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 7 The passage mentions 'Bangladesh and India have ... India or Bangladesh.' This hints that A is true.

B is true as well because as per the passage, India and Bangladesh shares a robust history but still get along well and cooperate with each other.

The passage nowhere mentions any crisis, hence C cannot be inferred.

D is also true as the passage mentions 'The relationship remained cordial until the assassination of Bangladesh's founding President Sheikh Mujibur Rahman in August 15, 1975...'

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 8

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The friendship between India and Bangladesh is historic, evolving over the last 50 years. India's political, diplomatic, military and humanitarian support during Bangladesh's Liberation War played an important role towards Bangladesh's independence.

Post-Independence, the India-Bangladesh relationship has oscillated as Bangladesh passed through different regimes. The relationship remained cordial until the assassination of Bangladesh's founding President Sheikh Mujibur Rahman in August 15, 1975, followed by a period of military rule and the rise of General Ziaur Rahman who became President and also assassinated in 1981. It thawed again between 1982-1991 when a military-led government by General H.M. Ershad ruled the country. Since Bangladesh's return to parliamentary democracy in 1991, relations have gone through highs and lows. However, in the last decade, India-Bangladesh relations have warmed up, entering a new era of cooperation, and moving beyond historical and cultural ties to become more assimilated in the areas of trade, connectivity, energy, and defence.

Bangladesh and India have achieved the rare feat of solving their border issues peacefully by ratifying the historic Land Boundary Agreement in 2015, where enclaves were swapped allowing inhabitants to choose their country of residence and become citizens of either India or Bangladesh. The Bangladesh government led by Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina has uprooted anti-India insurgency elements from its borders, making the India-Bangladesh border one of the region's most peaceful, and allowing India to make a massive redeployment of resources to its more contentious borders elsewhere.

Bangladesh today is India's biggest trading partner in South Asia with exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018-19 at $9.21 billion and imports at $1.04 billion. Trade could be more balanced if non-tariff barriers from the Indian side could be removed. Bangladeshis make up a large portion of tourists in India, outnumbering all tourists arriving from Western Europe in 2017, with one in every five tourists being a Bangladeshi. Bangladesh accounts for more than 35% of India's international medical patients and contributes more than 50% of India's revenue from medical tourism.

India-Bangladesh relations have been gaining positive momentum over the last decade. As Bangladesh celebrates its 50 years of independence (March 26, 1971), India continues to be one of its most important neighbours and strategic partners. As the larger country, the onus is on India to be generous enough to let the water flow as this issue is constraining positive relations between the two neighbours. These small but important steps can remove long-standing snags in a relationship which otherwise is gradually coming of age in 50 years. To make the recent gains irreversible, both countries need to continue working on the three C's — cooperation, collaboration, and consolidation.

Q. What is the meaning of the word 'oscillated' as used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 8 The hint can be drawn from the second paragraph of the passage. It mentions that India and Bangladesh's have faced ups and downs. Different time periods when the relations strengthened and weakened are mentioned. Thus, it can be inferred that 'oscillated' means 'fluctuated'.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 9

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The friendship between India and Bangladesh is historic, evolving over the last 50 years. India's political, diplomatic, military and humanitarian support during Bangladesh's Liberation War played an important role towards Bangladesh's independence.

Post-Independence, the India-Bangladesh relationship has oscillated as Bangladesh passed through different regimes. The relationship remained cordial until the assassination of Bangladesh's founding President Sheikh Mujibur Rahman in August 15, 1975, followed by a period of military rule and the rise of General Ziaur Rahman who became President and also assassinated in 1981. It thawed again between 1982-1991 when a military-led government by General H.M. Ershad ruled the country. Since Bangladesh's return to parliamentary democracy in 1991, relations have gone through highs and lows. However, in the last decade, India-Bangladesh relations have warmed up, entering a new era of cooperation, and moving beyond historical and cultural ties to become more assimilated in the areas of trade, connectivity, energy, and defence.

Bangladesh and India have achieved the rare feat of solving their border issues peacefully by ratifying the historic Land Boundary Agreement in 2015, where enclaves were swapped allowing inhabitants to choose their country of residence and become citizens of either India or Bangladesh. The Bangladesh government led by Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina has uprooted anti-India insurgency elements from its borders, making the India-Bangladesh border one of the region's most peaceful, and allowing India to make a massive redeployment of resources to its more contentious borders elsewhere.

Bangladesh today is India's biggest trading partner in South Asia with exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018-19 at $9.21 billion and imports at $1.04 billion. Trade could be more balanced if non-tariff barriers from the Indian side could be removed. Bangladeshis make up a large portion of tourists in India, outnumbering all tourists arriving from Western Europe in 2017, with one in every five tourists being a Bangladeshi. Bangladesh accounts for more than 35% of India's international medical patients and contributes more than 50% of India's revenue from medical tourism.

India-Bangladesh relations have been gaining positive momentum over the last decade. As Bangladesh celebrates its 50 years of independence (March 26, 1971), India continues to be one of its most important neighbours and strategic partners. As the larger country, the onus is on India to be generous enough to let the water flow as this issue is constraining positive relations between the two neighbours. These small but important steps can remove long-standing snags in a relationship which otherwise is gradually coming of age in 50 years. To make the recent gains irreversible, both countries need to continue working on the three C's — cooperation, collaboration, and consolidation.

Q. Based on the reading of the passage, what is a bone of contention between India and Bangladesh?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 9 Refer to the line 'As the larger country, the onus is on India to be generous enough to let the water flow as this issue is constraining positive relations between the two neighbours.' Thus, option (a) is correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 10

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The friendship between India and Bangladesh is historic, evolving over the last 50 years. India's political, diplomatic, military and humanitarian support during Bangladesh's Liberation War played an important role towards Bangladesh's independence.

Post-Independence, the India-Bangladesh relationship has oscillated as Bangladesh passed through different regimes. The relationship remained cordial until the assassination of Bangladesh's founding President Sheikh Mujibur Rahman in August 15, 1975, followed by a period of military rule and the rise of General Ziaur Rahman who became President and also assassinated in 1981. It thawed again between 1982-1991 when a military-led government by General H.M. Ershad ruled the country. Since Bangladesh's return to parliamentary democracy in 1991, relations have gone through highs and lows. However, in the last decade, India-Bangladesh relations have warmed up, entering a new era of cooperation, and moving beyond historical and cultural ties to become more assimilated in the areas of trade, connectivity, energy, and defence.

Bangladesh and India have achieved the rare feat of solving their border issues peacefully by ratifying the historic Land Boundary Agreement in 2015, where enclaves were swapped allowing inhabitants to choose their country of residence and become citizens of either India or Bangladesh. The Bangladesh government led by Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina has uprooted anti-India insurgency elements from its borders, making the India-Bangladesh border one of the region's most peaceful, and allowing India to make a massive redeployment of resources to its more contentious borders elsewhere.

Bangladesh today is India's biggest trading partner in South Asia with exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018-19 at $9.21 billion and imports at $1.04 billion. Trade could be more balanced if non-tariff barriers from the Indian side could be removed. Bangladeshis make up a large portion of tourists in India, outnumbering all tourists arriving from Western Europe in 2017, with one in every five tourists being a Bangladeshi. Bangladesh accounts for more than 35% of India's international medical patients and contributes more than 50% of India's revenue from medical tourism.

India-Bangladesh relations have been gaining positive momentum over the last decade. As Bangladesh celebrates its 50 years of independence (March 26, 1971), India continues to be one of its most important neighbours and strategic partners. As the larger country, the onus is on India to be generous enough to let the water flow as this issue is constraining positive relations between the two neighbours. These small but important steps can remove long-standing snags in a relationship which otherwise is gradually coming of age in 50 years. To make the recent gains irreversible, both countries need to continue working on the three C's — cooperation, collaboration, and consolidation.

Q. For reducing the gap between imports and exports between India and Bangladesh, which of the following measure has been suggested by the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 10 Refer to the line 'Trade could be more balanced if non-tariff barriers from the Indian side could be removed.' Hence, option 3 is correct. Other options don't get any support from the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 11

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Why has India not produced a Google or Twitter or Amazon? It is a question that has been asked a million times, with no convincing answer ever found. Well, all the big digital product companies primarily flourished in the West, which had the right breeding conditions for them. The rest of the world became a consumer and beneficiary of these technologies. India's first defining moment in its new-age technology journey came around the turn of the millennium, when we helped the world deal with the infamous Y2K problem. The next moment came about a decade later when the first-generation digital entrepreneurs started building solutions for local problems. The third moment is now when unicorn is the buzzword. However, the question stayed where it was through this evolution cycle.

India's sweet spot is its leadership in public technology. No one has designed and used technology for the larger good of society as we have. It began with a biometric-based digital identity and a unique identification number called Aadhaar. This, when used to link identities across the bank accounts and mobile phones, has enabled the direct dissemination of public benefits. It is not without its hiccups, but it is a database that allows you to use it as the time and circumstances demand. As cashless payments become our default mode for transactions, the ATMs may find a place in the tech museums. This brings us to another public technology from India famous for its speed of adoption across the board—Unified Payments Interface or UPI. What makes UPI unique is the zero cost for the users. The global domino effect shows when Google pitches for FedNow—a proposed inter-bank settlement system in the US. It has cited its extensive experience with the UPI of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and shared learnings from our country that the US should emulate—including no fee for small low-value transactions. The Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC) is soon to be launched by the commerce and industry ministry. It is an open digital protocol that would allow exchange of products and services. Just like UPI, it will allow people to sell through any ONDC-compatible app or platform using its standard protocols for cataloguing, inventory management and order-cycle processing. It will create a level playing field in digital commerce for small and big players by giving them the power of discoverability while bringing down the monopolies of the big corporations.

Philosophically speaking, this technology leadership embodies the Indian philosophy of Sarvajan hitaay, sarvajan sukhay—for the benefit and good of everyone. Whether these protocols are new-age carriers of philosophy or rooted in them depends on which lens you view them from. So next time when you face the question asked in the beginning, talk about the India stack comprising Aadhaar, UPI, ONDC, etc. and our contribution to the world of technology rooted in the nation's culture.

Q. In the line 'As cashless payments become our default mode for transactions, the ATMs may find a place in the tech museums', what tone does the author follow?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 11 The author follows an ironical tone in the line. The author ironically states that ATMs, which are the machines used to withdraw cash, may find a place in the museums as cash payments become more and more popular with the general population. It cannot be inferred that the author is biased. Also, the author is predicting the demise of ATMs instead of lauding anything. Thus, option (b) is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 12

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Why has India not produced a Google or Twitter or Amazon? It is a question that has been asked a million times, with no convincing answer ever found. Well, all the big digital product companies primarily flourished in the West, which had the right breeding conditions for them. The rest of the world became a consumer and beneficiary of these technologies. India's first defining moment in its new-age technology journey came around the turn of the millennium, when we helped the world deal with the infamous Y2K problem. The next moment came about a decade later when the first-generation digital entrepreneurs started building solutions for local problems. The third moment is now when unicorn is the buzzword. However, the question stayed where it was through this evolution cycle.

India's sweet spot is its leadership in public technology. No one has designed and used technology for the larger good of society as we have. It began with a biometric-based digital identity and a unique identification number called Aadhaar. This, when used to link identities across the bank accounts and mobile phones, has enabled the direct dissemination of public benefits. It is not without its hiccups, but it is a database that allows you to use it as the time and circumstances demand. As cashless payments become our default mode for transactions, the ATMs may find a place in the tech museums. This brings us to another public technology from India famous for its speed of adoption across the board—Unified Payments Interface or UPI. What makes UPI unique is the zero cost for the users. The global domino effect shows when Google pitches for FedNow—a proposed inter-bank settlement system in the US. It has cited its extensive experience with the UPI of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and shared learnings from our country that the US should emulate—including no fee for small low-value transactions. The Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC) is soon to be launched by the commerce and industry ministry. It is an open digital protocol that would allow exchange of products and services. Just like UPI, it will allow people to sell through any ONDC-compatible app or platform using its standard protocols for cataloguing, inventory management and order-cycle processing. It will create a level playing field in digital commerce for small and big players by giving them the power of discoverability while bringing down the monopolies of the big corporations.

Philosophically speaking, this technology leadership embodies the Indian philosophy of Sarvajan hitaay, sarvajan sukhay—for the benefit and good of everyone. Whether these protocols are new-age carriers of philosophy or rooted in them depends on which lens you view them from. So next time when you face the question asked in the beginning, talk about the India stack comprising Aadhaar, UPI, ONDC, etc. and our contribution to the world of technology rooted in the nation's culture.

Q. Which of the following statements CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 12 Except 2, each of the statements can be inferred. The fact that UPI has had tremendous success in India points to the fact that Indian market has been fairly open to adoption of UPI. Also, this success has made India an example, as evident from the fact that Google is using its Indian experience with UPI to launch its service in the US. Option (d) can be inferred from the last paragraph, according to which our public technology fits well with our idea of benefit and good of everyone. However, nothing can be inferred about India beginning to produce globally dominant big technological companies. Though it may be a possibility, nothing can be inferred at the present.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 13

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Why has India not produced a Google or Twitter or Amazon? It is a question that has been asked a million times, with no convincing answer ever found. Well, all the big digital product companies primarily flourished in the West, which had the right breeding conditions for them. The rest of the world became a consumer and beneficiary of these technologies. India's first defining moment in its new-age technology journey came around the turn of the millennium, when we helped the world deal with the infamous Y2K problem. The next moment came about a decade later when the first-generation digital entrepreneurs started building solutions for local problems. The third moment is now when unicorn is the buzzword. However, the question stayed where it was through this evolution cycle.

India's sweet spot is its leadership in public technology. No one has designed and used technology for the larger good of society as we have. It began with a biometric-based digital identity and a unique identification number called Aadhaar. This, when used to link identities across the bank accounts and mobile phones, has enabled the direct dissemination of public benefits. It is not without its hiccups, but it is a database that allows you to use it as the time and circumstances demand. As cashless payments become our default mode for transactions, the ATMs may find a place in the tech museums. This brings us to another public technology from India famous for its speed of adoption across the board—Unified Payments Interface or UPI. What makes UPI unique is the zero cost for the users. The global domino effect shows when Google pitches for FedNow—a proposed inter-bank settlement system in the US. It has cited its extensive experience with the UPI of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and shared learnings from our country that the US should emulate—including no fee for small low-value transactions. The Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC) is soon to be launched by the commerce and industry ministry. It is an open digital protocol that would allow exchange of products and services. Just like UPI, it will allow people to sell through any ONDC-compatible app or platform using its standard protocols for cataloguing, inventory management and order-cycle processing. It will create a level playing field in digital commerce for small and big players by giving them the power of discoverability while bringing down the monopolies of the big corporations.

Philosophically speaking, this technology leadership embodies the Indian philosophy of Sarvajan hitaay, sarvajan sukhay—for the benefit and good of everyone. Whether these protocols are new-age carriers of philosophy or rooted in them depends on which lens you view them from. So next time when you face the question asked in the beginning, talk about the India stack comprising Aadhaar, UPI, ONDC, etc. and our contribution to the world of technology rooted in the nation's culture.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in context of the passage with regard to India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 13 Only statement 1 is true in context of the passage. The ONDC project is an example of an ambitious public technology project which is already in the pipeline. Statement 2 is incorrect as Aadhaar has enabled the direct dissemination of public benefits instead of increasing the number of intermediaries. Thus, option (a) is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 14

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Why has India not produced a Google or Twitter or Amazon? It is a question that has been asked a million times, with no convincing answer ever found. Well, all the big digital product companies primarily flourished in the West, which had the right breeding conditions for them. The rest of the world became a consumer and beneficiary of these technologies. India's first defining moment in its new-age technology journey came around the turn of the millennium, when we helped the world deal with the infamous Y2K problem. The next moment came about a decade later when the first-generation digital entrepreneurs started building solutions for local problems. The third moment is now when unicorn is the buzzword. However, the question stayed where it was through this evolution cycle.

India's sweet spot is its leadership in public technology. No one has designed and used technology for the larger good of society as we have. It began with a biometric-based digital identity and a unique identification number called Aadhaar. This, when used to link identities across the bank accounts and mobile phones, has enabled the direct dissemination of public benefits. It is not without its hiccups, but it is a database that allows you to use it as the time and circumstances demand. As cashless payments become our default mode for transactions, the ATMs may find a place in the tech museums. This brings us to another public technology from India famous for its speed of adoption across the board—Unified Payments Interface or UPI. What makes UPI unique is the zero cost for the users. The global domino effect shows when Google pitches for FedNow—a proposed inter-bank settlement system in the US. It has cited its extensive experience with the UPI of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and shared learnings from our country that the US should emulate—including no fee for small low-value transactions. The Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC) is soon to be launched by the commerce and industry ministry. It is an open digital protocol that would allow exchange of products and services. Just like UPI, it will allow people to sell through any ONDC-compatible app or platform using its standard protocols for cataloguing, inventory management and order-cycle processing. It will create a level playing field in digital commerce for small and big players by giving them the power of discoverability while bringing down the monopolies of the big corporations.

Philosophically speaking, this technology leadership embodies the Indian philosophy of Sarvajan hitaay, sarvajan sukhay—for the benefit and good of everyone. Whether these protocols are new-age carriers of philosophy or rooted in them depends on which lens you view them from. So next time when you face the question asked in the beginning, talk about the India stack comprising Aadhaar, UPI, ONDC, etc. and our contribution to the world of technology rooted in the nation's culture.

Q. Which of the following statements from the passage could function as an answer to the question given below?

"Why has India not produced a Google or Twitter or Amazon?"

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 14 The author states in the last paragraph that if one gets asked the question 'Why has India not produced a Google or Twitter or Amazon?', one must tell about the suite of public technologies comprising Aadhaar, ONDC, UPI, etc. This means that India's main strength lies in public technology instead of private corporations. It is incorrect that India does not have the right conditions or incentives, as evident from the huge success of public technologies in India. Thus, option d is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 15

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Why has India not produced a Google or Twitter or Amazon? It is a question that has been asked a million times, with no convincing answer ever found. Well, all the big digital product companies primarily flourished in the West, which had the right breeding conditions for them. The rest of the world became a consumer and beneficiary of these technologies. India's first defining moment in its new-age technology journey came around the turn of the millennium, when we helped the world deal with the infamous Y2K problem. The next moment came about a decade later when the first-generation digital entrepreneurs started building solutions for local problems. The third moment is now when unicorn is the buzzword. However, the question stayed where it was through this evolution cycle.

India's sweet spot is its leadership in public technology. No one has designed and used technology for the larger good of society as we have. It began with a biometric-based digital identity and a unique identification number called Aadhaar. This, when used to link identities across the bank accounts and mobile phones, has enabled the direct dissemination of public benefits. It is not without its hiccups, but it is a database that allows you to use it as the time and circumstances demand. As cashless payments become our default mode for transactions, the ATMs may find a place in the tech museums. This brings us to another public technology from India famous for its speed of adoption across the board—Unified Payments Interface or UPI. What makes UPI unique is the zero cost for the users. The global domino effect shows when Google pitches for FedNow—a proposed inter-bank settlement system in the US. It has cited its extensive experience with the UPI of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and shared learnings from our country that the US should emulate—including no fee for small low-value transactions. The Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC) is soon to be launched by the commerce and industry ministry. It is an open digital protocol that would allow exchange of products and services. Just like UPI, it will allow people to sell through any ONDC-compatible app or platform using its standard protocols for cataloguing, inventory management and order-cycle processing. It will create a level playing field in digital commerce for small and big players by giving them the power of discoverability while bringing down the monopolies of the big corporations.

Philosophically speaking, this technology leadership embodies the Indian philosophy of Sarvajan hitaay, sarvajan sukhay—for the benefit and good of everyone. Whether these protocols are new-age carriers of philosophy or rooted in them depends on which lens you view them from. So next time when you face the question asked in the beginning, talk about the India stack comprising Aadhaar, UPI, ONDC, etc. and our contribution to the world of technology rooted in the nation's culture.

Q. It can be inferred that India's _______ growth has been _______ to the Western growth.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 15 Option (c) best fits the blanks in the sentence. India's technological growth story has been divergent/different from Western technological growth. India's technological growth focused primarily on public access, with greater and accessible benefits to everyone. In contrast, Western technological growth primarily focused on creating big digital product companies and treating the rest of the world as 'consumers' of such technology. Thus, option (c) is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 16

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After graduation, our 18-year-old (former) students scatter to the four winds. We teach them, we set them loose, and we hope they do well. Yet just because they are no longer in our classrooms doesn't mean we don't wonder about them—what they're up to, how they're doing. Sometimes we get the answer to these questions via social media or some other digital means. And that's great, but not the same as seeing them in person.

Fortunately, sometimes they do come back to visit. They get a job in the area and come by after work. They are home from college for a break. They come to see friends, to see teachers, to help out. It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why.

I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them. Every year I rework my program, my department, and my life to fill holes that kids leave when they graduate. I have to find someone to do the jobs they did, for me and for the program. Who is going to be the lead technician? Who is going to be the one who welcomes in the new kids? Who is going to be the student voice when I am making decisions? Who is going to be the one who makes us laugh?

Students leave holes, and sometimes we don't have anyone to fill them, especially the kids who have served as emotional caretakers. So when former students come in to say hi and see how things are going, I get them back for a bit!

One of the things I love most about teaching high school is watching my students grow and become adults. Once they graduate, though, I stop getting to see that process. When kids come back, I get to hear about their lives and see how much they've changed.

In my program, we tell stories about former students: the time B ripped his pants on stage during a show and handled it beautifully; the time C started the year in tears because of stage fright and ended the year with two shows under her belt; the way J ran everything and knew where everything was. These kids are the heroes of the department, and when the new kids get to meet them, it continues the tradition of learning from people who have been their shoes.

As someone who gets super focused and uptight, having someone come in who is there just to be happy and enjoy themselves reminds me of the fun parts of my job and to have fun with my students.

Q. Which of the following best expresses the author's main idea in the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 16 The correct answer is option 3 - 'Students mean much more to teachers than just a person whom they are assigned to teach.' This is evident from the entire passage in which the author describes how she is pleased when a student returns to visit and her description of students being emotional caretakers to teachers and the wondering of who will fill the shoes of the students that leave.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 17

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After graduation, our 18-year-old (former) students scatter to the four winds. We teach them, we set them loose, and we hope they do well. Yet just because they are no longer in our classrooms doesn't mean we don't wonder about them—what they're up to, how they're doing. Sometimes we get the answer to these questions via social media or some other digital means. And that's great, but not the same as seeing them in person.

Fortunately, sometimes they do come back to visit. They get a job in the area and come by after work. They are home from college for a break. They come to see friends, to see teachers, to help out. It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why.

I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them. Every year I rework my program, my department, and my life to fill holes that kids leave when they graduate. I have to find someone to do the jobs they did, for me and for the program. Who is going to be the lead technician? Who is going to be the one who welcomes in the new kids? Who is going to be the student voice when I am making decisions? Who is going to be the one who makes us laugh?

Students leave holes, and sometimes we don't have anyone to fill them, especially the kids who have served as emotional caretakers. So when former students come in to say hi and see how things are going, I get them back for a bit!

One of the things I love most about teaching high school is watching my students grow and become adults. Once they graduate, though, I stop getting to see that process. When kids come back, I get to hear about their lives and see how much they've changed.

In my program, we tell stories about former students: the time B ripped his pants on stage during a show and handled it beautifully; the time C started the year in tears because of stage fright and ended the year with two shows under her belt; the way J ran everything and knew where everything was. These kids are the heroes of the department, and when the new kids get to meet them, it continues the tradition of learning from people who have been their shoes.

As someone who gets super focused and uptight, having someone come in who is there just to be happy and enjoy themselves reminds me of the fun parts of my job and to have fun with my students.

Q. What does the word 'uptight' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 17 The correct answer is option 2. It is apparent from where the author states "having someone come in who is there just to be happy and enjoy themselves reminds me of the fun parts of my job" when she is tensed or anxious.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 18

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After graduation, our 18-year-old (former) students scatter to the four winds. We teach them, we set them loose, and we hope they do well. Yet just because they are no longer in our classrooms doesn't mean we don't wonder about them—what they're up to, how they're doing. Sometimes we get the answer to these questions via social media or some other digital means. And that's great, but not the same as seeing them in person.

Fortunately, sometimes they do come back to visit. They get a job in the area and come by after work. They are home from college for a break. They come to see friends, to see teachers, to help out. It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why.

I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them. Every year I rework my program, my department, and my life to fill holes that kids leave when they graduate. I have to find someone to do the jobs they did, for me and for the program. Who is going to be the lead technician? Who is going to be the one who welcomes in the new kids? Who is going to be the student voice when I am making decisions? Who is going to be the one who makes us laugh?

Students leave holes, and sometimes we don't have anyone to fill them, especially the kids who have served as emotional caretakers. So when former students come in to say hi and see how things are going, I get them back for a bit!

One of the things I love most about teaching high school is watching my students grow and become adults. Once they graduate, though, I stop getting to see that process. When kids come back, I get to hear about their lives and see how much they've changed.

In my program, we tell stories about former students: the time B ripped his pants on stage during a show and handled it beautifully; the time C started the year in tears because of stage fright and ended the year with two shows under her belt; the way J ran everything and knew where everything was. These kids are the heroes of the department, and when the new kids get to meet them, it continues the tradition of learning from people who have been their shoes.

As someone who gets super focused and uptight, having someone come in who is there just to be happy and enjoy themselves reminds me of the fun parts of my job and to have fun with my students.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following could be rightly considered as a 'hero of the department'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 18 The correct answer is option 1. Based on information in the final paragraph, the students described appear to go over and above of what was asked of them to achieve. From this, we can infer that a boy who tops the class and helps his fellow student would be considered a 'hero of the department'. All other options do not match this context and so options 2, 3 and 4 cannot be correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 19

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After graduation, our 18-year-old (former) students scatter to the four winds. We teach them, we set them loose, and we hope they do well. Yet just because they are no longer in our classrooms doesn't mean we don't wonder about them—what they're up to, how they're doing. Sometimes we get the answer to these questions via social media or some other digital means. And that's great, but not the same as seeing them in person.

Fortunately, sometimes they do come back to visit. They get a job in the area and come by after work. They are home from college for a break. They come to see friends, to see teachers, to help out. It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why.

I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them. Every year I rework my program, my department, and my life to fill holes that kids leave when they graduate. I have to find someone to do the jobs they did, for me and for the program. Who is going to be the lead technician? Who is going to be the one who welcomes in the new kids? Who is going to be the student voice when I am making decisions? Who is going to be the one who makes us laugh?

Students leave holes, and sometimes we don't have anyone to fill them, especially the kids who have served as emotional caretakers. So when former students come in to say hi and see how things are going, I get them back for a bit!

One of the things I love most about teaching high school is watching my students grow and become adults. Once they graduate, though, I stop getting to see that process. When kids come back, I get to hear about their lives and see how much they've changed.

In my program, we tell stories about former students: the time B ripped his pants on stage during a show and handled it beautifully; the time C started the year in tears because of stage fright and ended the year with two shows under her belt; the way J ran everything and knew where everything was. These kids are the heroes of the department, and when the new kids get to meet them, it continues the tradition of learning from people who have been their shoes.

As someone who gets super focused and uptight, having someone come in who is there just to be happy and enjoy themselves reminds me of the fun parts of my job and to have fun with my students.

Q. Why, according to the author, does the return of a student mean so much to her?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 19 The correct answer is option 4. This is stated in the passage in these lines: "It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why. I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 20

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

After graduation, our 18-year-old (former) students scatter to the four winds. We teach them, we set them loose, and we hope they do well. Yet just because they are no longer in our classrooms doesn't mean we don't wonder about them—what they're up to, how they're doing. Sometimes we get the answer to these questions via social media or some other digital means. And that's great, but not the same as seeing them in person.

Fortunately, sometimes they do come back to visit. They get a job in the area and come by after work. They are home from college for a break. They come to see friends, to see teachers, to help out. It means the world to me when they come back. Here's why.

I work closely with my kids, generally for several years. And then, they are gone. And I miss them. Every year I rework my program, my department, and my life to fill holes that kids leave when they graduate. I have to find someone to do the jobs they did, for me and for the program. Who is going to be the lead technician? Who is going to be the one who welcomes in the new kids? Who is going to be the student voice when I am making decisions? Who is going to be the one who makes us laugh?

Students leave holes, and sometimes we don't have anyone to fill them, especially the kids who have served as emotional caretakers. So when former students come in to say hi and see how things are going, I get them back for a bit!

One of the things I love most about teaching high school is watching my students grow and become adults. Once they graduate, though, I stop getting to see that process. When kids come back, I get to hear about their lives and see how much they've changed.

In my program, we tell stories about former students: the time B ripped his pants on stage during a show and handled it beautifully; the time C started the year in tears because of stage fright and ended the year with two shows under her belt; the way J ran everything and knew where everything was. These kids are the heroes of the department, and when the new kids get to meet them, it continues the tradition of learning from people who have been their shoes.

As someone who gets super focused and uptight, having someone come in who is there just to be happy and enjoy themselves reminds me of the fun parts of my job and to have fun with my students.

Q. What, according to the author, gets stopped as a result of students graduating?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 20 The correct answer is option 2. The author states this in the line: "One of the things I love most about teaching high school is watching my students grow and become adults. Once they graduate, though, I stop getting to see that process."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 21

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

At every level, Indian education is obsessed with the first boys. In the classroom, in society and in the making of public policy.

In each class, the teachers revel in the success of the first boys, and many of these young wonders recollect throughout their lives that they were first boys-no less-in their class. I remember being really struck many years ago when one of the great men India has produced, who was then the Union Minister for Education and would later become the Prime Minister, could still remember-and was able to tell me-the marks he had received in school and college. Even though, I should explain, his marks were excellent (if I am any judge), I was impressed by what could only be described as his immense modesty in remaining so captivated by his student-day grades (similar to those of other brilliant students across the land), even after he had left nearly every Indian behind in the political life of India. No, the 'first boy syndrome' is certainly big in our country, and afflicts even persons of truly exceptional achievement outside the classroom.

For individuals this may, in fact, be no more than an amiable peculiarity which need not distract us from our admiration for the persons involved. But when the first boy syndrome takes over an educational system (as I fear has happened in India), there are reasons to be seriously alarmed. The priorities can get oddly distorted when the focus is so narrow, and the concentration of public policy is so strongly on looking after those blessed with opportunity and success. Not only do the educationally advantaged go, as we would expect, to schools, colleges, universities, and distinguished technological institutes (while hundreds of millions of Indian children do not manage to get primary education), but also the educational establishments they go to are, often enough, very fine, in contrast with the low quality of Indian schools and colleges in general.

We can find a nice chain of actions and reactions here. The system makes sure that some young people, out of a huge pool of the young, manage to get privileged education. The picking is done not through any organised attempt to keep anyone out (indeed, far from it), but through differentiations that are driven by economic and social inequality related to class, gender, location, and social privilege. The privileged, to their credit, by and large do very well-they don't waste opportunities. Their well-earned success comes, first, in the educational establishments themselves, and then in the world at large, impressing Indians and foreigners alike. The country then celebrates with abandon the 'nation's triumphs'.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following can be rightly justified as a first boy?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 21 The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent from the final paragraph which provides a description of a first-boy: 'The picking is done not through any organised attempt to keep anyone out (indeed, far from it), but through differentiations that are driven by economic and social inequality related to class, gender, location, and social privilege.'
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 22

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

At every level, Indian education is obsessed with the first boys. In the classroom, in society and in the making of public policy.

In each class, the teachers revel in the success of the first boys, and many of these young wonders recollect throughout their lives that they were first boys-no less-in their class. I remember being really struck many years ago when one of the great men India has produced, who was then the Union Minister for Education and would later become the Prime Minister, could still remember-and was able to tell me-the marks he had received in school and college. Even though, I should explain, his marks were excellent (if I am any judge), I was impressed by what could only be described as his immense modesty in remaining so captivated by his student-day grades (similar to those of other brilliant students across the land), even after he had left nearly every Indian behind in the political life of India. No, the 'first boy syndrome' is certainly big in our country, and afflicts even persons of truly exceptional achievement outside the classroom.

For individuals this may, in fact, be no more than an amiable peculiarity which need not distract us from our admiration for the persons involved. But when the first boy syndrome takes over an educational system (as I fear has happened in India), there are reasons to be seriously alarmed. The priorities can get oddly distorted when the focus is so narrow, and the concentration of public policy is so strongly on looking after those blessed with opportunity and success. Not only do the educationally advantaged go, as we would expect, to schools, colleges, universities, and distinguished technological institutes (while hundreds of millions of Indian children do not manage to get primary education), but also the educational establishments they go to are, often enough, very fine, in contrast with the low quality of Indian schools and colleges in general.

We can find a nice chain of actions and reactions here. The system makes sure that some young people, out of a huge pool of the young, manage to get privileged education. The picking is done not through any organised attempt to keep anyone out (indeed, far from it), but through differentiations that are driven by economic and social inequality related to class, gender, location, and social privilege. The privileged, to their credit, by and large do very well-they don't waste opportunities. Their well-earned success comes, first, in the educational establishments themselves, and then in the world at large, impressing Indians and foreigners alike. The country then celebrates with abandon the 'nation's triumphs'.

Q. Why, according to the author, are there reasons to be alarmed over the first boy syndrome?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 22 The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent from the third paragraph: 'The priorities can get oddly distorted when the focus is so narrow, and the concentration of public policy is so strongly on looking after those blessed with opportunity and success.'
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 23

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

At every level, Indian education is obsessed with the first boys. In the classroom, in society and in the making of public policy.

In each class, the teachers revel in the success of the first boys, and many of these young wonders recollect throughout their lives that they were first boys-no less-in their class. I remember being really struck many years ago when one of the great men India has produced, who was then the Union Minister for Education and would later become the Prime Minister, could still remember-and was able to tell me-the marks he had received in school and college. Even though, I should explain, his marks were excellent (if I am any judge), I was impressed by what could only be described as his immense modesty in remaining so captivated by his student-day grades (similar to those of other brilliant students across the land), even after he had left nearly every Indian behind in the political life of India. No, the 'first boy syndrome' is certainly big in our country, and afflicts even persons of truly exceptional achievement outside the classroom.

For individuals this may, in fact, be no more than an amiable peculiarity which need not distract us from our admiration for the persons involved. But when the first boy syndrome takes over an educational system (as I fear has happened in India), there are reasons to be seriously alarmed. The priorities can get oddly distorted when the focus is so narrow, and the concentration of public policy is so strongly on looking after those blessed with opportunity and success. Not only do the educationally advantaged go, as we would expect, to schools, colleges, universities, and distinguished technological institutes (while hundreds of millions of Indian children do not manage to get primary education), but also the educational establishments they go to are, often enough, very fine, in contrast with the low quality of Indian schools and colleges in general.

We can find a nice chain of actions and reactions here. The system makes sure that some young people, out of a huge pool of the young, manage to get privileged education. The picking is done not through any organised attempt to keep anyone out (indeed, far from it), but through differentiations that are driven by economic and social inequality related to class, gender, location, and social privilege. The privileged, to their credit, by and large do very well-they don't waste opportunities. Their well-earned success comes, first, in the educational establishments themselves, and then in the world at large, impressing Indians and foreigners alike. The country then celebrates with abandon the 'nation's triumphs'.

Q. Why does the author include the statement in the passage about Union Minister for Education turned Prime Minister?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 23 The correct answer is option 2. The author states in the first paragraph the reason why he includes the example of the Union Minister of Education turned Prime Minister to illustrate how even people at excellent positions are afflicted by this syndrome. He states: "Even though, I should explain, his marks were excellent (if I am any judge), I was impressed by what could only be described as his immense modesty in remaining so captivated by his student-day grades (similar to those of other brilliant students across the land), even after he had left nearly every Indian behind in the political life of India. No, the 'first boy syndrome' is certainly big in our country, and afflicts even persons of truly exceptional achievement outside the classroom."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 24

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

At every level, Indian education is obsessed with the first boys. In the classroom, in society and in the making of public policy.

In each class, the teachers revel in the success of the first boys, and many of these young wonders recollect throughout their lives that they were first boys-no less-in their class. I remember being really struck many years ago when one of the great men India has produced, who was then the Union Minister for Education and would later become the Prime Minister, could still remember-and was able to tell me-the marks he had received in school and college. Even though, I should explain, his marks were excellent (if I am any judge), I was impressed by what could only be described as his immense modesty in remaining so captivated by his student-day grades (similar to those of other brilliant students across the land), even after he had left nearly every Indian behind in the political life of India. No, the 'first boy syndrome' is certainly big in our country, and afflicts even persons of truly exceptional achievement outside the classroom.

For individuals this may, in fact, be no more than an amiable peculiarity which need not distract us from our admiration for the persons involved. But when the first boy syndrome takes over an educational system (as I fear has happened in India), there are reasons to be seriously alarmed. The priorities can get oddly distorted when the focus is so narrow, and the concentration of public policy is so strongly on looking after those blessed with opportunity and success. Not only do the educationally advantaged go, as we would expect, to schools, colleges, universities, and distinguished technological institutes (while hundreds of millions of Indian children do not manage to get primary education), but also the educational establishments they go to are, often enough, very fine, in contrast with the low quality of Indian schools and colleges in general.

We can find a nice chain of actions and reactions here. The system makes sure that some young people, out of a huge pool of the young, manage to get privileged education. The picking is done not through any organised attempt to keep anyone out (indeed, far from it), but through differentiations that are driven by economic and social inequality related to class, gender, location, and social privilege. The privileged, to their credit, by and large do very well-they don't waste opportunities. Their well-earned success comes, first, in the educational establishments themselves, and then in the world at large, impressing Indians and foreigners alike. The country then celebrates with abandon the 'nation's triumphs'.

Q. What does the word 'amiable' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 24 The correct answer is option 3. This is apparent from the line in which it is stated. 'Amiable' implies something that is friendly and pleasant.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 25

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

At every level, Indian education is obsessed with the first boys. In the classroom, in society and in the making of public policy.

In each class, the teachers revel in the success of the first boys, and many of these young wonders recollect throughout their lives that they were first boys-no less-in their class. I remember being really struck many years ago when one of the great men India has produced, who was then the Union Minister for Education and would later become the Prime Minister, could still remember-and was able to tell me-the marks he had received in school and college. Even though, I should explain, his marks were excellent (if I am any judge), I was impressed by what could only be described as his immense modesty in remaining so captivated by his student-day grades (similar to those of other brilliant students across the land), even after he had left nearly every Indian behind in the political life of India. No, the 'first boy syndrome' is certainly big in our country, and afflicts even persons of truly exceptional achievement outside the classroom.

For individuals this may, in fact, be no more than an amiable peculiarity which need not distract us from our admiration for the persons involved. But when the first boy syndrome takes over an educational system (as I fear has happened in India), there are reasons to be seriously alarmed. The priorities can get oddly distorted when the focus is so narrow, and the concentration of public policy is so strongly on looking after those blessed with opportunity and success. Not only do the educationally advantaged go, as we would expect, to schools, colleges, universities, and distinguished technological institutes (while hundreds of millions of Indian children do not manage to get primary education), but also the educational establishments they go to are, often enough, very fine, in contrast with the low quality of Indian schools and colleges in general.

We can find a nice chain of actions and reactions here. The system makes sure that some young people, out of a huge pool of the young, manage to get privileged education. The picking is done not through any organised attempt to keep anyone out (indeed, far from it), but through differentiations that are driven by economic and social inequality related to class, gender, location, and social privilege. The privileged, to their credit, by and large do very well-they don't waste opportunities. Their well-earned success comes, first, in the educational establishments themselves, and then in the world at large, impressing Indians and foreigners alike. The country then celebrates with abandon the 'nation's triumphs'.

Q. Which of the following can be rightly inferred from the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 25 The correct answer is option 1. This is apparent from the third paragraph which describes how educational systems and policies become skewed and narrowed to strongly on first boys. Based on this, we can infer that this puts less emphasis on most other students who are not considered first boys.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 26

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Between two and three o'clock Thursday morning, 5 April 1781, Calcutta

Hicky woke with a start, and stumbled over to his bedroom window. He peered into the blackness, bleary-eyed and confused. He heard yells and screams from below. "[What is] the cause of so much noise?" he opened his window and yelled.

He saw figures running in the dark. Three men were trying to break into his house. Two were Europeans and had cut open the rope that held his back gate shut with curved knives.

He rushed downstairs. But the men had fled before he made it down. He asked his servants who these people were. They said one was Frederick Charles, the owner of a public house in the city, and Messink's assistant at the theatre. Hicky had bad blood with Charles. When he had practised medicine in his first years in Calcutta, Charles had once refused to pay for a surgery he performed. He had to sue Charles to get his money back. Hicky pondered for a second.

Why would these people break into his house deep in the night? Why would they wish to attack him?

Then, everything came together like pieces of a puzzle. Behind Charles, he saw Messink. And behind Messink, he saw Hastings.

He was convinced it was an assassination attempt. Or, if not, at least a threat to silence him. He feared another attempt on his life, so he hired sepoys to guard his home and told his servants not to let anyone in without his express permission.

The warning might have scared some men, but it made him bold. If it was a warning to silence him, then he would do just the opposite. He was not intimidated. He would fight till every muscle in his body failed him rather than surrender his right to print.

He saw himself as the scourge of tyrants, the defender of free speech, and the protector of the people ... In a place where fundamental rights had been overturned and where the people lived in slavery, he believed [that] someone like him, someone with a free Press, might restore the people's rights and redeem their freedoms.

Q. Why was Hicky confused when he peered out of his bedroom window?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 26 The correct answer is option 2. This is suggested in the second paragraph in which Hicky yells out of the window "[What is] the cause of so much noise?" For option 1, this is nothing to suggest that he was worried about being robbed, rather, he was worried about being attacked, so option 1 cannot be correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 27

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Between two and three o'clock Thursday morning, 5 April 1781, Calcutta

Hicky woke with a start, and stumbled over to his bedroom window. He peered into the blackness, bleary-eyed and confused. He heard yells and screams from below. "[What is] the cause of so much noise?" he opened his window and yelled.

He saw figures running in the dark. Three men were trying to break into his house. Two were Europeans and had cut open the rope that held his back gate shut with curved knives.

He rushed downstairs. But the men had fled before he made it down. He asked his servants who these people were. They said one was Frederick Charles, the owner of a public house in the city, and Messink's assistant at the theatre. Hicky had bad blood with Charles. When he had practised medicine in his first years in Calcutta, Charles had once refused to pay for a surgery he performed. He had to sue Charles to get his money back. Hicky pondered for a second.

Why would these people break into his house deep in the night? Why would they wish to attack him?

Then, everything came together like pieces of a puzzle. Behind Charles, he saw Messink. And behind Messink, he saw Hastings.

He was convinced it was an assassination attempt. Or, if not, at least a threat to silence him. He feared another attempt on his life, so he hired sepoys to guard his home and told his servants not to let anyone in without his express permission.

The warning might have scared some men, but it made him bold. If it was a warning to silence him, then he would do just the opposite. He was not intimidated. He would fight till every muscle in his body failed him rather than surrender his right to print.

He saw himself as the scourge of tyrants, the defender of free speech, and the protector of the people ... In a place where fundamental rights had been overturned and where the people lived in slavery, he believed [that] someone like him, someone with a free Press, might restore the people's rights and redeem their freedoms.

Q. What does the word 'scourge' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 27 From the passage, we can understand that Hicky assumed himself to be a saviour of people as it is stated that he is "the defender of free speech, and the protector of the people". So, his role will be antithetical to people engaged in evil acts. Option 4 describes such a person and is correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 28

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Between two and three o'clock Thursday morning, 5 April 1781, Calcutta

Hicky woke with a start, and stumbled over to his bedroom window. He peered into the blackness, bleary-eyed and confused. He heard yells and screams from below. "[What is] the cause of so much noise?" he opened his window and yelled.

He saw figures running in the dark. Three men were trying to break into his house. Two were Europeans and had cut open the rope that held his back gate shut with curved knives.

He rushed downstairs. But the men had fled before he made it down. He asked his servants who these people were. They said one was Frederick Charles, the owner of a public house in the city, and Messink's assistant at the theatre. Hicky had bad blood with Charles. When he had practised medicine in his first years in Calcutta, Charles had once refused to pay for a surgery he performed. He had to sue Charles to get his money back. Hicky pondered for a second.

Why would these people break into his house deep in the night? Why would they wish to attack him?

Then, everything came together like pieces of a puzzle. Behind Charles, he saw Messink. And behind Messink, he saw Hastings.

He was convinced it was an assassination attempt. Or, if not, at least a threat to silence him. He feared another attempt on his life, so he hired sepoys to guard his home and told his servants not to let anyone in without his express permission.

The warning might have scared some men, but it made him bold. If it was a warning to silence him, then he would do just the opposite. He was not intimidated. He would fight till every muscle in his body failed him rather than surrender his right to print.

He saw himself as the scourge of tyrants, the defender of free speech, and the protector of the people ... In a place where fundamental rights had been overturned and where the people lived in slavery, he believed [that] someone like him, someone with a free Press, might restore the people's rights and redeem their freedoms.

Q. Why, according to the passage, did Hicky see himself as a protector of the people?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 28 The correct answer is option 2 - He believed it was his duty to expose abuses inflicted upon people. This is evident from the description in the passage which states, 'He saw himself as the scourge of tyrants, the defender of free speech, and the protector of the people...he believed [that] someone like him, someone with a free Press, might restore the people's rights and redeem their freedoms.' Option 1 is stated, but it does not explain why he saw himself as protector of the people, so option 1 cannot be correct. Option 3 is stated, but this also does not explain why he sees himself as a protector. Option 4 may be valid, but it is not supported in the passage, so option 4 is also incorrect.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 29

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Between two and three o'clock Thursday morning, 5 April 1781, Calcutta

Hicky woke with a start, and stumbled over to his bedroom window. He peered into the blackness, bleary-eyed and confused. He heard yells and screams from below. "[What is] the cause of so much noise?" he opened his window and yelled.

He saw figures running in the dark. Three men were trying to break into his house. Two were Europeans and had cut open the rope that held his back gate shut with curved knives.

He rushed downstairs. But the men had fled before he made it down. He asked his servants who these people were. They said one was Frederick Charles, the owner of a public house in the city, and Messink's assistant at the theatre. Hicky had bad blood with Charles. When he had practised medicine in his first years in Calcutta, Charles had once refused to pay for a surgery he performed. He had to sue Charles to get his money back. Hicky pondered for a second.

Why would these people break into his house deep in the night? Why would they wish to attack him?

Then, everything came together like pieces of a puzzle. Behind Charles, he saw Messink. And behind Messink, he saw Hastings.

He was convinced it was an assassination attempt. Or, if not, at least a threat to silence him. He feared another attempt on his life, so he hired sepoys to guard his home and told his servants not to let anyone in without his express permission.

The warning might have scared some men, but it made him bold. If it was a warning to silence him, then he would do just the opposite. He was not intimidated. He would fight till every muscle in his body failed him rather than surrender his right to print.

He saw himself as the scourge of tyrants, the defender of free speech, and the protector of the people ... In a place where fundamental rights had been overturned and where the people lived in slavery, he believed [that] someone like him, someone with a free Press, might restore the people's rights and redeem their freedoms.

Q. Why would Hicky initially believe the trio of men would attack him?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 29 The correct answer is option 3. This is evident from the author's description of Frederick Charles in which the author states 'Hicky had bad blood with Charles.' Option 1 is suggested later in the passage, but this is not what Hicky initially believed, so option 1 cannot be correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 30

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Between two and three o'clock Thursday morning, 5 April 1781, Calcutta

Hicky woke with a start, and stumbled over to his bedroom window. He peered into the blackness, bleary-eyed and confused. He heard yells and screams from below. "[What is] the cause of so much noise?" he opened his window and yelled.

He saw figures running in the dark. Three men were trying to break into his house. Two were Europeans and had cut open the rope that held his back gate shut with curved knives.

He rushed downstairs. But the men had fled before he made it down. He asked his servants who these people were. They said one was Frederick Charles, the owner of a public house in the city, and Messink's assistant at the theatre. Hicky had bad blood with Charles. When he had practised medicine in his first years in Calcutta, Charles had once refused to pay for a surgery he performed. He had to sue Charles to get his money back. Hicky pondered for a second.

Why would these people break into his house deep in the night? Why would they wish to attack him?

Then, everything came together like pieces of a puzzle. Behind Charles, he saw Messink. And behind Messink, he saw Hastings.

He was convinced it was an assassination attempt. Or, if not, at least a threat to silence him. He feared another attempt on his life, so he hired sepoys to guard his home and told his servants not to let anyone in without his express permission.

The warning might have scared some men, but it made him bold. If it was a warning to silence him, then he would do just the opposite. He was not intimidated. He would fight till every muscle in his body failed him rather than surrender his right to print.

He saw himself as the scourge of tyrants, the defender of free speech, and the protector of the people ... In a place where fundamental rights had been overturned and where the people lived in slavery, he believed [that] someone like him, someone with a free Press, might restore the people's rights and redeem their freedoms.

Q. Based on information from the given passage, what can be inferred about Hastings and the attack?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 30 The correct answer is option 2. This is apparent from the eighth paragraph which states that the attack was a warning to silence Hicky and that he was not afraid and would not 'surrender his right to print.' There is nothing in the passage to support options 1, 3 and 4, so these cannot be correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 31

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The UNESCO United Nations World Water Development Report of 2022 has encapsulated global concern over the sharp rise in freshwater withdrawal from streams, lakes, aquifers and human-made reservoirs, impending water stress and also water scarcity being experienced in different parts of the world. In 2007, 'Coping with water scarcity' was the theme of World Water Day . The new Water Report of the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) sounded a note of caution about this silent crisis of a global dimension, with millions of people being deprived of water to live and to sustain their livelihood. Increasing trans-boundary transfer of water between rural and urban areas has been noted in many countries since the early 20th century. A review paper published in 2019 reported that, globally, urban water infrastructure imports an estimated 500 billion litres of water per day across a combined distance of 27,000 km. At least 12% of large cities in the world rely on inter-basin transfers. A UN report on 'Transboundary Waters Systems - Status and Trend' (2016) linked this issue of water transfer with various Sustainable Development Goals proposed to be achieved.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. When is World Water Day celebrated every year?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 31 World Water Day, held on March 22 every year since 1993, focuses on the importance of freshwater. The Day celebrates water and raises awareness of the 2.2 billion people living without access to safe water. It is about taking action to tackle the global water crisis.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 32

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The UNESCO United Nations World Water Development Report of 2022 has encapsulated global concern over the sharp rise in freshwater withdrawal from streams, lakes, aquifers and human-made reservoirs, impending water stress and also water scarcity being experienced in different parts of the world. In 2007, 'Coping with water scarcity' was the theme of World Water Day . The new Water Report of the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) sounded a note of caution about this silent crisis of a global dimension, with millions of people being deprived of water to live and to sustain their livelihood. Increasing trans-boundary transfer of water between rural and urban areas has been noted in many countries since the early 20th century. A review paper published in 2019 reported that, globally, urban water infrastructure imports an estimated 500 billion litres of water per day across a combined distance of 27,000 km. At least 12% of large cities in the world rely on inter-basin transfers. A UN report on 'Transboundary Waters Systems - Status and Trend' (2016) linked this issue of water transfer with various Sustainable Development Goals proposed to be achieved.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. Mark the incorrect statement about Sustainable Development Goal 6.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 32 Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG 6 or Global Goal 6) is about clean water and sanitation for all. It is one of 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015. The official wording of SDG 6 is: Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all. The goal has eight targets to be achieved by 2030. Progress towards the targets will be measured by using eleven indicators.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 33

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The UNESCO United Nations World Water Development Report of 2022 has encapsulated global concern over the sharp rise in freshwater withdrawal from streams, lakes, aquifers and human-made reservoirs, impending water stress and also water scarcity being experienced in different parts of the world. In 2007, 'Coping with water scarcity' was the theme of World Water Day . The new Water Report of the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) sounded a note of caution about this silent crisis of a global dimension, with millions of people being deprived of water to live and to sustain their livelihood. Increasing trans-boundary transfer of water between rural and urban areas has been noted in many countries since the early 20th century. A review paper published in 2019 reported that, globally, urban water infrastructure imports an estimated 500 billion litres of water per day across a combined distance of 27,000 km. At least 12% of large cities in the world rely on inter-basin transfers. A UN report on 'Transboundary Waters Systems - Status and Trend' (2016) linked this issue of water transfer with various Sustainable Development Goals proposed to be achieved.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in _____ to provide for the prevention and control of water pollution, and for the maintaining or restoring of wholesomeness of water in India.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 33 The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974 to provide for the prevention and control of water pollution and for the maintaining or restoring of wholesomeness of water in India. The Act was amended in 1988. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act was enacted in 1977 to provide for the levy and collection of a cess on water consumed by persons operating and carrying on certain types of industrial activities.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 34

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The UNESCO United Nations World Water Development Report of 2022 has encapsulated global concern over the sharp rise in freshwater withdrawal from streams, lakes, aquifers and human-made reservoirs, impending water stress and also water scarcity being experienced in different parts of the world. In 2007, 'Coping with water scarcity' was the theme of World Water Day . The new Water Report of the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) sounded a note of caution about this silent crisis of a global dimension, with millions of people being deprived of water to live and to sustain their livelihood. Increasing trans-boundary transfer of water between rural and urban areas has been noted in many countries since the early 20th century. A review paper published in 2019 reported that, globally, urban water infrastructure imports an estimated 500 billion litres of water per day across a combined distance of 27,000 km. At least 12% of large cities in the world rely on inter-basin transfers. A UN report on 'Transboundary Waters Systems - Status and Trend' (2016) linked this issue of water transfer with various Sustainable Development Goals proposed to be achieved.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. What was the theme of the World Water Day 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 34 World Water Day is celebrated globally on March 22 every year. The day aims to highlight the importance of freshwater. It is used to advocate for the sustainable management of freshwater resources. The World Water Day theme 2022 was "Groundwater: Making the invisible visible". Groundwater is an invisible resource with an impact visible everywhere. Moreover, it is a crucial resource that provides almost half of all drinkable water across the world.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 35

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The UNESCO United Nations World Water Development Report of 2022 has encapsulated global concern over the sharp rise in freshwater withdrawal from streams, lakes, aquifers and human-made reservoirs, impending water stress and also water scarcity being experienced in different parts of the world. In 2007, 'Coping with water scarcity' was the theme of World Water Day . The new Water Report of the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO) sounded a note of caution about this silent crisis of a global dimension, with millions of people being deprived of water to live and to sustain their livelihood. Increasing trans-boundary transfer of water between rural and urban areas has been noted in many countries since the early 20th century. A review paper published in 2019 reported that, globally, urban water infrastructure imports an estimated 500 billion litres of water per day across a combined distance of 27,000 km. At least 12% of large cities in the world rely on inter-basin transfers. A UN report on 'Transboundary Waters Systems - Status and Trend' (2016) linked this issue of water transfer with various Sustainable Development Goals proposed to be achieved.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. Name the interactive web tool that shows that over two billion people live in countries experiencing high water stress.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 35 The Water Scarcity Clock, an interactive webtool, shows that over two billion people live in countries experiencing high water stress; the numbers will continue to increase. The Water Scarcity Clock was created by World Data Lab on behalf of the Federal Ministry for Economic Cooperation and Development of Germany and in partnership with the International Institute of Applied Systems Analysis (IIASA).
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 36

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is observed and celebrated on 9 January across the country. It is a day to acknowledge and mark the contribution of the Indian community staying abroad in the development of the country.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated grandly to strengthen the engagement of the Government of India with the overseas Indian community. The main idea behind this event is to reconnect the Non-Resident Indian community with their original roots.

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on this day. Following his return, the father of the nation began and headed India's freedom struggle and changed the lives of millions of Indians forever. That is why 9 January was picked to celebrate the occasion.

Previous year, the PBD Convention was held on 9 January virtually due to the pandemic.

The PBD Convention holds the event with a vast overseas diaspora to let them share their knowledge, skills and expertise on a common platform. The organisers decided to hold theme-based conferences with participation from policymakers, stakeholders and overseas diaspora experts.

Through these conventions, the overseas Indian community easily engages with the government and its people for mutually beneficial activities.

[Source – First Post, Jan 9, 2022]

Q. What was the theme of the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Convention held virtually on 9th January, 2021?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 36 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is a celebratory day observed (starting in 2003) on 9th January by the Republic of India to mark the contribution of the overseas Indian community towards the development of India.

The 16th PBD Convention was held virtually on 9th January, 2021 in New Delhi. The theme of 16th PBD Convention, 2021 was "Contributing to Aatmanirbhar Bharat".

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 37

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is observed and celebrated on 9 January across the country. It is a day to acknowledge and mark the contribution of the Indian community staying abroad in the development of the country.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated grandly to strengthen the engagement of the Government of India with the overseas Indian community. The main idea behind this event is to reconnect the Non-Resident Indian community with their original roots.

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on this day. Following his return, the father of the nation began and headed India's freedom struggle and changed the lives of millions of Indians forever. That is why 9 January was picked to celebrate the occasion.

Previous year, the PBD Convention was held on 9 January virtually due to the pandemic.

The PBD Convention holds the event with a vast overseas diaspora to let them share their knowledge, skills and expertise on a common platform. The organisers decided to hold theme-based conferences with participation from policymakers, stakeholders and overseas diaspora experts.

Through these conventions, the overseas Indian community easily engages with the government and its people for mutually beneficial activities.

[Source – First Post, Jan 9, 2022]

Q. The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman (PBS) is an award constituted by the Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs, Government of India in conjunction with the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (Non-Resident Indian Day). PBS is not conferred in which of the following areas?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 37 The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman (Overseas Indian Honour/Award) is an award constituted by the Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs, Government of India in conjunction with the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (Non-Resident Indian Day), to honour exceptional and meritorious contribution in chosen field/profession. The award is given by the President of India. Since 2016, the Government of India has doubled the number of awardees each year to 30 after a decision was made to grant the award once every two years.

Pravasi Bharatiya Samman (PBS) is conferred for outstanding contributions in any of the following areas:

a. Better understanding of India

b. Support to India's causes and concerns in a tangible way

c. Building closer links between India, the overseas Indian community and their country of residence

d. Social and humanitarian causes in India or abroad

e. Welfare of the local Indian community

f. Philanthropic and charitable work

g. Eminence in one's field or outstanding work, which has enhanced India's prestige in the country of residence

h. Eminence in skills which has enhanced India's prestige in that country (for non-professional workers)

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 38

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is observed and celebrated on 9 January across the country. It is a day to acknowledge and mark the contribution of the Indian community staying abroad in the development of the country.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated grandly to strengthen the engagement of the Government of India with the overseas Indian community. The main idea behind this event is to reconnect the Non-Resident Indian community with their original roots.

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on this day. Following his return, the father of the nation began and headed India's freedom struggle and changed the lives of millions of Indians forever. That is why 9 January was picked to celebrate the occasion.

Previous year, the PBD Convention was held on 9 January virtually due to the pandemic.

The PBD Convention holds the event with a vast overseas diaspora to let them share their knowledge, skills and expertise on a common platform. The organisers decided to hold theme-based conferences with participation from policymakers, stakeholders and overseas diaspora experts.

Through these conventions, the overseas Indian community easily engages with the government and its people for mutually beneficial activities.

[Source – First Post, Jan 9, 2022]

Q. Which of the following statements is false regarding Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD)?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 38 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (Non-Resident Indian Day) is a celebratory day observed (starting in 2003) on 9th January by the Republic of India to mark the contribution of the overseas Indian community towards the development of India. The day commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to Mumbai on 9th January, 1915.

PBD conventions are being held every year since 2003. Since 2015, its format has been revised to celebrate the PBD once every two years and to hold theme-based PBD conferences during the intervening period with participation from overseas diaspora experts, policy makers and stakeholders.

The Ministry of External Affairs organises Regional Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (RPBD) periodically outside India to connect with the Indian Diaspora in specific regions, familiarize them with the policies and programmes of the Government, enable them to contribute to India's development and growth and address their concerns.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 39

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is observed and celebrated on 9 January across the country. It is a day to acknowledge and mark the contribution of the Indian community staying abroad in the development of the country.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated grandly to strengthen the engagement of the Government of India with the overseas Indian community. The main idea behind this event is to reconnect the Non-Resident Indian community with their original roots.

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on this day. Following his return, the father of the nation began and headed India's freedom struggle and changed the lives of millions of Indians forever. That is why 9 January was picked to celebrate the occasion.

Previous year, the PBD Convention was held on 9 January virtually due to the pandemic.

The PBD Convention holds the event with a vast overseas diaspora to let them share their knowledge, skills and expertise on a common platform. The organisers decided to hold theme-based conferences with participation from policymakers, stakeholders and overseas diaspora experts.

Through these conventions, the overseas Indian community easily engages with the government and its people for mutually beneficial activities.

[Source – First Post, Jan 9, 2022]

Q. January 9 was picked to celebrate Pravasi Bharatiya Divas as on this day in the year _____, Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 39 On January 9, 1915, Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa. To commemorate the return, January 9 was chosen to be celebrated as Pravasi Bhartiya Divas (Non-Resident Indian Day) in the year 2000 by the External Affairs Ministry of India with the aim to promote unity among the Indian diaspora and to mark the contributions of the overseas Indian community toward the development of the country.

Gandhi moved to South Africa in 1893 to represent an Indian merchant in a lawsuit. He went on to live in South Africa for 21 years and returned in 1915.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 40

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is observed and celebrated on 9 January across the country. It is a day to acknowledge and mark the contribution of the Indian community staying abroad in the development of the country.

The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated grandly to strengthen the engagement of the Government of India with the overseas Indian community. The main idea behind this event is to reconnect the Non-Resident Indian community with their original roots.

Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on this day. Following his return, the father of the nation began and headed India's freedom struggle and changed the lives of millions of Indians forever. That is why 9 January was picked to celebrate the occasion.

Previous year, the PBD Convention was held on 9 January virtually due to the pandemic.

The PBD Convention holds the event with a vast overseas diaspora to let them share their knowledge, skills and expertise on a common platform. The organisers decided to hold theme-based conferences with participation from policymakers, stakeholders and overseas diaspora experts.

Through these conventions, the overseas Indian community easily engages with the government and its people for mutually beneficial activities.

[Source – First Post, Jan 9, 2022]

Q. Who is the Minister of External Affairs of the Government of India, as in 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 40 Subrahmanyam Jaishankar (born 9th January, 1955) is a diplomat and politician who has been serving as the Minister of External Affairs, Government of India since 31st May, 2019. He is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party and is a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha since 5th July 2019, representing Gujarat. He has previously served as the Foreign Secretary from January 2015 to January 2018. In 2019, he was conferred the Padma Shri, India's fourth highest civilian honour.

Anurag Thakur - Minister of Information and Broadcasting; Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports

Piyush Goyal - Minister of Commerce and Industry; Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution; Minister of Textiles

Ashwini Vaishnaw - Minister of Railways; Minister of Communications; Minister of Electronics and Information Technology

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 41

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India is aiming for 30 per cent of new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030, as it seeks to decarbonise passenger transport. This alone is unlikely to be enough to achieve meaningful overall reductions in greenhouse gas emissions, mainly due to the country's power sources. While EVs release zero tailpipe emissions, their overall climate change impact is largely driven by the carbon intensity of the power grid. In India's case, at the national level, 74 per cent of electricity is coal-powered. This figure varies from one state to another - exceeding 80 per cent in the Eastern and Western regions, including key states like Maharashtra, but dropping below 20 per cent in the North-Eastern region. It should therefore come as no surprise that EVs will be most effective in parts of India with the lowest dependence on coal. But what about in other places where it might take significant time to move away from this carbon-intensive power source? With around 250 million vehicles on the road and a population of 1.3 billion, India needs to keep all options on the table.

[Source - The Hindu, September 18, 2022]

Q. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 41 A greenhouse gas (GHG or GhG) is a gas that absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal infrared range, causing the greenhouse effect. Primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and ozone.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 42

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India is aiming for 30 per cent of new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030, as it seeks to decarbonise passenger transport. This alone is unlikely to be enough to achieve meaningful overall reductions in greenhouse gas emissions, mainly due to the country's power sources. While EVs release zero tailpipe emissions, their overall climate change impact is largely driven by the carbon intensity of the power grid. In India's case, at the national level, 74 per cent of electricity is coal-powered. This figure varies from one state to another - exceeding 80 per cent in the Eastern and Western regions, including key states like Maharashtra, but dropping below 20 per cent in the North-Eastern region. It should therefore come as no surprise that EVs will be most effective in parts of India with the lowest dependence on coal. But what about in other places where it might take significant time to move away from this carbon-intensive power source? With around 250 million vehicles on the road and a population of 1.3 billion, India needs to keep all options on the table.

[Source - The Hindu, September 18, 2022]

Q. The Paris Agreement's long-term temperature goal is to keep the rise in mean global temperature well below _____ above the pre-industrial levels, and to limit the increase preferably to 1.5°C by 2030.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 42 The Paris Agreement's long-term temperature goal is to keep the rise in mean global temperature well below 2°C (3.6°F) above pre-industrial levels, and to limit the increase preferably to 1.5°C (2.7°F), recognising that this would substantially reduce the effects of climate change. Emissions should be reduced as soon as possible and reach net-zero by the middle of the 21st century.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 43

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India is aiming for 30 per cent of new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030, as it seeks to decarbonise passenger transport. This alone is unlikely to be enough to achieve meaningful overall reductions in greenhouse gas emissions, mainly due to the country's power sources. While EVs release zero tailpipe emissions, their overall climate change impact is largely driven by the carbon intensity of the power grid. In India's case, at the national level, 74 per cent of electricity is coal-powered. This figure varies from one state to another - exceeding 80 per cent in the Eastern and Western regions, including key states like Maharashtra, but dropping below 20 per cent in the North-Eastern region. It should therefore come as no surprise that EVs will be most effective in parts of India with the lowest dependence on coal. But what about in other places where it might take significant time to move away from this carbon-intensive power source? With around 250 million vehicles on the road and a population of 1.3 billion, India needs to keep all options on the table.

[Source - The Hindu, September 18, 2022]

Q. Where will the 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference, more commonly referred to as COP27, be held?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 43 The 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference, more commonly referred to as COP27, will be the 27th United Nations Climate Change Conference to be held from November 6 to November 18, 2022, in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt. The United Nations Climate Change Conferences are yearly conferences held in the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). They serve as the formal meeting of the UNFCCC parties (Conference of the Parties, COP) to assess progress in dealing with climate change, and beginning in the mid-1990s, to negotiate the Kyoto Protocol to establish legally binding obligations for developed countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 44

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India is aiming for 30 per cent of new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030, as it seeks to decarbonise passenger transport. This alone is unlikely to be enough to achieve meaningful overall reductions in greenhouse gas emissions, mainly due to the country's power sources. While EVs release zero tailpipe emissions, their overall climate change impact is largely driven by the carbon intensity of the power grid. In India's case, at the national level, 74 per cent of electricity is coal-powered. This figure varies from one state to another - exceeding 80 per cent in the Eastern and Western regions, including key states like Maharashtra, but dropping below 20 per cent in the North-Eastern region. It should therefore come as no surprise that EVs will be most effective in parts of India with the lowest dependence on coal. But what about in other places where it might take significant time to move away from this carbon-intensive power source? With around 250 million vehicles on the road and a population of 1.3 billion, India needs to keep all options on the table.

[Source - The Hindu, September 18, 2022]

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Bhutan is the world's first carbon-negative country.

Statement II: The large amount of tree cover has seen Bhutan becoming a carbon sink - meaning that it absorbs more carbon dioxide than it produces.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 44 Bhutan is the world's first carbon-negative country. Mainly because of its extensive forests, covering 70% of the land, the 'Kingdom' is able to absorb more carbon dioxide than it produces. Carbon dioxide is the leading greenhouse gas emission produced due to human activities like farming, forestry, and the burning of fossil fuels. High levels of carbon dioxide increase the amount of heat that is trapped in the atmosphere. This is one of the causes of climate change.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 45

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India is aiming for 30 per cent of new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030, as it seeks to decarbonise passenger transport. This alone is unlikely to be enough to achieve meaningful overall reductions in greenhouse gas emissions, mainly due to the country's power sources. While EVs release zero tailpipe emissions, their overall climate change impact is largely driven by the carbon intensity of the power grid. In India's case, at the national level, 74 per cent of electricity is coal-powered. This figure varies from one state to another - exceeding 80 per cent in the Eastern and Western regions, including key states like Maharashtra, but dropping below 20 per cent in the North-Eastern region. It should therefore come as no surprise that EVs will be most effective in parts of India with the lowest dependence on coal. But what about in other places where it might take significant time to move away from this carbon-intensive power source? With around 250 million vehicles on the road and a population of 1.3 billion, India needs to keep all options on the table.

[Source - The Hindu, September 18, 2022]

Q. Airports Authority of India is building its first carbon-neutral airport in India. Name the airport.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 45 Leh Airport is being built as a carbon-neutral airport by the Airports Authority of India. A geothermal system, in hybridisation with 'Solar PV Plant', would be provided in the new airport terminal building for heating and cooling purposes. This system works by exchanging heat between the air and the ground as its heat pumps are used for space heating and cooling, as well as water heating. While there are already two other airports (not built by AAI) that are carbon-neutral (Cochin International Airport and Indira Gandhi International Airport), Leh Airport first carbon-neutral airport being built by AAI.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 46

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Life expectancy in India has more than doubled since Independence - from around 32 years in the late 1940s to 70 years or so today. Many countries have done even better, but this is still a historical achievement. Over the same period, the fertility rate has crashed, thus liberating women from the shackles of repeated child-bearing and child care. All this is good news, but it also creates a new challenge - the ageing of the population. The share of the elderly (persons aged 60 years and above) in India's population, close to 9% in 2011, is growing fast and may reach 18% by 2036 according to the National Commission on Population. If India is to ensure a decent quality of life for the elderly in the near future, planning and providing for it must begin today. India has important schemes of non-contributory pensions for the elderly, widowed women, and disabled persons under the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP). Alas, eligibility for NSAP is restricted to below poverty line (BPL) families, based on outdated and unreliable BPL lists, some of which are 20 years old.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. From late 1940s to today, the fertility rate has crashed from about six children per woman to around ______.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 46 From late 1940s to today, the fertility rate has crashed from about six children per woman to just about two. The fertility rate in India, in 2022, is 2.159. The total fertility rate of a population is the average number of children that would be born to a woman over her lifetime if she were to experience the exact current age-specific fertility rates through her lifetime that she were to live from birth until the end of her reproductive life.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 47

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Life expectancy in India has more than doubled since Independence - from around 32 years in the late 1940s to 70 years or so today. Many countries have done even better, but this is still a historical achievement. Over the same period, the fertility rate has crashed, thus liberating women from the shackles of repeated child-bearing and child care. All this is good news, but it also creates a new challenge - the ageing of the population. The share of the elderly (persons aged 60 years and above) in India's population, close to 9% in 2011, is growing fast and may reach 18% by 2036 according to the National Commission on Population. If India is to ensure a decent quality of life for the elderly in the near future, planning and providing for it must begin today. India has important schemes of non-contributory pensions for the elderly, widowed women, and disabled persons under the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP). Alas, eligibility for NSAP is restricted to below poverty line (BPL) families, based on outdated and unreliable BPL lists, some of which are 20 years old.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a pension scheme for senior citizens aged 60 years and above.

Statement II: Under the scheme, the pensioner will receive an assured return of 7.40% p.a. for the policy duration of 10 years.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 47 Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a pension scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for senior citizens aged 60 years and above and was available from 4th May, 2017 to 31st March, 2020. The scheme was extended up to 31st March, 2023 for a further period of three years beyond 31st March, 2020.

The scheme can be bought via online and offline modes from Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India. The main aim of the scheme is to provide senior citizens with a regular pension during the time when there is a fall in interest rates. Under the scheme, the pensioner will receive an assured return of 7.40% p.a. for the policy duration of 10 years. In case the pensioner survives the duration of the policy, the pension will be paid in arrears. The pensioner can also choose the mode by which the pension payment must be made.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 48

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Life expectancy in India has more than doubled since Independence - from around 32 years in the late 1940s to 70 years or so today. Many countries have done even better, but this is still a historical achievement. Over the same period, the fertility rate has crashed, thus liberating women from the shackles of repeated child-bearing and child care. All this is good news, but it also creates a new challenge - the ageing of the population. The share of the elderly (persons aged 60 years and above) in India's population, close to 9% in 2011, is growing fast and may reach 18% by 2036 according to the National Commission on Population. If India is to ensure a decent quality of life for the elderly in the near future, planning and providing for it must begin today. India has important schemes of non-contributory pensions for the elderly, widowed women, and disabled persons under the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP). Alas, eligibility for NSAP is restricted to below poverty line (BPL) families, based on outdated and unreliable BPL lists, some of which are 20 years old.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. What was the theme of the United Nations International Day of Older Persons for the year 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 48 The International Day of Older Persons is observed each year on October 1. On December 14, 1990, the United Nations General Assembly voted to establish October 1 as the International Day of Older Persons as recorded in Resolution 45/106. The overall umbrella theme for the United Nations International Day of Older Persons in 2022 was "Resilience of Older Persons in a Changing World". This theme would be celebrated by the NGO Committees on Ageing in New York, Geneva and Vienna – each with a unique and complementary approach to the overall theme.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 49

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Life expectancy in India has more than doubled since Independence - from around 32 years in the late 1940s to 70 years or so today. Many countries have done even better, but this is still a historical achievement. Over the same period, the fertility rate has crashed, thus liberating women from the shackles of repeated child-bearing and child care. All this is good news, but it also creates a new challenge - the ageing of the population. The share of the elderly (persons aged 60 years and above) in India's population, close to 9% in 2011, is growing fast and may reach 18% by 2036 according to the National Commission on Population. If India is to ensure a decent quality of life for the elderly in the near future, planning and providing for it must begin today. India has important schemes of non-contributory pensions for the elderly, widowed women, and disabled persons under the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP). Alas, eligibility for NSAP is restricted to below poverty line (BPL) families, based on outdated and unreliable BPL lists, some of which are 20 years old.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. Which ministry administers the 'National Social Assistance Programme'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 49 The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a welfare programme administered by the Ministry of Rural Development. This programme has been implemented in rural areas as well as the urban areas. NSAP represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the 'Directive Principles of State Policy' enshrined in the Constitution of India which enjoin upon the state to undertake within its means a number of welfare measures.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 50

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Life expectancy in India has more than doubled since Independence - from around 32 years in the late 1940s to 70 years or so today. Many countries have done even better, but this is still a historical achievement. Over the same period, the fertility rate has crashed, thus liberating women from the shackles of repeated child-bearing and child care. All this is good news, but it also creates a new challenge - the ageing of the population. The share of the elderly (persons aged 60 years and above) in India's population, close to 9% in 2011, is growing fast and may reach 18% by 2036 according to the National Commission on Population. If India is to ensure a decent quality of life for the elderly in the near future, planning and providing for it must begin today. India has important schemes of non-contributory pensions for the elderly, widowed women, and disabled persons under the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP). Alas, eligibility for NSAP is restricted to below poverty line (BPL) families, based on outdated and unreliable BPL lists, some of which are 20 years old.

[Source - The Hindu, September 15, 2022]

Q. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is a ministry of the Government of India dealing in personnel matters, especially with issues concerning recruitment, training, career development, staff welfare as well as the post-retirement dispensation. Who is its in-charge as of 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 50 The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is a ministry of the Government of India dealing in personnel matters, especially with issues concerning recruitment, training, career development, staff welfare as well as the post-retirement dispensation. Shri Narendra Modi heads the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Department of Atomic Energy, and Department of Space.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 51

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is in the eye of the storm again as Opposition parties allege that the federal agency is targeting them. Nine Indian states have, so far, withdrawn consent to the CBI for prosecution in their respective jurisdictions and, this month, signals emerged that Bihar, which recently saw a change in government, could soon be the 10th. Unlike the National Investigation Agency (NIA), which has a nationwide mandate for investigating terrorism-related cases, the CBI needs consent of the states to operate. As expected, most of such states that withdrew consent were ruled by parties opposed to the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Distrust in a central security agency by a third of India's states underlines the weakening federal structure of the Constitution and the spirit of cooperative federalism. Serious questions emerge from the CBI's shrinking jurisdiction. Does this reflect on the nature or the quality of investigation? Is this purely a political move in a bitter feud between the ruling party and Opposition? What fallout will it have on the war against corruption? While the role of Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) came in for scrutiny in the 1970s, the CBI maintained a clean record, notching up successes in crime busting and investigation.

[Source: Hindustan Times, September 29, 2022]

Q. Mark the incorrect statement about CBI.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 51 The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating agency of India. It operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. Originally set up to investigate bribery and governmental corruption, in 1965 it received expanded jurisdiction to investigate breaches of central laws enforceable by the Government of India, multi-state organised crime, multi-agency or international cases. The agency has been known to investigate several economic crimes, special crimes, cases of corruption and other cases. The CBI is exempted from the provisions of the Right to Information Act.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 52

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is in the eye of the storm again as Opposition parties allege that the federal agency is targeting them. Nine Indian states have, so far, withdrawn consent to the CBI for prosecution in their respective jurisdictions and, this month, signals emerged that Bihar, which recently saw a change in government, could soon be the 10th. Unlike the National Investigation Agency (NIA), which has a nationwide mandate for investigating terrorism-related cases, the CBI needs consent of the states to operate. As expected, most of such states that withdrew consent were ruled by parties opposed to the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Distrust in a central security agency by a third of India's states underlines the weakening federal structure of the Constitution and the spirit of cooperative federalism. Serious questions emerge from the CBI's shrinking jurisdiction. Does this reflect on the nature or the quality of investigation? Is this purely a political move in a bitter feud between the ruling party and Opposition? What fallout will it have on the war against corruption? While the role of Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) came in for scrutiny in the 1970s, the CBI maintained a clean record, notching up successes in crime busting and investigation.

[Source: Hindustan Times, September 29, 2022]

Q. The CBI derives its power to investigate from the

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 52 The CBI is not a statutory body but derives its power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. It provides assistance to the Central Vigilance Commission and the Lokpal.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 53

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is in the eye of the storm again as Opposition parties allege that the federal agency is targeting them. Nine Indian states have, so far, withdrawn consent to the CBI for prosecution in their respective jurisdictions and, this month, signals emerged that Bihar, which recently saw a change in government, could soon be the 10th. Unlike the National Investigation Agency (NIA), which has a nationwide mandate for investigating terrorism-related cases, the CBI needs consent of the states to operate. As expected, most of such states that withdrew consent were ruled by parties opposed to the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Distrust in a central security agency by a third of India's states underlines the weakening federal structure of the Constitution and the spirit of cooperative federalism. Serious questions emerge from the CBI's shrinking jurisdiction. Does this reflect on the nature or the quality of investigation? Is this purely a political move in a bitter feud between the ruling party and Opposition? What fallout will it have on the war against corruption? While the role of Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) came in for scrutiny in the 1970s, the CBI maintained a clean record, notching up successes in crime busting and investigation.

[Source: Hindustan Times, September 29, 2022]

Q. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the primary counter-terrorist task force of India. Which among the following led to its emergence?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 53 The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the primary counter-terrorist task force of India. The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs. The agency came into existence with the enactment of the National Investigation Agency Act 2008, by the Parliament of India on 31st December, 2008, and was passed after the deadly 26/11 terror attack in Mumbai.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 54

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is in the eye of the storm again as Opposition parties allege that the federal agency is targeting them. Nine Indian states have, so far, withdrawn consent to the CBI for prosecution in their respective jurisdictions and, this month, signals emerged that Bihar, which recently saw a change in government, could soon be the 10th. Unlike the National Investigation Agency (NIA), which has a nationwide mandate for investigating terrorism-related cases, the CBI needs consent of the states to operate. As expected, most of such states that withdrew consent were ruled by parties opposed to the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Distrust in a central security agency by a third of India's states underlines the weakening federal structure of the Constitution and the spirit of cooperative federalism. Serious questions emerge from the CBI's shrinking jurisdiction. Does this reflect on the nature or the quality of investigation? Is this purely a political move in a bitter feud between the ruling party and Opposition? What fallout will it have on the war against corruption? While the role of Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) came in for scrutiny in the 1970s, the CBI maintained a clean record, notching up successes in crime busting and investigation.

[Source: Hindustan Times, September 29, 2022]

Q. The CBI is India's officially designated single point of contact for liaison with the Interpol. Where is the Interpol headquartered?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 54 The International Criminal Police Organisation, commonly known as Interpol, is an international organisation that facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control. Headquartered in Lyon, France, it is the world's largest international police organisation, with seven regional bureaus worldwide and a 'National Central Bureau' in all 195 member states.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 55

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is in the eye of the storm again as Opposition parties allege that the federal agency is targeting them. Nine Indian states have, so far, withdrawn consent to the CBI for prosecution in their respective jurisdictions and, this month, signals emerged that Bihar, which recently saw a change in government, could soon be the 10th. Unlike the National Investigation Agency (NIA), which has a nationwide mandate for investigating terrorism-related cases, the CBI needs consent of the states to operate. As expected, most of such states that withdrew consent were ruled by parties opposed to the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Distrust in a central security agency by a third of India's states underlines the weakening federal structure of the Constitution and the spirit of cooperative federalism. Serious questions emerge from the CBI's shrinking jurisdiction. Does this reflect on the nature or the quality of investigation? Is this purely a political move in a bitter feud between the ruling party and Opposition? What fallout will it have on the war against corruption? While the role of Intelligence Bureau (IB) and the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) came in for scrutiny in the 1970s, the CBI maintained a clean record, notching up successes in crime busting and investigation.

[Source: Hindustan Times, September 29, 2022]

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Intelligence Bureau was founded in 1787 as 'Central Special Branch' by the British Indian government.

Statement II: IB's intelligence failure in the Sino-Indian War of 1962 and the Indo-Pakistan war of 1965 led to the formation of RAW.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 55 Intelligence Bureau was founded in 1887 as 'Central Special Branch' by the British Indian government.

While Intelligence Bureau (IB) is the internal intelligence agency, Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) is the external intelligence agency. Foreign intelligence was initially handled by the Intelligence Bureau (IB), but the intelligence failure in the Sino-Indian War of 1962 and the Indo-Pakistan war of 1965 created a need for a separate external intelligence agency. In 1968, India's first foreign intelligence agency, the Research and Analysis Wing, was established.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 56

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has joined hands with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to undertake collaborative research and technical analysis in areas of mutual interest revolving around historical places and ancient sites in the country. The tie-up will give an impetus to studies in the field of geoarchaeology, a branch that deals with the geological analysis of archaeological sites, terrain composition and the anthropological and natural impact on the site or structure over the years. A memorandum of understanding was signed between the GSI and the ASI a few days ago, laying out the broad framework of the activities to be undertaken by the two agencies. Also, the analysis of the soil composition can produce important information on the impact climatic, seismic, tectonic or man-made activities over the centuries and millennia have had on both, structures that are still standing or have crumbled or have been buried. There are a number of settlements that have been excavated after having remained buried for thousands of years, revealing structures, human remains, artefacts, and weapons of a bygone time.

[Source - The Tribune, September 18, 2022]

Q. Where is the headquarters of Geological Survey of India located?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 56 With its headquarters in Kolkata, GSI has six regional offices at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong, Kolkata, and offices in almost all the states of the country.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 57

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has joined hands with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to undertake collaborative research and technical analysis in areas of mutual interest revolving around historical places and ancient sites in the country. The tie-up will give an impetus to studies in the field of geoarchaeology, a branch that deals with the geological analysis of archaeological sites, terrain composition and the anthropological and natural impact on the site or structure over the years. A memorandum of understanding was signed between the GSI and the ASI a few days ago, laying out the broad framework of the activities to be undertaken by the two agencies. Also, the analysis of the soil composition can produce important information on the impact climatic, seismic, tectonic or man-made activities over the centuries and millennia have had on both, structures that are still standing or have crumbled or have been buried. There are a number of settlements that have been excavated after having remained buried for thousands of years, revealing structures, human remains, artefacts, and weapons of a bygone time.

[Source - The Tribune, September 18, 2022]

Q. Match the following:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 57 Meenakshi Amman Temple is one of the highlights of the city of Madurai in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Madurai has been inhabited for over two thousand years, and is not only one of the oldest cities of India, but it is also one of the oldest, continuously inhabited cities of the world. The Konark Sun Temple, also known as the Black Pagoda, is in the Indian state of Odisha. The temple was built by the Eastern Ganga Dynasty during the mid 13th century. The Khajuraho group of monuments can be found in the Chhatarpur district of the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh; more specifically in the town of Khajuraho. The various temples were built in the 10th and 11th centuries by the Chandela Rajput dynasty. Nalanda is one of the oldest centres of higher learning and education, and an ancient Buddhist Monastery in India. It is located in the Indian state of Bihar which was known to be the ancient kingdom of Magadha.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 58

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has joined hands with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to undertake collaborative research and technical analysis in areas of mutual interest revolving around historical places and ancient sites in the country. The tie-up will give an impetus to studies in the field of geoarchaeology, a branch that deals with the geological analysis of archaeological sites, terrain composition and the anthropological and natural impact on the site or structure over the years. A memorandum of understanding was signed between the GSI and the ASI a few days ago, laying out the broad framework of the activities to be undertaken by the two agencies. Also, the analysis of the soil composition can produce important information on the impact climatic, seismic, tectonic or man-made activities over the centuries and millennia have had on both, structures that are still standing or have crumbled or have been buried. There are a number of settlements that have been excavated after having remained buried for thousands of years, revealing structures, human remains, artefacts, and weapons of a bygone time.

[Source - The Tribune, September 18, 2022]

Q. In 2022, in which state did the ASI unearth 12,000-year-old artefacts indicating four civilisations?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 58 The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) unearthed artefacts on the outskirts of Chennai, Tamil Nadu, suggesting some 12,000 years of continuous habitation. A 20-member team of researchers, surveyors and labourers discovered layers of artefacts belonging to at least four civilisations at Vadakkupattu village. The artefacts dating from Mesolithic age to Pallava period have made it a culturally and archaeologically important site.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 59

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has joined hands with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to undertake collaborative research and technical analysis in areas of mutual interest revolving around historical places and ancient sites in the country. The tie-up will give an impetus to studies in the field of geoarchaeology, a branch that deals with the geological analysis of archaeological sites, terrain composition and the anthropological and natural impact on the site or structure over the years. A memorandum of understanding was signed between the GSI and the ASI a few days ago, laying out the broad framework of the activities to be undertaken by the two agencies. Also, the analysis of the soil composition can produce important information on the impact climatic, seismic, tectonic or man-made activities over the centuries and millennia have had on both, structures that are still standing or have crumbled or have been buried. There are a number of settlements that have been excavated after having remained buried for thousands of years, revealing structures, human remains, artefacts, and weapons of a bygone time.

[Source - The Tribune, September 18, 2022]

Q. Name the act of the Parliament of India that provides for the preservation of ancient and historical monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 59 The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 is one of the landmark laws for the preservation of ancient and historical monuments. It is an act of the Parliament of the Government of India that provides for the preservation of ancient and historical monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance, for the regulation of archaeological excavations and for the protection of sculptures, carvings and other like objects. It was passed in 1958. The Archaeological Survey of India functions under the provisions of this act.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 60

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has joined hands with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to undertake collaborative research and technical analysis in areas of mutual interest revolving around historical places and ancient sites in the country. The tie-up will give an impetus to studies in the field of geoarchaeology, a branch that deals with the geological analysis of archaeological sites, terrain composition and the anthropological and natural impact on the site or structure over the years. A memorandum of understanding was signed between the GSI and the ASI a few days ago, laying out the broad framework of the activities to be undertaken by the two agencies. Also, the analysis of the soil composition can produce important information on the impact climatic, seismic, tectonic or man-made activities over the centuries and millennia have had on both, structures that are still standing or have crumbled or have been buried. There are a number of settlements that have been excavated after having remained buried for thousands of years, revealing structures, human remains, artefacts, and weapons of a bygone time.

[Source - The Tribune, September 18, 2022]

Q. Name the method used by archaeologists for determining the age of an object containing organic material.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 60 Radiocarbon dating (also referred to as carbon dating or carbon-14 dating) is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radiocarbon, a radioactive isotope of carbon. The method was developed in the late 1940s at the University of Chicago by Willard Libby.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 61

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The humble millets are set to go global. Karnataka's initiative as well as the Centre's efforts to get international recognition for these nutrient-rich crops have yielded results with the United Nations (U.N.) declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The U.N. General Assembly recently adopted a resolution, sponsored by India and supported by more than 70 countries, declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The resolution is intended to increase public awareness on the health benefits of millets and their suitability for cultivation under tough conditions marked by climate change. The adoption of the resolution elated Karnataka's farm sector as the State, spearheaded by the then Agriculture Minister Krishna Byre Gowda, had put in efforts to give a push to the idea after its experiments in organising international organic and millets trade fairs yielded encouraging results. The Centre, which was convinced about such a proposal, had played a decisive role in building consensus among the other countries.

Q. Year 2022 has been declared as the:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 61 The UN General Assembly accepted, by consensus, a resolution proclaiming 2022 as the International Year of Basic Sciences for Sustainable Development. The resolution was presented by Honduras and co-sponsored by 36 countries, including Brazil, India, Israel, Japan, Russian Federation, South Africa, Thailand, and Vietnam.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 62

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The humble millets are set to go global. Karnataka's initiative as well as the Centre's efforts to get international recognition for these nutrient-rich crops have yielded results with the United Nations (U.N.) declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The U.N. General Assembly recently adopted a resolution, sponsored by India and supported by more than 70 countries, declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The resolution is intended to increase public awareness on the health benefits of millets and their suitability for cultivation under tough conditions marked by climate change. The adoption of the resolution elated Karnataka's farm sector as the State, spearheaded by the then Agriculture Minister Krishna Byre Gowda, had put in efforts to give a push to the idea after its experiments in organising international organic and millets trade fairs yielded encouraging results. The Centre, which was convinced about such a proposal, had played a decisive role in building consensus among the other countries.

Q. Consider the following statements about the Millet Conclave 2022 and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the Millet Challenge for startups.

Statement II: She also announced a grant for the establishment of the 'Millet Value Chain Park'.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 62 Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the Millet Challenge for startups, with three winners receiving a seed grant of Rs. 1 crore each to design and develop innovative solutions for and across the millets value chain. She also announced a Rs. 25 crore NABARD Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) grant to the University of Agricultural Sciences, Raichur, for the establishment of the 'Millet Value Chain Park', an incubation centre for processing, value addition, and capacity building for millet promotion.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 63

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The humble millets are set to go global. Karnataka's initiative as well as the Centre's efforts to get international recognition for these nutrient-rich crops have yielded results with the United Nations (U.N.) declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The U.N. General Assembly recently adopted a resolution, sponsored by India and supported by more than 70 countries, declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The resolution is intended to increase public awareness on the health benefits of millets and their suitability for cultivation under tough conditions marked by climate change. The adoption of the resolution elated Karnataka's farm sector as the State, spearheaded by the then Agriculture Minister Krishna Byre Gowda, had put in efforts to give a push to the idea after its experiments in organising international organic and millets trade fairs yielded encouraging results. The Centre, which was convinced about such a proposal, had played a decisive role in building consensus among the other countries.

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Assertion (A): Millets have been given the status of 'Famine Reserves'.

Reason (R): Millets can be stored for a prolonged period under ordinary conditions.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 63 The prolonged and easy storability of millets under ordinary conditions has given them the status of 'Famine Reserves' and this feature is of great importance for India, as agriculture of our country suffers from unexpected changes in the monsoon. Millets can not only grow in poor climatic or soil conditions and provide nutritious grain as well as fodder, but these can also very well fit into multiple cropping systems under irrigation as well as dryland farming due to their short growing season.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 64

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The humble millets are set to go global. Karnataka's initiative as well as the Centre's efforts to get international recognition for these nutrient-rich crops have yielded results with the United Nations (U.N.) declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The U.N. General Assembly recently adopted a resolution, sponsored by India and supported by more than 70 countries, declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The resolution is intended to increase public awareness on the health benefits of millets and their suitability for cultivation under tough conditions marked by climate change. The adoption of the resolution elated Karnataka's farm sector as the State, spearheaded by the then Agriculture Minister Krishna Byre Gowda, had put in efforts to give a push to the idea after its experiments in organising international organic and millets trade fairs yielded encouraging results. The Centre, which was convinced about such a proposal, had played a decisive role in building consensus among the other countries.

Q. Which among the following is not a type of millet grown in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 64 Millets are a highly varied group of small-seeded grasses, widely grown around the world as cereal crops or grains for fodder and human food. Millets are important crops in the semi-arid tropics of Asia and Africa (especially in India, Mali, Nigeria, and Niger), with 97% of millet production in developing countries. This crop is favored due to its productivity and short growing season under dry, high-temperature conditions. The millets commonly grown in India include Jowar (sorghum), Bajra (pearl millet), Ragi (finger millet), Jhangora (barnyard millet), Barri (Proso or common millet), Kangni (foxtail/ Italian millet), Kodra (Kodo millet), etc.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 65

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The humble millets are set to go global. Karnataka's initiative as well as the Centre's efforts to get international recognition for these nutrient-rich crops have yielded results with the United Nations (U.N.) declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The U.N. General Assembly recently adopted a resolution, sponsored by India and supported by more than 70 countries, declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The resolution is intended to increase public awareness on the health benefits of millets and their suitability for cultivation under tough conditions marked by climate change. The adoption of the resolution elated Karnataka's farm sector as the State, spearheaded by the then Agriculture Minister Krishna Byre Gowda, had put in efforts to give a push to the idea after its experiments in organising international organic and millets trade fairs yielded encouraging results. The Centre, which was convinced about such a proposal, had played a decisive role in building consensus among the other countries.

Q. Which of the following countries is the world's largest producer of millets?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 65 India is the largest producer of millets in the world with an annual production of around 10 million tonnes. It is followed by Niger, China, and Mali, in terms of millet production in the world.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 66

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court upheld amendments in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) which prescribe that at least 100 allottees, or 10% of the total allottees of a project, whichever was less, from the same real estate project should support the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) in the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) against their property developer. Aggrieved allottees drawn from different projects of the same developer cannot form the 100.

A third amendment had given a 30-day deadline for existing applicants to find the requisite number of supporters to meet the threshold of 100, else their plea pending in the tribunal even before the commencement of the 2020 Act would be deemed as withdrawn. Under the erstwhile regime, even a single allottee could initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) against his property developer. There was no need to garner support from other allottees.

There can be hundreds or even thousands of allottees in a project. If a single allottee, as a financial creditor, is allowed to move an application, the interests of all the other allottees may be put in peril. Other allottees may have a different take of the whole scenario. Some of them may approach the Authority under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act of 2016. Others may, instead, resort to the Consumer Protection Act. The remedy of a civil suit is, no doubt, not ruled out, Justice K. M. Joseph, who authored the judgement for the Bench, reasoned.

The court said allottees of a real estate project are a heterogenous group. A majority of them may want to give more time to the developer to complete the project. An individual allottee, out of the heterogenous group, would throw the spanner in the works and bring the entire real estate project itself to a possible doom, Justice Joseph pointed out the flaw in the working of the previous regime before the amendments.

The 474-page judgement, based on petitions filed by allottees of real estate projects and money lenders who finance such property endeavours, said there is a sound rationale behind the law's requirement that the 100 applicants should be from the same project. Several allottees bunch together from various projects would lead to confusion as their complaints would vary and make the insolvency resolution process cumbersome.

Q. Imagine a situation that a real estate project has a total of 235 allottees, out of which 25 persons are not happy with the delay of the project that is approximately 6 months. Can these allottees approach NCLT to initiate a corporate insolvency resolution process?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 66 At least 100 allottees or 10% of the total allottees of a project, whichever was less, from the same real estate project should support the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process in the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) against their property developer. In the instant case, the 10% criterion is fulfilled; therefore, they can approach NCLT.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 67

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court upheld amendments in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) which prescribe that at least 100 allottees, or 10% of the total allottees of a project, whichever was less, from the same real estate project should support the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) in the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) against their property developer. Aggrieved allottees drawn from different projects of the same developer cannot form the 100.

A third amendment had given a 30-day deadline for existing applicants to find the requisite number of supporters to meet the threshold of 100, else their plea pending in the tribunal even before the commencement of the 2020 Act would be deemed as withdrawn. Under the erstwhile regime, even a single allottee could initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) against his property developer. There was no need to garner support from other allottees.

There can be hundreds or even thousands of allottees in a project. If a single allottee, as a financial creditor, is allowed to move an application, the interests of all the other allottees may be put in peril. Other allottees may have a different take of the whole scenario. Some of them may approach the Authority under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act of 2016. Others may, instead, resort to the Consumer Protection Act. The remedy of a civil suit is, no doubt, not ruled out, Justice K. M. Joseph, who authored the judgement for the Bench, reasoned.

The court said allottees of a real estate project are a heterogenous group. A majority of them may want to give more time to the developer to complete the project. An individual allottee, out of the heterogenous group, would throw the spanner in the works and bring the entire real estate project itself to a possible doom, Justice Joseph pointed out the flaw in the working of the previous regime before the amendments.

The 474-page judgement, based on petitions filed by allottees of real estate projects and money lenders who finance such property endeavours, said there is a sound rationale behind the law's requirement that the 100 applicants should be from the same project. Several allottees bunch together from various projects would lead to confusion as their complaints would vary and make the insolvency resolution process cumbersome.

Q. A real estate project has less than 50 allottees, and three people are not happy with the project's delay. What option they have after the new amendment in IBC, which the Supreme Court upheld?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 67 The number of allottees is 50; hence, 5 people are needed to initiate CIRP. Three people are already there, so two more people are needed to reach the minimum threshold to approach NCLT for the initiation of CIRP.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 68

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court upheld amendments in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) which prescribe that at least 100 allottees, or 10% of the total allottees of a project, whichever was less, from the same real estate project should support the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) in the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) against their property developer. Aggrieved allottees drawn from different projects of the same developer cannot form the 100.

A third amendment had given a 30-day deadline for existing applicants to find the requisite number of supporters to meet the threshold of 100, else their plea pending in the tribunal even before the commencement of the 2020 Act would be deemed as withdrawn. Under the erstwhile regime, even a single allottee could initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) against his property developer. There was no need to garner support from other allottees.

There can be hundreds or even thousands of allottees in a project. If a single allottee, as a financial creditor, is allowed to move an application, the interests of all the other allottees may be put in peril. Other allottees may have a different take of the whole scenario. Some of them may approach the Authority under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act of 2016. Others may, instead, resort to the Consumer Protection Act. The remedy of a civil suit is, no doubt, not ruled out, Justice K. M. Joseph, who authored the judgement for the Bench, reasoned.

The court said allottees of a real estate project are a heterogenous group. A majority of them may want to give more time to the developer to complete the project. An individual allottee, out of the heterogenous group, would throw the spanner in the works and bring the entire real estate project itself to a possible doom, Justice Joseph pointed out the flaw in the working of the previous regime before the amendments.

The 474-page judgement, based on petitions filed by allottees of real estate projects and money lenders who finance such property endeavours, said there is a sound rationale behind the law's requirement that the 100 applicants should be from the same project. Several allottees bunch together from various projects would lead to confusion as their complaints would vary and make the insolvency resolution process cumbersome.

Q. Based on the understanding of the passage, which of the following statements is/are false?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 68 Option 2 is a false statement. This was the case in the erstwhile IBC regime. The new regime requires a minimum of 100 or 10%, whichever is less.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 69

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court upheld amendments in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) which prescribe that at least 100 allottees, or 10% of the total allottees of a project, whichever was less, from the same real estate project should support the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) in the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) against their property developer. Aggrieved allottees drawn from different projects of the same developer cannot form the 100.

A third amendment had given a 30-day deadline for existing applicants to find the requisite number of supporters to meet the threshold of 100, else their plea pending in the tribunal even before the commencement of the 2020 Act would be deemed as withdrawn. Under the erstwhile regime, even a single allottee could initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) against his property developer. There was no need to garner support from other allottees.

There can be hundreds or even thousands of allottees in a project. If a single allottee, as a financial creditor, is allowed to move an application, the interests of all the other allottees may be put in peril. Other allottees may have a different take of the whole scenario. Some of them may approach the Authority under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act of 2016. Others may, instead, resort to the Consumer Protection Act. The remedy of a civil suit is, no doubt, not ruled out, Justice K. M. Joseph, who authored the judgement for the Bench, reasoned.

The court said allottees of a real estate project are a heterogenous group. A majority of them may want to give more time to the developer to complete the project. An individual allottee, out of the heterogenous group, would throw the spanner in the works and bring the entire real estate project itself to a possible doom, Justice Joseph pointed out the flaw in the working of the previous regime before the amendments.

The 474-page judgement, based on petitions filed by allottees of real estate projects and money lenders who finance such property endeavours, said there is a sound rationale behind the law's requirement that the 100 applicants should be from the same project. Several allottees bunch together from various projects would lead to confusion as their complaints would vary and make the insolvency resolution process cumbersome.

Q. Imagine a situation that in the erstwhile IBC regime, two persons are not happy with the delay of three years in a real estate project and the total number of allottees in the project is 500. What course of action can be taken by these two persons?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 69 The passage makes it very clear that under the erstwhile regime, even a single allottee could initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process against his property developer. There is no need to garner support from other allottees. Other remedies like authority under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act of 2016 and the Consumer Protection Act are also provided to the allottees.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 70

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court upheld amendments in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) which prescribe that at least 100 allottees, or 10% of the total allottees of a project, whichever was less, from the same real estate project should support the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) in the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) against their property developer. Aggrieved allottees drawn from different projects of the same developer cannot form the 100.

A third amendment had given a 30-day deadline for existing applicants to find the requisite number of supporters to meet the threshold of 100, else their plea pending in the tribunal even before the commencement of the 2020 Act would be deemed as withdrawn. Under the erstwhile regime, even a single allottee could initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) against his property developer. There was no need to garner support from other allottees.

There can be hundreds or even thousands of allottees in a project. If a single allottee, as a financial creditor, is allowed to move an application, the interests of all the other allottees may be put in peril. Other allottees may have a different take of the whole scenario. Some of them may approach the Authority under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act of 2016. Others may, instead, resort to the Consumer Protection Act. The remedy of a civil suit is, no doubt, not ruled out, Justice K. M. Joseph, who authored the judgement for the Bench, reasoned.

The court said allottees of a real estate project are a heterogenous group. A majority of them may want to give more time to the developer to complete the project. An individual allottee, out of the heterogenous group, would throw the spanner in the works and bring the entire real estate project itself to a possible doom, Justice Joseph pointed out the flaw in the working of the previous regime before the amendments.

The 474-page judgement, based on petitions filed by allottees of real estate projects and money lenders who finance such property endeavours, said there is a sound rationale behind the law's requirement that the 100 applicants should be from the same project. Several allottees bunch together from various projects would lead to confusion as their complaints would vary and make the insolvency resolution process cumbersome.

Q. What could be the rationale behind prescribing that at least 100 allottees or 10% of the total allottees of a project, whichever was less, from the same real estate project should support the initiation of corporate insolvency resolution process in the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) against their property developer?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 70 There can be hundreds or even thousands of allottees in a project. If a single allottee, as a financial creditor, is allowed to move an application, the interests of all the other allottees may be put in peril. Other allottees may have a different take of the whole scenario. Some of them may approach the Authority under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act of 2016. Others may, instead, resort to the Consumer Protection Act. The remedy of a civil suit is, no doubt, not ruled out, Justice K. M. Joseph, who authored the judgement for the Bench, reasoned.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 71

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Constitution of India, in Articles 19 and 21, every person throughout the territory of India is conferred with the right to freedom of movement and is guaranteed personal liberty. In furtherance of this objective set up by the Constitution, the Indian Penal Code lays down penal sanctions in case a person violates the freedom of movement or personal liberty of another. Sections 339 and 340 of Indian Penal Code define wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement, respectively. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, makes wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement punishable under Section 339 to 348.

According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, "Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person." Further, the section also lays down an exception, which is that if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint. To establish the offence of wrongful restraint, the complainant must prove that there was an obstruction; the obstruction prevented the complainant from proceeding in any direction; the person/complainant so proceeding must have a right to proceed in the direction concerned.

Wrongful confinement is defined under Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code. Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines wrongful confinement as: "Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said "wrongfully to confine" that person." Section 342 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person shall be punished with simple imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both. The offence under Section 340 of the Code is cognizable, bailable compoundable and triable by any Magistrate. Section 343 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days or more, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. The offence under this section is cognizable, bailable, compoundable with the permission of the court and triable by any Magistrate.

Q. Zarin obstructs the path to Abhi's home which is through Zarin's parking space. Abhi has the right to pass from that path as it is the only way to his home. Zarin's obstruction is not done in food faith. Will this be considered wrongful restraint?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 71 Yes, obstruction by Zarin is wrongful restraint as the act of obstructing Abhi by her was not done in good faith.

According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, "Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person." Further, the section also lays down an exception, which is that if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstruct a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint.

But here in this given case, it is clear that Zarin has done this voluntarily.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 72

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Constitution of India, in Articles 19 and 21, every person throughout the territory of India is conferred with the right to freedom of movement and is guaranteed personal liberty. In furtherance of this objective set up by the Constitution, the Indian Penal Code lays down penal sanctions in case a person violates the freedom of movement or personal liberty of another. Sections 339 and 340 of Indian Penal Code define wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement, respectively. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, makes wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement punishable under Section 339 to 348.

According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, "Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person." Further, the section also lays down an exception, which is that if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint. To establish the offence of wrongful restraint, the complainant must prove that there was an obstruction; the obstruction prevented the complainant from proceeding in any direction; the person/complainant so proceeding must have a right to proceed in the direction concerned.

Wrongful confinement is defined under Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code. Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines wrongful confinement as: "Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said "wrongfully to confine" that person." Section 342 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person shall be punished with simple imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both. The offence under Section 340 of the Code is cognizable, bailable compoundable and triable by any Magistrate. Section 343 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days or more, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. The offence under this section is cognizable, bailable, compoundable with the permission of the court and triable by any Magistrate.

Q. Deepa lives in ABC apartment on the 6th floor. Deepa being health conscious prefers taking the stairs rather than lift to her floor. Mr. Verma, who lives at the 3rd floor, has a dog which usually sleeps peacefully outside Verma's flat. Deepa being scared of dogs couldn't make it to her floor. Is this a case of wrongful restraint? Decide

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 72 According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, "Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person."

Therefore, this is not a case of wrongful restraint as Mr. Verma has not specifically restrained Deepa from using the stairs.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 73

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Constitution of India, in Articles 19 and 21, every person throughout the territory of India is conferred with the right to freedom of movement and is guaranteed personal liberty. In furtherance of this objective set up by the Constitution, the Indian Penal Code lays down penal sanctions in case a person violates the freedom of movement or personal liberty of another. Sections 339 and 340 of Indian Penal Code define wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement, respectively. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, makes wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement punishable under Section 339 to 348.

According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, "Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person." Further, the section also lays down an exception, which is that if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint. To establish the offence of wrongful restraint, the complainant must prove that there was an obstruction; the obstruction prevented the complainant from proceeding in any direction; the person/complainant so proceeding must have a right to proceed in the direction concerned.

Wrongful confinement is defined under Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code. Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines wrongful confinement as: "Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said "wrongfully to confine" that person." Section 342 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person shall be punished with simple imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both. The offence under Section 340 of the Code is cognizable, bailable compoundable and triable by any Magistrate. Section 343 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days or more, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. The offence under this section is cognizable, bailable, compoundable with the permission of the court and triable by any Magistrate.

Q. Mahesh tied Lalit, his nephew, to a tree in the village ground. Mahesh forgot to untie Lalit and he remained tied there for next three days. Lalit filed a case against Mahesh. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 73 Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines wrongful confinement as: "Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said "wrongfully to confine" that person."

Therefore, this is a case of wrongful confinement as Lalit was tied to a tree in the village ground and he was wrongfully confined without his free will. Mahesh should be sentenced with imprisonment or fine.

Section 343 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days or more, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. The offence under this section is cognizable, bailable, compoundable with the permission of the court and triable by any Magistrate.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 74

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Constitution of India, in Articles 19 and 21, every person throughout the territory of India is conferred with the right to freedom of movement and is guaranteed personal liberty. In furtherance of this objective set up by the Constitution, the Indian Penal Code lays down penal sanctions in case a person violates the freedom of movement or personal liberty of another. Sections 339 and 340 of Indian Penal Code define wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement, respectively. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, makes wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement punishable under Section 339 to 348.

According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, "Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person." Further, the section also lays down an exception, which is that if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint. To establish the offence of wrongful restraint, the complainant must prove that there was an obstruction; the obstruction prevented the complainant from proceeding in any direction; the person/complainant so proceeding must have a right to proceed in the direction concerned.

Wrongful confinement is defined under Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code. Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines wrongful confinement as: "Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said "wrongfully to confine" that person." Section 342 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person shall be punished with simple imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both. The offence under Section 340 of the Code is cognizable, bailable compoundable and triable by any Magistrate. Section 343 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days or more, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. The offence under this section is cognizable, bailable, compoundable with the permission of the court and triable by any Magistrate.

Q. Ram and Sham jointly own a pond, where they both catch fishes. They sell it in the market to earn their living. The pond is located at Ram's premises. Ram, without any reason, denied Sham the access to the pond. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 74 This is a case of reasonable restriction as the pond is at located at Ram's premises. Hence, Ram has the right to deny the access to Sham. Therefore, he is justified in his action of restraining Sham.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 75

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Under the Constitution of India, in Articles 19 and 21, every person throughout the territory of India is conferred with the right to freedom of movement and is guaranteed personal liberty. In furtherance of this objective set up by the Constitution, the Indian Penal Code lays down penal sanctions in case a person violates the freedom of movement or personal liberty of another. Sections 339 and 340 of Indian Penal Code define wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement, respectively. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, makes wrongful restraint and wrongful confinement punishable under Section 339 to 348.

According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, "Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is said wrongfully to restrain that person." Further, the section also lays down an exception, which is that if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint. To establish the offence of wrongful restraint, the complainant must prove that there was an obstruction; the obstruction prevented the complainant from proceeding in any direction; the person/complainant so proceeding must have a right to proceed in the direction concerned.

Wrongful confinement is defined under Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code. Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defines wrongful confinement as: "Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits, is said "wrongfully to confine" that person." Section 342 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person shall be punished with simple imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both. The offence under Section 340 of the Code is cognizable, bailable compoundable and triable by any Magistrate. Section 343 of the Indian Penal Code says that whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days or more, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. The offence under this section is cognizable, bailable, compoundable with the permission of the court and triable by any Magistrate.

Q. Rajat threatens Riya not to leave her house. If Riya attempts to leave the house, Rajat would burn her house down. Is this a case of wrongful confinement?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 75 Wrongful confinement means that a person is wrongfully restrained from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits. Therefore, both statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 76

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, whoever, being the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.

For the purpose of this section, cruelty means any willful conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the woman. Cruelty is harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.

Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, explains how the above provision is to be presumed. It explains that where the question is whether the commission of suicide by a woman had been abetted by her husband or any relative of her husband and it is shown that she had committed suicide within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage and that her husband or such relative of her husband had subjected her to cruelty, the court may presume, having regard to all the other circumstances of the case, that such suicide had been abetted by her husband or by such relative of her husband.

The Code of Criminal Procedure provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code except upon a police report of facts which constitute such offence or upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence or by her father, mother, brother, sister, or by her father's or mother's brother or sister or with the leave of the court, by any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption.

Q. A man's friend, while he was away, convinced his wife that her husband planned to divorce her. This information caused the woman grief and led to her suicide. Is the husband liable?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 76 The section only applies against the husband or any of his relatives. His friend does not come under the purview of this provision.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 77

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, whoever, being the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.

For the purpose of this section, cruelty means any willful conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the woman. Cruelty is harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.

Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, explains how the above provision is to be presumed. It explains that where the question is whether the commission of suicide by a woman had been abetted by her husband or any relative of her husband and it is shown that she had committed suicide within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage and that her husband or such relative of her husband had subjected her to cruelty, the court may presume, having regard to all the other circumstances of the case, that such suicide had been abetted by her husband or by such relative of her husband.

The Code of Criminal Procedure provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code except upon a police report of facts which constitute such offence or upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence or by her father, mother, brother, sister, or by her father's or mother's brother or sister or with the leave of the court, by any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption.

Q. A complaint went against a husband under Section 498A for cruelty against his wife. The marriage lasted for nine long years wherein she committed suicide in the last year. The court will presume in favour of whom?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 77 Since nine years have passed, the court will presume in favour of the husband. As per the passage, the husband would have been presumed guilty if it had happened within seven years of marriage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 78

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, whoever, being the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.

For the purpose of this section, cruelty means any willful conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the woman. Cruelty is harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.

Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, explains how the above provision is to be presumed. It explains that where the question is whether the commission of suicide by a woman had been abetted by her husband or any relative of her husband and it is shown that she had committed suicide within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage and that her husband or such relative of her husband had subjected her to cruelty, the court may presume, having regard to all the other circumstances of the case, that such suicide had been abetted by her husband or by such relative of her husband.

The Code of Criminal Procedure provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code except upon a police report of facts which constitute such offence or upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence or by her father, mother, brother, sister, or by her father's or mother's brother or sister or with the leave of the court, by any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption.

Q. The husband had been on the receiving end of his wife's abuse since marriage. Within just one year of marriage, he committed suicide. His parents are aggrieved and wish to file a complaint under Section 498A. Is it valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 78 Only the husband can be liable under Section 498A. The wife is the sole victim. The deceased husband's parents can seek no justice through this section.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 79

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, whoever, being the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.

For the purpose of this section, cruelty means any willful conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the woman. Cruelty is harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.

Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, explains how the above provision is to be presumed. It explains that where the question is whether the commission of suicide by a woman had been abetted by her husband or any relative of her husband and it is shown that she had committed suicide within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage and that her husband or such relative of her husband had subjected her to cruelty, the court may presume, having regard to all the other circumstances of the case, that such suicide had been abetted by her husband or by such relative of her husband.

The Code of Criminal Procedure provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code except upon a police report of facts which constitute such offence or upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence or by her father, mother, brother, sister, or by her father's or mother's brother or sister or with the leave of the court, by any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption.

Q. The husband's cruel nature against his wife caused her to go into depression. Seeing this, her uncle filed a complaint against the husband under Section 498 A. Will the complaint sustain?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 79 The complaint will sustain as it has been stated that the maternal or paternal uncle can file a complaint upon which a police report can be made. Therefore, 'None of the above' is the correct option.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 80

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, whoever, being the husband or the relative of the husband of a woman, subjects such woman to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.

For the purpose of this section, cruelty means any willful conduct which is of such a nature as is likely to drive the woman to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb or health (whether mental or physical) of the woman. Cruelty is harassment of the woman where such harassment is with a view to coercing her or any person related to her to meet any unlawful demand for any property or valuable security or is on account of failure by her or any person related to her to meet such demand.

Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, explains how the above provision is to be presumed. It explains that where the question is whether the commission of suicide by a woman had been abetted by her husband or any relative of her husband and it is shown that she had committed suicide within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage and that her husband or such relative of her husband had subjected her to cruelty, the court may presume, having regard to all the other circumstances of the case, that such suicide had been abetted by her husband or by such relative of her husband.

The Code of Criminal Procedure provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code except upon a police report of facts which constitute such offence or upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence or by her father, mother, brother, sister, or by her father's or mother's brother or sister or with the leave of the court, by any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption.

Q. After ten years of successful marriage, a heated argument between the spouses took place regarding financial issues. As the consequence of the argument, the wife and the husband ended up slapping each other. Both filed a suit under Section 498A and claimed it to be cruelty. Who will succeed?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 80 Neither party will succeed as slapping alone will not satisfy the test of cruelty under Section 498A. A mere slap is not likely to cause suicide, nor is it a grave injury.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 81

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution states that no human shall be denied of his right to life and personal liberty except if established by law, which means that the process must be fair, clear and not arbitrarily or oppressive.

Article 22(1) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that no police official can arrest any individual without informing the accused the reason/ground of his detainment/arrest. Section 50 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) says that every police official with authority to arrest someone without a warrant must inform the person getting arrested about the crime for which he is arrested and other relevant grounds for the arrest. This is the duty of the police official which he cannot refuse. Section 50A of the CrPC makes it compulsory for the person/police official arresting a person to inform of the arrest to any of his relatives or even friends who may have interest in the same.

Article 22(2) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the police official making an arrest must produce the arrested person before the Magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest; failing to do so would make him liable for wrongful detention. Section 50(2) of the CrPC provides that the arrested person has the right to get released on bail by making arrangement for the sureties or just inform him of his right when arrested without a warrant for an offence other than a non-cognisable offence.

The right to keep quiet does not have any mention in any Indian law; however, its authority can be derived from the CrPC as well as the Indian Evidence Act. The right to stay silent is principally related to the statement and confession made by the accused person in the court. In addition to this, it is the responsibility of the Magistrate to perceive if any statement or confession made by the accused person was voluntarily or was after the use of force and manipulation. Therefore, police or any other authority for that matter is not allowed to compel an accused person to speak anything in the court.

Section 41B states that every police official authorised to conduct the investigation/arrest must supply clear, visible and valid badge where the name and designation of the police official is clearly mentioned. Section 41D entitles an arrested person to a right to have one friend or relative or any other person who he wants by his side during his arrest.

Q. A police official was disguised undercover, without any police identifications, so as to be hidden for the purpose of making an arrest. While making the arrest, the accused was informed of the grounds for arrest. Is the arrest valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 81 Section 41B states that every police official authorised to conduct the investigation/arrest must supply clear, visible and valid badge.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 82

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution states that no human shall be denied of his right to life and personal liberty except if established by law, which means that the process must be fair, clear and not arbitrarily or oppressive.

Article 22(1) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that no police official can arrest any individual without informing the accused the reason/ground of his detainment/arrest. Section 50 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) says that every police official with authority to arrest someone without a warrant must inform the person getting arrested about the crime for which he is arrested and other relevant grounds for the arrest. This is the duty of the police official which he cannot refuse. Section 50A of the CrPC makes it compulsory for the person/police official arresting a person to inform of the arrest to any of his relatives or even friends who may have interest in the same.

Article 22(2) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the police official making an arrest must produce the arrested person before the Magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest; failing to do so would make him liable for wrongful detention. Section 50(2) of the CrPC provides that the arrested person has the right to get released on bail by making arrangement for the sureties or just inform him of his right when arrested without a warrant for an offence other than a non-cognisable offence.

The right to keep quiet does not have any mention in any Indian law; however, its authority can be derived from the CrPC as well as the Indian Evidence Act. The right to stay silent is principally related to the statement and confession made by the accused person in the court. In addition to this, it is the responsibility of the Magistrate to perceive if any statement or confession made by the accused person was voluntarily or was after the use of force and manipulation. Therefore, police or any other authority for that matter is not allowed to compel an accused person to speak anything in the court.

Section 41B states that every police official authorised to conduct the investigation/arrest must supply clear, visible and valid badge where the name and designation of the police official is clearly mentioned. Section 41D entitles an arrested person to a right to have one friend or relative or any other person who he wants by his side during his arrest.

Q. A long-time wanted suspect, who was on the run, was finally discovered for arrest. He was now an old man and wished for his son to accompany him during the arrest. The police refused this request and detained the accused; however, they informed his son. Is the arrest valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 82 Every person has the right to have a friend or relative by his side during the arrest, as stated in the passage. Since this was denied by the police, the arrest is invalid in the eyes of law.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 83

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution states that no human shall be denied of his right to life and personal liberty except if established by law, which means that the process must be fair, clear and not arbitrarily or oppressive.

Article 22(1) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that no police official can arrest any individual without informing the accused the reason/ground of his detainment/arrest. Section 50 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) says that every police official with authority to arrest someone without a warrant must inform the person getting arrested about the crime for which he is arrested and other relevant grounds for the arrest. This is the duty of the police official which he cannot refuse. Section 50A of the CrPC makes it compulsory for the person/police official arresting a person to inform of the arrest to any of his relatives or even friends who may have interest in the same.

Article 22(2) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the police official making an arrest must produce the arrested person before the Magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest; failing to do so would make him liable for wrongful detention. Section 50(2) of the CrPC provides that the arrested person has the right to get released on bail by making arrangement for the sureties or just inform him of his right when arrested without a warrant for an offence other than a non-cognisable offence.

The right to keep quiet does not have any mention in any Indian law; however, its authority can be derived from the CrPC as well as the Indian Evidence Act. The right to stay silent is principally related to the statement and confession made by the accused person in the court. In addition to this, it is the responsibility of the Magistrate to perceive if any statement or confession made by the accused person was voluntarily or was after the use of force and manipulation. Therefore, police or any other authority for that matter is not allowed to compel an accused person to speak anything in the court.

Section 41B states that every police official authorised to conduct the investigation/arrest must supply clear, visible and valid badge where the name and designation of the police official is clearly mentioned. Section 41D entitles an arrested person to a right to have one friend or relative or any other person who he wants by his side during his arrest.

Q. An arrest was made without a warrant for a non-cognisable offence. The police informed his family of the arrest. The detained person wished to be set free but the police officials denied allowing any way for that. Is the denial valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 83 On the careful understanding of the passage, the provisions of CrPC state that the arrested person shall be informed of his rights to prepare bail through a surety. Since the provision has not been fulfilled, the denial was not valid.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 84

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution states that no human shall be denied of his right to life and personal liberty except if established by law, which means that the process must be fair, clear and not arbitrarily or oppressive.

Article 22(1) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that no police official can arrest any individual without informing the accused the reason/ground of his detainment/arrest. Section 50 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) says that every police official with authority to arrest someone without a warrant must inform the person getting arrested about the crime for which he is arrested and other relevant grounds for the arrest. This is the duty of the police official which he cannot refuse. Section 50A of the CrPC makes it compulsory for the person/police official arresting a person to inform of the arrest to any of his relatives or even friends who may have interest in the same.

Article 22(2) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the police official making an arrest must produce the arrested person before the Magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest; failing to do so would make him liable for wrongful detention. Section 50(2) of the CrPC provides that the arrested person has the right to get released on bail by making arrangement for the sureties or just inform him of his right when arrested without a warrant for an offence other than a non-cognisable offence.

The right to keep quiet does not have any mention in any Indian law; however, its authority can be derived from the CrPC as well as the Indian Evidence Act. The right to stay silent is principally related to the statement and confession made by the accused person in the court. In addition to this, it is the responsibility of the Magistrate to perceive if any statement or confession made by the accused person was voluntarily or was after the use of force and manipulation. Therefore, police or any other authority for that matter is not allowed to compel an accused person to speak anything in the court.

Section 41B states that every police official authorised to conduct the investigation/arrest must supply clear, visible and valid badge where the name and designation of the police official is clearly mentioned. Section 41D entitles an arrested person to a right to have one friend or relative or any other person who he wants by his side during his arrest.

Q. After an arrest had been made, the police officials were busy on another high profile case which was to be solved at the earliest. A day had gone by since the arrest. The accused was then produced before the Magistrate. Is it valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 84 In the passage, as per Article 22(2) of the Indian Constitution, it has been stipulated that the police official making an arrest must produce the arrested person before the Magistrate within 24 hours. The mere fact that the police had another case in pipeline is no excuse to present the accused after the time lapse.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 85

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution states that no human shall be denied of his right to life and personal liberty except if established by law, which means that the process must be fair, clear and not arbitrarily or oppressive.

Article 22(1) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that no police official can arrest any individual without informing the accused the reason/ground of his detainment/arrest. Section 50 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) says that every police official with authority to arrest someone without a warrant must inform the person getting arrested about the crime for which he is arrested and other relevant grounds for the arrest. This is the duty of the police official which he cannot refuse. Section 50A of the CrPC makes it compulsory for the person/police official arresting a person to inform of the arrest to any of his relatives or even friends who may have interest in the same.

Article 22(2) of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the police official making an arrest must produce the arrested person before the Magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest; failing to do so would make him liable for wrongful detention. Section 50(2) of the CrPC provides that the arrested person has the right to get released on bail by making arrangement for the sureties or just inform him of his right when arrested without a warrant for an offence other than a non-cognisable offence.

The right to keep quiet does not have any mention in any Indian law; however, its authority can be derived from the CrPC as well as the Indian Evidence Act. The right to stay silent is principally related to the statement and confession made by the accused person in the court. In addition to this, it is the responsibility of the Magistrate to perceive if any statement or confession made by the accused person was voluntarily or was after the use of force and manipulation. Therefore, police or any other authority for that matter is not allowed to compel an accused person to speak anything in the court.

Section 41B states that every police official authorised to conduct the investigation/arrest must supply clear, visible and valid badge where the name and designation of the police official is clearly mentioned. Section 41D entitles an arrested person to a right to have one friend or relative or any other person who he wants by his side during his arrest.

Q. When a suspect was arrested and brought before a court, he was forced into confessing guilty before the court and was told by the arresting police to either confess now or suffer afterwards. How will the court determine this confession?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 85 This question is left to the magistrate to perceive whether it was manipulated, forced or voluntarily made with respect to every person's right to keep quiet.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 86

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.

The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.

The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.

According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.

It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. A couple approached a volunteer to operate as a surrogate to deliver a child for them. She was willing and they commissioned the same. Soon, after they obtained a divorce, neither claimed the child as theirs. Which of the following is correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 86 It has been very well stated in the passage that if the commissioning couple get separated or divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, even then the child is to be considered the legitimate child of the couple.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 87

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.

The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.

The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.

According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.

It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. A couple wished to have a surrogate to grant them a child in India. They were based in Dubai and commissioned the same through an agent. They had since forgotten about the same. When they returned and the child was brought to them, they found that the child was blind and rejected it. What would be the legal action?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 87 It is mandated under the Bill that if the couple is foreign or non-resident they must appoint a local guardian. Furthermore, they have a legal obligation to accept the child after birth, failing which will be regarded an offence.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 88

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.

The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.

The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.

According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.

It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. Both spouses were sterile and wished to avail surrogacy services. They found two donors and commissioned a surrogacy and received a child. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 88 On the careful reading of the passage, it can be stated that the Bill mandates one of the intended parents should be a donor. If this is not possible then adoption is the only way possible for them.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 89

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.

The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.

The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.

According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.

It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. Two minors approached a surrogate to deliver a child. They paid consideration and commissioned the same. Their parents allowed them to do so. After the child was born, the surrogate mother denied handing it over to the couple. The family and the surrogate mother filed a suit. Who will succeed in the suit?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 89 The contract is void as they are minors. The surrogate mother will be given compensation.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 90

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Law Commission of India submitted the 228th report on surrogacy in India and made the following observations, based on which the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) framed its guidelines in the year 2005 and drafted Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) Bill, 2008.

The Bill mandated that a foreigner or foreign couple not residing in India or a non-resident Indian individual or couple, seeking surrogacy in India to appoint a local guardian who would be legally mandated to take care of the surrogate during and after pregnancy till delivery of the child to the foreigner or foreign couple or the local guardian. The commissioning parents or parent were legally bound to accept the custody of the child irrespective of any abnormality that the child may have, and the refusal to do so was deemed an offence. A surrogate mother was to relinquish all parental rights over the child. The birth certificate in respect of a baby born through surrogacy was to bear the name(s) of genetic parents/parent of the baby.

The child born through surrogacy was to be presumed as the legitimate child of the couple or the single person, as the case may be. If the commissioning couple separated or got divorced after going for surrogacy but before the birth of the child, then also the child was to be considered the legitimate child of the couple. The Bill did not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time.

According to Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, all agreements are contracts, if they are made by free consent of parties competent to contract such as majority of age, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not expressly declared to be void. Therefore, if the surrogacy agreement satisfied these conditions, it was an enforceable contract. Thereafter, under section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, it could be the subject of a civil suit in a civil court for adjudication of all disputes related to the surrogacy agreement and for a declaration/injunction as to the relief prayed for.

It was mandated that one of the intended parents should be a donor as well, since it would help in developing a bond of love and affection with the child due to the existence of a biological relationship. It was also thought that the chances of child-abuse and neglect, often observed in cases of adoptions, would be reduced. In case the intended parent was single, he or she was supposed to be a donor to be able to have a surrogate child. Otherwise, adoption was the method used to get the child if the biological (natural) parents and adoptive parents were different.

Q. A couple ran a hospital which provides surrogacy services. They themselves wished to have children one day and commissioned three surrogates for that purpose. Is this valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 90 It has been stated in the passage that the Bill does not allow the couple or individual to utilise the service of more than one surrogate at any given time. Therefore, such a demand is invalid.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 91

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The word "kidnapping" has been derived from the word 'kid' meaning child and 'napping' to steal. Thus, the word literally means "child stealing". Kidnapping under the code is not confined to child stealing. It has been given wider connotation as meaning carrying away of a human being against his/her consent, or the consent of some person legally authorised to accord consent on behalf of such person.

Kidnapping is of two kinds: kidnapping from India, and kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Section 360 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from India. Whoever conveys any person beyond the limits of India without the consent of that person, or of some person legally authorised to consent on behalf of that person, is said to kidnap that person from India.

Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years of age if a male, or under eighteen years of age of a female, out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor, without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap such minor or person from lawful guardianship. This section does not extend to the act of any person who in good faith believes himself to be the father of an illegitimate child, or who in good faith believes himself to be entitled to the lawful custody of such child, unless such act is committed for an immoral or unlawful purpose.

Abduction in common language means carrying away of a person by fraud or force. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, is said to abduct that person.

In view of the definition, the word 'force' connotes actual force and not merely show or threat of force. Whoever kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be murdered or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered, shall be punished with imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.

Q. Veer, a police constable found Pooja on Mathura railway station. Pooja was kidnapped by a group of goons. She fled from the group of goons and approached Veer for help. Pooja informed Veer that goons still have her sister Priya with them. She requested Veer to help her. Veer promised Pooja that he would help her. He took Pooja to his home and asked her to stay there until he finds her sister. After a while Veer started to force Pooja to do the household chores. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 91 According to the passage and directions associated with it, it can not be the case of kidnapping and abduction. There is no provision explaining the meaning of wrongful confinement, so this cannot be the correct answer option. Therefore, the most suitable answer is that "Veer has committed no offence".
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 92

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The word "kidnapping" has been derived from the word 'kid' meaning child and 'napping' to steal. Thus, the word literally means "child stealing". Kidnapping under the code is not confined to child stealing. It has been given wider connotation as meaning carrying away of a human being against his/her consent, or the consent of some person legally authorised to accord consent on behalf of such person.

Kidnapping is of two kinds: kidnapping from India, and kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Section 360 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from India. Whoever conveys any person beyond the limits of India without the consent of that person, or of some person legally authorised to consent on behalf of that person, is said to kidnap that person from India.

Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years of age if a male, or under eighteen years of age of a female, out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor, without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap such minor or person from lawful guardianship. This section does not extend to the act of any person who in good faith believes himself to be the father of an illegitimate child, or who in good faith believes himself to be entitled to the lawful custody of such child, unless such act is committed for an immoral or unlawful purpose.

Abduction in common language means carrying away of a person by fraud or force. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, is said to abduct that person.

In view of the definition, the word 'force' connotes actual force and not merely show or threat of force. Whoever kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be murdered or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered, shall be punished with imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.

Q. Pawan and Siya, a married couple had a fight. In the heated argument, Pawan slapped Siya. Siya left the home in anger and shifted to her parental home. She filed a case for divorce. Pawan apologised to Siya and requested her to move back with him. Even after several tries Siya refused to move back. Pawan in aggression asked his sister to bring Siya home. Pawan's sister by physical force brought Siya back home. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 92 Pawan's sister is guilty of abducting Siya as she forcefully brought Siya home.

Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, is said to abduct that person.

In view of the definition, the word 'force' connotes actual force and not merely show or threat of force.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 93

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The word "kidnapping" has been derived from the word 'kid' meaning child and 'napping' to steal. Thus, the word literally means "child stealing". Kidnapping under the code is not confined to child stealing. It has been given wider connotation as meaning carrying away of a human being against his/her consent, or the consent of some person legally authorised to accord consent on behalf of such person.

Kidnapping is of two kinds: kidnapping from India, and kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Section 360 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from India. Whoever conveys any person beyond the limits of India without the consent of that person, or of some person legally authorised to consent on behalf of that person, is said to kidnap that person from India.

Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years of age if a male, or under eighteen years of age of a female, out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor, without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap such minor or person from lawful guardianship. This section does not extend to the act of any person who in good faith believes himself to be the father of an illegitimate child, or who in good faith believes himself to be entitled to the lawful custody of such child, unless such act is committed for an immoral or unlawful purpose.

Abduction in common language means carrying away of a person by fraud or force. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, is said to abduct that person.

In view of the definition, the word 'force' connotes actual force and not merely show or threat of force. Whoever kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be murdered or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered, shall be punished with imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.

Q. Aman, without the knowledge of the guardian, takes away Bharti, a 16-year-old girl from her house upon her request. He resorted her after one week. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 93 Aman is guilty of kidnapping as Bharti is a minor and the intention of the offender is irrelevant.

Under this case, Aman will be held liable for kidnapping under Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code because the girl was a minor when the offence took place and was deprived of her lawful guardianship.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 94

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The word "kidnapping" has been derived from the word 'kid' meaning child and 'napping' to steal. Thus, the word literally means "child stealing". Kidnapping under the code is not confined to child stealing. It has been given wider connotation as meaning carrying away of a human being against his/her consent, or the consent of some person legally authorised to accord consent on behalf of such person.

Kidnapping is of two kinds: kidnapping from India, and kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Section 360 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from India. Whoever conveys any person beyond the limits of India without the consent of that person, or of some person legally authorised to consent on behalf of that person, is said to kidnap that person from India.

Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years of age if a male, or under eighteen years of age of a female, out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor, without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap such minor or person from lawful guardianship. This section does not extend to the act of any person who in good faith believes himself to be the father of an illegitimate child, or who in good faith believes himself to be entitled to the lawful custody of such child, unless such act is committed for an immoral or unlawful purpose.

Abduction in common language means carrying away of a person by fraud or force. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, is said to abduct that person.

In view of the definition, the word 'force' connotes actual force and not merely show or threat of force. Whoever kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be murdered or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered, shall be punished with imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.

Q. Mira is married to Ravi and they have a five year old daughter, Kira. Kira is believed to be an illegitimate child of Mira and Rakesh. Mira doesn't let Rakesh to meet his daughter in fear that Ravi would come to know about Kira's real father. One day while Kira's way back to home from school, Rakesh enticed Kira in good faith to a restaurant for lunch. After that, he took her for a movie. On the other hand, Ravi finding Kira missing after school filed a missing complaint. Police found Kira with Rakesh. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 94 According to Section 360, kidnapping does not extend to the act of any person who in good faith believes himself to be the father of an illegitimate child, or who in good faith believes himself to be entitled to the lawful custody of such child, unless such act is committed for an immoral or unlawful purpose.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 95

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The word "kidnapping" has been derived from the word 'kid' meaning child and 'napping' to steal. Thus, the word literally means "child stealing". Kidnapping under the code is not confined to child stealing. It has been given wider connotation as meaning carrying away of a human being against his/her consent, or the consent of some person legally authorised to accord consent on behalf of such person.

Kidnapping is of two kinds: kidnapping from India, and kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Section 360 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from India. Whoever conveys any person beyond the limits of India without the consent of that person, or of some person legally authorised to consent on behalf of that person, is said to kidnap that person from India.

Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code deals with kidnapping from lawful guardianship. Whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years of age if a male, or under eighteen years of age of a female, out of the keeping of the lawful guardian of such minor, without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap such minor or person from lawful guardianship. This section does not extend to the act of any person who in good faith believes himself to be the father of an illegitimate child, or who in good faith believes himself to be entitled to the lawful custody of such child, unless such act is committed for an immoral or unlawful purpose.

Abduction in common language means carrying away of a person by fraud or force. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, is said to abduct that person.

In view of the definition, the word 'force' connotes actual force and not merely show or threat of force. Whoever kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be murdered or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered, shall be punished with imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.

Q. Sameer was on his journey by car from Amritsar to Agra. Richa met him on the way and requested for a lift upto Delhi, an intermediate city. Sameer agreed to her request, but on reaching Delhi, he did not drop Richa there inspite of her repeated requests. Richa was carried over to Agra against her wishes. Here:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 95 Sameer is guilty of wrongfully confining Richa.

Wrongful confinement is defined under Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code. Section 342 of the Indian Penal Code provides punishment for it. Wrongful confinement means, a person is wrongfully restrained from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 96

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court agreed to examine the public interest litigation seeking social security benefits to gig workers and platform workers engaged by Uber, Ola Cabs, Swiggy and Zomato. It was argued before the SC that gig workers and platform workers need to be recognised as workmen within the meaning of all the applicable social security legislation. Referring to the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, it was contended that these workers are unorganised workers within its meaning and hence, they are entitled to registration and social security under it. These workers are not what their companies have been claiming, which is that they are independent contractors.

The Court's attention was drawn to the United Kingdom Supreme Court judgment that has analysed the contract between Uber and the employee and found that the contract is only a subterfuge and the real relationship between Uber and its employee is that of employer and employee. The plea asserts that the denial of social security like pension and health insurance to gig workers and platform workers is an affront to workers' right to life and right against forced labour that are secured by Articles 14 (equality), 21 (right to life) and 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour) of the Constitution of India. The plea seeks a declaration from the court that gig workers are unorganised workers and/or wage workers within the meaning of the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, and hence entitled to be registered under the said Act.

An independent contractor works on their own, they are responsible for taxes and insurance. If they work for an agency, that agency may be responsible for paying their taxes. It depends on the relationship between the worker and the organisation. In the alternative, the petitioners seek the benefit of the existing social security laws since according to them, the relationship between the aggregator and the driver is one of employer and employee. The mere fact that their employers call themselves aggregators and enter into so-called partnership agreements does not take away from the fact that there exists a jural relationship of employer and employee between them, the plea argues. The said contracts, the plea states, are a mere device to disguise the nature of the relationship, which is de jure and de facto a relationship of employer and worker, being a contract of employment.

Q. The unorganised labour force can be categorised on the basis of:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 96 The Ministry of Labour, Government of India, has categorised the unorganised labour force under four groups depending on occupation, nature of employment, specially distressed categories and service categories.

1. Under Terms of Occupation:

Small and marginal farmers, landless agricultural labourers, sharecroppers, fishermen, those engaged in animal husbandry, beedi rolling, labelling and packing, building and construction workers, leather workers, weavers, artisans, salt workers, workers in brick kilns and stone quarries, workers in saw mills, oil mills, etc. come under this category.

2. Under Terms of Nature of Employment:

Attached agricultural labourers, bonded labourers, migrant workers, contract and casual labourers come under this category.

3. Under Terms of Specially Distressed Category:

Toddy tappers, scavengers, carriers of head loads, drivers of animal driven vehicles, loaders and unloaders come under this category.

4. Under Terms of Service Category:

Midwives, domestic workers, fishermen and women, barbers, vegetable and fruit vendors, newspaper vendors, etc. belong to this category.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 97

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court agreed to examine the public interest litigation seeking social security benefits to gig workers and platform workers engaged by Uber, Ola Cabs, Swiggy and Zomato. It was argued before the SC that gig workers and platform workers need to be recognised as workmen within the meaning of all the applicable social security legislation. Referring to the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, it was contended that these workers are unorganised workers within its meaning and hence, they are entitled to registration and social security under it. These workers are not what their companies have been claiming, which is that they are independent contractors.

The Court's attention was drawn to the United Kingdom Supreme Court judgment that has analysed the contract between Uber and the employee and found that the contract is only a subterfuge and the real relationship between Uber and its employee is that of employer and employee. The plea asserts that the denial of social security like pension and health insurance to gig workers and platform workers is an affront to workers' right to life and right against forced labour that are secured by Articles 14 (equality), 21 (right to life) and 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour) of the Constitution of India. The plea seeks a declaration from the court that gig workers are unorganised workers and/or wage workers within the meaning of the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, and hence entitled to be registered under the said Act.

An independent contractor works on their own, they are responsible for taxes and insurance. If they work for an agency, that agency may be responsible for paying their taxes. It depends on the relationship between the worker and the organisation. In the alternative, the petitioners seek the benefit of the existing social security laws since according to them, the relationship between the aggregator and the driver is one of employer and employee. The mere fact that their employers call themselves aggregators and enter into so-called partnership agreements does not take away from the fact that there exists a jural relationship of employer and employee between them, the plea argues. The said contracts, the plea states, are a mere device to disguise the nature of the relationship, which is de jure and de facto a relationship of employer and worker, being a contract of employment.

Q. Under the 'supervision and control' test, the employer has the right to tell the employee what to do, how, when and where to do the job. Apply this 'supervision and control' test on Uber and Ola drivers to see whether they are independent contractors or employees.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 97 Uber and Ola's tight control over its drivers and the provision of standardised service to riders and deciding all the factors of what, how, when and where is satisfied with the 'supervision and control' test. An example to decide how much a driver is required to work cannot be used to decide the control test because at the end of the day, whether to work or not to work always lies on the person; the actual control test starts when a person decides to work and then how the organisation controls him.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 98

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court agreed to examine the public interest litigation seeking social security benefits to gig workers and platform workers engaged by Uber, Ola Cabs, Swiggy and Zomato. It was argued before the SC that gig workers and platform workers need to be recognised as workmen within the meaning of all the applicable social security legislation. Referring to the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, it was contended that these workers are unorganised workers within its meaning and hence, they are entitled to registration and social security under it. These workers are not what their companies have been claiming, which is that they are independent contractors.

The Court's attention was drawn to the United Kingdom Supreme Court judgment that has analysed the contract between Uber and the employee and found that the contract is only a subterfuge and the real relationship between Uber and its employee is that of employer and employee. The plea asserts that the denial of social security like pension and health insurance to gig workers and platform workers is an affront to workers' right to life and right against forced labour that are secured by Articles 14 (equality), 21 (right to life) and 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour) of the Constitution of India. The plea seeks a declaration from the court that gig workers are unorganised workers and/or wage workers within the meaning of the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, and hence entitled to be registered under the said Act.

An independent contractor works on their own, they are responsible for taxes and insurance. If they work for an agency, that agency may be responsible for paying their taxes. It depends on the relationship between the worker and the organisation. In the alternative, the petitioners seek the benefit of the existing social security laws since according to them, the relationship between the aggregator and the driver is one of employer and employee. The mere fact that their employers call themselves aggregators and enter into so-called partnership agreements does not take away from the fact that there exists a jural relationship of employer and employee between them, the plea argues. The said contracts, the plea states, are a mere device to disguise the nature of the relationship, which is de jure and de facto a relationship of employer and worker, being a contract of employment.

Q. The principal is liable for the acts authorised by him and done by his agent. For the principal to be held liable, it is necessary that the principal should have authorised the activity. The authority can be expressed or implied.

Anand was authorised to clean the car of Shashank, and in doing so, he damaged the car of a neighbour. Who is liable here, Anand or Shashank, for the damage caused to the neighbour's car?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 98 It is clearly stated in the question that for the principal to be held liable, it is necessary that the principal should have authorised the activity. In the given case, as Anand has been authorised by Shashank to do the act and in his act, he damaged the neighbour's car, the principal, i.e. Shashank is liable.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 99

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court agreed to examine the public interest litigation seeking social security benefits to gig workers and platform workers engaged by Uber, Ola Cabs, Swiggy and Zomato. It was argued before the SC that gig workers and platform workers need to be recognised as workmen within the meaning of all the applicable social security legislation. Referring to the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, it was contended that these workers are unorganised workers within its meaning and hence, they are entitled to registration and social security under it. These workers are not what their companies have been claiming, which is that they are independent contractors.

The Court's attention was drawn to the United Kingdom Supreme Court judgment that has analysed the contract between Uber and the employee and found that the contract is only a subterfuge and the real relationship between Uber and its employee is that of employer and employee. The plea asserts that the denial of social security like pension and health insurance to gig workers and platform workers is an affront to workers' right to life and right against forced labour that are secured by Articles 14 (equality), 21 (right to life) and 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour) of the Constitution of India. The plea seeks a declaration from the court that gig workers are unorganised workers and/or wage workers within the meaning of the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, and hence entitled to be registered under the said Act.

An independent contractor works on their own, they are responsible for taxes and insurance. If they work for an agency, that agency may be responsible for paying their taxes. It depends on the relationship between the worker and the organisation. In the alternative, the petitioners seek the benefit of the existing social security laws since according to them, the relationship between the aggregator and the driver is one of employer and employee. The mere fact that their employers call themselves aggregators and enter into so-called partnership agreements does not take away from the fact that there exists a jural relationship of employer and employee between them, the plea argues. The said contracts, the plea states, are a mere device to disguise the nature of the relationship, which is de jure and de facto a relationship of employer and worker, being a contract of employment.

Q. Dentists, veterinarians, and lawyers practising independently can be classified as:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 99 People such as doctors, dentists, veterinarians, lawyers who are in an independent trade, business, or profession in which they offer their services to the general public are generally independent contractors. The general rule is that an individual is an independent contractor if the payer has the right to control or direct only the result of the work and not what will be done and how it will be done. There is confusion between freelancers and independent contractors, but this can be cleared by use of tax deduction example. In case of lawyer, doctor and veterinarian, no tax is needed to be deducted by the payer. In contrast, if a certain threshold is reached in the case of freelancers, then tax needs to be deducted by the payer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 100

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court agreed to examine the public interest litigation seeking social security benefits to gig workers and platform workers engaged by Uber, Ola Cabs, Swiggy and Zomato. It was argued before the SC that gig workers and platform workers need to be recognised as workmen within the meaning of all the applicable social security legislation. Referring to the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, it was contended that these workers are unorganised workers within its meaning and hence, they are entitled to registration and social security under it. These workers are not what their companies have been claiming, which is that they are independent contractors.

The Court's attention was drawn to the United Kingdom Supreme Court judgment that has analysed the contract between Uber and the employee and found that the contract is only a subterfuge and the real relationship between Uber and its employee is that of employer and employee. The plea asserts that the denial of social security like pension and health insurance to gig workers and platform workers is an affront to workers' right to life and right against forced labour that are secured by Articles 14 (equality), 21 (right to life) and 23 (prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour) of the Constitution of India. The plea seeks a declaration from the court that gig workers are unorganised workers and/or wage workers within the meaning of the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008, and hence entitled to be registered under the said Act.

An independent contractor works on their own, they are responsible for taxes and insurance. If they work for an agency, that agency may be responsible for paying their taxes. It depends on the relationship between the worker and the organisation. In the alternative, the petitioners seek the benefit of the existing social security laws since according to them, the relationship between the aggregator and the driver is one of employer and employee. The mere fact that their employers call themselves aggregators and enter into so-called partnership agreements does not take away from the fact that there exists a jural relationship of employer and employee between them, the plea argues. The said contracts, the plea states, are a mere device to disguise the nature of the relationship, which is de jure and de facto a relationship of employer and worker, being a contract of employment.

Q. Direction and Control Test: If a person receives directions from the employer on how to do the job, then he is an employee. If not, he is an independent contractor.

Imagine that Ramesh is a taxi driver, and Rajesh asked Ramesh to take him to the airport and in-between stop at two places. Is Ramesh an employee or independent contractor?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 100 As per the facts, it is clear that Ramesh is a taxi driver; therefore, he was hired only to go to the airport and make two stops per passenger request. Nowhere did Rajesh ask him how to drive, limit the speed or what route to take, hence no direction and control. Therefore, Ramesh is an independent contractor only.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 101

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything to obtain the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have proposed. Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract according to the law to which he is subject. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into any form of a contract. A person is said to be of sound mind to make a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect upon his interests. Even in criminal law, it should be noted that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, because of an unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.

The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion, while the act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence. To prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract. And, to prove undue influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Q. Rahul texted Azad over WhatsApp, "Will you sell me your Hayabusa Superbike? Text me the lowest price which needs to be paid." Azad replied via WhatsApp, "Minimum price for Hayabusa Superbike is Rs. 10 lakh." Rahul immediately agreed to buy the bike and texted Azad, "I am willing to buy your Hayabusa Superbike at the desired price of Rs. 10 lakh." Azad refused to sell the bike.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 101 Azad only texted the lowest price; he did not say that he was willing to sell the bike; hence, willingness to enter into a contract was absent. As there was no offer by Azad, he was justified in refusing to sell the bike.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 102

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything to obtain the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have proposed. Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract according to the law to which he is subject. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into any form of a contract. A person is said to be of sound mind to make a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect upon his interests. Even in criminal law, it should be noted that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, because of an unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.

The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion, while the act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence. To prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract. And, to prove undue influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Q. Aheli, who is usually in an unsound state of mind but occasionally in a sound state of mind, enters into a contract with Paheli when she fully understands the terms and its effects. Can she enter into the contract?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 102 At the time of the contract, Aheli was in a sound state of mind; hence, she could enter into the contract. It is clearly stated in the passage that a person is said to be of sound mind to make a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect upon his interests. The burden of proof is not dealt with in the passage; hence, we need not focus on the same.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 103

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything to obtain the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have proposed. Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract according to the law to which he is subject. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into any form of a contract. A person is said to be of sound mind to make a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect upon his interests. Even in criminal law, it should be noted that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, because of an unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.

The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion, while the act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence. To prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract. And, to prove undue influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Q. A minor took a loan of Rs. 1 lakh from a moneylender by mortgaging a gold bracelet worth Rs. 1.5 lakh. It should be noted that while giving the loan, the advocate of the moneylender was acting for him, and he knew that the person seeking the loan is a minor. Later, the minor sued the moneylender for the recovery of the gold bracelet by setting aside the mortgage as he was a minor at the time of commencement of the same. Decide the validity of the contract:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 103 A minor is not permitted by law to enter into any form of a contract. Therefore, a minor's contract is void ab initio.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 104

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything to obtain the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have proposed. Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract according to the law to which he is subject. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into any form of a contract. A person is said to be of sound mind to make a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect upon his interests. Even in criminal law, it should be noted that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, because of an unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.

The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion, while the act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence. To prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract. And, to prove undue influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Q. Abir Singh Chaddha takes his son Kapur Singh Chaddha, who is five years old, for taking a bath in the pond. He throws his son into the pond so that his son can have a deep and good bath. After 5 minutes, he also jumped into the pond on the deep side to take a good bath. The villagers brought him and his son out of the pond, but his son was found dead due to drowning. Decide the liability of Abir Singh Chaddha.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 104 As per the factual matrix, it is clear that his intention was only that his son could take a deep and good bath. This fact coupled with the fact of his jumping on the deep side suggests that he lacked soundness of mind; therefore, it can be said that he can plead the defence of an unsound state of mind.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 105

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Are privacy and choice rights that Indian citizens can claim? The Supreme Court, in 2017, had upheld privacy to be a fundamental right. Yet, the domain of privacy remains besieged, most noticeably, in the digital domain. WhatsApp, for example, announced and then deferred new service rules pertaining to data harvesting and users' privacy. The growing concerns with the proposed changes are manifest in two institutional responses. The Delhi High Court has said that the use of the app is "voluntary" and asked citizens to exit the platform if they are worried about the new terms and conditions; the Centre, meanwhile, has asked WhatsApp to withdraw its privacy update in deference to data security. It has also asked why the platform has a lenient policy update for European countries, raising, once again, suspicions of differential treatment.

The Delhi High Court may have upheld the sanctity of the principle of choice by pointing out to citizens that they have the option to use other apps. The popularity of WhatsApp — it is famed for its user-friendliness — combined with enhanced reliance on digital communication on account of a raging pandemic implies that WhatsApp is unlikely to witness a loss in public patronage. The Centre's concern with data privacy is welcome: but the onus of protecting the privacy or data of users cannot be put on social media companies alone. In an age where data is the new oil, India is yet to design a comprehensive data privacy law. Worse, there are worries about the efficacy of the personal data protection bill — it is still being debated in Parliament — with concerns over such provisions as the exemptions given to the State to access personal data, segmentation of data into specific categories, the need for consent for age-specific users to use internet-enabled services that may lead to disenfranchisement. The Centre's advocacy on citizens' data privacy will ring hollow unless it takes steps to iron out these creases in India's yet-to-be-rolled-out data protection framework.

Q. Which of the following can be an assumption of the Delhi High Court when it points out to citizens that they have the option to use other apps?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 105 The Delhi High Court suggesting other apps to the users of WhatsApp could have assumed that the other apps provided the same features as WhatsApp. Otherwise, the users would not like the idea of switching. Option 3 is the answer.

Option 1 is incorrect as the high court would not suggest anything believing that the suggestion would not be acted upon.

Option 2 is invalid; it does not form the basis of suggesting users switching to some other apps.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 106

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Are privacy and choice rights that Indian citizens can claim? The Supreme Court, in 2017, had upheld privacy to be a fundamental right. Yet, the domain of privacy remains besieged, most noticeably, in the digital domain. WhatsApp, for example, announced and then deferred new service rules pertaining to data harvesting and users' privacy. The growing concerns with the proposed changes are manifest in two institutional responses. The Delhi High Court has said that the use of the app is "voluntary" and asked citizens to exit the platform if they are worried about the new terms and conditions; the Centre, meanwhile, has asked WhatsApp to withdraw its privacy update in deference to data security. It has also asked why the platform has a lenient policy update for European countries, raising, once again, suspicions of differential treatment.

The Delhi High Court may have upheld the sanctity of the principle of choice by pointing out to citizens that they have the option to use other apps. The popularity of WhatsApp — it is famed for its user-friendliness — combined with enhanced reliance on digital communication on account of a raging pandemic implies that WhatsApp is unlikely to witness a loss in public patronage. The Centre's concern with data privacy is welcome: but the onus of protecting the privacy or data of users cannot be put on social media companies alone. In an age where data is the new oil, India is yet to design a comprehensive data privacy law. Worse, there are worries about the efficacy of the personal data protection bill — it is still being debated in Parliament — with concerns over such provisions as the exemptions given to the State to access personal data, segmentation of data into specific categories, the need for consent for age-specific users to use internet-enabled services that may lead to disenfranchisement. The Centre's advocacy on citizens' data privacy will ring hollow unless it takes steps to iron out these creases in India's yet-to-be-rolled-out data protection framework.

Q. Which of the following is/are definitely true as per the arguments in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 106 Option 2 can be inferred from, 'The popularity of WhatsApp - it is famed for its user-friendliness - combined with enhanced reliance on digital communication on account of a raging pandemic implies that WhatsApp is unlikely to witness a loss in public patronage.'

Option 1 cannot be inferred; the passage only mentions of a concern raised by the Centre that the platform (WhatsApp) has a lenient policy update for European countries. It does not convey that these countries have better privacy policies. The platform might actually be biased.

Option 3 does not find support from the passage.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 107

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Are privacy and choice rights that Indian citizens can claim? The Supreme Court, in 2017, had upheld privacy to be a fundamental right. Yet, the domain of privacy remains besieged, most noticeably, in the digital domain. WhatsApp, for example, announced and then deferred new service rules pertaining to data harvesting and users' privacy. The growing concerns with the proposed changes are manifest in two institutional responses. The Delhi High Court has said that the use of the app is "voluntary" and asked citizens to exit the platform if they are worried about the new terms and conditions; the Centre, meanwhile, has asked WhatsApp to withdraw its privacy update in deference to data security. It has also asked why the platform has a lenient policy update for European countries, raising, once again, suspicions of differential treatment.

The Delhi High Court may have upheld the sanctity of the principle of choice by pointing out to citizens that they have the option to use other apps. The popularity of WhatsApp — it is famed for its user-friendliness — combined with enhanced reliance on digital communication on account of a raging pandemic implies that WhatsApp is unlikely to witness a loss in public patronage. The Centre's concern with data privacy is welcome: but the onus of protecting the privacy or data of users cannot be put on social media companies alone. In an age where data is the new oil, India is yet to design a comprehensive data privacy law. Worse, there are worries about the efficacy of the personal data protection bill — it is still being debated in Parliament — with concerns over such provisions as the exemptions given to the State to access personal data, segmentation of data into specific categories, the need for consent for age-specific users to use internet-enabled services that may lead to disenfranchisement. The Centre's advocacy on citizens' data privacy will ring hollow unless it takes steps to iron out these creases in India's yet-to-be-rolled-out data protection framework.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the author's arguments in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 107 Option 4 is the answer. The incidence, if true, would strengthen the author's argument calling for urgent action on government's part.

Option 1, even if true, would ask for a comprehensive data privacy law.

Option 2 rather weakens the author's arguments.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 108

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Are privacy and choice rights that Indian citizens can claim? The Supreme Court, in 2017, had upheld privacy to be a fundamental right. Yet, the domain of privacy remains besieged, most noticeably, in the digital domain. WhatsApp, for example, announced and then deferred new service rules pertaining to data harvesting and users' privacy. The growing concerns with the proposed changes are manifest in two institutional responses. The Delhi High Court has said that the use of the app is "voluntary" and asked citizens to exit the platform if they are worried about the new terms and conditions; the Centre, meanwhile, has asked WhatsApp to withdraw its privacy update in deference to data security. It has also asked why the platform has a lenient policy update for European countries, raising, once again, suspicions of differential treatment.

The Delhi High Court may have upheld the sanctity of the principle of choice by pointing out to citizens that they have the option to use other apps. The popularity of WhatsApp — it is famed for its user-friendliness — combined with enhanced reliance on digital communication on account of a raging pandemic implies that WhatsApp is unlikely to witness a loss in public patronage. The Centre's concern with data privacy is welcome: but the onus of protecting the privacy or data of users cannot be put on social media companies alone. In an age where data is the new oil, India is yet to design a comprehensive data privacy law. Worse, there are worries about the efficacy of the personal data protection bill — it is still being debated in Parliament — with concerns over such provisions as the exemptions given to the State to access personal data, segmentation of data into specific categories, the need for consent for age-specific users to use internet-enabled services that may lead to disenfranchisement. The Centre's advocacy on citizens' data privacy will ring hollow unless it takes steps to iron out these creases in India's yet-to-be-rolled-out data protection framework.

Q. Which role does the author's statement that the Centre has also asked why the platform has a lenient policy update for European countries play in the arguments in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 108 The author argues that India needs to design a comprehensive data privacy law, and that the Centre's advocacy on citizens' data privacy will ring hollow unless it takes steps to fix the hurdles in the path of yet-to-be-rolled-out data protection framework. His arguments are based on the fact that the Centre has asked why WhatsApp has a lenient policy update for European countries, raising suspicions of differential treatment. Option 2 is the answer.

Option 1 relates to the principle of choice but the sentence in context is related to the right of privacy.

Option 3 is contrary to the context.

Option 4 is unrelated to the context.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 109

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Are privacy and choice rights that Indian citizens can claim? The Supreme Court, in 2017, had upheld privacy to be a fundamental right. Yet, the domain of privacy remains besieged, most noticeably, in the digital domain. WhatsApp, for example, announced and then deferred new service rules pertaining to data harvesting and users' privacy. The growing concerns with the proposed changes are manifest in two institutional responses. The Delhi High Court has said that the use of the app is "voluntary" and asked citizens to exit the platform if they are worried about the new terms and conditions; the Centre, meanwhile, has asked WhatsApp to withdraw its privacy update in deference to data security. It has also asked why the platform has a lenient policy update for European countries, raising, once again, suspicions of differential treatment.

The Delhi High Court may have upheld the sanctity of the principle of choice by pointing out to citizens that they have the option to use other apps. The popularity of WhatsApp — it is famed for its user-friendliness — combined with enhanced reliance on digital communication on account of a raging pandemic implies that WhatsApp is unlikely to witness a loss in public patronage. The Centre's concern with data privacy is welcome: but the onus of protecting the privacy or data of users cannot be put on social media companies alone. In an age where data is the new oil, India is yet to design a comprehensive data privacy law. Worse, there are worries about the efficacy of the personal data protection bill — it is still being debated in Parliament — with concerns over such provisions as the exemptions given to the State to access personal data, segmentation of data into specific categories, the need for consent for age-specific users to use internet-enabled services that may lead to disenfranchisement. The Centre's advocacy on citizens' data privacy will ring hollow unless it takes steps to iron out these creases in India's yet-to-be-rolled-out data protection framework.

Q. In order to strengthen his argument by highlighting the importance of data and its confidentiality, the author uses a/an __________.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 109 The author argues that in an age where data is the new oil, India is yet to design a comprehensive data privacy law. Here, he uses a metaphor - 'data is the new oil'.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 110

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India emerged honourably from the Glasgow climate summit. We incurred the wrath of the West by disallowing the dramatic abolition of coal. Given the compulsions of our power supply, we could hardly undertake more than 'phasing down', rather than 'phasing out', its use. Can India, then, hope for an environmentally secure future? It is a question of brute logic. Human intervention has depleted and destabilized nature. Tinkering with the debris will not restore the balance. We might fool ourselves by settling for the least we need to do; nature is not a spoilt child to be soothed with lollipops.

With almost total impunity, mining is ravaging the environment in state after state. Under cover of the pandemic, there was a determined effort to dilute the environmental impact assessment for new industries. Global Forest Watch reports 3.4% loss of primary forests and 5% of total tree cover in India in the last twenty years, continuing even through the pandemic. Government reports are more positive.

Some bucks must stop with the urban elite. The environment would be markedly more robust if privileged citizens used public transport, did not buy property on illegally reclaimed soil, and shunned tourist resorts invading eco-protected zones. Environmental laws are being redrafted or simply flouted on an epic scale to benefit construction and tourism no less than mining and industry. Promises of local employment and prosperity usually prove hollow: the indigenous population is displaced and impoverished. There is pervasive hypocrisy in touting environmental measures, like clean energy, consistent with big capital while consistently subverting them where that best serves the latter's turn.

Q. Which of the following can be taken as a valid conclusion of the argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 110 The passage states that the government and people must act together to tackle the climate issue.

(1) – Although urban elite are majorly responsible for pollution, it cannot be inferred that they must assume the 'prime' responsibility.

(2) – This is the most appropriate statement that provides a valid conclusion.

(3) – This is an opposite statement. The author considers 'fossil fuels' to be essential, at least in the moment, for a country like India and we can hardly 'phase' them out.

(4) – No such view is presented. Although it may be helpful, the statement can only be taken as a supporting fact towards the ultimate recommendation of 'effort from all'.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 111

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India emerged honourably from the Glasgow climate summit. We incurred the wrath of the West by disallowing the dramatic abolition of coal. Given the compulsions of our power supply, we could hardly undertake more than 'phasing down', rather than 'phasing out', its use. Can India, then, hope for an environmentally secure future? It is a question of brute logic. Human intervention has depleted and destabilized nature. Tinkering with the debris will not restore the balance. We might fool ourselves by settling for the least we need to do; nature is not a spoilt child to be soothed with lollipops.

With almost total impunity, mining is ravaging the environment in state after state. Under cover of the pandemic, there was a determined effort to dilute the environmental impact assessment for new industries. Global Forest Watch reports 3.4% loss of primary forests and 5% of total tree cover in India in the last twenty years, continuing even through the pandemic. Government reports are more positive.

Some bucks must stop with the urban elite. The environment would be markedly more robust if privileged citizens used public transport, did not buy property on illegally reclaimed soil, and shunned tourist resorts invading eco-protected zones. Environmental laws are being redrafted or simply flouted on an epic scale to benefit construction and tourism no less than mining and industry. Promises of local employment and prosperity usually prove hollow: the indigenous population is displaced and impoverished. There is pervasive hypocrisy in touting environmental measures, like clean energy, consistent with big capital while consistently subverting them where that best serves the latter's turn.

Q. By stating "nature is not a spoilt child to be soothed with lollipops", which of the following is the author trying to imply?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 111 The author criticises our insignificant efforts while dealing with climate change. Damage done to nature cannot be allayed with small scale efforts. Instead large and substantial efforts must be undertaken to deal with the climate issue.

(1) – No such 'humanisation' is either mentioned or inferable. Although nature definitely has its own characteristics, the 'humanization' element is not inferable.

(2) – This may seem right, but it is not implied from the statement. The question statement wants to point out the need of enormous efforts. We cannot infer this from the statement that simply talks about 'apparently less' efficiency of our actions.

(3) – Again, whether one approach is better than the other is not implied through the statement.

(4) – This most accurately describes what is implied in the author's statement in the overall context of the argument.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 112

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India emerged honourably from the Glasgow climate summit. We incurred the wrath of the West by disallowing the dramatic abolition of coal. Given the compulsions of our power supply, we could hardly undertake more than 'phasing down', rather than 'phasing out', its use. Can India, then, hope for an environmentally secure future? It is a question of brute logic. Human intervention has depleted and destabilized nature. Tinkering with the debris will not restore the balance. We might fool ourselves by settling for the least we need to do; nature is not a spoilt child to be soothed with lollipops.

With almost total impunity, mining is ravaging the environment in state after state. Under cover of the pandemic, there was a determined effort to dilute the environmental impact assessment for new industries. Global Forest Watch reports 3.4% loss of primary forests and 5% of total tree cover in India in the last twenty years, continuing even through the pandemic. Government reports are more positive.

Some bucks must stop with the urban elite. The environment would be markedly more robust if privileged citizens used public transport, did not buy property on illegally reclaimed soil, and shunned tourist resorts invading eco-protected zones. Environmental laws are being redrafted or simply flouted on an epic scale to benefit construction and tourism no less than mining and industry. Promises of local employment and prosperity usually prove hollow: the indigenous population is displaced and impoverished. There is pervasive hypocrisy in touting environmental measures, like clean energy, consistent with big capital while consistently subverting them where that best serves the latter's turn.

Q. Which of the following statements can most likely be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 112 (1) – This cannot be inferred. Contrastingly, the laws are quite flexible as inferable from `Environmental laws are being redrafted' in the last paragraph.

(2) – This is inferable from 'Some bucks must stop with the urban elite' in the last paragraph.'

(3) – This too is not inferable. Nothing with respect to using both logic and idealism is mentioned in the passage.

(4) – No such view is either mentioned or inferable. If anything, negative attitude of West towards coal is what can be inferred from 'incurred the wrath of the West by disallowing the dramatic abolition of coal' in the 1st paragraph.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 113

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India emerged honourably from the Glasgow climate summit. We incurred the wrath of the West by disallowing the dramatic abolition of coal. Given the compulsions of our power supply, we could hardly undertake more than 'phasing down', rather than 'phasing out', its use. Can India, then, hope for an environmentally secure future? It is a question of brute logic. Human intervention has depleted and destabilized nature. Tinkering with the debris will not restore the balance. We might fool ourselves by settling for the least we need to do; nature is not a spoilt child to be soothed with lollipops.

With almost total impunity, mining is ravaging the environment in state after state. Under cover of the pandemic, there was a determined effort to dilute the environmental impact assessment for new industries. Global Forest Watch reports 3.4% loss of primary forests and 5% of total tree cover in India in the last twenty years, continuing even through the pandemic. Government reports are more positive.

Some bucks must stop with the urban elite. The environment would be markedly more robust if privileged citizens used public transport, did not buy property on illegally reclaimed soil, and shunned tourist resorts invading eco-protected zones. Environmental laws are being redrafted or simply flouted on an epic scale to benefit construction and tourism no less than mining and industry. Promises of local employment and prosperity usually prove hollow: the indigenous population is displaced and impoverished. There is pervasive hypocrisy in touting environmental measures, like clean energy, consistent with big capital while consistently subverting them where that best serves the latter's turn.

Q. "We could hardly undertake more than 'phasing down', rather than 'phasing out', its use." Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the statement?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 113 The statement highlights the indispensable nature of coal in India's energy mix. We cannot even afford to reduce our dependence, let alone eliminate the use of coal completely. To strengthen it, we would need a statement that reinforces the importance of coal for India's own energy needs.

(1) – The statement rather weakens by highlighting the increasing share of 'tidal energy' instead of coal.

(2) – This may seem right, however the issue is about India's own dependence on coal rather than international dependence. Hence, it neither strengthens nor weakens.

(3) – By highlighting that 3/4th of India's energy needs are met through coal run plants, the statement is strengthened.

(4) – The statement neither strengthens nor weakens the argument. If anything, the depletion of supplies only shows how important coal is for India's energy needs. But the statement does not 'most strengthens' the author's argument. The reason for 'over-exploitation' has not been defined as 'energy demand'.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 114

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

India emerged honourably from the Glasgow climate summit. We incurred the wrath of the West by disallowing the dramatic abolition of coal. Given the compulsions of our power supply, we could hardly undertake more than 'phasing down', rather than 'phasing out', its use. Can India, then, hope for an environmentally secure future? It is a question of brute logic. Human intervention has depleted and destabilized nature. Tinkering with the debris will not restore the balance. We might fool ourselves by settling for the least we need to do; nature is not a spoilt child to be soothed with lollipops.

With almost total impunity, mining is ravaging the environment in state after state. Under cover of the pandemic, there was a determined effort to dilute the environmental impact assessment for new industries. Global Forest Watch reports 3.4% loss of primary forests and 5% of total tree cover in India in the last twenty years, continuing even through the pandemic. Government reports are more positive.

Some bucks must stop with the urban elite. The environment would be markedly more robust if privileged citizens used public transport, did not buy property on illegally reclaimed soil, and shunned tourist resorts invading eco-protected zones. Environmental laws are being redrafted or simply flouted on an epic scale to benefit construction and tourism no less than mining and industry. Promises of local employment and prosperity usually prove hollow: the indigenous population is displaced and impoverished. There is pervasive hypocrisy in touting environmental measures, like clean energy, consistent with big capital while consistently subverting them where that best serves the latter's turn.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would help explain the anomaly between government reports and other reports like Global Forest Watch report?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 114 (1) – We cannot assume that Global Forest Watch's report was not in-depth. If one entity (government) was detailed in its survey, there is no reason to assume that the other was lacking. It does not help explain the anomaly.

(2) – If 'forests' are universally defined, and also each entity adheres to it, then anomaly should in fact not have arisen provided other factors are constant. Hence, it fails too to explain the anomaly.

(3) – This is a vague statement. It does not help explain the difference in any way.

(4) – This is the most appropriate classification. The desires of the government, probably to portray the state of environment in good light, might be a potential reason for such differential classification - even deeming those areas as forests which in fact are not so.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 115

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The National Games in Gujarat are set to make a grand statement on the state's capability to host mega sports events. With the budget increased to a staggering Rs. 2,000 crore for refurbishment of venues and other infrastructure, the Games look ready to roll. While the sporting benefits will be seen only in a long-term trickle down, a spectacle is immediately assured. India has had a couple of memorable National Games prior to this one. The infrastructure created at Balewadi in Pune and Gachibowli in Hyderabad has served the modest target of remaining useful. Hopefully, Ahmedabad will do better.

Seen as a part of the lead-up to the Gujarat Assembly elections, the hurriedly put-together event might well deliver, like Indian wedding planners do, but the timing hasn't exactly been ideal. In the absence of a university structure of competition or a truly significant open nationals in individual sports, however, the National Games with its magnanimous pouring in of funds, can be an important nudge for elevating domestic sport. It is the responsibility of organisers now to make returns on this investment count in truly sporting terms.

The Games could be a great opportunity to expose players on the second rung to the pressure of performing in front of spectators, not just for dragging half-hearted elite athletes through a week of easy strolls-in-the-park. No one doubts India's capacity to pull off the grand spectacle, but sport needs seriousness and commitment to host the Games — even if not so grand and costly — year after year.

Q. Which of the following is the central theme of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 115 The author believes that the National Games could be a great opportunity for players even though the past two events did not materialise as expected. For this, he expects the organisers to put great efforts and commitment and make such events a regular practice (as evident from 'year after year' in the last line of the passage). Refer to the parts, 'Hopefully, Ahmedabad will do better ... No one doubts India's capacity to pull off the grand spectacle, but sport needs seriousness and commitment to host the Games - even if not so grand and costly - year after year.' Option 2 is the answer.

Option 1 relates to only an opinion discussed in the first paragraph. It does not form the main idea.

Option 3 too caters to a supporting point about how the National Games can benefit players - 'The Games could be a great opportunity to expose players on the second rung to the pressure of performing in front of spectators.'

Option 4 relates to a minor point in the passage - 'Seen as a part of the lead-up to the Gujarat Assembly elections ...'.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 116

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The National Games in Gujarat are set to make a grand statement on the state's capability to host mega sports events. With the budget increased to a staggering Rs. 2,000 crore for refurbishment of venues and other infrastructure, the Games look ready to roll. While the sporting benefits will be seen only in a long-term trickle down, a spectacle is immediately assured. India has had a couple of memorable National Games prior to this one. The infrastructure created at Balewadi in Pune and Gachibowli in Hyderabad has served the modest target of remaining useful. Hopefully, Ahmedabad will do better.

Seen as a part of the lead-up to the Gujarat Assembly elections, the hurriedly put-together event might well deliver, like Indian wedding planners do, but the timing hasn't exactly been ideal. In the absence of a university structure of competition or a truly significant open nationals in individual sports, however, the National Games with its magnanimous pouring in of funds, can be an important nudge for elevating domestic sport. It is the responsibility of organisers now to make returns on this investment count in truly sporting terms.

The Games could be a great opportunity to expose players on the second rung to the pressure of performing in front of spectators, not just for dragging half-hearted elite athletes through a week of easy strolls-in-the-park. No one doubts India's capacity to pull off the grand spectacle, but sport needs seriousness and commitment to host the Games — even if not so grand and costly — year after year.

Q. 'The infrastructure created at Balewadi in Pune and Gachibowli in Hyderabad has served the modest target of remaining useful.' What role does the given statement play in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 116 The author mentions this statement as a premise for his argument that the infrastructure should be better utilised for the players - 'It is the responsibility of organisers now to make returns on this investment count in truly sporting terms.' The author is trying to imply that the infrastructure created for previous National Games has just been able to remain useful (and not flourish) and that this is not a preferred scenario. The infrastructure so created must be used more extensively. Option 4 is the best choice.

Option 1 can be negated due to words 'boost the economy'. It finds no support from the passage.

Option 2 is incorrect as neither the given statement acts as a conclusion nor the point mentioned in the option acts as a premise.

Option 3 is unfit as 'pressure of performing' does not relate to the point of infrastructure in the given statement.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 117

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The National Games in Gujarat are set to make a grand statement on the state's capability to host mega sports events. With the budget increased to a staggering Rs. 2,000 crore for refurbishment of venues and other infrastructure, the Games look ready to roll. While the sporting benefits will be seen only in a long-term trickle down, a spectacle is immediately assured. India has had a couple of memorable National Games prior to this one. The infrastructure created at Balewadi in Pune and Gachibowli in Hyderabad has served the modest target of remaining useful. Hopefully, Ahmedabad will do better.

Seen as a part of the lead-up to the Gujarat Assembly elections, the hurriedly put-together event might well deliver, like Indian wedding planners do, but the timing hasn't exactly been ideal. In the absence of a university structure of competition or a truly significant open nationals in individual sports, however, the National Games with its magnanimous pouring in of funds, can be an important nudge for elevating domestic sport. It is the responsibility of organisers now to make returns on this investment count in truly sporting terms.

The Games could be a great opportunity to expose players on the second rung to the pressure of performing in front of spectators, not just for dragging half-hearted elite athletes through a week of easy strolls-in-the-park. No one doubts India's capacity to pull off the grand spectacle, but sport needs seriousness and commitment to host the Games — even if not so grand and costly — year after year.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 117 Only option 3 can be inferred from the passage, 'While the sporting benefits will be seen only in a long-term trickle down, a spectacle is immediately assured.'

Option 1 cannot be inferred; the author believes that sports event can be successful even if it is not so grand - 'sport needs seriousness and commitment to host the Games - even if not so grand and costly - year after year.'

Option 2 is incorrect as words 'many years' do not find any support from the context.

Option 4 is too far-fetched to be inferred. The difference between grandeur of National Games and other sporting events is not implied in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 118

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The National Games in Gujarat are set to make a grand statement on the state's capability to host mega sports events. With the budget increased to a staggering Rs. 2,000 crore for refurbishment of venues and other infrastructure, the Games look ready to roll. While the sporting benefits will be seen only in a long-term trickle down, a spectacle is immediately assured. India has had a couple of memorable National Games prior to this one. The infrastructure created at Balewadi in Pune and Gachibowli in Hyderabad has served the modest target of remaining useful. Hopefully, Ahmedabad will do better.

Seen as a part of the lead-up to the Gujarat Assembly elections, the hurriedly put-together event might well deliver, like Indian wedding planners do, but the timing hasn't exactly been ideal. In the absence of a university structure of competition or a truly significant open nationals in individual sports, however, the National Games with its magnanimous pouring in of funds, can be an important nudge for elevating domestic sport. It is the responsibility of organisers now to make returns on this investment count in truly sporting terms.

The Games could be a great opportunity to expose players on the second rung to the pressure of performing in front of spectators, not just for dragging half-hearted elite athletes through a week of easy strolls-in-the-park. No one doubts India's capacity to pull off the grand spectacle, but sport needs seriousness and commitment to host the Games — even if not so grand and costly — year after year.

Q. Which of the following is the correct expression of the author's opinion as stated in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 118 The author opines that the National Games will get the limelight but there should be more to this; there should be long-term benefits. Option 3 is the correct expression of the author's opinion, 'While the sporting benefits will be seen only in a long-term trickle down, a spectacle is immediately assured ... make returns on this investment count in truly sporting terms ... sport needs seriousness and commitment to host the Games - even if not so grand and costly - year after year.'

Option 1 finds no support in the passage.

Option 2 conveys that for the event to be successful, it needs more funds; while the author demands seriousness and commitment to host the Games - even if not so 'grand and costly' - year after year.

Option 4 is incorrect as not such point is conveyed by the author; he just mentioned that the infrastructure created in the last two events served the modest target of remaining useful. Nothing about 'recognition' can be inferred.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 119

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The National Games in Gujarat are set to make a grand statement on the state's capability to host mega sports events. With the budget increased to a staggering Rs. 2,000 crore for refurbishment of venues and other infrastructure, the Games look ready to roll. While the sporting benefits will be seen only in a long-term trickle down, a spectacle is immediately assured. India has had a couple of memorable National Games prior to this one. The infrastructure created at Balewadi in Pune and Gachibowli in Hyderabad has served the modest target of remaining useful. Hopefully, Ahmedabad will do better.

Seen as a part of the lead-up to the Gujarat Assembly elections, the hurriedly put-together event might well deliver, like Indian wedding planners do, but the timing hasn't exactly been ideal. In the absence of a university structure of competition or a truly significant open nationals in individual sports, however, the National Games with its magnanimous pouring in of funds, can be an important nudge for elevating domestic sport. It is the responsibility of organisers now to make returns on this investment count in truly sporting terms.

The Games could be a great opportunity to expose players on the second rung to the pressure of performing in front of spectators, not just for dragging half-hearted elite athletes through a week of easy strolls-in-the-park. No one doubts India's capacity to pull off the grand spectacle, but sport needs seriousness and commitment to host the Games — even if not so grand and costly — year after year.

Q. 'Seen as a part of the lead-up to the Gujarat Assembly elections, the hurriedly put-together event might well deliver, like Indian wedding planners do, but the timing hasn't exactly been ideal.' Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the author's opinion?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 119 The author opines that the timing of the National Games is not ideal. If it is true that the players will have to leave their performance-peaking training in-between, then it will strengthen the author's concern about the timing. Option 1 is the answer.

Option 2 (exclusion of sporting events) does not strengthen the author's opinion about timing.

Option 3 only mentions that the Games are not a regular affair; it does not lend any additional support to the issue of 'timing'.

Option 4 does not cater to the issue of 'timing'; it does not strengthen the author's opinion.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 10 - Question 120

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Indian Science Congress (ISC) has served as a reminder of the status accorded to science and technology in the early years of the Indian republic. Though the formation of the congress pre-dates the Indian republic, it was the intellectual nursery of modern science in the country. Early ideas of how science and technology could aid the development of the new nation were incubated at this coming together of scientists. The years since have seen the nature of the congress change: from one where scientists, in the era of postal communication, congregated to exchange scientific ideas to one today where it has become a 'science mela'. The prime purpose of the ISC now is to draw school and science college students to hear Nobel Laureates and Indian-origin scientists from abroad to lecture about their work and the future prospects of science.

But there is an unmistakable decay, a choreographed ennui, that has set in. In recent years, the congress often makes news for becoming a forum for pseudoscience and less for interesting scientific ideas or demonstrations. Speakers — some holding distinguished positions in leading universities — have tended to mix mythology and science and publicise far-fetched assertions. The exhibits at several scientific laboratories are re-runs from old congresses, or from similar and past science fairs. Many laboratories showcase their work as 'posters' rather than actually showing demonstrations or working inventions. It is inevitable that traditions change over time and the relative importance accorded to institutions wax and wane. However this must make way for inspiring new ideas, or new models of taking science to the public.

Q. Based on the author's arguments in the given passage, what would be the best way for ISC to stay true to its primary objective?