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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2


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150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT | Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2

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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 1

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Many people mistakenly believe that the ability to learn is a matter of intelligence. For them, learning is an immutable trait like eye colour, simply luck of the genetic draw. People are born learners, or they're not, the thinking goes. So why bother getting better at it?

And that's why many people tend to approach the topic of learning without much focus. They don't think much about how they will develop an area of mastery. They use phrases like "practice makes perfect" without really considering the learning strategy at play. It's a remarkably ill-defined expression, after all. Does practice mean repeating the same skill over and over again? Does practice require feedback? Should practice be hard? Or should it be fun?

A growing body of research is making it clear that learners are made, not born. Through the deliberate use of practice and dedicated strategies to improve our ability to learn, we can all develop expertise faster and more effectively. In short, we can all get better at getting better.

Here's one example of a study that shows how learning strategies can be more important than raw smarts when it comes to gaining expertise. Marcel Veenman has found that people who closely track their thinking will outscore others who have sky-high IQ levels when it comes to learning something new. His research suggests that in terms of developing mastery, focusing on how we understand is some 15 percentage points more important than innate intelligence.

Here are three practical ways to build your learning skills, based on research.

Organize Your Goals

Effective learning often boils down to a type of project management. In order to develop an area of expertise, we first have to set achievable goals about what we want to learn. Then we have to develop strategies to help us reach those goals.

A targeted approach to learning helps us cope with all the nagging feelings associated with gaining expertise: Am I good enough? Will I fail? What if I'm wrong? Isn't there something else that I'd rather be doing?

While some self-carping is normal, Stanford psychologist Albert Bandura says these sorts of negative emotions can quickly rob us of our ability to learn something new. Plus, we're more committed if we develop a plan with clear objectives. The research is overwhelming on this point. Studies consistently show that people with clear goals outperform people with vague aspirations like "do a good job." By setting targets, people can manage their feelings more easily and achieve progress with their learning.

Think About Thinking

Metacognition is crucial to the talent of learning. Psychologists define metacognition as "thinking about thinking, " and broadly speaking, metacognition is about being more inspective about how you know what you know. It's a matter of asking ourselves questions like Do I really get this idea? Could I explain it to a friend? What are my goals? Do I need more background knowledge? Or do I need more practice?

Metacognition comes easily to many trained experts. When a specialist works through an issue, they'll often think a lot about how the problem is framed. They'll often have a good sense of whether or not their answer seems reasonable.

The key, it turns out, is not to leave this sort of "thinking about thinking" to the experts. When it comes to learning, one of the biggest issues is that people don't engage in metacognition enough. They don't stop to ask themselves if they really get a skill or concept.

The issue, then, is not that something goes in one ear and out the other. The issue is that individuals don't dwell on the dwelling. They don't push themselves to really think about their thinking.

Reflect on Your Learning

There is something of a contradiction in learning. It turns out that we need to let go of our learning in order to understand our learning. For example, when we step away from a problem, we often learn more about a problem. Get into a discussion with a colleague, for instance, and often your best arguments arrive while you're washing the dishes later. Read a software manual and a good amount of your comprehension can come after you shut the pages.

In short, learning benefits from reflection. This type of reflection requires a moment of calm. Maybe we're quietly writing an essay in a corner - or talking to ourselves as we're in the shower. But it usually takes a bit of cognitive quiet, a moment of silent introspection, for us to engage in any sort of focused deliberation.

Q. Which of the following is not a question raised by author while considering the learning strategy as ill-defined expression?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 1 In the second paragraph of the given passage, the author talks about phrases like 'practice makes perfect. In the same context, it is mentioned that it is a remarkably ill-defined expression without considering a learning strategy. Based on the paragraph, the given option 'should practice being for a limited period' is not the question raised.

Hence, 'should practice be for a limited time span' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 2

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Many people mistakenly believe that the ability to learn is a matter of intelligence. For them, learning is an immutable trait like eye colour, simply luck of the genetic draw. People are born learners, or they're not, the thinking goes. So why bother getting better at it?

And that's why many people tend to approach the topic of learning without much focus. They don't think much about how they will develop an area of mastery. They use phrases like "practice makes perfect" without really considering the learning strategy at play. It's a remarkably ill-defined expression, after all. Does practice mean repeating the same skill over and over again? Does practice require feedback? Should practice be hard? Or should it be fun?

A growing body of research is making it clear that learners are made, not born. Through the deliberate use of practice and dedicated strategies to improve our ability to learn, we can all develop expertise faster and more effectively. In short, we can all get better at getting better.

Here's one example of a study that shows how learning strategies can be more important than raw smarts when it comes to gaining expertise. Marcel Veenman has found that people who closely track their thinking will outscore others who have sky-high IQ levels when it comes to learning something new. His research suggests that in terms of developing mastery, focusing on how we understand is some 15 percentage points more important than innate intelligence.

Here are three practical ways to build your learning skills, based on research.

Organize Your Goals

Effective learning often boils down to a type of project management. In order to develop an area of expertise, we first have to set achievable goals about what we want to learn. Then we have to develop strategies to help us reach those goals.

A targeted approach to learning helps us cope with all the nagging feelings associated with gaining expertise: Am I good enough? Will I fail? What if I'm wrong? Isn't there something else that I'd rather be doing?

While some self-carping is normal, Stanford psychologist Albert Bandura says these sorts of negative emotions can quickly rob us of our ability to learn something new. Plus, we're more committed if we develop a plan with clear objectives. The research is overwhelming on this point. Studies consistently show that people with clear goals outperform people with vague aspirations like "do a good job." By setting targets, people can manage their feelings more easily and achieve progress with their learning.

Think About Thinking

Metacognition is crucial to the talent of learning. Psychologists define metacognition as "thinking about thinking, " and broadly speaking, metacognition is about being more inspective about how you know what you know. It's a matter of asking ourselves questions like Do I really get this idea? Could I explain it to a friend? What are my goals? Do I need more background knowledge? Or do I need more practice?

Metacognition comes easily to many trained experts. When a specialist works through an issue, they'll often think a lot about how the problem is framed. They'll often have a good sense of whether or not their answer seems reasonable.

The key, it turns out, is not to leave this sort of "thinking about thinking" to the experts. When it comes to learning, one of the biggest issues is that people don't engage in meta cognition enough. They don't stop to ask themselves if they really get a skill or concept.

The issue, then, is not that something goes in one ear and out the other. The issue is that individuals don't dwell on the dwelling. They don't push themselves to really think about their thinking.

Reflect on Your Learning

There is something of a contradiction in learning. It turns out that we need to let go of our learning in order to understand our learning. For example, when we step away from a problem, we often learn more about a problem. Get into a discussion with a colleague, for instance, and often your best arguments arrive while you're washing the dishes later. Read a software manual and a good amount of your comprehension can come after you shut the pages.

In short, learning benefits from reflection. This type of reflection requires a moment of calm. Maybe we're quietly writing an essay in a corner - or talking to ourselves as we're in the shower. But it usually takes a bit of cognitive quiet, a moment of silent introspection, for us to engage in any sort of focused deliberation.

Q. Which of the following is not a part of three practical ways to build your learning skills, based on research?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 2 In the given passage, there are three main techniques to strategize learning. They are

1. 'Organize your goals'

2.'Think about thinking'

3.'Reflect on your learning'

Hence, 'Copy the Ideas' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 3

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Many people mistakenly believe that the ability to learn is a matter of intelligence. For them, learning is an immutable trait like eye colour, simply luck of the genetic draw. People are born learners, or they're not, the thinking goes. So why bother getting better at it?

And that's why many people tend to approach the topic of learning without much focus. They don't think much about how they will develop an area of mastery. They use phrases like "practice makes perfect" without really considering the learning strategy at play. It's a remarkably ill-defined expression, after all. Does practice mean repeating the same skill over and over again? Does practice require feedback? Should practice be hard? Or should it be fun?

A growing body of research is making it clear that learners are made, not born. Through the deliberate use of practice and dedicated strategies to improve our ability to learn, we can all develop expertise faster and more effectively. In short, we can all get better at getting better.

Here's one example of a study that shows how learning strategies can be more important than raw smarts when it comes to gaining expertise. Marcel Veenman has found that people who closely track their thinking will outscore others who have sky-high IQ levels when it comes to learning something new. His research suggests that in terms of developing mastery, focusing on how we understand is some 15 percentage points more important than innate intelligence.

Here are three practical ways to build your learning skills, based on research.

Organize Your Goals

Effective learning often boils down to a type of project management. In order to develop an area of expertise, we first have to set achievable goals about what we want to learn. Then we have to develop strategies to help us reach those goals.

A targeted approach to learning helps us cope with all the nagging feelings associated with gaining expertise: Am I good enough? Will I fail? What if I'm wrong? Isn't there something else that I'd rather be doing?

While some self-carping is normal, Stanford psychologist Albert Bandura says these sorts of negative emotions can quickly rob us of our ability to learn something new. Plus, we're more committed if we develop a plan with clear objectives. The research is overwhelming on this point. Studies consistently show that people with clear goals outperform people with vague aspirations like "do a good job." By setting targets, people can manage their feelings more easily and achieve progress with their learning.

Think About Thinking

Metacognition is crucial to the talent of learning. Psychologists define metacognition as "thinking about thinking, " and broadly speaking, metacognition is about being more inspective about how you know what you know. It's a matter of asking ourselves questions like Do I really get this idea? Could I explain it to a friend? What are my goals? Do I need more background knowledge? Or do I need more practice?

Metacognition comes easily to many trained experts. When a specialist works through an issue, they'll often think a lot about how the problem is framed. They'll often have a good sense of whether or not their answer seems reasonable.

The key, it turns out, is not to leave this sort of "thinking about thinking" to the experts. When it comes to learning, one of the biggest issues is that people don't engage in meta-cognition enough. They don't stop to ask themselves if they really get a skill or concept.

The issue, then, is not that something goes in one ear and out the other. The issue is that individuals don't dwell on the dwelling. They don't push themselves to really think about their thinking.

Reflect on Your Learning

There is something of a contradiction in learning. It turns out that we need to let go of our learning in order to understand our learning. For example, when we step away from a problem, we often learn more about a problem. Get into a discussion with a colleague, for instance, and often your best arguments arrive while you're washing the dishes later. Read a software manual and a good amount of your comprehension can come after you shut the pages.

In short, learning benefits from reflection. This type of reflection requires a moment of calm. Maybe we're quietly writing an essay in a corner - or talking to ourselves as we're in the shower. But it usually takes a bit of cognitive quiet, a moment of silent introspection, for us to engage in any sort of focused deliberation.

Q. Psychologists define metacognition as _____.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 3 'Metacognition' refers to the process used to plan, process and assess one's ability to understand and perform any task. So, by this definition, it simply means thinking about one's thinking.

Hence, 'Think About Thinking' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 4

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Many people mistakenly believe that the ability to learn is a matter of intelligence. For them, learning is an immutable trait like eye colour, simply luck of the genetic draw. People are born learners, or they're not, the thinking goes. So why bother getting better at it?

And that's why many people tend to approach the topic of learning without much focus. They don't think much about how they will develop an area of mastery. They use phrases like "practice makes perfect" without really considering the learning strategy at play. It's a remarkably ill-defined expression, after all. Does practice mean repeating the same skill over and over again? Does practice require feedback? Should practice be hard? Or should it be fun?

A growing body of research is making it clear that learners are made, not born. Through the deliberate use of practice and dedicated strategies to improve our ability to learn, we can all develop expertise faster and more effectively. In short, we can all get better at getting better.

Here's one example of a study that shows how learning strategies can be more important than raw smarts when it comes to gaining expertise. Marcel Veenman has found that people who closely track their thinking will outscore others who have sky-high IQ levels when it comes to learning something new. His research suggests that in terms of developing mastery, focusing on how we understand is some 15 percentage points more important than innate intelligence.

Here are three practical ways to build your learning skills, based on research.

Organize Your Goals

Effective learning often boils down to a type of project management. In order to develop an area of expertise, we first have to set achievable goals about what we want to learn. Then we have to develop strategies to help us reach those goals.

A targeted approach to learning helps us cope with all the nagging feelings associated with gaining expertise: Am I good enough? Will I fail? What if I'm wrong? Isn't there something else that I'd rather be doing?

While some self-carping is normal, Stanford psychologist Albert Bandura says these sorts of negative emotions can quickly rob us of our ability to learn something new. Plus, we're more committed if we develop a plan with clear objectives. The research is overwhelming on this point. Studies consistently show that people with clear goals outperform people with vague aspirations like "do a good job." By setting targets, people can manage their feelings more easily and achieve progress with their learning.

Think About Thinking

Metacognition is crucial to the talent of learning. Psychologists define metacognition as "thinking about thinking, " and broadly speaking, metacognition is about being more inspective about how you know what you know. It's a matter of asking ourselves questions like Do I really get this idea? Could I explain it to a friend? What are my goals? Do I need more background knowledge? Or do I need more practice?

Metacognition comes easily to many trained experts. When a specialist works through an issue, they'll often think a lot about how the problem is framed. They'll often have a good sense of whether or not their answer seems reasonable.

The key, it turns out, is not to leave this sort of "thinking about thinking" to the experts. When it comes to learning, one of the biggest issues is that people don't engage in meta-cognition enough. They don't stop to ask themselves if they really get a skill or concept.

The issue, then, is not that something goes in one ear and out the other. The issue is that individuals don't dwell on the dwelling. They don't push themselves to really think about their thinking.

Reflect on Your Learning

There is something of a contradiction in learning. It turns out that we need to let go of our learning in order to understand our learning. For example, when we step away from a problem, we often learn more about a problem. Get into a discussion with a colleague, for instance, and often your best arguments arrive while you're washing the dishes later. Read a software manual and a good amount of your comprehension can come after you shut the pages.

In short, learning benefits from reflection. This type of reflection requires a moment of calm. Maybe we're quietly writing an essay in a corner - or talking to ourselves as we're in the shower. But it usually takes a bit of cognitive quiet, a moment of silent introspection, for us to engage in any sort of focused deliberation.

Q. Who found that people who closely track their thinking will outscore others who have sky-high IQ levels when it comes to learning something new?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 4 In the fourth paragraph of the passage, the author talks about an example of how learning strategies are important. There he mentions the research by Marcel Veenman in terms of developing mastery.

Hence, 'Marcel Veenman' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 5

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Many people mistakenly believe that the ability to learn is a matter of intelligence. For them, learning is an immutable trait like eye colour, simply luck of the genetic draw. People are born learners, or they're not, the thinking goes. So why bother getting better at it?

And that's why many people tend to approach the topic of learning without much focus. They don't think much about how they will develop an area of mastery. They use phrases like "practice makes perfect" without really considering the learning strategy at play. It's a remarkably ill-defined expression, after all. Does practice mean repeating the same skill over and over again? Does practice require feedback? Should practice be hard? Or should it be fun?

A growing body of research is making it clear that learners are made, not born. Through the deliberate use of practice and dedicated strategies to improve our ability to learn, we can all develop expertise faster and more effectively. In short, we can all get better at getting better.

Here's one example of a study that shows how learning strategies can be more important than raw smarts when it comes to gaining expertise. Marcel Veenman has found that people who closely track their thinking will outscore others who have sky-high IQ levels when it comes to learning something new. His research suggests that in terms of developing mastery, focusing on how we understand is some 15 percentage points more important than innate intelligence.

Here are three practical ways to build your learning skills, based on research.

Organize Your Goals

Effective learning often boils down to a type of project management. In order to develop an area of expertise, we first have to set achievable goals about what we want to learn. Then we have to develop strategies to help us reach those goals.

A targeted approach to learning helps us cope with all the nagging feelings associated with gaining expertise: Am I good enough? Will I fail? What if I'm wrong? Isn't there something else that I'd rather be doing?

While some self-carping is normal, Stanford psychologist Albert Bandura says these sorts of negative emotions can quickly rob us of our ability to learn something new. Plus, we're more committed if we develop a plan with clear objectives. The research is overwhelming on this point. Studies consistently show that people with clear goals outperform people with vague aspirations like "do a good job." By setting targets, people can manage their feelings more easily and achieve progress with their learning.

Think About Thinking

Metacognition is crucial to the talent of learning. Psychologists define metacognition as "thinking about thinking, " and broadly speaking, metacognition is about being more inspective about how you know what you know. It's a matter of asking ourselves questions like Do I really get this idea? Could I explain it to a friend? What are my goals? Do I need more background knowledge? Or do I need more practice?

Metacognition comes easily to many trained experts. When a specialist works through an issue, they'll often think a lot about how the problem is framed. They'll often have a good sense of whether or not their answer seems reasonable.

The key, it turns out, is not to leave this sort of "thinking about thinking" to the experts. When it comes to learning, one of the biggest issues is that people don't engage in metacognition enough. They don't stop to ask themselves if they really get a skill or concept.

The issue, then, is not that something goes in one ear and out the other. The issue is that individuals don't dwell on the dwelling. They don't push themselves to really think about their thinking.

Reflect on Your Learning

There is something of a contradiction in learning. It turns out that we need to let go of our learning in order to understand our learning. For example, when we step away from a problem, we often learn more about a problem. Get into a discussion with a colleague, for instance, and often your best arguments arrive while you're washing the dishes later. Read a software manual and a good amount of your comprehension can come after you shut the pages.

In short, learning benefits from reflection. This type of reflection requires a moment of calm. Maybe we're quietly writing an essay in a corner - or talking to ourselves as we're in the shower. But it usually takes a bit of cognitive quiet, a moment of silent introspection, for us to engage in any sort of focused deliberation.

Q. Identify the antonym of 'metacognition'.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 5 'Metacognition' refers to the process used to plan, process and assess one's ability to understand and perform any task. So, by this definition, the antonym should be ignoring oneself and personal interests.

Hence, 'Self-ignorance' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 6

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Cornell professor of economics Robert Frank says he's alive today because of "pure dumb luck." In 2007, he collapsed on a tennis court, struck down by what was later diagnosed as a case of sudden cardiac death, something only 2 percent of victims survive. Frank survived because, even though the nearest hospital was 5 miles away, an ambulance just happened to be responding to another call a few hundred yards away at the time. Since the other call wasn't as serious, the ambulance was able to change course and save Frank. Paddles were put on him in record time. He was rushed to the local hospital, then flown by helicopter to a larger one where he was put on ice overnight. Most survivors of similar episodes are left with significant cognitive and physical impairments. Frank was back on the tennis court just two weeks later.

Frank says his research ideas often come from his own experience, and his work on luck is no exception. His book, Success and Luck: Good Fortune and the Myth of Meritocracy, argues that the role of luck in life, and specifically in economic success, is not as widely appreciated as it should be. The book claims that if the prosperous were more cognizant of luck's role in their success they would be more supportive of government efforts to spread opportunity, and of the higher taxes they'd have to pay as a result.

Frank's other writings include the books The Winner-Take-All Society (with Philip J. Cook), The Darwin Economy, and Principles of Economics (with Ben S. Bernanke.) as well as an economics column that has run in The New York Times for over a decade. I spoke to him on the phone recently while he waited for his car to be repaired at a Syracuse dealership. He was warm and engaging and interested in my own experiences with luck and success, answering my questions as if he had all the time in the world.

What evidence is there that people don't appreciate the role of luck in their lives as much as they should? If people want to see a vivid example of that, I would steer them to the website that chronicled the reactions of voters to two political campaign speeches in 2012, one by Elizabeth Warren, the other by Barack Obama. The content of the speeches was essentially the same and if you read both transcripts carefully, you'd say, "Wow. There's nothing controversial here." What each one said in effect was that, in addition to working hard and being good at what you do, if you're a business owner, also you ship your goods to market on roads that the community paid for, you hired workers that we helped educate, we hired policemen, firemen to keep you safe. So, your success such as it is, is a product not just of your own talents and efforts, but it's a community project.

The reaction was overwhelmingly hostile to the speeches. The people who run businesses seemed to think that Obama and Elizabeth Warren were saying that they didn't deserve to have succeeded, that they were impostors by occupying these lofty positions that they had won. That wasn't the message at all, but it was hard for people to hear the totally reasonable and uncontroversial messages of those speeches.

The whole process of constructing life narratives is biased in ways that almost guarantee that people won't recognize the role of chance events adequately. So, you've been successful, you've been at it 30 years. It's true that you've worked hard all that time, you got up early, you put in a lot of effort, those memories are all very plentiful and available in your memory bank. You've solved lots of difficult problems. You remember examples of those, too. You know the formidable opponents that you've vanquished along the way. How can you forget them? So, if somebody says, "Why did you succeed?" those things are going to get top billing in your story.

Q. Which of the following most accurately express the author's main idea in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 6 The author mentions in the very first paragraph of the passage the expression 'pure dumb luck'. The phrase itself explains the main idea of the passage.

Hence, 'people don't appreciate the role of luck in their lives as much as they should is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 7

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Cornell professor of economics Robert Frank says he's alive today because of "pure dumb luck." In 2007, he collapsed on a tennis court, struck down by what was later diagnosed as a case of sudden cardiac death, something only 2 percent of victims survive. Frank survived because, even though the nearest hospital was 5 miles away, an ambulance just happened to be responding to another call a few hundred yards away at the time. Since the other call wasn't as serious, the ambulance was able to change course and save Frank. Paddles were put on him in record time. He was rushed to the local hospital, then flown by helicopter to a larger one where he was put on ice overnight. Most survivors of similar episodes are left with significant cognitive and physical impairments. Frank was back on the tennis court just two weeks later.

Frank says his research ideas often come from his own experience, and his work on luck is no exception. His book, Success and Luck: Good Fortune and the Myth of Meritocracy, argues that the role of luck in life, and specifically in economic success, is not as widely appreciated as it should be. The book claims that if the prosperous were more cognizant of luck's role in their success they would be more supportive of government efforts to spread opportunity, and of the higher taxes they'd have to pay as a result.

Frank's other writings include the books The Winner-Take-All Society (with Philip J. Cook), The Darwin Economy, and Principles of Economics (with Ben S. Bernanke.) as well as an economics column that has run in The New York Times for over a decade. I spoke to him on the phone recently while he waited for his car to be repaired at a Syracuse dealership. He was warm and engaging and interested in my own experiences with luck and success, answering my questions as if he had all the time in the world.

What evidence is there that people don't appreciate the role of luck in their lives as much as they should? If people want to see a vivid example of that, I would steer them to the website that chronicled the reactions of voters to two political campaign speeches in 2012, one by Elizabeth Warren, the other by Barack Obama. The content of the speeches was essentially the same and if you read both transcripts carefully, you'd say, "Wow. There's nothing controversial here." What each one said in effect was that, in addition to working hard and being good at what you do, if you're a business owner, also you ship your goods to market on roads that the community paid for, you hired workers that we helped educate, we hired policemen, firemen to keep you safe. So, your success such as it is, is a product not just of your own talents and efforts, but it's a community project.

The reaction was overwhelmingly hostile to the speeches. The people who run businesses seemed to think that Obama and Elizabeth Warren were saying that they didn't deserve to have succeeded, that they were impostors by occupying these lofty positions that they had won. That wasn't the message at all, but it was hard for people to hear the totally reasonable and uncontroversial messages of those speeches.

The whole process of constructing life narratives is biased in ways that almost guarantee that people won't recognize the role of chance events adequately. So, you've been successful, you've been at it 30 years. It's true that you've worked hard all that time, you got up early, you put in a lot of effort, those memories are all very plentiful and available in your memory bank. You've solved lots of difficult problems. You remember examples of those, too. You know the formidable opponents that you've vanquished along the way. How can you forget them? So, if somebody says, "Why did you succeed?" those things are going to get top billing in your story.

Q. What can be infer from the passage about the content of the speech of two leaders Elizabeth Warren and Barack Obama?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 7 Both Elizabeth Warren and Barack Obama gave the same speech in 2012 that suggested that the businessmen who succeeded were in terms of the infrastructure provided by the community.

Hence, 'your success is not just of your own talent but it's a community project' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 8

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Cornell professor of economics Robert Frank says he's alive today because of "pure dumb luck." In 2007, he collapsed on a tennis court, struck down by what was later diagnosed as a case of sudden cardiac death, something only 2 percent of victims survive. Frank survived because, even though the nearest hospital was 5 miles away, an ambulance just happened to be responding to another call a few hundred yards away at the time. Since the other call wasn't as serious, the ambulance was able to change course and save Frank. Paddles were put on him in record time. He was rushed to the local hospital, then flown by helicopter to a larger one where he was put on ice overnight. Most survivors of similar episodes are left with significant cognitive and physical impairments. Frank was back on the tennis court just two weeks later.

Frank says his research ideas often come from his own experience, and his work on luck is no exception. His book, Success and Luck: Good Fortune and the Myth of Meritocracy, argues that the role of luck in life, and specifically in economic success, is not as widely appreciated as it should be. The book claims that if the prosperous were more cognizant of luck's role in their success they would be more supportive of government efforts to spread opportunity, and of the higher taxes they'd have to pay as a result.

Frank's other writings include the books The Winner-Take-All Society (with Philip J. Cook), The Darwin Economy, and Principles of Economics (with Ben S. Bernanke.) as well as an economics column that has run in The New York Times for over a decade. I spoke to him on the phone recently while he waited for his car to be repaired at a Syracuse dealership. He was warm and engaging and interested in my own experiences with luck and success, answering my questions as if he had all the time in the world.

What evidence is there that people don't appreciate the role of luck in their lives as much as they should? If people want to see a vivid example of that, I would steer them to the website that chronicled the reactions of voters to two political campaign speeches in 2012, one by Elizabeth Warren, the other by Barack Obama. The content of the speeches was essentially the same and if you read both transcripts carefully, you'd say, "Wow. There's nothing controversial here." What each one said in effect was that, in addition to working hard and being good at what you do, if you're a business owner, also you ship your goods to market on roads that the community paid for, you hired workers that we helped educate, we hired policemen, firemen to keep you safe. So, your success such as it is, is a product not just of your own talents and efforts, but it's a community project.

The reaction was overwhelmingly hostile to the speeches. The people who run businesses seemed to think that Obama and Elizabeth Warren were saying that they didn't deserve to have succeeded, that they were impostors by occupying these lofty positions that they had won. That wasn't the message at all, but it was hard for people to hear the totally reasonable and uncontroversial messages of those speeches.

The whole process of constructing life narratives is biased in ways that almost guarantee that people won't recognize the role of chance events adequately. So, you've been successful, you've been at it 30 years. It's true that you've worked hard all that time, you got up early, you put in a lot of effort, those memories are all very plentiful and available in your memory bank. You've solved lots of difficult problems. You remember examples of those, too. You know the formidable opponents that you've vanquished along the way. How can you forget them? So, if somebody says, "Why did you succeed?" those things are going to get top billing in your story.

Q. Which of the following is similar word of 'vanquished'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 8 The word 'vanquished' means conquered, overpowered or defeated. Similarly, from the given alternatives, the word similar to 'vanquished' is 'defeated'.

Hence, the given option 'defeated' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 9

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Cornell professor of economics Robert Frank says he's alive today because of "pure dumb luck." In 2007, he collapsed on a tennis court, struck down by what was later diagnosed as a case of sudden cardiac death, something only 2 percent of victims survive. Frank survived because, even though the nearest hospital was 5 miles away, an ambulance just happened to be responding to another call a few hundred yards away at the time. Since the other call wasn't as serious, the ambulance was able to change course and save Frank. Paddles were put on him in record time. He was rushed to the local hospital, then flown by helicopter to a larger one where he was put on ice overnight. Most survivors of similar episodes are left with significant cognitive and physical impairments. Frank was back on the tennis court just two weeks later.

Frank says his research ideas often come from his own experience, and his work on luck is no exception. His book, Success and Luck: Good Fortune and the Myth of Meritocracy, argues that the role of luck in life, and specifically in economic success, is not as widely appreciated as it should be. The book claims that if the prosperous were more cognizant of luck's role in their success they would be more supportive of government efforts to spread opportunity, and of the higher taxes they'd have to pay as a result.

Frank's other writings include the books The Winner-Take-All Society (with Philip J. Cook), The Darwin Economy, and Principles of Economics (with Ben S. Bernanke.) as well as an economics column that has run in The New York Times for over a decade. I spoke to him on the phone recently while he waited for his car to be repaired at a Syracuse dealership. He was warm and engaging and interested in my own experiences with luck and success, answering my questions as if he had all the time in the world.

What evidence is there that people don't appreciate the role of luck in their lives as much as they should? If people want to see a vivid example of that, I would steer them to the website that chronicled the reactions of voters to two political campaign speeches in 2012, one by Elizabeth Warren, the other by Barack Obama. The content of the speeches was essentially the same and if you read both transcripts carefully, you'd say, "Wow. There's nothing controversial here." What each one said in effect was that, in addition to working hard and being good at what you do, if you're a business owner, also you ship your goods to market on roads that the community paid for, you hired workers that we helped educate, we hired policemen, firemen to keep you safe. So, your success such as it is, is a product not just of your own talents and efforts, but it's a community project.

The reaction was overwhelmingly hostile to the speeches. The people who run businesses seemed to think that Obama and Elizabeth Warren were saying that they didn't deserve to have succeeded, that they were impostors by occupying these lofty positions that they had won. That wasn't the message at all, but it was hard for people to hear the totally reasonable and uncontroversial messages of those speeches.

The whole process of constructing life narratives is biased in ways that almost guarantee that people won't recognize the role of chance events adequately. So, you've been successful, you've been at it 30 years. It's true that you've worked hard all that time, you got up early, you put in a lot of effort, those memories are all very plentiful and available in your memory bank. You've solved lots of difficult problems. You remember examples of those, too. You know the formidable opponents that you've vanquished along the way. How can you forget them? So, if somebody says, "Why did you succeed?" those things are going to get top billing in your story.

Q. What does the word 'overwhelmingly' as used in passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 9 The word 'overwhelmingly' is defined as something done to a very great degree or with a great majority and out of all the options as well as the reason given this suits the best.

Hence, 'with a great majority' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 10

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Cornell professor of economics Robert Frank says he's alive today because of "pure dumb luck." In 2007, he collapsed on a tennis court, struck down by what was later diagnosed as a case of sudden cardiac death, something only 2 percent of victims survive. Frank survived because, even though the nearest hospital was 5 miles away, an ambulance just happened to be responding to another call a few hundred yards away at the time. Since the other call wasn't as serious, the ambulance was able to change course and save Frank. Paddles were put on him in record time. He was rushed to the local hospital, then flown by helicopter to a larger one where he was put on ice overnight. Most survivors of similar episodes are left with significant cognitive and physical impairments. Frank was back on the tennis court just two weeks later.

Frank says his research ideas often come from his own experience, and his work on luck is no exception. His book, Success and Luck: Good Fortune and the Myth of Meritocracy, argues that the role of luck in life, and specifically in economic success, is not as widely appreciated as it should be. The book claims that if the prosperous were more cognizant of luck's role in their success they would be more supportive of government efforts to spread opportunity, and of the higher taxes they'd have to pay as a result.

Frank's other writings include the books The Winner-Take-All Society (with Philip J. Cook), The Darwin Economy, and Principles of Economics (with Ben S. Bernanke.) as well as an economics column that has run in The New York Times for over a decade. I spoke to him on the phone recently while he waited for his car to be repaired at a Syracuse dealership. He was warm and engaging and interested in my own experiences with luck and success, answering my questions as if he had all the time in the world.

What evidence is there that people don't appreciate the role of luck in their lives as much as they should? If people want to see a vivid example of that, I would steer them to the website that chronicled the reactions of voters to two political campaign speeches in 2012, one by Elizabeth Warren, the other by Barack Obama. The content of the speeches was essentially the same and if you read both transcripts carefully, you'd say, "Wow. There's nothing controversial here." What each one said in effect was that, in addition to working hard and being good at what you do, if you're a business owner, also you ship your goods to market on roads that the community paid for, you hired workers that we helped educate, we hired policemen, firemen to keep you safe. So, your success such as it is, is a product not just of your own talents and efforts, but it's a community project.

The reaction was overwhelmingly hostile to the speeches. The people who run businesses seemed to think that Obama and Elizabeth Warren were saying that they didn't deserve to have succeeded, that they were impostors by occupying these lofty positions that they had won. That wasn't the message at all, but it was hard for people to hear the totally reasonable and uncontroversial messages of those speeches.

The whole process of constructing life narratives is biased in ways that almost guarantee that people won't recognize the role of chance events adequately. So, you've been successful, you've been at it 30 years. It's true that you've worked hard all that time, you got up early, you put in a lot of effort, those memories are all very plentiful and available in your memory bank. You've solved lots of difficult problems. You remember examples of those, too. You know the formidable opponents that you've vanquished along the way. How can you forget them? So, if somebody says, "Why did you succeed?" those things are going to get top billing in your story.

Q. According to the author what is going to get on top in the stories of your life?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 10 According to the author of the passage, there will be many experiences of difficult and easy situations in one's life. These are the experiences that are stored in our memory banks and go on the top of our stories when asked.

Hence, 'your hard work, efforts and experiences of tuff and easy situation you have had' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 11

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

The quality of your sleep is determined by a process called the sleep-wake cycle. There are two important parts of the sleep-wake cycle:

  1. Slow-wave sleep (also known as deep sleep)

  2. REM sleep (REM stands for Rapid Eye Movement)

During slow-wave sleep the body relaxes, breathing becomes more regular, blood pressure falls, and the brain becomes less responsive to external stimuli, which makes it more difficult to wake up. This phase is critical for the renewal and repair of the body. During slow-wave sleep, the pituitary gland releases growth hormone, which stimulates tissue growth and muscle repair. Researchers also believe that the body's immune system is repaired during this stage. Slow-wave sleep is particularly critical if you're an athlete. You'll often hear about professional athletes like Roger Federer or LeBron James sleeping 11 or 12 hours per night.

As one example of the impact of sleep on physical performance, consider study researchers conducted on the Stanford basketball players. During this study, the players slept for at least ten hours per night (compared to their typical eight hours). During five weeks of extended sleep, the researchers measured the basketball players' accuracy and speed compared to their previous levels. The free-throw shooting percentage increased by 9 percent. The three-point shooting percentage increased by 9.2 percent. And the players were 0.6 seconds faster when sprinting 80 meters. If you place heavy physical demands on your body, slow-wave sleep is what helps you recover.

REM sleep is to the mind what slow-wave sleep is to the body. The brain is relatively quiet during most sleep phases, but during REM your brain comes to life. REM sleep is when your brain dreams and re-organizes information. During this phase, your brain clears out irrelevant information, boosts your memory by connecting the experiences of the last 24 hours to your previous experiences, and facilitates learning and neural growth. Your body temperature rises, your blood pressure increases, and your heart rate speeds up. Despite all of this activity, your body hardly moves. Typically, the REM phase occurs in short bursts about 3 to 5 times per night.

Without the slow-wave sleep and REM sleep phases, the body literally starts to die. If you starve yourself of sleep, you can't recover physically, your immune system weakens, and your brain becomes foggy. Or, as the researchers put it, sleep-deprived individuals experience increased risk of viral infections, weight gain, diabetes, high blood pressure, heart disease, mental illness, and mortality.

To summarize: slow-wave sleep helps you recover physically while REM sleep helps you recover mentally. The amount of time you spend in these phases tends to decrease with age, which means the quality of your sleep and your body's ability to recover also decrease with age.

Q. Why does the body start to die without sleep?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 11 The author describes in the passage that slow-wave sleep is critically important for the body's repair cycle. So, if we deprive our body of sleep, it will start to die as it loses the ability to repair itself.

Hence, 'It doesn't get to repair itself' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 12

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

The quality of your sleep is determined by a process called the sleep-wake cycle. There are two important parts of the sleep-wake cycle:

  1. Slow-wave sleep (also known as deep sleep)

  2. REM sleep (REM stands for Rapid Eye Movement)

During slow-wave sleep the body relaxes, breathing becomes more regular, blood pressure falls, and the brain becomes less responsive to external stimuli, which makes it more difficult to wake up. This phase is critical for the renewal and repair of the body. During slow-wave sleep, the pituitary gland releases growth hormone, which stimulates tissue growth and muscle repair. Researchers also believe that the body's immune system is repaired during this stage. Slow-wave sleep is particularly critical if you're an athlete. You'll often hear about professional athletes like Roger Federer or LeBron James sleeping 11 or 12 hours per night.

As one example of the impact of sleep on physical performance, consider study researchers conducted on the Stanford basketball players. During this study, the players slept for at least ten hours per night (compared to their typical eight hours). During five weeks of extended sleep, the researchers measured the basketball players' accuracy and speed compared to their previous levels. The free-throw shooting percentage increased by 9 percent. The three-point shooting percentage increased by 9.2 percent. And the players were 0.6 seconds faster when sprinting 80 meters. If you place heavy physical demands on your body, slow-wave sleep is what helps you recover.

REM sleep is to the mind what slow-wave sleep is to the body. The brain is relatively quiet during most sleep phases, but during REM your brain comes to life. REM sleep is when your brain dreams and re-organizes information. During this phase, your brain clears out irrelevant information, boosts your memory by connecting the experiences of the last 24 hours to your previous experiences, and facilitates learning and neural growth. Your body temperature rises, your blood pressure increases, and your heart rate speeds up. Despite all of this activity, your body hardly moves. Typically, the REM phase occurs in short bursts about 3 to 5 times per night.

Without the slow-wave sleep and REM sleep phases, the body literally starts to die. If you starve yourself of sleep, you can't recover physically, your immune system weakens, and your brain becomes foggy. Or, as the researchers put it, sleep-deprived individuals experience increased risk of viral infections, weight gain, diabetes, high blood pressure, heart disease, mental illness, and mortality.

To summarize: slow-wave sleep helps you recover physically while REM sleep helps you recover mentally. The amount of time you spend in these phases tends to decrease with age, which means the quality of your sleep and your body's ability to recover also decrease with age.

Q. What do the statistics of a player's performance in sports show about the sleep?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 12 Slow-wave sleep is very vital to the body for recovering from physical activities, especially for athletes. So, slow-wave sleep helps athletes recover from their heavy physical activities.

Hence, 'the more you work, the more your body needs deep sleep to repair muscles' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 13

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

The quality of your sleep is determined by a process called the sleep-wake cycle. There are two important parts of the sleep-wake cycle:

  1. Slow-wave sleep (also known as deep sleep)

  2. REM sleep (REM stands for Rapid Eye Movement)

During slow-wave sleep the body relaxes, breathing becomes more regular, blood pressure falls, and the brain becomes less responsive to external stimuli, which makes it more difficult to wake up. This phase is critical for the renewal and repair of the body. During slow-wave sleep, the pituitary gland releases growth hormone, which stimulates tissue growth and muscle repair. Researchers also believe that the body's immune system is repaired during this stage. Slow-wave sleep is particularly critical if you're an athlete. You'll often hear about professional athletes like Roger Federer or LeBron James sleeping 11 or 12 hours per night.

As one example of the impact of sleep on physical performance, consider study researchers conducted on the Stanford basketball players. During this study, the players slept for at least ten hours per night (compared to their typical eight hours). During five weeks of extended sleep, the researchers measured the basketball players' accuracy and speed compared to their previous levels. The free-throw shooting percentage increased by 9 percent. The three-point shooting percentage increased by 9.2 percent. And the players were 0.6 seconds faster when sprinting 80 meters. If you place heavy physical demands on your body, slow-wave sleep is what helps you recover.

REM sleep is to the mind what slow-wave sleep is to the body. The brain is relatively quiet during most sleep phases, but during REM your brain comes to life. REM sleep is when your brain dreams and re-organizes information. During this phase, your brain clears out irrelevant information, boosts your memory by connecting the experiences of the last 24 hours to your previous experiences, and facilitates learning and neural growth. Your body temperature rises, your blood pressure increases, and your heart rate speeds up. Despite all of this activity, your body hardly moves. Typically, the REM phase occurs in short bursts about 3 to 5 times per night.

Without the slow-wave sleep and REM sleep phases, the body literally starts to die. If you starve yourself of sleep, you can't recover physically, your immune system weakens, and your brain becomes foggy. Or, as the researchers put it, sleep-deprived individuals experience increased risk of viral infections, weight gain, diabetes, high blood pressure, heart disease, mental illness, and mortality.

To summarize: slow-wave sleep helps you recover physically while REM sleep helps you recover mentally. The amount of time you spend in these phases tends to decrease with age, which means the quality of your sleep and your body's ability to recover also decrease with age.

Q. Why does the brain comes to life during REM?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 13 REM sleep is required for mental recovery. The brain requires this time to re-organize information, boost memory, facilitate learning and neural growth. REM sleep helps to enhance brain activity.

Hence, 'to enhance learning and neural growth' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 14

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

The quality of your sleep is determined by a process called the sleep-wake cycle. There are two important parts of the sleep-wake cycle:

  1. Slow-wave sleep (also known as deep sleep)

  2. REM sleep (REM stands for Rapid Eye Movement)

During slow-wave sleep the body relaxes, breathing becomes more regular, blood pressure falls, and the brain becomes less responsive to external stimuli, which makes it more difficult to wake up. This phase is critical for the renewal and repair of the body. During slow-wave sleep, the pituitary gland releases growth hormone, which stimulates tissue growth and muscle repair. Researchers also believe that the body's immune system is repaired during this stage. Slow-wave sleep is particularly critical if you're an athlete. You'll often hear about professional athletes like Roger Federer or LeBron James sleeping 11 or 12 hours per night.

As one example of the impact of sleep on physical performance, consider study researchers conducted on the Stanford basketball players. During this study, the players slept for at least ten hours per night (compared to their typical eight hours). During five weeks of extended sleep, the researchers measured the basketball players' accuracy and speed compared to their previous levels. The free-throw shooting percentage increased by 9 percent. The three-point shooting percentage increased by 9.2 percent. And the players were 0.6 seconds faster when sprinting 80 meters. If you place heavy physical demands on your body, slow-wave sleep is what helps you recover.

REM sleep is to the mind what slow-wave sleep is to the body. The brain is relatively quiet during most sleep phases, but during REM your brain comes to life. REM sleep is when your brain dreams and re-organizes information. During this phase, your brain clears out irrelevant information, boosts your memory by connecting the experiences of the last 24 hours to your previous experiences, and facilitates learning and neural growth. Your body temperature rises, your blood pressure increases, and your heart rate speeds up. Despite all of this activity, your body hardly moves. Typically, the REM phase occurs in short bursts about 3 to 5 times per night.

Without the slow-wave sleep and REM sleep phases, the body literally starts to die. If you starve yourself of sleep, you can't recover physically, your immune system weakens, and your brain becomes foggy. Or, as the researchers put it, sleep-deprived individuals experience increased risk of viral infections, weight gain, diabetes, high blood pressure, heart disease, mental illness, and mortality.

To summarize: slow-wave sleep helps you recover physically while REM sleep helps you recover mentally. The amount of time you spend in these phases tends to decrease with age, which means the quality of your sleep and your body's ability to recover also decrease with age.

Q. Why does our sleep tend to decrease with age?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 14 To summarize the author says that the sleep time decreases with age because the time spent in slow-wave sleep and REM sleep tends to decrease with age and so does the ability to repair the body.

Hence, 'the amount of time of the two phases decreases' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 15

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

The quality of your sleep is determined by a process called the sleep-wake cycle. There are two important parts of the sleep-wake cycle:

  1. Slow-wave sleep (also known as deep sleep)

  2. REM sleep (REM stands for Rapid Eye Movement)

During slow-wave sleep the body relaxes, breathing becomes more regular, blood pressure falls, and the brain becomes less responsive to external stimuli, which makes it more difficult to wake up. This phase is critical for the renewal and repair of the body. During slow-wave sleep, the pituitary gland releases growth hormone, which stimulates tissue growth and muscle repair. Researchers also believe that the body's immune system is repaired during this stage. Slow-wave sleep is particularly critical if you're an athlete. You'll often hear about professional athletes like Roger Federer or LeBron James sleeping 11 or 12 hours per night.

As one example of the impact of sleep on physical performance, consider study researchers conducted on the Stanford basketball players. During this study, the players slept for at least ten hours per night (compared to their typical eight hours). During five weeks of extended sleep, the researchers measured the basketball players' accuracy and speed compared to their previous levels. The free-throw shooting percentage increased by 9 percent. The three-point shooting percentage increased by 9.2 percent. And the players were 0.6 seconds faster when sprinting 80 meters. If you place heavy physical demands on your body, slow-wave sleep is what helps you recover.

REM sleep is to the mind what slow-wave sleep is to the body. The brain is relatively quiet during most sleep phases, but during REM your brain comes to life. REM sleep is when your brain dreams and re-organizes information. During this phase, your brain clears out irrelevant information, boosts your memory by connecting the experiences of the last 24 hours to your previous experiences, and facilitates learning and neural growth. Your body temperature rises, your blood pressure increases, and your heart rate speeds up. Despite all of this activity, your body hardly moves. Typically, the REM phase occurs in short bursts about 3 to 5 times per night.

Without the slow-wave sleep and REM sleep phases, the body literally starts to die. If you starve yourself of sleep, you can't recover physically, your immune system weakens, and your brain becomes foggy. Or, as the researchers put it, sleep-deprived individuals experience increased risk of viral infections, weight gain, diabetes, high blood pressure, heart disease, mental illness, and mortality.

To summarize: slow-wave sleep helps you recover physically while REM sleep helps you recover mentally. The amount of time you spend in these phases tends to decrease with age, which means the quality of your sleep and your body's ability to recover also decrease with age.

Q. why do the students need adequate sleep?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 15 REM sleep is required for mental recovery. The brain requires this time to re-organize information, boost memory, facilitate learning and neural growth. Since students demand their brains to recover from the exhaustion. So, REM sleep is important.

Hence, 'the students need adequate REM cycles to recover mentally' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 16

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Bronnie Ware is a nurse in Australia. She has spent more than a decade counselling dying people. Over that time span, she began recording the top regrets that people have on their death bed.

After 12 years, she concluded that the most common regret of all was this:

"I wish I'd had the courage to live a life true to myself, not the life others expected of me."

Why is this such a common dying regret at the end of our lives? And how can you make sure that you don't end up feeling the same way?

If you're reading this, then you probably have the power to make decisions in your daily life. It's rare that we are actually forced to live in a way that we don't want to live (thankfully). But somehow, many of us still end up wishing we had lived in a way that was more true to ourselves.

Here's why I believe this happens:

Anytime I find myself feeling stuck in neutral, it's usually the result of not having a clear target. I find myself doing work without defining what the work should actually be or hoping for a change without determining the underlying actions that would lead to it. In other words, I'm not being clear about what I care about and how I can get there. More on this in a moment.

Here's the result:

If you never draw a line in the sand and clarify what is really important to you, then you'll end up doing what's expected of you. When you don't have a clear purpose driving you forward, you default to doing what other people approve of. We're not sure what we really want, and so we do what we think other people want.

The grey areas in life usually arise when we haven't decided what we believe.

This is the position I think we all find ourselves in from time to time. And it's one reason why I think many of us end up living the life others expect us to live instead of a life that is true to ourselves.

I think often about how I can get better at living with purpose and how I can live an important life instead of an urgent one. When it comes to being clear about what I'm doing and why I'm doing it, I like to use a technique that I call the Bullseye Method.

"If you didn't know where the target was located, you would never fire an arrow and expect to hit the bullseye." And yet, we often live our lives this way. We wake up and face the world day after day (we keep firing arrows), but we are focused on everything except the bullseye.

Q. What is the bullseye according to the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 16 Bullseye, by the dictionary, means the center of the target in sports such as archery, shooting, and darts. So in the passage, the author refers to the target in one's life.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 17

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Bronnie Ware is a nurse in Australia. She has spent more than a decade counselling dying people. Over that time span, she began recording the top regrets that people have on their death bed.

After 12 years, she concluded that the most common regret of all was this:

"I wish I'd had the courage to live a life true to myself, not the life others expected of me."

Why is this such a common dying regret at the end of our lives? And how can you make sure that you don't end up feeling the same way?

If you're reading this, then you probably have the power to make decisions in your daily life. It's rare that we are actually forced to live in a way that we don't want to live (thankfully). But somehow, many of us still end up wishing we had lived in a way that was more true to ourselves.

Here's why I believe this happens:

Anytime I find myself feeling stuck in neutral, it's usually the result of not having a clear target. I find myself doing work without defining what the work should actually be or hoping for a change without determining the underlying actions that would lead to it. In other words, I'm not being clear about what I care about and how I can get there. More on this in a moment.

Here's the result:

If you never draw a line in the sand and clarify what is really important to you, then you'll end up doing what's expected of you. When you don't have a clear purpose driving you forward, you default to doing what other people approve of. We're not sure what we really want, and so we do what we think other people want.

The grey areas in life usually arise when we haven't decided what we believe.

This is the position I think we all find ourselves in from time to time. And it's one reason why I think many of us end up living the life others expect us to live instead of a life that is true to ourselves.

I think often about how I can get better at living with purpose and how I can live an important life instead of an urgent one. When it comes to being clear about what I'm doing and why I'm doing it, I like to use a technique that I call the Bullseye Method.

"If you didn't know where the target was located, you would never fire an arrow and expect to hit the bullseye." And yet, we often live our lives this way. We wake up and face the world day after day (we keep firing arrows), but we are focused on everything except the bullseye.

Q. What is the result given by the author in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 17 According to the author, if we do not clarify what do we need in life or draw a purpose for ourselves, we will always end up doing what is expected from us. We should have our goals prioritized to know what we want to achieve.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 18

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Bronnie Ware is a nurse in Australia. She has spent more than a decade counselling dying people. Over that time span, she began recording the top regrets that people have on their death bed.

After 12 years, she concluded that the most common regret of all was this:

"I wish I'd had the courage to live a life true to myself, not the life others expected of me."

Why is this such a common dying regret at the end of our lives? And how can you make sure that you don't end up feeling the same way?

If you're reading this, then you probably have the power to make decisions in your daily life. It's rare that we are actually forced to live in a way that we don't want to live (thankfully). But somehow, many of us still end up wishing we had lived in a way that was more true to ourselves.

Here's why I believe this happens:

Anytime I find myself feeling stuck in neutral, it's usually the result of not having a clear target. I find myself doing work without defining what the work should actually be or hoping for a change without determining the underlying actions that would lead to it. In other words, I'm not being clear about what I care about and how I can get there. More on this in a moment.

Here's the result :

If you never draw a line in the sand and clarify what is really important to you, then you'll end up doing what's expected of you. When you don't have a clear purpose driving you forward, you default to doing what other people approve of. We're not sure what we really want, and so we do what we think other people want.

The grey areas in life usually arise when we haven't decided what we believe.

This is the position I think we all find ourselves in from time to time. And it's one reason why I think many of us end up living the life others expect us to live instead of a life that is true to ourselves.

I think often about how I can get better at living with purpose and how I can live an important life instead of an urgent one. When it comes to being clear about what I'm doing and why I'm doing it, I like to use a technique that I call the Bullseye Method.

"If you didn't know where the target was located, you would never fire an arrow and expect to hit the bullseye." And yet, we often live our lives this way. We wake up and face the world day after day (we keep firing arrows), but we are focused on everything except the bullseye.

Q. Which of the following can be used instead of bullseye?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 18 A holy grail can be termed as something that is eagerly pursued or sought after. It is broadly similar to having a target that is desired. So, it can be synonymous with a bullseye.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 19

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Bronnie Ware is a nurse in Australia. She has spent more than a decade counselling dying people. Over that time span, she began recording the top regrets that people have on their death bed.

After 12 years, she concluded that the most common regret of all was this :

"I wish I'd had the courage to live a life true to myself, not the life others expected of me."

Why is this such a common dying regret at the end of our lives? And how can you make sure that you don't end up feeling the same way?

If you're reading this, then you probably have the power to make decisions in your daily life. It's rare that we are actually forced to live in a way that we don't want to live (thankfully). But somehow, many of us still end up wishing we had lived in a way that was more true to ourselves.

Here's why I believe this happens:

Anytime I find myself feeling stuck in neutral, it's usually the result of not having a clear target. I find myself doing work without defining what the work should actually be or hoping for a change without determining the underlying actions that would lead to it. In other words, I'm not being clear about what I care about and how I can get there. More on this in a moment.

Here's the result:

If you never draw a line in the sand and clarify what is really important to you, then you'll end up doing what's expected of you. When you don't have a clear purpose driving you forward, you default to doing what other people approve of. We're not sure what we really want, and so we do what we think other people want.

The grey areas in life usually arise when we haven't decided what we believe.

This is the position I think we all find ourselves in from time to time. And it's one reason why I think many of us end up living the life others expect us to live instead of a life that is true to ourselves.

I think often about how I can get better at living with purpose and how I can live an important life instead of an urgent one. When it comes to being clear about what I'm doing and why I'm doing it, I like to use a technique that I call the Bullseye Method.

"If you didn't know where the target was located, you would never fire an arrow and expect to hit the bullseye." And yet, we often live our lives this way. We wake up and face the world day after day (we keep firing arrows), but we are focused on everything except the bullseye.

Q. What is the grey area of our lives?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 19 According to the author, the grey area in anyone's life will be when they are unclear of the goal or purpose of their lives. So, in the passage, it means when we are not clear with ourselves.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 20

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Bronnie Ware is a nurse in Australia. She has spent more than a decade counselling dying people. Over that time span, she began recording the top regrets that people have on their death bed.

After 12 years, she concluded that the most common regret of all was this :

"I wish I'd had the courage to live a life true to myself, not the life others expected of me."

Why is this such a common dying regret at the end of our lives? And how can you make sure that you don't end up feeling the same way?

If you're reading this, then you probably have the power to make decisions in your daily life. It's rare that we are actually forced to live in a way that we don't want to live (thankfully). But somehow, many of us still end up wishing we had lived in a way that was more true to ourselves.

Here's why I believe this happens:

Anytime I find myself feeling stuck in neutral, it's usually the result of not having a clear target. I find myself doing work without defining what the work should actually be or hoping for a change without determining the underlying actions that would lead to it. In other words, I'm not being clear about what I care about and how I can get there. More on this in a moment.

Here's the result:

If you never draw a line in the sand and clarify what is really important to you, then you'll end up doing what's expected of you. When you don't have a clear purpose driving you forward, you default to doing what other people approve of. We're not sure what we really want, and so we do what we think other people want.

The grey areas in life usually arise when we haven't decided what we believe.

This is the position I think we all find ourselves in from time to time. And it's one reason why I think many of us end up living the life others expect us to live instead of a life that is true to ourselves.

I think often about how I can get better at living with purpose and how I can live an important life instead of an urgent one. When it comes to being clear about what I'm doing and why I'm doing it, I like to use a technique that I call the Bullseye Method.

"If you didn't know where the target was located, you would never fire an arrow and expect to hit the bullseye." And yet, we often live our lives this way. We wake up and face the world day after day (we keep firing arrows), but we are focused on everything except the bullseye.

Q. Which we want for ourselves and what others want According to the author, why do we end up living less truthful to ourselves?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 20 So, according to the author, to live a life true to ourselves we need to know what we want and the way to get it. When we are not sure what we want, we don't live a life true to us.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 21

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Hotels will just keep upping the fitness ante, with bigger, more spectacular gyms; more inspiring fitness classes held inside and out; more expert-led, local runs and hikes; more free workout gear, bikes, and pedometers; more in-room virtual training: and more partnerships with leading fitness consultancies or gym brands to deliver state-of-the-art facilities and classes-and even personal trainers and nutritionists. And with more hotels now sporting such dazzling fitness amenities, and classes worthy of über-trendy urban studios, the buzz is pulling in more locals (and profitable memberships), meaning more hotels are becoming the local wellness hangout.

If the free workout-in-a-bag (packed with yoga mats, dumbbell sets, jump-ropes, resistance bands, workout DVDs, running maps, etc.) was catching fire last year, it's now a conflagration. One example: Raffles Praslin in Seychelles will deliver up all these extras, along with an in-room trainer who leads you through a custom workout.

Many more hotels, like Wyndham's Tryp Hotels (110 across Europe and Central/South America), are offering free workout shoes and clothes, as well as installing sophisticated equipment like elliptical machines into guest rooms. And more hotels are peddling free bikes, like Kimpton's 50+ US boutique properties.

Fitness centers are getting vaster, with distinct areas for cardio, weights, functional fitness, and free zones for TRX or kettlebell training. And many more hotels, like The Four Seasons in Nevis or Omni Hotels, keep gyms open 24/7. Just as more, like Oberoi properties in New Delhi, Mumbai, and Dubai, keep their spas open around the clock.

Far more hotels are offering yoga, boot camps, and menus of hot, branded fitness classes, at a rate unimaginable just a couple of years ago. And they're able to execute these fitness programs either by bringing in local practitioners or through partnerships with nearby gyms/studios. While free to guests, locals are paying $25 − $40 a class to get in on all the forward-thinking fitness fun.

Yoga at hotels is getting especially common and creative: from stand-up paddleboard yoga at places like The Tides Inn in Virginia (where non-guests happily pay $40) and Hawaii's The Fairmont Orchid. Popular aqua-yoga classes rule the pool at The Hotel Wilshire (LA), while Ashtanga yoga with the dolphins makes headlines at The Mirage in Las Vegas. The James Hotel (NYC) proves if you put yoga on a gorgeous rooftop, they will come. Some hotels actually house independent yoga studios, like 889 Yoga \& Wellness Spa at Thompson in Toronto, so guests can hit classes anytime all day. At the Mandarin Oriental in Bangkok, an in-house yogi trainer is on call.

More hotels are hooking up with local gyms and studios to offer yoga, Pilates, spinning, you-name-it, classes, just a short stroll away. That's a lot of "bang" for guests with no hotel investment bucks. One example: the Indigo Chelsea (NYC) has linked with indoor cycling studio, Revolve, letting guests redeem free, branded "rides."

Hotels that think "fabulous gym," and then think beyond the gym, to fun classes and outdoor experiences, create a halo of happiness around the property, and it's a smart local market revenue generator. They're turning the lonely, avoided gym routine into a meaningful social activity-and creating more memorable stays.

Q. What is the theme of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 21 Hotels offer luxury fitness, classes to join and outdoor experiences create a happy halo around the property. It is a smart marketing strategy to attract more customers and a good revenue generator.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 22

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Hotels will just keep upping the fitness ante, with bigger, more spectacular gyms; more inspiring fitness classes held inside and out; more expert-led, local runs and hikes; more free workout gear, bikes, and pedometers; more in-room virtual training: and more partnerships with leading fitness consultancies or gym brands to deliver state-of-the-art facilities and classes-and even personal trainers and nutritionists. And with more hotels now sporting such dazzling fitness amenities, and classes worthy of über-trendy urban studios, the buzz is pulling in more locals (and profitable memberships), meaning more hotels are becoming the local wellness hangout.

If the free workout-in-a-bag (packed with yoga mats, dumbbell sets, jump-ropes, resistance bands, workout DVDs, running maps, etc.) was catching fire last year, it's now a conflagration. One example: Raffles Praslin in Seychelles will deliver up all these extras, along with an in-room trainer who leads you through a custom workout.

Many more hotels, like Wyndham's Tryp Hotels (110 across Europe and Central/South America), are offering free workout shoes and clothes, as well as installing sophisticated equipment like elliptical machines into guest rooms. And more hotels are peddling free bikes, like Kimpton's 50+ US boutique properties.

Fitness centers are getting vaster, with distinct areas for cardio, weights, functional fitness, and free zones for TRX or kettlebell training. And many more hotels, like The Four Seasons in Nevis or Omni Hotels, keep gyms open 24/7. Just as more, like Oberoi properties in New Delhi, Mumbai, and Dubai, keep their spas open around the clock.

Far more hotels are offering yoga, boot camps, and menus of hot, branded fitness classes, at a rate unimaginable just a couple of years ago. And they're able to execute these fitness programs either by bringing in local practitioners or through partnerships with nearby gyms/studios. While free to guests, locals are paying $25 − $40 a class to get in on all the forward-thinking fitness fun.

Yoga at hotels is getting especially common and creative: from stand-up paddleboard yoga at places like The Tides Inn in Virginia (where non-guests happily pay $40) and Hawaii's The Fairmont Orchid. Popular aqua-yoga classes rule the pool at The Hotel Wilshire (LA), while Ashtanga yoga with the dolphins makes headlines at The Mirage in Las Vegas. The James Hotel (NYC) proves if you put yoga on a gorgeous rooftop, they will come. Some hotels actually house independent yoga studios, like 889 Yoga \& Wellness Spa at Thompson in Toronto, so guests can hit classes anytime all day. At the Mandarin Oriental in Bangkok, an in-house yogi trainer is on call.

More hotels are hooking up with local gyms and studios to offer yoga, Pilates, spinning, you-name-it, classes, just a short stroll away. That's a lot of "bang" for guests with no hotel investment bucks. One example: the Indigo Chelsea (NYC) has linked with indoor cycling studio, Revolve, letting guests redeem free, branded "rides."

Hotels that think "fabulous gym," and then think beyond the gym, to fun classes and outdoor experiences, create a halo of happiness around the property, and it's a smart local market revenue generator. They're turning the lonely, avoided gym routine into a meaningful social activity-and creating more memorable stays.

Q. What do you understand by 'conflagration'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 22 The word 'conflagration' means an extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property. But about the flaming wildfire that is in the hotel industry in regards to the fitness offerings.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 23

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Hotels will just keep upping the fitness ante, with bigger, more spectacular gyms; more inspiring fitness classes held inside and out; more expert-led, local runs and hikes; more free workout gear, bikes, and pedometers; more in-room virtual training: and more partnerships with leading fitness consultancies or gym brands to deliver state-of-the-art facilities and classes-and even personal trainers and nutritionists. And with more hotels now sporting such dazzling fitness amenities, and classes worthy of über-trendy urban studios, the buzz is pulling in more locals (and profitable memberships), meaning more hotels are becoming the local wellness hangout.

If the free workout-in-a-bag (packed with yoga mats, dumbbell sets, jump-ropes, resistance bands, workout DVDs, running maps, etc.) was catching fire last year, it's now a conflagration. One example: Raffles Praslin in Seychelles will deliver up all these extras, along with an in-room trainer who leads you through a custom workout.

Many more hotels, like Wyndham's Tryp Hotels (110 across Europe and Central/South America), are offering free workout shoes and clothes, as well as installing sophisticated equipment like elliptical machines into guest rooms. And more hotels are peddling free bikes, like Kimpton's 50+ US boutique properties.

Fitness centers are getting vaster, with distinct areas for cardio, weights, functional fitness, and free zones for TRX or kettlebell training. And many more hotels, like The Four Seasons in Nevis or Omni Hotels, keep gyms open 24/7. Just as more, like Oberoi properties in New Delhi, Mumbai, and Dubai, keep their spas open around the clock.

Far more hotels are offering yoga, boot camps, and menus of hot, branded fitness classes, at a rate unimaginable just a couple of years ago. And they're able to execute these fitness programs either by bringing in local practitioners or through partnerships with nearby gyms/studios. While free to guests, locals are paying $25 − $40 a class to get in on all the forward-thinking fitness fun.

Yoga at hotels is getting especially common and creative: from stand-up paddleboard yoga at places like The Tides Inn in Virginia (where non-guests happily pay $40) and Hawaii's The Fairmont Orchid. Popular aqua-yoga classes rule the pool at The Hotel Wilshire (LA), while Ashtanga yoga with the dolphins makes headlines at The Mirage in Las Vegas. The James Hotel (NYC) proves if you put yoga on a gorgeous rooftop, they will come. Some hotels actually house independent yoga studios, like 889 Yoga \& Wellness Spa at Thompson in Toronto, so guests can hit classes anytime all day. At the Mandarin Oriental in Bangkok, an in-house yogi trainer is on call.

More hotels are hooking up with local gyms and studios to offer yoga, Pilates, spinning, you-name-it, classes, just a short stroll away. That's a lot of "bang" for guests with no hotel investment bucks. One example: the Indigo Chelsea (NYC) has linked with indoor cycling studio, Revolve, letting guests redeem free, branded "rides."

Hotels that think "fabulous gym," and then think beyond the gym, to fun classes and outdoor experiences, create a halo of happiness around the property, and it's a smart local market revenue generator. They're turning the lonely, avoided gym routine into a meaningful social activity-and creating more memorable stays.

Q. According to the passage, how much locals are paying for a single fitness class?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 23

In the passage, the author describes that hotels provide fitness services to their guests for free in order to boost their revenues. While for the same services the locals have to pay $25 − $40 for each class.
Hence, the given option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 24

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Hotels will just keep upping the fitness ante, with bigger, more spectacular gyms; more inspiring fitness classes held inside and out; more expert-led, local runs and hikes; more free workout gear, bikes, and pedometers; more in-room virtual training: and more partnerships with leading fitness consultancies or gym brands to deliver state-of-the-art facilities and classes-and even personal trainers and nutritionists. And with more hotels now sporting such dazzling fitness amenities, and classes worthy of über-trendy urban studios, the buzz is pulling in more locals (and profitable memberships), meaning more hotels are becoming the local wellness hangout.

If the free workout-in-a-bag (packed with yoga mats, dumbbell sets, jump-ropes, resistance bands, workout DVDs, running maps, etc.) was catching fire last year, it's now a conflagration. One example: Raffles Praslin in Seychelles will deliver up all these extras, along with an in-room trainer who leads you through a custom workout.

Many more hotels, like Wyndham's Tryp Hotels (110 across Europe and Central/South America), are offering free workout shoes and clothes, as well as installing sophisticated equipment like elliptical machines into guest rooms. And more hotels are peddling free bikes, like Kimpton's 50+ US boutique properties.

Fitness centers are getting vaster, with distinct areas for cardio, weights, functional fitness, and free zones for TRX or kettlebell training. And many more hotels, like The Four Seasons in Nevis or Omni Hotels, keep gyms open 24/7. Just as more, like Oberoi properties in New Delhi, Mumbai, and Dubai, keep their spas open around the clock.

Far more hotels are offering yoga, boot camps, and menus of hot, branded fitness classes, at a rate unimaginable just a couple of years ago. And they're able to execute these fitness programs either by bringing in local practitioners or through partnerships with nearby gyms/studios. While free to guests, locals are paying $25 − $40 a class to get in on all the forward-thinking fitness fun.

Yoga at hotels is getting especially common and creative: from stand-up paddleboard yoga at places like The Tides Inn in Virginia (where non-guests happily pay $40) and Hawaii's The Fairmont Orchid. Popular aqua-yoga classes rule the pool at The Hotel Wilshire (LA), while Ashtanga yoga with the dolphins makes headlines at The Mirage in Las Vegas. The James Hotel (NYC) proves if you put yoga on a gorgeous rooftop, they will come. Some hotels actually house independent yoga studios, like 889 Yoga \& Wellness Spa at Thompson in Toronto, so guests can hit classes anytime all day. At the Mandarin Oriental in Bangkok, an in-house yogi trainer is on call.

More hotels are hooking up with local gyms and studios to offer yoga, Pilates, spinning, you-name-it, classes, just a short stroll away. That's a lot of "bang" for guests with no hotel investment bucks. One example: the Indigo Chelsea (NYC) has linked with indoor cycling studio, Revolve, letting guests redeem free, branded "rides."

Hotels that think "fabulous gym," and then think beyond the gym, to fun classes and outdoor experiences, create a halo of happiness around the property, and it's a smart local market revenue generator. They're turning the lonely, avoided gym routine into a meaningful social activity-and creating more memorable stays.

Q. How fitness centers are getting vaster?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 24 Business in the hotel industry revolves around multiple fitness offers that attract customers. Yoga has become a common practice. The new offerings that is provided is the spa services.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 25

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

Hotels will just keep upping the fitness ante, with bigger, more spectacular gyms; more inspiring fitness classes held inside and out; more expert-led, local runs and hikes; more free workout gear, bikes, and pedometers; more in-room virtual training: and more partnerships with leading fitness consultancies or gym brands to deliver state-of-the-art facilities and classes-and even personal trainers and nutritionists. And with more hotels now sporting such dazzling fitness amenities, and classes worthy of über-trendy urban studios, the buzz is pulling in more locals (and profitable memberships), meaning more hotels are becoming the local wellness hangout.

If the free workout-in-a-bag (packed with yoga mats, dumbbell sets, jump-ropes, resistance bands, workout DVDs, running maps, etc.) was catching fire last year, it's now a conflagration. One example: Raffles Praslin in Seychelles will deliver up all these extras, along with an in-room trainer who leads you through a custom workout.

Many more hotels, like Wyndham's Tryp Hotels (110 across Europe and Central/South America), are offering free workout shoes and clothes, as well as installing sophisticated equipment like elliptical machines into guest rooms. And more hotels are peddling free bikes, like Kimpton's 50+ US boutique properties.

Fitness centers are getting vaster, with distinct areas for cardio, weights, functional fitness, and free zones for TRX or kettlebell training. And many more hotels, like The Four Seasons in Nevis or Omni Hotels, keep gyms open 24/7. Just as more, like Oberoi properties in New Delhi, Mumbai, and Dubai, keep their spas open around the clock.

Far more hotels are offering yoga, boot camps, and menus of hot, branded fitness classes, at a rate unimaginable just a couple of years ago. And they're able to execute these fitness programs either by bringing in local practitioners or through partnerships with nearby gyms/studios. While free to guests, locals are paying $25 − $40 a class to get in on all the forward-thinking fitness fun.

Yoga at hotels is getting especially common and creative: from stand-up paddleboard yoga at places like The Tides Inn in Virginia (where non-guests happily pay $40) and Hawaii's The Fairmont Orchid. Popular aqua-yoga classes rule the pool at The Hotel Wilshire (LA), while Ashtanga yoga with the dolphins makes headlines at The Mirage in Las Vegas. The James Hotel (NYC) proves if you put yoga on a gorgeous rooftop, they will come. Some hotels actually house independent yoga studios, like 889 Yoga \& Wellness Spa at Thompson in Toronto, so guests can hit classes anytime all day. At the Mandarin Oriental in Bangkok, an in-house yogi trainer is on call.

More hotels are hooking up with local gyms and studios to offer yoga, Pilates, spinning, you-name-it, classes, just a short stroll away. That's a lot of "bang" for guests with no hotel investment bucks. One example: the Indigo Chelsea (NYC) has linked with indoor cycling studio, Revolve, letting guests redeem free, branded "rides."

Hotels that think "fabulous gym," and then think beyond the gym, to fun classes and outdoor experiences, create a halo of happiness around the property, and it's a smart local market revenue generator. They're turning the lonely, avoided gym routine into a meaningful social activity-and creating more memorable stays.

Q. What is a 'smart local revenue generator' for hotels?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 25 Hotels offer luxury fitness, classes to join and outdoor experiences create a happy halo around the property. It is a smart marketing strategy to attract more customers and a good revenue generator.

Hence, this option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 26

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

If you go to the Rehabilitation Institute in Chicago, you will see someone working to help patients. This is a job that helps people do more. It is a job that takes patience and skills. This person is a Physical Therapist. As you read what one person says about her job, imagine yourself doing this kind of work someday. How would you feel if every day you helped people make progress?

I work closely with people who have hurt themselves. Their injuries may be as mild as having a sore shoulder, knee, or back, or as severe as having paralysed legs and/or arms. It's my job to evaluate what their problems are and come up with ways to help make them better, stronger, take their pain away or teach them to walk and do things for themselves again.

I need tu be able to communicate well with people of all ages and backgrounds every day. I need to be able to talk to people I've never met and ask them personal questions that help me to understand what is wrong with them. I can't be shy around new people and I need to be clear in my communications with them.

I chose to go into physical therapy because I love to be with people and talk with them. I decided that I didn't want to use the computer all day or answer the telephone or be in a lab doing experiments. I wanted to be around people and I wanted to be an important part of helping them feel better.

To prepare to become a Physical Therapist, I had to finish college and then go to graduate school for 3 years. In that time, I learned all the muscles in the body and all the organs and how they work. I learned how to figure out what is weak and what hurts on people and then how to help. I prepared for knowing all that by taking a lot of classes in biology, chemistry, math, physics, anatomy, physiology, and psychology.

What I like about my job is that it is always very interesting and never boring. I like that I am never alone but surrounded by people all the time. They tell me that I have made a difference in their lives and when I go home at night, I know that I have touched someone else's life and they appreciate the work I did for them. I also love that my job combines being active and physical with being a thinker and doing a lot of problem-solving.

Q. Why did the author become a physical therapist?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 26 In the passage, the author mentions that in Rehabilitation Institute in Chicago someone is helping a patient. So, the author became a physical therapist to become an important part of helping them.

Hence, the given option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 27

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

If you go to the Rehabilitation Institute in Chicago, you will see someone working to help patients. This is a job that helps people do more. It is a job that takes patience and skills. This person is a Physical Therapist. As you read what one person says about her job, imagine yourself doing this kind of work someday. How would you feel if every day you helped people make progress?

I work closely with people who have hurt themselves. Their injuries may be as mild as having a sore shoulder, knee, or back, or as severe as having paralysed legs and/or arms. It's my job to evaluate what their problems are and come up with ways to help make them better, stronger, take their pain away or teach them to walk and do things for themselves again.

I need tu be able to communicate well with people of all ages and backgrounds every day. I need to be able to talk to people I've never met and ask them personal questions that help me to understand what is wrong with them. I can't be shy around new people and I need to be clear in my communications with them.

I chose to go into physical therapy because I love to be with people and talk with them. I decided that I didn't want to use the computer all day or answer the telephone or be in a lab doing experiments. I wanted to be around people and I wanted to be an important part of helping them feel better.

To prepare to become a Physical Therapist, I had to finish college and then go to graduate school for 3 years. In that time, I learned all the muscles in the body and all the organs and how they work. I learned how to figure out what is weak and what hurts on people and then how to help. I prepared for knowing all that by taking a lot of classes in biology, chemistry, math, physics, anatomy, physiology, and psychology.

What I like about my job is that it is always very interesting and never boring. I like that I am never alone but surrounded by people all the time. They tell me that I have made a difference in their lives and when I go home at night, I know that I have touched someone else's life and they appreciate the work I did for them. I also love that my job combines being active and physical with being a thinker and doing a lot of problem-solving.

Q. What is the main idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 27 The author is a physical therapist who works at the institute, she meets and helps people who are hurt physically. The passage is aimed at describing how difficult and demanding her work is.

Hence, the given option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 28

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

If you go to the Rehabilitation Institute in Chicago, you will see someone working to help patients. This is a job that helps people do more. It is a job that takes patience and skills. This person is a Physical Therapist. As you read what one person says about her job, imagine yourself doing this kind of work someday. How would you feel if every day you helped people make progress?

I work closely with people who have hurt themselves. Their injuries may be as mild as having a sore shoulder, knee, or back, or as severe as having paralysed legs and/or arms. It's my job to evaluate what their problems are and come up with ways to help make them better, stronger, take their pain away or teach them to walk and do things for themselves again.

I need tu be able to communicate well with people of all ages and backgrounds every day. I need to be able to talk to people I've never met and ask them personal questions that help me to understand what is wrong with them. I can't be shy around new people and I need to be clear in my communications with them.

I chose to go into physical therapy because I love to be with people and talk with them. I decided that I didn't want to use the computer all day or answer the telephone or be in a lab doing experiments. I wanted to be around people and I wanted to be an important part of helping them feel better.

To prepare to become a Physical Therapist, I had to finish college and then go to graduate school for 3 years. In that time, I learned all the muscles in the body and all the organs and how they work. I learned how to figure out what is weak and what hurts on people and then how to help. I prepared for knowing all that by taking a lot of classes in biology, chemistry, math, physics, anatomy, physiology, and psychology.

What I like about my job is that it is always very interesting and never boring. I like that I am never alone but surrounded by people all the time. They tell me that I have made a difference in their lives and when I go home at night, I know that I have touched someone else's life and they appreciate the work I did for them. I also love that my job combines being active and physical with being a thinker and doing a lot of problem-solving.

Q. Which of the following can be described as anatomy?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 28 Anatomy can be described as the branch of science involved with the physical structure of beings, and other living organisms.

Hence, the 'branch of biology concerned with structures of the organisms' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 29

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

If you go to the Rehabilitation Institute in Chicago, you will see someone working to help patients. This is a job that helps people do more. It is a job that takes patience and skills. This person is a Physical Therapist. As you read what one person says about her job, imagine yourself doing this kind of work someday. How would you feel if every day you helped people make progress?

I work closely with people who have hurt themselves. Their injuries may be as mild as having a sore shoulder, knee, or back, or as severe as having paralysed legs and/or arms. It's my job to evaluate what their problems are and come up with ways to help make them better, stronger, take their pain away or teach them to walk and do things for themselves again.

I need tu be able to communicate well with people of all ages and backgrounds every day. I need to be able to talk to people I've never met and ask them personal questions that help me to understand what is wrong with them. I can't be shy around new people and I need to be clear in my communications with them.

I chose to go into physical therapy because I love to be with people and talk with them. I decided that I didn't want to use the computer all day or answer the telephone or be in a lab doing experiments. I wanted to be around people and I wanted to be an important part of helping them feel better.

To prepare to become a Physical Therapist, I had to finish college and then go to graduate school for 3 years. In that time, I learned all the muscles in the body and all the organs and how they work. I learned how to figure out what is weak and what hurts on people and then how to help. I prepared for knowing all that by taking a lot of classes in biology, chemistry, math, physics, anatomy, physiology, and psychology.

What I like about my job is that it is always very interesting and never boring. I like that I am never alone but surrounded by people all the time. They tell me that I have made a difference in their lives and when I go home at night, I know that I have touched someone else's life and they appreciate the work I did for them. I also love that my job combines being active and physical with being a thinker and doing a lot of problem-solving.

Q. What type of people does the author deal with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 29 In the passage, the author mentions that in Rehabilitation Institute in Chicago someone is helping a patient. Since the author is a physical therapist who works at the institute, it can be safely deduced that she meets people who are hurt physically.

Hence, the given option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 30

Direction: Read the passage carefully to answer the question given.

If you go to the Rehabilitation Institute in Chicago, you will see someone working to help patients. This is a job that helps people do more. It is a job that takes patience and skills. This person is a Physical Therapist. As you read what one person says about her job, imagine yourself doing this kind of work someday. How would you feel if every day you helped people make progress?

I work closely with people who have hurt themselves. Their injuries may be as mild as having a sore shoulder, knee, or back, or as severe as having paralysed legs and/or arms. It's my job to evaluate what their problems are and come up with ways to help make them better, stronger, take their pain away or teach them to walk and do things for themselves again.

I need tu be able to communicate well with people of all ages and backgrounds every day. I need to be able to talk to people I've never met and ask them personal questions that help me to understand what is wrong with them. I can't be shy around new people and I need to be clear in my communications with them.

I chose to go into physical therapy because I love to be with people and talk with them. I decided that I didn't want to use the computer all day or answer the telephone or be in a lab doing experiments. I wanted to be around people and I wanted to be an important part of helping them feel better.

To prepare to become a Physical Therapist, I had to finish college and then go to graduate school for 3 years. In that time, I learned all the muscles in the body and all the organs and how they work. I learned how to figure out what is weak and what hurts on people and then how to help. I prepared for knowing all that by taking a lot of classes in biology, chemistry, math, physics, anatomy, physiology, and psychology.

What I like about my job is that it is always very interesting and never boring. I like that I am never alone but surrounded by people all the time. They tell me that I have made a difference in their lives and when I go home at night, I know that I have touched someone else's life and they appreciate the work I did for them. I also love that my job combines being active and physical with being a thinker and doing a lot of problem-solving.

Q. Which of the following is a synonym for mild?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 30 The word mild means benign, calm, mellow, soft or delicate. From the given alternatives, 'gentle' is the closest to describing delicate and hence is the synonym of the word 'mild'.

Hence, the given option is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 31

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Lok Sabha secretariat has launched a new app, Digital Sansad, that will make it easier for people to follow proceedings in Parliament, and also their own lawmakers. In addition, it will also help members of parliament access services such as checking personal updates like status of their notices, House bulletins, etc. As MPs are barred from using laptops inside the House, the app comes handy for parliamentary information for MPs during a debate in the House. In future, the MPs can log in for attendance, give questions for the Question Hour or submit notices for debates or adjournment motions. The Digital Sansad app is available in both android and IOS platform and carries nearly all major content of the interlinked portal of Indian Parliament. A senior official claimed that the Digital Sansad is one of the few apps of a parliament internationally that offer a 360-degree view of legislative activities as well as services for members.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, Jan 28, 2022.]

Q. Digital Sansad is the brainchild of a Lok Sabha Speaker. Name the Lok Sabha Speaker.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 31 Digital Sansad is the brainchild of Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla who has sought to make parliamentary proceedings more accessible to people. Om Birla is an Indian politician who is the 17th Speaker of the Lok Sabha. He serves as a Member of Parliament for the Kota-bundi constituency in Rajasthan.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 32

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Lok Sabha secretariat has launched a new app, Digital Sansad, that will make it easier for people to follow proceedings in Parliament, and also their own lawmakers. In addition, it will also help members of parliament access services such as checking personal updates like status of their notices, House bulletins, etc. As MPs are barred from using laptops inside the House, the app comes handy for parliamentary information for MPs during a debate in the House. In future, the MPs can log in for attendance, give questions for the Question Hour or submit notices for debates or adjournment motions. The Digital Sansad app is available in both android and IOS platform and carries nearly all major content of the interlinked portal of Indian Parliament. A senior official claimed that the Digital Sansad is one of the few apps of a parliament internationally that offer a 360-degree view of legislative activities as well as services for members.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, Jan 28, 2022.]

Q. The adjournment motion needs the support of _______ members to be admitted.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 32 The adjournment motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 33

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Lok Sabha secretariat has launched a new app, Digital Sansad, that will make it easier for people to follow proceedings in Parliament, and also their own lawmakers. In addition, it will also help members of parliament access services such as checking personal updates like status of their notices, House bulletins, etc. As MPs are barred from using laptops inside the House, the app comes handy for parliamentary information for MPs during a debate in the House. In future, the MPs can log in for attendance, give questions for the Question Hour or submit notices for debates or adjournment motions. The Digital Sansad app is available in both android and IOS platform and carries nearly all major content of the interlinked portal of Indian Parliament. A senior official claimed that the Digital Sansad is one of the few apps of a parliament internationally that offer a 360-degree view of legislative activities as well as services for members.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, Jan 28, 2022.]

Q. In 2021, Sansad TV was launched on International Day of Democracy. When is International Day of Democracy celebrated?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 33 Sansad TV, a news channel combining the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha TV, was launched on the International Day of Democracy. The International Day of Democracy is celebrated around the world on 15 September each year. It was established through a resolution passed by the UN General Assembly in 2007, encouraging governments to strengthen and consolidate democracy.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 34

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Lok Sabha secretariat has launched a new app, Digital Sansad, that will make it easier for people to follow proceedings in Parliament, and also their own lawmakers. In addition, it will also help members of parliament access services such as checking personal updates like status of their notices, House bulletins, etc. As MPs are barred from using laptops inside the House, the app comes handy for parliamentary information for MPs during a debate in the House. In future, the MPs can log in for attendance, give questions for the Question Hour or submit notices for debates or adjournment motions. The Digital Sansad app is available in both android and IOS platform and carries nearly all major content of the interlinked portal of Indian Parliament. A senior official claimed that the Digital Sansad is one of the few apps of a parliament internationally that offer a 360-degree view of legislative activities as well as services for members.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, Jan 28, 2022.]

Q. Which among the following is not true about Question Hour?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 34

Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting session of India's Lok Sabha devoted to questions that Members of Parliament raise about any aspect of administrative activity. The concerned Minister is obliged to answer to the Parliament, either orally or in writing, depending on the type of question raised. There are four types of question – Starred, non-starred, short notice question and questions to private members.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 35

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Lok Sabha secretariat has launched a new app, Digital Sansad, that will make it easier for people to follow proceedings in Parliament, and also their own lawmakers. In addition, it will also help members of parliament access services such as checking personal updates like status of their notices, House bulletins, etc. As MPs are barred from using laptops inside the House, the app comes handy for parliamentary information for MPs during a debate in the House. In future, the MPs can log in for attendance, give questions for the Question Hour or submit notices for debates or adjournment motions. The Digital Sansad app is available in both android and IOS platform and carries nearly all major content of the interlinked portal of Indian Parliament. A senior official claimed that the Digital Sansad is one of the few apps of a parliament internationally that offer a 360-degree view of legislative activities as well as services for members.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, Jan 28, 2022.]

Q. Consider the following statements about Digital India and mark the correct option.

Statement I: It was launched on July 1st, 2015, by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

Statement II: Its main objective is connecting rural areas with high-speed Internet networks and improving digital literacy.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 35 Digital India was launched by the Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi on July 1st, 2015, with an objective of connecting rural areas with high-speed Internet networks and improving digital literacy. The vision of Digital India programme is inclusive growth in areas of electronic services, products, manufacturing and job opportunities. It is centred on three key areas - digital infrastructure as a utility to every citizen, governance and services on demand, and digital empowerment of citizens.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 36

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court in a significant judgement said it is unconstitutional to distinguish between married and unmarried women for allowing termination of pregnancy on certain exceptional grounds when the foetus is between 20-24 weeks. The decision follows an interim order in July by which the court had allowed a 25-year-old woman to terminate her pregnancy. The ruling, incidentally delivered on International Safe Abortion Day, emphasises female autonomy in accessing abortion. The challenge to the provision was made in July by a 25-year-old unmarried woman who moved the court seeking an abortion after the Delhi High Court declined her plea. The woman's case was that she wished to terminate her pregnancy as her partner had refused to marry her at the last stage. She also argued that the continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk of grave and immense injury to her mental health. However, the law allowed such change in circumstances only for marital relationships. The Supreme Court, holding that the law had to be given a purposeful interpretation, had allowed the petitioner to terminate her pregnancy in an interim order. However, the larger challenge to the law, which would benefit other women as well, was kept pending.

[Source - The Indian Express, September 30, 2022]

Q. When is the 'International Safe Abortion Day' observed?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 36 In 2011, the Women's Global Network for Reproductive Rights (WGNRR) declared September 28 as 'International Safe Abortion Day'. The date was chosen to commemorate the passing of the 'Law of Free Birth' passed by the Brazilian parliament on September 28, 1871.

The day has been celebrated since 1990 in Latin America, and since 2011 around the world.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 37

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court in a significant judgement said it is unconstitutional to distinguish between married and unmarried women for allowing termination of pregnancy on certain exceptional grounds when the foetus is between 20-24 weeks. The decision follows an interim order in July by which the court had allowed a 25-year-old woman to terminate her pregnancy. The ruling, incidentally delivered on International Safe Abortion Day, emphasises female autonomy in accessing abortion. The challenge to the provision was made in July by a 25-year-old unmarried woman who moved the court seeking an abortion after the Delhi High Court declined her plea. The woman's case was that she wished to terminate her pregnancy as her partner had refused to marry her at the last stage. She also argued that the continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk of grave and immense injury to her mental health. However, the law allowed such change in circumstances only for marital relationships. The Supreme Court, holding that the law had to be given a purposeful interpretation, had allowed the petitioner to terminate her pregnancy in an interim order. However, the larger challenge to the law, which would benefit other women as well, was kept pending.

[Source - The Indian Express, September 30, 2022]

Q. In India, for pregnancies within 20 weeks, termination can be allowed if:

(a) the woman provides her explicit consent to terminate her pregnancy without consulting a medical practitioner.

(b) there is a substantial risk that if the child was born, it would suffer from any serious physical or mental abnormality.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 37 The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act allows termination of pregnancy by a medical practitioner in two stages. After a crucial amendment in 2021, for pregnancies up to 20 weeks, termination is allowed under the opinion of one registered medical practitioner. For pregnancies within 20 weeks, termination can be allowed if

(a) the continuance of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of grave injury to her physical or mental health; or

(b) there is a substantial risk that if the child was born, it would suffer from any serious physical or mental abnormality.

According to the original 1971 Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, consent of two medical practitioners was mandatory to terminate the pregnancy. However, after the 2021 amendment, termination is allowed under the opinion of one medical practitioner. Thus, irrespective of the situation, consent of medical practitioner(s) is warranted to terminate a pregnancy and a woman cannot herself proceed with terminating her pregnancy based on explicit consent.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 38

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court in a significant judgement said it is unconstitutional to distinguish between married and unmarried women for allowing termination of pregnancy on certain exceptional grounds when the foetus is between 20-24 weeks. The decision follows an interim order in July by which the court had allowed a 25-year-old woman to terminate her pregnancy. The ruling, incidentally delivered on International Safe Abortion Day, emphasises female autonomy in accessing abortion. The challenge to the provision was made in July by a 25-year-old unmarried woman who moved the court seeking an abortion after the Delhi High Court declined her plea. The woman's case was that she wished to terminate her pregnancy as her partner had refused to marry her at the last stage. She also argued that the continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk of grave and immense injury to her mental health. However, the law allowed such change in circumstances only for marital relationships. The Supreme Court, holding that the law had to be given a purposeful interpretation, had allowed the petitioner to terminate her pregnancy in an interim order. However, the larger challenge to the law, which would benefit other women as well, was kept pending.

[Source - The Indian Express, September 30, 2022]

Q. The cost of undergoing an abortion is fully covered by the Indian government's public national health insurance fund 'Ayushman Bharat'. Name the organisation set up to administer the Ayushman Bharat Yojana.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 38 'Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana' is part of the Indian government's 'National Health Policy' and is means-tested. It was launched in September 2018 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. That ministry later established the 'National Health Authority' as an organisation to administer the programme. If a pregnant woman seeks abortion services from a government healthcare facility, the cost is fully covered by the government's Ayushman Bharat and Employees' State Insurance funds. Private abortion providers, on the other hand, charge based on the trimester.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 39

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court in a significant judgement said it is unconstitutional to distinguish between married and unmarried women for allowing termination of pregnancy on certain exceptional grounds when the foetus is between 20-24 weeks. The decision follows an interim order in July by which the court had allowed a 25-year-old woman to terminate her pregnancy. The ruling, incidentally delivered on International Safe Abortion Day, emphasises female autonomy in accessing abortion. The challenge to the provision was made in July by a 25-year-old unmarried woman who moved the court seeking an abortion after the Delhi High Court declined her plea. The woman's case was that she wished to terminate her pregnancy as her partner had refused to marry her at the last stage. She also argued that the continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk of grave and immense injury to her mental health. However, the law allowed such change in circumstances only for marital relationships. The Supreme Court, holding that the law had to be given a purposeful interpretation, had allowed the petitioner to terminate her pregnancy in an interim order. However, the larger challenge to the law, which would benefit other women as well, was kept pending.

[Source - The Indian Express, September 30, 2022]

Q. In which of the following countries is abortion NOT completely illegal?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 39 Abortion in Belgium was fully legalised on 4th April, 1990. Abortion is legal until 12 weeks after conception (14 weeks after the last menstrual period). Countries like El Salvador, Honduras, Nicaragua, Madagascar, Andorra, Haiti, Malta, the Philippines, etc. completely prohibit abortion. Thus, option 2 is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 40

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court in a significant judgement said it is unconstitutional to distinguish between married and unmarried women for allowing termination of pregnancy on certain exceptional grounds when the foetus is between 20-24 weeks. The decision follows an interim order in July by which the court had allowed a 25-year-old woman to terminate her pregnancy. The ruling, incidentally delivered on International Safe Abortion Day, emphasises female autonomy in accessing abortion. The challenge to the provision was made in July by a 25-year-old unmarried woman who moved the court seeking an abortion after the Delhi High Court declined her plea. The woman's case was that she wished to terminate her pregnancy as her partner had refused to marry her at the last stage. She also argued that the continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk of grave and immense injury to her mental health. However, the law allowed such change in circumstances only for marital relationships. The Supreme Court, holding that the law had to be given a purposeful interpretation, had allowed the petitioner to terminate her pregnancy in an interim order. However, the larger challenge to the law, which would benefit other women as well, was kept pending.

[Source - The Indian Express, September 30, 2022]

Q. Which country overturned the 1973 landmark decision of Roe v. Wade on the issue of abortion?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 40 The US Supreme Court overturned the 1973 landmark decision of Roe v. Wade on the issue of abortion, a verdict that is likely to have large-scale ramifications in the country. Almost 50 years after an American woman's constitutional right to abortion was recognised, the US Supreme Court has effectively eliminated the right altogether, allowing states to enforce a ban on abortions.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 41

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Governor Arif Mohammed Khan inaugurated the World Space Week (WSW) celebrations organised by ISRO centres in the capital. He said the bright future of the country lay in the hands of the younger generation who nurture a passion for acquiring knowledge. Mr. Khan recalled India's proud heritage and the tradition of worshipping knowledge. He also lauded ISRO centres for reaching out to students through WSW to inculcate in them the spirit of inquiry in the fields of science and technology, a statement issued by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) said. Celebrations in the State capital are organised by the local ISRO centres with competitions and programmes for students and the general public. ISRO chairman presided over the function. VSSC director S. Unnikrishnan Nair, Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) director V. Narayanan, ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU) director Sam Dayala Dev and VSSC chief controller C. Manoj were present.

[Source - The Hindu, October 6, 2022]

Q. When is the World Space Week celebrated?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 41 The World Space Week is observed from October 4 to 10 in over 95 nations throughout the world. The World Space Week is officially defined as an international celebration of science and technology, and their contribution to the betterment of the human condition.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 42

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Governor Arif Mohammed Khan inaugurated the World Space Week (WSW) celebrations organised by ISRO centres in the capital. He said the bright future of the country lay in the hands of the younger generation who nurture a passion for acquiring knowledge. Mr. Khan recalled India's proud heritage and the tradition of worshipping knowledge. He also lauded ISRO centres for reaching out to students through WSW to inculcate in them the spirit of inquiry in the fields of science and technology, a statement issued by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) said. Celebrations in the State capital are organised by the local ISRO centres with competitions and programmes for students and the general public. ISRO chairman presided over the function. VSSC director S. Unnikrishnan Nair, Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) director V. Narayanan, ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU) director Sam Dayala Dev and VSSC chief controller C. Manoj were present.

[Source - The Hindu, October 6, 2022]

Q. Who among the following is the chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation as in 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 42 Sreedhara Panicker Somanath (born July 1963) is an Indian aerospace engineer serving as the chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation. Somanath also served as the Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), Thiruvananthapuram and Director of Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), Thiruvananthapuram.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 43

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Governor Arif Mohammed Khan inaugurated the World Space Week (WSW) celebrations organised by ISRO centres in the capital. He said the bright future of the country lay in the hands of the younger generation who nurture a passion for acquiring knowledge. Mr. Khan recalled India's proud heritage and the tradition of worshipping knowledge. He also lauded ISRO centres for reaching out to students through WSW to inculcate in them the spirit of inquiry in the fields of science and technology, a statement issued by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) said. Celebrations in the State capital are organised by the local ISRO centres with competitions and programmes for students and the general public. ISRO chairman presided over the function. VSSC director S. Unnikrishnan Nair, Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) director V. Narayanan, ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU) director Sam Dayala Dev and VSSC chief controller C. Manoj were present.

[Source - The Hindu, October 6, 2022]

Q. Name the NASA's spacecraft that has found the presence of water on the sun lit surface of the Moon.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 43 The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, NASA has found the presence of water on the sun lit surface of the Moon. The presence of water was found by the spacecraft SOFIA. Earlier, ISRO Chandrayaan 1 confirmed the presence of water in the shadowed places of moon. Thus, NASA has taken the discovery of water on moon by India to a step forward.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 44

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Governor Arif Mohammed Khan inaugurated the World Space Week (WSW) celebrations organised by ISRO centres in the capital. He said the bright future of the country lay in the hands of the younger generation who nurture a passion for acquiring knowledge. Mr. Khan recalled India's proud heritage and the tradition of worshipping knowledge. He also lauded ISRO centres for reaching out to students through WSW to inculcate in them the spirit of inquiry in the fields of science and technology, a statement issued by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) said. Celebrations in the State capital are organised by the local ISRO centres with competitions and programmes for students and the general public. ISRO chairman presided over the function. VSSC director S. Unnikrishnan Nair, Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) director V. Narayanan, ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU) director Sam Dayala Dev and VSSC chief controller C. Manoj were present.

[Source - The Hindu, October 6, 2022]

Q. What was the theme of the 2022 World Space Week?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 44

The 2022 World Space Week theme, Space and Sustainability allows the World Space Week to address sustainability from two angles: (1) how space benefits society and contributes to sustainable development on Earth and (2) what are the challenges ahead of us to keep space activities and the space environment safe and sustainable.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 45

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Governor Arif Mohammed Khan inaugurated the World Space Week (WSW) celebrations organised by ISRO centres in the capital. He said the bright future of the country lay in the hands of the younger generation who nurture a passion for acquiring knowledge. Mr. Khan recalled India's proud heritage and the tradition of worshipping knowledge. He also lauded ISRO centres for reaching out to students through WSW to inculcate in them the spirit of inquiry in the fields of science and technology, a statement issued by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) said. Celebrations in the State capital are organised by the local ISRO centres with competitions and programmes for students and the general public. ISRO chairman presided over the function. VSSC director S. Unnikrishnan Nair, Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) director V. Narayanan, ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU) director Sam Dayala Dev and VSSC chief controller C. Manoj were present.

[Source - The Hindu, October 6, 2022]

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Salyut 1 was the world's first space station launched into low Earth orbit.

Statement II: Salyut 1 was launched by the Soviet Union on April 19, 1971.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 45 Salyut 1 (DOS-1) was the world's first space station launched into low Earth orbit by the Soviet Union on April 19, 1971. The Salyut program followed this with five more successful launches of seven more stations. The final module of the program, Zvezda (DOS-8), became the core of the Russian segment of the International Space Station and remains in orbit.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 46

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The European Parliament voted on Wednesday to introduce a single charger for electronic devices including mobile phones, tablets, and cameras but also e-readers, earphones, gaming consoles, and health trackers. According to the new reform, which received overwhelming support from EU lawmakers with 602 votes in favour and only 13 against. The proposal for a single charger was advanced in September 2021 by the European Commission as part of the Green Deal, a raft of new policies to meet the EU climate change goals of reducing 55% of emissions from 1990 levels by 2030, as well as a long-term goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2050. The new agreement signals a concrete step towards reducing electrical waste or e-waste. In the EU, less than 40% of all e-waste is recycled, while the rest is unsorted. The numbers vary significantly from country to country. In Croatia for example, nearly 81% of all spent electronic and electrical devices were recycled in 2017. In Malta, the figure stopped at 21%. Supporters of the idea argue that having a single charger would significantly reduce the number of cables produced and sold and could save consumers about -250 million (approximately US$248 million).

[Source - The Economic times, October 4, 2022]

Q. Which among the following will become the standard charger among all EU countries?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 46 The European Parliament has approved the new rule to introduce single charging port for electronic gadgets by 2024 in the EU. Under the first phase of the law, which will be implemented from late 2024, all mobile phones, tablets and cameras sold in the EU have to be equipped with a USB-C charging port.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 47

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The European Parliament voted on Wednesday to introduce a single charger for electronic devices including mobile phones, tablets, and cameras but also e-readers, earphones, gaming consoles, and health trackers. According to the new reform, which received overwhelming support from EU lawmakers with 602 votes in favour and only 13 against. The proposal for a single charger was advanced in September 2021 by the European Commission as part of the Green Deal, a raft of new policies to meet the EU climate change goals of reducing 55% of emissions from 1990 levels by 2030, as well as a long-term goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2050. The new agreement signals a concrete step towards reducing electrical waste or e-waste. In the EU, less than 40% of all e-waste is recycled, while the rest is unsorted. The numbers vary significantly from country to country. In Croatia for example, nearly 81% of all spent electronic and electrical devices were recycled in 2017. In Malta, the figure stopped at 21%. Supporters of the idea argue that having a single charger would significantly reduce the number of cables produced and sold and could save consumers about -250 million (approximately US$248 million).

[Source - The Economic times, October 4, 2022]

Q. Name the strategy at the heart of the European Green Deal to make food systems fair, healthy and environmentally-friendly.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 47 The 'From Farm to Fork' strategy pursues the issue of food sustainability as well as the support allocated to the producers, i.e. farmers and fishermen. The methods of production and transfer of these resources are what the E.U. considers a climate-friendly approach, aiming to increase efficiency as well. The price and quality of the goods will aim to not be hindered during these newly adopted processes.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 48

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The European Parliament voted on Wednesday to introduce a single charger for electronic devices including mobile phones, tablets, and cameras but also e-readers, earphones, gaming consoles, and health trackers. According to the new reform, which received overwhelming support from EU lawmakers with 602 votes in favour and only 13 against. The proposal for a single charger was advanced in September 2021 by the European Commission as part of the Green Deal, a raft of new policies to meet the EU climate change goals of reducing 55% of emissions from 1990 levels by 2030, as well as a long-term goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2050. The new agreement signals a concrete step towards reducing electrical waste or e-waste. In the EU, less than 40% of all e-waste is recycled, while the rest is unsorted. The numbers vary significantly from country to country. In Croatia for example, nearly 81% of all spent electronic and electrical devices were recycled in 2017. In Malta, the figure stopped at 21%. Supporters of the idea argue that having a single charger would significantly reduce the number of cables produced and sold and could save consumers about -250 million (approximately US$248 million).

[Source - The Economic times, October 4, 2022]

Q. In the Paris Agreement, that was signed on the Earth Day, the members promised to reduce their carbon output as soon as possible and to do their best to keep global warming to well below 2 degrees C (3.6 degrees F). When is the Earth Day celebrated every year?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 48 Earth Day is an annual event on April 22 to demonstrate support for environmental protection. The Paris Agreement was opened for signature on 22nd April, 2016 (Earth Day) at a ceremony in New York.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 49

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The European Parliament voted on Wednesday to introduce a single charger for electronic devices including mobile phones, tablets, and cameras but also e-readers, earphones, gaming consoles, and health trackers. According to the new reform, which received overwhelming support from EU lawmakers with 602 votes in favour and only 13 against. The proposal for a single charger was advanced in September 2021 by the European Commission as part of the Green Deal, a raft of new policies to meet the EU climate change goals of reducing 55% of emissions from 1990 levels by 2030, as well as a long-term goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2050. The new agreement signals a concrete step towards reducing electrical waste or e-waste. In the EU, less than 40% of all e-waste is recycled, while the rest is unsorted. The numbers vary significantly from country to country. In Croatia for example, nearly 81% of all spent electronic and electrical devices were recycled in 2017. In Malta, the figure stopped at 21%. Supporters of the idea argue that having a single charger would significantly reduce the number of cables produced and sold and could save consumers about -250 million (approximately US$248 million).

[Source - The Economic times, October 4, 2022]

Q. Mark the incorrect statement about the European Union.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 49 The European Union (EU) is an international organisation comprising 27 European countries and governing common economic, social, and security policies. The EU's members are Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, and Sweden. The United Kingdom, which had been a founding member of the EU, left the organisation in 2020. The EU was created by the Maastricht Treaty, which entered into force on November 1, 1993. In 2012, the EU was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 50

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The European Parliament voted on Wednesday to introduce a single charger for electronic devices including mobile phones, tablets, and cameras but also e-readers, earphones, gaming consoles, and health trackers. According to the new reform, which received overwhelming support from EU lawmakers with 602 votes in favour and only 13 against. The proposal for a single charger was advanced in September 2021 by the European Commission as part of the Green Deal, a raft of new policies to meet the EU climate change goals of reducing 55% of emissions from 1990 levels by 2030, as well as a long-term goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2050. The new agreement signals a concrete step towards reducing electrical waste or e-waste. In the EU, less than 40% of all e-waste is recycled, while the rest is unsorted. The numbers vary significantly from country to country. In Croatia for example, nearly 81% of all spent electronic and electrical devices were recycled in 2017. In Malta, the figure stopped at 21%. Supporters of the idea argue that having a single charger would significantly reduce the number of cables produced and sold and could save consumers about -250 million (approximately US$248 million).

[Source - The Economic times, October 4, 2022]

Q. How many parties negotiated in 2015 for Paris Agreement, an international treaty on climate change?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 50 The Paris Agreement, often referred to as the Paris Accords or the Paris Climate Accords, is an international treaty on climate change, adopted in 2015. It covers climate change mitigation, adaptation, and finance. The Agreement was negotiated by 196 parties at the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference near Paris, France.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 51

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As India celebrates the 90th anniversary of Air Force Day, Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari announced the creation of a new operational branch of weapons system for officers the first time since independence. The celebrations, being held at Chandigarh's Sukhna Lake complex, will showcase a grand air show later today with nearly 80 aircraft participating. On this historic occasion, it's my privilege to announce that the govt has approved the creation of a weapon system branch for the officers in the Indian Air Force, Air Chief Marshal Vivek Ram Chaudhari said during the ceremonial parade on the 90th anniversary celebration of the Indian Air Force, in Chandigarh. It aims to man the specialised streams of surface-to-surface missiles, surface-to-air-missiles, remotely piloted aircraft, and weapon system operators in twin and multi-crew aircraft. Several made-in-India aircraft and choppers will participate in the show – including the newly inducted 'Prachand' light combat helicopters. The IAF chief inspected the parade, which was followed by a march-past. Air-Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Air Command, Air Marshal Sreekumar Prabhakaran was among senior IAF officers present on the occasion.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 11, 2022]

Q. When is the Indian Air Force Day celebrated?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 51 Every year on October 8, the Indian Air Force Day is observed to honor the Indian Air Force and the nation's accomplishments in the field. The Indian Air Force (IAF) is the air arm of the Indian armed forces with the primary mission to secure Indian airspace and conduct aerial activities during armed conflicts.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 52

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As India celebrates the 90th anniversary of Air Force Day, Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari announced the creation of a new operational branch of weapons system for officers the first time since independence. The celebrations, being held at Chandigarh's Sukhna Lake complex, will showcase a grand air show later today with nearly 80 aircraft participating. On this historic occasion, it's my privilege to announce that the govt has approved the creation of a weapon system branch for the officers in the Indian Air Force, Air Chief Marshal Vivek Ram Chaudhari said during the ceremonial parade on the 90th anniversary celebration of the Indian Air Force, in Chandigarh. It aims to man the specialised streams of surface-to-surface missiles, surface-to-air-missiles, remotely piloted aircraft, and weapon system operators in twin and multi-crew aircraft. Several made-in-India aircraft and choppers will participate in the show – including the newly inducted 'Prachand' light combat helicopters. The IAF chief inspected the parade, which was followed by a march-past. Air-Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Air Command, Air Marshal Sreekumar Prabhakaran was among senior IAF officers present on the occasion.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 11, 2022]

Q. Mark the incorrect statement.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 52 The Indian Air Force (IAF) is the air arm of the Indian Armed Forces. Its complement of personnel and aircraft assets ranks third amongst the air forces of the world. Its primary mission is to secure Indian airspace and to conduct aerial warfare during armed conflict. It was officially established on 8 October 1932 as an auxiliary air force of the British Empire which honoured India's aviation service during World War II with the prefix Royal. After India gained independence from United Kingdom in 1947, the name Royal Indian Air Force was kept and served in the name of Dominion of India. With the government's transition to a Republic in 1950, the prefix Royal was removed.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 53

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As India celebrates the 90th anniversary of Air Force Day, Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari announced the creation of a new operational branch of weapons system for officers the first time since independence. The celebrations, being held at Chandigarh's Sukhna Lake complex, will showcase a grand air show later today with nearly 80 aircraft participating. On this historic occasion, it's my privilege to announce that the govt has approved the creation of a weapon system branch for the officers in the Indian Air Force, Air Chief Marshal Vivek Ram Chaudhari said during the ceremonial parade on the 90th anniversary celebration of the Indian Air Force, in Chandigarh. It aims to man the specialised streams of surface-to-surface missiles, surface-to-air-missiles, remotely piloted aircraft, and weapon system operators in twin and multi-crew aircraft. Several made-in-India aircraft and choppers will participate in the show – including the newly inducted 'Prachand' light combat helicopters. The IAF chief inspected the parade, which was followed by a march-past. Air-Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Air Command, Air Marshal Sreekumar Prabhakaran was among senior IAF officers present on the occasion.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 11, 2022]

Q. Who was the first and the only officer of the Indian Air Force (IAF) to be promoted to five-star rank as Marshal of the Indian Air Force, equal to the army rank of Field Marshal?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 53 Marshal of the Indian Air Force Arjan Singh, was a senior air officer of the Indian Air Force. He served as the 3rd Chief of the Air Staff from 1964 to 1969, leading the Air Force through the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965. He was the first and only officer of the Indian Air Force (IAF) to be promoted to five-star rank as Marshal of the Indian Air Force, equal to the army rank of Field Marshal.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 54

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As India celebrates the 90th anniversary of Air Force Day, Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari announced the creation of a new operational branch of weapons system for officers the first time since independence. The celebrations, being held at Chandigarh's Sukhna Lake complex, will showcase a grand air show later today with nearly 80 aircraft participating. On this historic occasion, it's my privilege to announce that the govt has approved the creation of a weapon system branch for the officers in the Indian Air Force, Air Chief Marshal Vivek Ram Chaudhari said during the ceremonial parade on the 90th anniversary celebration of the Indian Air Force, in Chandigarh. It aims to man the specialised streams of surface-to-surface missiles, surface-to-air-missiles, remotely piloted aircraft, and weapon system operators in twin and multi-crew aircraft. Several made-in-India aircraft and choppers will participate in the show – including the newly inducted 'Prachand' light combat helicopters. The IAF chief inspected the parade, which was followed by a march-past. Air-Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Air Command, Air Marshal Sreekumar Prabhakaran was among senior IAF officers present on the occasion.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 11, 2022]

Q. What is the motto of India Air Force?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 54 The motto of India Air Force is "Touch the sky with Glory." It was taken from the eleventh chapter of the Bhagavad Gita.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 55

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As India celebrates the 90th anniversary of Air Force Day, Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari announced the creation of a new operational branch of weapons system for officers the first time since independence. The celebrations, being held at Chandigarh's Sukhna Lake complex, will showcase a grand air show later today with nearly 80 aircraft participating. On this historic occasion, it's my privilege to announce that the govt has approved the creation of a weapon system branch for the officers in the Indian Air Force, Air Chief Marshal Vivek Ram Chaudhari said during the ceremonial parade on the 90th anniversary celebration of the Indian Air Force, in Chandigarh. It aims to man the specialised streams of surface-to-surface missiles, surface-to-air-missiles, remotely piloted aircraft, and weapon system operators in twin and multi-crew aircraft. Several made-in-India aircraft and choppers will participate in the show – including the newly inducted 'Prachand' light combat helicopters. The IAF chief inspected the parade, which was followed by a march-past. Air-Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Western Air Command, Air Marshal Sreekumar Prabhakaran was among senior IAF officers present on the occasion.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 11, 2022]

Q. Which of the following are parts of India's new weapon system?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 55 The new weapon system branch will have four categories of sub-streams – flying, surface, remote, and intelligence. This is the first time since India's independence that a new operational branch of the weapon system is being created. The new branch will be able to handle all types of latest weapon systems in the force and will reduce the expenditure on flying training, resulting in savings worth Rs. 3400 crore of the air force fund.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 56

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

President Droupadi Murmu on Friday conferred cinema veteran Asha Parekh with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award and honoured other winners of the 68th National Film Awards. The National Film awards were announced in July honouring the best in cinema in 2020. At the ceremony held at Vigyan Bhawan here, Murmu said, 'Cinema' is not only an industry, it is also a medium of artistic expression of our culture and values of life. It is also a medium for connecting our society and nation-building. Parekh said, "she is grateful to receive the prestigious award a day before her 80th birthday. It is a huge honour to have received the Dada Saheb Phalke award. It makes me very grateful that the recognition comes to me just one day before my 80th birthday. This is the best honour I could get from the Government of India. I would like to thank the jury for the recognition that they have bestowed upon me, my long journey and fulfilling the journey in the film industry, said the cinema legend". Parekh's stardom was on a par with her male contemporaries Rajesh Khanna, Rajendra Kumar, Dharmendra and Manoj Kumar in the 1960s-1970s.

[Source - The Hindu, September 30, 2022]

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Ajay Devgn was given the best actor award for the movie 'Tanhaji : The Unsung Warrior'.

Statement II: This was Devgn's second best actor 'National Award' after 'The Legend of Bhagat Singh (2002)'.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 56 In 2022, Soorarai Pottru (Tamil) won the best feature film award. Actors Suriya and Ajay Devgn shared the best actor award. This was Devgn's third best actor 'National Award' after 'Zakhm (1998)' and 'The Legend of Bhagat Singh (2002)'.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 57

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

President Droupadi Murmu on Friday conferred cinema veteran Asha Parekh with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award and honoured other winners of the 68th National Film Awards. The National Film awards were announced in July honouring the best in cinema in 2020. At the ceremony held at Vigyan Bhawan here, Murmu said, 'Cinema' is not only an industry, it is also a medium of artistic expression of our culture and values of life. It is also a medium for connecting our society and nation-building. Parekh said, "she is grateful to receive the prestigious award a day before her 80th birthday. It is a huge honour to have received the Dada Saheb Phalke award. It makes me very grateful that the recognition comes to me just one day before my 80th birthday. This is the best honour I could get from the Government of India. I would like to thank the jury for the recognition that they have bestowed upon me, my long journey and fulfilling the journey in the film industry, said the cinema legend". Parekh's stardom was on a par with her male contemporaries Rajesh Khanna, Rajendra Kumar, Dharmendra and Manoj Kumar in the 1960s-1970s.

[Source - The Hindu, September 30, 2022]

Q. Soorarai Pottru won five national awards at the 68th National Film Awards. It is a ________ film.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 57 Suriya starrer 'Soorarai Pottru' won five national awards, including Best Screenplay, Best Feature Film, Best Actor, Best Actress and Best Music Composer. It is a 2020 Indian Tamil-language drama film written and directed by Sudha Kongara and produced by Suriya, Jyothika and Guneet Monga.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 58

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

President Droupadi Murmu on Friday conferred cinema veteran Asha Parekh with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award and honoured other winners of the 68th National Film Awards. The National Film awards were announced in July honouring the best in cinema in 2020. At the ceremony held at Vigyan Bhawan here, Murmu said, 'Cinema' is not only an industry, it is also a medium of artistic expression of our culture and values of life. It is also a medium for connecting our society and nation-building. Parekh said, "she is grateful to receive the prestigious award a day before her 80th birthday. It is a huge honour to have received the Dada Saheb Phalke award. It makes me very grateful that the recognition comes to me just one day before my 80th birthday. This is the best honour I could get from the Government of India. I would like to thank the jury for the recognition that they have bestowed upon me, my long journey and fulfilling the journey in the film industry, said the cinema legend". Parekh's stardom was on a par with her male contemporaries Rajesh Khanna, Rajendra Kumar, Dharmendra and Manoj Kumar in the 1960s-1970s.

[Source - The Hindu, September 30, 2022]

Q. Which of the following organised the 68th National Film Awards?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 58 The 68th National Film Awards were announced at the National Media Centre in New Delhi, with the honours for films from the year of 2020. The event is organised by the Directorate of Film Festivals, which comes under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 59

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

President Droupadi Murmu on Friday conferred cinema veteran Asha Parekh with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award and honoured other winners of the 68th National Film Awards. The National Film awards were announced in July honouring the best in cinema in 2020. At the ceremony held at Vigyan Bhawan here, Murmu said, 'Cinema' is not only an industry, it is also a medium of artistic expression of our culture and values of life. It is also a medium for connecting our society and nation-building. Parekh said, "she is grateful to receive the prestigious award a day before her 80th birthday. It is a huge honour to have received the Dada Saheb Phalke award. It makes me very grateful that the recognition comes to me just one day before my 80th birthday. This is the best honour I could get from the Government of India. I would like to thank the jury for the recognition that they have bestowed upon me, my long journey and fulfilling the journey in the film industry, said the cinema legend". Parekh's stardom was on a par with her male contemporaries Rajesh Khanna, Rajendra Kumar, Dharmendra and Manoj Kumar in the 1960s-1970s.

[Source - The Hindu, September 30, 2022]

Q. Which of the following states won the prize for the most film-friendly state?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 59 Madhya Pradesh got the 'Most Film Friendly State' award, while Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh were given the 'Most Film Friendly State (Special Mention)' award. It is noteworthy that 13 states participated in this category of National Film Award.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 60

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

President Droupadi Murmu on Friday conferred cinema veteran Asha Parekh with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award and honoured other winners of the 68th National Film Awards. The National Film awards were announced in July honouring the best in cinema in 2020. At the ceremony held at Vigyan Bhawan here, Murmu said, 'Cinema' is not only an industry, it is also a medium of artistic expression of our culture and values of life. It is also a medium for connecting our society and nation-building. Parekh said, "she is grateful to receive the prestigious award a day before her 80th birthday. It is a huge honour to have received the Dada Saheb Phalke award. It makes me very grateful that the recognition comes to me just one day before my 80th birthday. This is the best honour I could get from the Government of India. I would like to thank the jury for the recognition that they have bestowed upon me, my long journey and fulfilling the journey in the film industry, said the cinema legend". Parekh's stardom was on a par with her male contemporaries Rajesh Khanna, Rajendra Kumar, Dharmendra and Manoj Kumar in the 1960s-1970s.

[Source - The Hindu, September 30, 2022]

Q. As in 2022, who among the following is the Minister of Information and Broadcasting?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 60 Anurag Singh Thakur (born 24th October, 1974) is an Indian politician from the Bharatiya Janata Party and a Member of Parliament in the Lok Sabha from Hamirpur, Himachal Pradesh. He is the Minister of Sports, Youth Affairs and Minister of Information and Broadcasting, as in 2022, in the second Modi ministry. Previously, Thakur served as a Minister of State for Finance and Corporate Affairs.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 61

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The government has put out the eternal flame of the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate and merged it with the one instituted at the National War Memorial in 2019 a few hundred meters away.

The decision kicked off a political row, with Opposition leaders claiming that it was a disrespect to the soldiers who have laid down their lives fighting for the country.

The eternal flame at the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate in central Delhi was an iconic symbol of the nation's tributes to the soldiers who have died for the country in various wars and conflicts since Independence.

The key elements of the Amar Jawan Jyoti included a black marble plinth, a cenotaph, which acted as a tomb of the unknown soldier. The plinth had an inverted L1A1 self-loading rifle with a bayonet, on top of which was a soldier's war helmet. The installation had four urns on it, with four burners. On normal days one of the four burners were kept alive, but on important days like the Republic Day, all four burners were lit. These burners were what is called the eternal flame, and it was never allowed to be extinguished.

[Source - The Indian Express, Jan 24, 2022.]

Q. Consider the following statements regarding India Gate and mark the correct option.

Statement I: The India Gate is a war memorial located astride the Rajpath.

Statement II: It stands as a memorial to soldiers of Second World War and Third Anglo-Afghan War.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 61 The India Gate is a war memorial located astride the Rajpath, on the eastern edge of the "ceremonial axis" of New Delhi, formerly called Kingsway. It stands as a memorial to 90,000 soldiers of the British Indian Army who died in between 1914 and 1921 in the First World War, in France, Flanders, Mesopotamia, Persia, East Africa, Gallipoli and elsewhere in the Near and the Far East, and the Third Anglo-Afghan War.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 62

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The government has put out the eternal flame of the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate and merged it with the one instituted at the National War Memorial in 2019 a few hundred meters away.

The decision kicked off a political row, with Opposition leaders claiming that it was a disrespect to the soldiers who have laid down their lives fighting for the country.

The eternal flame at the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate in central Delhi was an iconic symbol of the nation's tributes to the soldiers who have died for the country in various wars and conflicts since Independence.

The key elements of the Amar Jawan Jyoti included a black marble plinth, a cenotaph, which acted as a tomb of the unknown soldier. The plinth had an inverted L1A1 self-loading rifle with a bayonet, on top of which was a soldier's war helmet. The installation had four urns on it, with four burners. On normal days one of the four burners were kept alive, but on important days like the Republic Day, all four burners were lit. These burners were what is called the eternal flame, and it was never allowed to be extinguished.

[Source - The Indian Express, Jan 24, 2022.]

Q. On whose 125th birth anniversary did Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveil a hologram statue of the freedom fighter at India Gate in New Delhi?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 62 On the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a hologram statue of the freedom fighter at India Gate in New Delhi. The hologram statue is a placeholder until a granite statue is installed at the site.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 63

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The government has put out the eternal flame of the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate and merged it with the one instituted at the National War Memorial in 2019 a few hundred meters away.

The decision kicked off a political row, with Opposition leaders claiming that it was a disrespect to the soldiers who have laid down their lives fighting for the country.

The eternal flame at the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate in central Delhi was an iconic symbol of the nation's tributes to the soldiers who have died for the country in various wars and conflicts since Independence.

The key elements of the Amar Jawan Jyoti included a black marble plinth, a cenotaph, which acted as a tomb of the unknown soldier. The plinth had an inverted L1A1 self-loading rifle with a bayonet, on top of which was a soldier's war helmet. The installation had four urns on it, with four burners. On normal days one of the four burners were kept alive, but on important days like the Republic Day, all four burners were lit. These burners were what is called the eternal flame, and it was never allowed to be extinguished.

[Source - The Indian Express, Jan 24, 2022.]

Q. Who was the Prime Minister of India when Amar Jawan Jyoti was established?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 63 Amar Jawan Jyoti is an Indian memorial conceptualised and constructed after the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 and inaugurated on 26 January, 1972 by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. It was constructed in a short timeframe as per Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's wishes. It served as India's tomb of the unknown soldier.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 64

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The government has put out the eternal flame of the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate and merged it with the one instituted at the National War Memorial in 2019 a few hundred meters away.

The decision kicked off a political row, with Opposition leaders claiming that it was a disrespect to the soldiers who have laid down their lives fighting for the country.

The eternal flame at the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate in central Delhi was an iconic symbol of the nation's tributes to the soldiers who have died for the country in various wars and conflicts since Independence.

The key elements of the Amar Jawan Jyoti included a black marble plinth, a cenotaph, which acted as a tomb of the unknown soldier. The plinth had an inverted L1A1 self-loading rifle with a bayonet, on top of which was a soldier's war helmet. The installation had four urns on it, with four burners. On normal days one of the four burners were kept alive, but on important days like the Republic Day, all four burners were lit. These burners were what is called the eternal flame, and it was never allowed to be extinguished.

[Source - The Indian Express, Jan 24, 2022.]

Q. Which among the following statements is incorrect about National War Memorial

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 64 National War Memorial was completed in January 2019 and unveiled on 25 February, 2019 in an inauguration ceremony held at the monument where Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, in the presence of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India, and the three Chief of Staffs of the Indian Armed Forces, ignited the eternal flame of the Amar Jawan Jyoti (Flames of Eternal Soldiers) at the Amar Chakra under the main obelisk of the monument. The Memorial has four concentric circles and a central obelisk, at the bottom of which burns an 'eternal flame' representing the immortal soldier (amar jawan). The concentric circles are designed as a Chakravyuh, an ancient Indian war formation.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 65

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The government has put out the eternal flame of the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate and merged it with the one instituted at the National War Memorial in 2019 a few hundred meters away.

The decision kicked off a political row, with Opposition leaders claiming that it was a disrespect to the soldiers who have laid down their lives fighting for the country.

The eternal flame at the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate in central Delhi was an iconic symbol of the nation's tributes to the soldiers who have died for the country in various wars and conflicts since Independence.

The key elements of the Amar Jawan Jyoti included a black marble plinth, a cenotaph, which acted as a tomb of the unknown soldier. The plinth had an inverted L1A1 self-loading rifle with a bayonet, on top of which was a soldier's war helmet. The installation had four urns on it, with four burners. On normal days one of the four burners were kept alive, but on important days like the Republic Day, all four burners were lit. These burners were what is called the eternal flame, and it was never allowed to be extinguished.

[Source - The Indian Express, Jan 24, 2022.]

Q. In which year was the eternal flame at the Amar Jawan Jyoti established?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 65 The eternal flame at the Amar Jawan Jyoti underneath India Gate in central Delhi was established in 1972. It was to mark India's victory over Pakistan in the 1971 War, which resulted in the creation of Bangladesh.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 66

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court admitted a petition filed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) seeking to exempt armed forces personnel from the ambit of a Constitution Bench judgement of 2018 that decriminalised adultery. One of the chief reasons given by the government for seeking exemption is, incidentally, that there will always be a concern in the minds of the Army personnel who are operating far away from their families under challenging conditions about the family indulging in untoward activity.

The court referred the case to the Chief Justice of India to pass appropriate orders to form a five-judge Bench to clarify the impact of the 2018 judgement on the armed forces. The government said in the petition that personnel of the Army, Navy and Air Force were a distinct class. They were governed by special legislations, the Army Act, the Navy Act and the Air Force Act.

Adultery amounted to an unbecoming conduct and a violation of discipline under these three Acts. These special laws imposed restrictions on the fundamental rights of the personnel, who function in peculiar situation requiring utmost discipline. The three laws were protected by Article 33 of the Constitution, which allowed the government to modify the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel.

The judgement of 2018 created instability. It allowed personnel charged with carrying on an adulterous or illicit relationship to take cover under the judgement. In cases of adultery, even if there is a charge against the accused, an argument can be raised that we are circumventing the law and what could not be done directly is being done directly through these Acts, the Ministry said. Discipline necessary for the performance of duty, crucial for national safety, would break down. The provisions of the Acts should be allowed to continue to govern the personnel as a distinct class, irrespective of the 2018 judgement.

It said the court would not, at the time, have been apprised of the different circumstances under which the armed forces operated. Besides, the government pointed out that unlike Section 497, the provisions of the three Acts did not differentiate between a man and a woman if they were guilty of an offence. Dehors 497, the Army would equally proceed against a female subject to the Act, if she enters into an adulterous/illicit relationship, it said. The government also highlighted that the court, despite striking down adultery as a crime, had held that it was undoubtedly a moral wrong qua the family and the spouse. The judgement had further recognised that civil remedy existed as adultery remained a ground for divorce.

Q. Akhil retired from Army in 2019 and found his wife in an adulterous relationship with Mahesh during the lockdown of June 2020. Can Mahesh be prosecuted for adultery provided that the SC clarifies that the 2018 judgement of decriminalising adultery is not applicable to armed personnel?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 66 As Akhil was retired from the Army, there would be no impact of the SC clarification in the instant case.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 67

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court admitted a petition filed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) seeking to exempt armed forces personnel from the ambit of a Constitution Bench judgement of 2018 that decriminalised adultery. One of the chief reasons given by the government for seeking exemption is, incidentally, that there will always be a concern in the minds of the Army personnel who are operating far away from their families under challenging conditions about the family indulging in untoward activity.

The court referred the case to the Chief Justice of India to pass appropriate orders to form a five-judge Bench to clarify the impact of the 2018 judgement on the armed forces. The government said in the petition that personnel of the Army, Navy and Air Force were a distinct class. They were governed by special legislations, the Army Act, the Navy Act and the Air Force Act.

Adultery amounted to an unbecoming conduct and a violation of discipline under these three Acts. These special laws imposed restrictions on the fundamental rights of the personnel, who function in peculiar situation requiring utmost discipline. The three laws were protected by Article 33 of the Constitution, which allowed the government to modify the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel.

The judgement of 2018 created instability. It allowed personnel charged with carrying on an adulterous or illicit relationship to take cover under the judgement. In cases of adultery, even if there is a charge against the accused, an argument can be raised that we are circumventing the law and what could not be done directly is being done directly through these Acts, the Ministry said. Discipline necessary for the performance of duty, crucial for national safety, would break down. The provisions of the Acts should be allowed to continue to govern the personnel as a distinct class, irrespective of the 2018 judgement.

It said the court would not, at the time, have been apprised of the different circumstances under which the armed forces operated. Besides, the government pointed out that unlike Section 497, the provisions of the three Acts did not differentiate between a man and a woman if they were guilty of an offence. Dehors 497, the Army would equally proceed against a female subject to the Act, if she enters into an adulterous/illicit relationship, it said. The government also highlighted that the court, despite striking down adultery as a crime, had held that it was undoubtedly a moral wrong qua the family and the spouse. The judgement had further recognised that civil remedy existed as adultery remained a ground for divorce.

Q. The right to equality is a fundamental right, but it is subject to the other provisions of fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution. Miffed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) petition to not decriminalise adultery for Army personnel, a retired Army personnel and citizen of India approached the Supreme Court saying that if SC criminalises the adultery law for Army personnel, it would amount to the violation of the right to equality. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 67 Article 33 of the Constitution, that is also a part of 'Fundamental Rights', allows the government to modify the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 68

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court admitted a petition filed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) seeking to exempt armed forces personnel from the ambit of a Constitution Bench judgement of 2018 that decriminalised adultery. One of the chief reasons given by the government for seeking exemption is, incidentally, that there will always be a concern in the minds of the Army personnel who are operating far away from their families under challenging conditions about the family indulging in untoward activity.

The court referred the case to the Chief Justice of India to pass appropriate orders to form a five-judge Bench to clarify the impact of the 2018 judgement on the armed forces. The government said in the petition that personnel of the Army, Navy and Air Force were a distinct class. They were governed by special legislations, the Army Act, the Navy Act and the Air Force Act.

Adultery amounted to an unbecoming conduct and a violation of discipline under these three Acts. These special laws imposed restrictions on the fundamental rights of the personnel, who function in peculiar situation requiring utmost discipline. The three laws were protected by Article 33 of the Constitution, which allowed the government to modify the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel.

The judgement of 2018 created instability. It allowed personnel charged with carrying on an adulterous or illicit relationship to take cover under the judgement. In cases of adultery, even if there is a charge against the accused, an argument can be raised that we are circumventing the law and what could not be done directly is being done directly through these Acts, the Ministry said. Discipline necessary for the performance of duty, crucial for national safety, would break down. The provisions of the Acts should be allowed to continue to govern the personnel as a distinct class, irrespective of the 2018 judgement.

It said the court would not, at the time, have been apprised of the different circumstances under which the armed forces operated. Besides, the government pointed out that unlike Section 497, the provisions of the three Acts did not differentiate between a man and a woman if they were guilty of an offence. Dehors 497, the Army would equally proceed against a female subject to the Act, if she enters into an adulterous/illicit relationship, it said. The government also highlighted that the court, despite striking down adultery as a crime, had held that it was undoubtedly a moral wrong qua the family and the spouse. The judgement had further recognised that civil remedy existed as adultery remained a ground for divorce.

Q. A person found his wife in an adulterous relationship and decided to file a divorce petition. The wife argues that adultery is no more a crime and he can, hence, not take divorce for it. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 68 Despite striking down adultery as a crime, the court said that civil remedy existed as adultery remained a ground for divorce.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 69

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court admitted a petition filed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) seeking to exempt armed forces personnel from the ambit of a Constitution Bench judgement of 2018 that decriminalised adultery. One of the chief reasons given by the government for seeking exemption is, incidentally, that there will always be a concern in the minds of the Army personnel who are operating far away from their families under challenging conditions about the family indulging in untoward activity.

The court referred the case to the Chief Justice of India to pass appropriate orders to form a five-judge Bench to clarify the impact of the 2018 judgement on the armed forces. The government said in the petition that personnel of the Army, Navy and Air Force were a distinct class. They were governed by special legislations, the Army Act, the Navy Act and the Air Force Act.

Adultery amounted to an unbecoming conduct and a violation of discipline under these three Acts. These special laws imposed restrictions on the fundamental rights of the personnel, who function in peculiar situation requiring utmost discipline. The three laws were protected by Article 33 of the Constitution, which allowed the government to modify the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel.

The judgement of 2018 created instability. It allowed personnel charged with carrying on an adulterous or illicit relationship to take cover under the judgement. In cases of adultery, even if there is a charge against the accused, an argument can be raised that we are circumventing the law and what could not be done directly is being done directly through these Acts, the Ministry said. Discipline necessary for the performance of duty, crucial for national safety, would break down. The provisions of the Acts should be allowed to continue to govern the personnel as a distinct class, irrespective of the 2018 judgement.

It said the court would not, at the time, have been apprised of the different circumstances under which the armed forces operated. Besides, the government pointed out that unlike Section 497, the provisions of the three Acts did not differentiate between a man and a woman if they were guilty of an offence. Dehors 497, the Army would equally proceed against a female subject to the Act, if she enters into an adulterous/illicit relationship, it said. The government also highlighted that the court, despite striking down adultery as a crime, had held that it was undoubtedly a moral wrong qua the family and the spouse. The judgement had further recognised that civil remedy existed as adultery remained a ground for divorce.

Q. Imagine a situation that the SC opined that adultery law is applicable to Army personnel. And, thereafter, the daughter-in-law of a serving Army personnel is found in an adulterous relationship. Can the adultery law be applicable in this case?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 69 Even if the SC opined that adultery law is applicable to Army personnel, it cannot be used against the whole family of the Army personnel; it would be only applicable to serving Army personnel and their spouses.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 70

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court admitted a petition filed by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) seeking to exempt armed forces personnel from the ambit of a Constitution Bench judgement of 2018 that decriminalised adultery. One of the chief reasons given by the government for seeking exemption is, incidentally, that there will always be a concern in the minds of the Army personnel who are operating far away from their families under challenging conditions about the family indulging in untoward activity.

The court referred the case to the Chief Justice of India to pass appropriate orders to form a five-judge Bench to clarify the impact of the 2018 judgement on the armed forces. The government said in the petition that personnel of the Army, Navy and Air Force were a distinct class. They were governed by special legislations, the Army Act, the Navy Act and the Air Force Act.

Adultery amounted to an unbecoming conduct and a violation of discipline under these three Acts. These special laws imposed restrictions on the fundamental rights of the personnel, who function in peculiar situation requiring utmost discipline. The three laws were protected by Article 33 of the Constitution, which allowed the government to modify the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel.

The judgement of 2018 created instability. It allowed personnel charged with carrying on an adulterous or illicit relationship to take cover under the judgement. In cases of adultery, even if there is a charge against the accused, an argument can be raised that we are circumventing the law and what could not be done directly is being done directly through these Acts, the Ministry said. Discipline necessary for the performance of duty, crucial for national safety, would break down. The provisions of the Acts should be allowed to continue to govern the personnel as a distinct class, irrespective of the 2018 judgement.

It said the court would not, at the time, have been apprised of the different circumstances under which the armed forces operated. Besides, the government pointed out that unlike Section 497, the provisions of the three Acts did not differentiate between a man and a woman if they were guilty of an offence. Dehors 497, the Army would equally proceed against a female subject to the Act, if she enters into an adulterous/illicit relationship, it said. The government also highlighted that the court, despite striking down adultery as a crime, had held that it was undoubtedly a moral wrong qua the family and the spouse. The judgement had further recognised that civil remedy existed as adultery remained a ground for divorce.

Q. Two law students were discussing the petition of MoD, and one of them argued that adultery law for military personnel is gender-neutral as it is applicable irrespective of the male or female. Is he right?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 70 The passage says that unlike Section 497, the provisions of the three Acts did not differentiate between a man and a woman if they were guilty of an offence.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 71

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Transfer of Property Act (hereinafter mentioned as TOPA, 1882) was enacted in the year 1882 to regulate the process of transferring of property and various other conditions associated with it. Section 6 of the Act states that property of any kind may be transferred, except as otherwise provided by this Act or by any other law for the time being in force. Therefore, this provision of the Act deals with the demarcation between transferable and non-transferable property. This section has 9 sub clauses, each of which explains the different kinds of transfer of property that can be transferred. Everything else according to the Act can be legally transferred in various means and forms. Property here also means ownership.

The first of these, Section 6(a) titled Spes Succession clause provides that such a property cannot be transferred if there is chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, a chance of a relation obtaining a legacy on the death of kinsman or any other mere possibility of a like nature.

Section 6(b) provides that a mere right of re-entry for breach of a condition subsequent cannot be transferred to anyone except the owner of the property affected thereby. The right of re-entry being a mere incident of the rights of the owner in leased premises, its transfer is prohibited by Law.

Section 6(e) provides that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred. The word "mere" implies that the transferee acquires no interest in the subject of transfer other than the right to sue as an ostensible owner of the property claimed of which, it may be, the real owner is somebody else. However, property with an incidental right to sue for damages may be transferred.

Section 6(h) provides that transfer of any property that can lead to an act that is against the interest affected thereby, or for committing an act that is for an unlawful object or consideration, or when is transferred to someone who is legally disqualified to be a transferee, then such transfer shall be deemed to be invalid.

Q. X, as a lessor, leases his land to Y as long as Y pays the rent. Y fails to pay rent. X transfers the right to land to Z to enter his land. Is such a transfer to Z valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 71 It has been clearly stated in the passage that Section 6(b) of the Act provides that the right to re-enter for breach of condition subsequent cannot be transferred as it the right of the owner alone. Therefore, the transfer to Z is not valid.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 72

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Transfer of Property Act (hereinafter mentioned as TOPA, 1882) was enacted in the year 1882 to regulate the process of transferring of property and various other conditions associated with it. Section 6 of the Act states that property of any kind may be transferred, except as otherwise provided by this Act or by any other law for the time being in force. Therefore, this provision of the Act deals with the demarcation between transferable and non-transferable property. This section has 9 sub clauses, each of which explains the different kinds of transfer of property that can be transferred. Everything else according to the Act can be legally transferred in various means and forms. Property here also means ownership.

The first of these, Section 6(a) titled Spes Succession clause provides that such a property cannot be transferred if there is chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, a chance of a relation obtaining a legacy on the death of kinsman or any other mere possibility of a like nature.

Section 6(b) provides that a mere right of re-entry for breach of a condition subsequent cannot be transferred to anyone except the owner of the property affected thereby. The right of re-entry being a mere incident of the rights of the owner in leased premises, its transfer is prohibited by Law.

Section 6(e) provides that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred. The word "mere" implies that the transferee acquires no interest in the subject of transfer other than the right to sue as an ostensible owner of the property claimed of which, it may be, the real owner is somebody else. However, property with an incidental right to sue for damages may be transferred.

Section 6(h) provides that transfer of any property that can lead to an act that is against the interest affected thereby, or for committing an act that is for an unlawful object or consideration, or when is transferred to someone who is legally disqualified to be a transferee, then such transfer shall be deemed to be invalid.

Q. Aman's grandfather gave 3 acres of land to Aman on his birth in 1998. After 3 years, his grandfather died, and when Aman was 11 years old, his father sold the land to Mahesh. When Aman became 19 years of age, he transferred the said land of 3 acres to other person Ramesh. Now, Ramesh sued the father of Aman for unauthorised transfer of land. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 72 Where a major person transfers property unauthorisedly which had been sold legitimately by his legal guardian during his minority and in his interest, such a transfer of property does not transfer the right to sue and the interest in the property. When no property was transferred to Ramesh, he won't have the right to sue as well. Therefore, his claim will not succeed.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 73

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Transfer of Property Act (hereinafter mentioned as TOPA, 1882) was enacted in the year 1882 to regulate the process of transferring of property and various other conditions associated with it. Section 6 of the Act states that property of any kind may be transferred, except as otherwise provided by this Act or by any other law for the time being in force. Therefore, this provision of the Act deals with the demarcation between transferable and non-transferable property. This section has 9 sub clauses, each of which explains the different kinds of transfer of property that can be transferred. Everything else according to the Act can be legally transferred in various means and forms. Property here also means ownership.

The first of these, Section 6(a) titled Spes Succession clause provides that such a property cannot be transferred if there is chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, a chance of a relation obtaining a legacy on the death of kinsman or any other mere possibility of a like nature.

Section 6(b) provides that a mere right of re-entry for breach of a condition subsequent cannot be transferred to anyone except the owner of the property affected thereby. The right of re-entry being a mere incident of the rights of the owner in leased premises, its transfer is prohibited by Law.

Section 6(e) provides that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred. The word "mere" implies that the transferee acquires no interest in the subject of transfer other than the right to sue as an ostensible owner of the property claimed of which, it may be, the real owner is somebody else. However, property with an incidental right to sue for damages may be transferred.

Section 6(h) provides that transfer of any property that can lead to an act that is against the interest affected thereby, or for committing an act that is for an unlawful object or consideration, or when is transferred to someone who is legally disqualified to be a transferee, then such transfer shall be deemed to be invalid.

Q. X and Y are father and son. Y in all probability is to obtain his father's land on his death. But before he died, X transferred the land to Z, his neighbour. Who has the right to the property if X is still alive?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 73 X has the right to the property because such a transfer is invalid as per Section 6(a). Y has not inherited it yet, but because he is an heir apparent or through legacy, it cannot be be transferred.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 74

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Transfer of Property Act (hereinafter mentioned as TOPA, 1882) was enacted in the year 1882 to regulate the process of transferring of property and various other conditions associated with it. Section 6 of the Act states that property of any kind may be transferred, except as otherwise provided by this Act or by any other law for the time being in force. Therefore, this provision of the Act deals with the demarcation between transferable and non-transferable property. This section has 9 sub clauses, each of which explains the different kinds of transfer of property that can be transferred. Everything else according to the Act can be legally transferred in various means and forms. Property here also means ownership.

The first of these, Section 6(a) titled Spes Succession clause provides that such a property cannot be transferred if there is chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, a chance of a relation obtaining a legacy on the death of kinsman or any other mere possibility of a like nature.

Section 6(b) provides that a mere right of re-entry for breach of a condition subsequent cannot be transferred to anyone except the owner of the property affected thereby. The right of re-entry being a mere incident of the rights of the owner in leased premises, its transfer is prohibited by Law.

Section 6(e) provides that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred. The word "mere" implies that the transferee acquires no interest in the subject of transfer other than the right to sue as an ostensible owner of the property claimed of which, it may be, the real owner is somebody else. However, property with an incidental right to sue for damages may be transferred.

Section 6(h) provides that transfer of any property that can lead to an act that is against the interest affected thereby, or for committing an act that is for an unlawful object or consideration, or when is transferred to someone who is legally disqualified to be a transferee, then such transfer shall be deemed to be invalid.

Q. Three men obtained a huge sum of money after committing fraud through an insurance scheme. They enter into an agreement to divide it among themselves. The third man does not get his share. He claims that the property was transferred as soon as the amount was obtained. Decide.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 75

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Transfer of Property Act (hereinafter mentioned as TOPA, 1882) was enacted in the year 1882 to regulate the process of transferring of property and various other conditions associated with it. Section 6 of the Act states that property of any kind may be transferred, except as otherwise provided by this Act or by any other law for the time being in force. Therefore, this provision of the Act deals with the demarcation between transferable and non-transferable property. This section has 9 sub clauses, each of which explains the different kinds of transfer of property that can be transferred. Everything else according to the Act can be legally transferred in various means and forms. Property here also means ownership.

The first of these, Section 6(a) titled Spes Succession clause provides that such a property cannot be transferred if there is chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, a chance of a relation obtaining a legacy on the death of kinsman or any other mere possibility of a like nature.

Section 6(b) provides that a mere right of re-entry for breach of a condition subsequent cannot be transferred to anyone except the owner of the property affected thereby. The right of re-entry being a mere incident of the rights of the owner in leased premises, its transfer is prohibited by Law.

Section 6(e) provides that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred. The word "mere" implies that the transferee acquires no interest in the subject of transfer other than the right to sue as an ostensible owner of the property claimed of which, it may be, the real owner is somebody else. However, property with an incidental right to sue for damages may be transferred.

Section 6(h) provides that transfer of any property that can lead to an act that is against the interest affected thereby, or for committing an act that is for an unlawful object or consideration, or when is transferred to someone who is legally disqualified to be a transferee, then such transfer shall be deemed to be invalid.

Q. Tappar's land was being trespassed by Rappar. Tappar transferred the interest in his property fully to Mappar. Tappar now wishes to sue Rappar for the trespass that occured while he was the owner. How can Tappar succeed?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 75 It must be noted that Tappar has lost the right to sue once he transfers all interest to Mappar. In this case, being the owner, only Mappar can sue Rappar.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 76

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court said that access to the internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution and asked the Jammu and Kashmir administration to review within a week all orders imposing curbs in the Union Territory. Here is a look at what does Article 19 inscribed in the Constitution of India say:

(1) All citizens shall have the right: (a) to freedom of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; (g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

The clause (2) states that "Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence."

Ever since the abrogation of Article 370 in J&K on August 5, 2019, internet services have been suspended in the state leading to severe disruption of day-to-day activities. The Supreme Court in its verdict observed that freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India. The Court added that it can only be restricted under the reasons given in the sub-clause (2) of Article 19. "Freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the constitution and can be restricted only under the reasons given in Article 19(2) of the Constitution," the SC said in its judgement while reviewing petitions challenging restrictions in J&K.

"Mere apprehension (of the government) that something might happen cannot be a justification for throttling speech and communication links. There has to be cogent evidence to back such exercise of power," senior advocate Kapil Sibal told SC.

Q. Two children belonging to Muslim community were expelled from the school for refusing to sing the national anthem, though they stood in a respectful manner while the anthem was being performed. Does the expulsion violate the fundamental rights of the children? Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 76 The expulsion violates the fundamental right of the children as expulsion on the basis of remaining silent during the national anthem isn't reasonable.

As per the understanding of the passage, the children's expulsion from the school is a violation of their fundamental right under Article 19(1) (a), which also includes the freedom of silence.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 77

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court said that access to the internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution and asked the Jammu and Kashmir administration to review within a week all orders imposing curbs in the Union Territory. Here is a look at what does Article 19 inscribed in the Constitution of India say:

(1) All citizens shall have the right: (a) to freedom of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; (g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

The clause (2) states that "Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence."

Ever since the abrogation of Article 370 in J&K on August 5, 2019, internet services have been suspended in the state leading to severe disruption of day-to-day activities. The Supreme Court in its verdict observed that freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India. The Court added that it can only be restricted under the reasons given in the sub-clause (2) of Article 19. "Freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the constitution and can be restricted only under the reasons given in Article 19(2) of the Constitution," the SC said in its judgement while reviewing petitions challenging restrictions in J&K.

"Mere apprehension (of the government) that something might happen cannot be a justification for throttling speech and communication links. There has to be cogent evidence to back such exercise of power," senior advocate Kapil Sibal told SC.

Q. Newspaper Daily started publishing a 30-page newspaper everyday. The other competitive newspapers had a 7-page newspaper. They all decided to file a suit against the newspaper Daily for publishing 30-page newspaper as against the custom of 7-8 page newspaper. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 77 The suit against the newspaper Daily is not valid as it violates the right to speech and expression of the Daily printing press. The other competitors are at the liberty to print as many number of pages as they wish.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 78

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court said that access to the internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution and asked the Jammu and Kashmir administration to review within a week all orders imposing curbs in the Union Territory. Here is a look at what does Article 19 inscribed in the Constitution of India say:

(1) All citizens shall have the right: (a) to freedom of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; (g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

The clause (2) states that "Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence."

Ever since the abrogation of Article 370 in J&K on August 5, 2019, internet services have been suspended in the state leading to severe disruption of day-to-day activities. The Supreme Court in its verdict observed that freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India. The Court added that it can only be restricted under the reasons given in the sub-clause (2) of Article 19. "Freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the constitution and can be restricted only under the reasons given in Article 19(2) of the Constitution," the SC said in its judgement while reviewing petitions challenging restrictions in J&K.

"Mere apprehension (of the government) that something might happen cannot be a justification for throttling speech and communication links. There has to be cogent evidence to back such exercise of power," senior advocate Kapil Sibal told SC.

Q. A man belonging to Christian community was thrown out of the movie hall for refusing to sing the national anthem. While the anthem was being performed, he behaved unreasonably rude to people in the hall and later with the theatre authorities. Does the expulsion from the hall violate the fundamental right of the man? Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 78 No, the expulsion doesn't violate the fundamental right of the man as his behaviour hampered the work of the theatre authorities. It must be noted that reasonable restriction is allowed if the situation permits.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 79

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court said that access to the internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution and asked the Jammu and Kashmir administration to review within a week all orders imposing curbs in the Union Territory. Here is a look at what does Article 19 inscribed in the Constitution of India say:

(1) All citizens shall have the right: (a) to freedom of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; (g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

The clause (2) states that "Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence."

Ever since the abrogation of Article 370 in J&K on August 5, 2019, internet services have been suspended in the state leading to severe disruption of day-to-day activities. The Supreme Court in its verdict observed that freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India. The Court added that it can only be restricted under the reasons given in the sub-clause (2) of Article 19. "Freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the constitution and can be restricted only under the reasons given in Article 19(2) of the Constitution," the SC said in its judgement while reviewing petitions challenging restrictions in J&K.

"Mere apprehension (of the government) that something might happen cannot be a justification for throttling speech and communication links. There has to be cogent evidence to back such exercise of power," senior advocate Kapil Sibal told SC.

Q. A group of students was performing peaceful protest against the college authorities for unhygienic sanitary conditions in the campus. During the protest, the student leader started delivering hate speech against the state. A suit was filed against the student leader by the college authorities for delivering the hate speech. The student leader, in defense, pleaded that it's his freedom to speech and expression and was using the same. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 79 The student leader is guilty as he delivered the hate speech which doesn't come under the ambit of freedom of speech and expression.

The right given by the Constitution must be used reasonably and under restrictions. Thus, saying bad about the state means disrupting the public order, decency or morality in the state.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 80

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The Supreme Court said that access to the internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution and asked the Jammu and Kashmir administration to review within a week all orders imposing curbs in the Union Territory. Here is a look at what does Article 19 inscribed in the Constitution of India say:

(1) All citizens shall have the right: (a) to freedom of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; (g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

The clause (2) states that "Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence."

Ever since the abrogation of Article 370 in J&K on August 5, 2019, internet services have been suspended in the state leading to severe disruption of day-to-day activities. The Supreme Court in its verdict observed that freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India. The Court added that it can only be restricted under the reasons given in the sub-clause (2) of Article 19. "Freedom of expression and carrying on trade through the internet is protected under Article 19(1) of the constitution and can be restricted only under the reasons given in Article 19(2) of the Constitution," the SC said in its judgement while reviewing petitions challenging restrictions in J&K.

"Mere apprehension (of the government) that something might happen cannot be a justification for throttling speech and communication links. There has to be cogent evidence to back such exercise of power," senior advocate Kapil Sibal told SC.

Q. Manish Jain has been residing in India for past 2 years. Manish was forbidden by the authorities of the stadium to enter the stadium. Manish Jain, being the Canadian passport holder, filed a suit in Kerala High Court against the stadium authorities for the violation of his fundamental right. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 80 As Manish is a foreigner, fundamental rights aren't applicable to him. It has been stated in the passage that Article 19 applies only to citizens of the country.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 81

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 107 IPC, a person is said to abet the doing of a thing, who instigates any person to do that thing or engages with one or more other persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing or intentionally aids, by an act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

Explanations to this section state that a person who, by willful misrepresentation, or by willful concealment of a material fact which he is bound to disclose, voluntarily causes or procures, or attempts to cause or procure, a thing to be done, is said to instigate the doing of that thing. To constitute the offence of abetment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the offence should be caused.

Whoever, either prior to or at the time of the commission of an act, does anything in order to facilitate the commission of that act, and thereby facilitates the commission thereof, is said to aid the doing of that act.

The term 'instigate' here denotes incitement or urging to do some drastic or inadvisable action. In committing abetment, mens rea is a necessary ingredient. When a person provokes another to do an act prohibited by law, he is said to commit the offence of abetment by instigation.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence by conspiracy if he enters into an agreement with one or more persons to do an illegal act.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence if he intentionally provides assistance or gives aid by doing or omitting an act. Mere intention to provide assistance is not sufficient in these cases. To hold a person guilty and liable for abetment, there must be some active conduct on the part of the abettor and the act must be accomplished in furtherance of that.

It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge. A person abets an offence within the meaning of this Code who, in India, abets the commission of any act without and beyond India which would constitute an offence if committed in India.

Q. Aman, a public officer, is authorised by a warrant from a Court of Justice to apprehend John. Raman, knowing that fact and also that Chetan is not John, willfully represents to Aman that Chetan is John, and thereby intentionally causes Aman to apprehend Chetan. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 81 Raman is liable for abetting the wrongful arrest as he has influenced Aman to apprehend Chetan.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 82

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 107 IPC, a person is said to abet the doing of a thing, who instigates any person to do that thing or engages with one or more other persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing or intentionally aids, by an act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

Explanations to this section state that a person who, by willful misrepresentation, or by willful concealment of a material fact which he is bound to disclose, voluntarily causes or procures, or attempts to cause or procure, a thing to be done, is said to instigate the doing of that thing. To constitute the offence of abetment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the offence should be caused.

Whoever, either prior to or at the time of the commission of an act, does anything in order to facilitate the commission of that act, and thereby facilitates the commission thereof, is said to aid the doing of that act.

The term 'instigate' here denotes incitement or urging to do some drastic or inadvisable action. In committing abetment, mens rea is a necessary ingredient. When a person provokes another to do an act prohibited by law, he is said to commit the offence of abetment by instigation.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence by conspiracy if he enters into an agreement with one or more persons to do an illegal act.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence if he intentionally provides assistance or gives aid by doing or omitting an act. Mere intention to provide assistance is not sufficient in these cases. To hold a person guilty and liable for abetment, there must be some active conduct on the part of the abettor and the act must be accomplished in furtherance of that.

It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge. A person abets an offence within the meaning of this Code who, in India, abets the commission of any act without and beyond India which would constitute an offence if committed in India.

Q. Sabya instigates Lovish to set fire to a dwelling house. Lovish, in consequence of the unsoundness of his mind, being incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing what is wrong or contrary to law, sets fire to the house in consequence of Sabya's instigation. Sabya takes the defence of Lovish's unsoundness. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 82 Sabya will be guilty as this is the case of abetment and it is only Sabya who will be liable for the fire.

It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge. So, the defence will not be available and Sabya will be guilty.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 83

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 107 IPC, a person is said to abet the doing of a thing, who instigates any person to do that thing or engages with one or more other persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing or intentionally aids, by an act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

Explanations to this section state that a person who, by willful misrepresentation, or by willful concealment of a material fact which he is bound to disclose, voluntarily causes or procures, or attempts to cause or procure, a thing to be done, is said to instigate the doing of that thing. To constitute the offence of abetment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the offence should be caused.

Whoever, either prior to or at the time of the commission of an act, does anything in order to facilitate the commission of that act, and thereby facilitates the commission thereof, is said to aid the doing of that act.

The term 'instigate' here denotes incitement or urging to do some drastic or inadvisable action. In committing abetment, mens rea is a necessary ingredient. When a person provokes another to do an act prohibited by law, he is said to commit the offence of abetment by instigation.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence by conspiracy if he enters into an agreement with one or more persons to do an illegal act.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence if he intentionally provides assistance or gives aid by doing or omitting an act. Mere intention to provide assistance is not sufficient in these cases. To hold a person guilty and liable for abetment, there must be some active conduct on the part of the abettor and the act must be accomplished in furtherance of that.

It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge. A person abets an offence within the meaning of this Code who, in India, abets the commission of any act without and beyond India which would constitute an offence if committed in India.

Q. Nisha's house was robbed by a group of robbers. The group of robbers included Prakash. The next day, Ramu, servant of Nisha, gave food and clothes to Prakash, an alleged offender, thinking him to be a beggar. Will Ramu be convicted for abetment for providing food and clothes to Prakash, an accused?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 83 Ramu will not be held liable for abetting as he barely provided food and shelter to the beggar. On the contrary, had Ramu given him food, clothes and shelter to help him hide from the police or commit a crime, he would have been held liable.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 84

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 107 IPC, a person is said to abet the doing of a thing, who instigates any person to do that thing or engages with one or more other persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing or intentionally aids, by an act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

Explanations to this section state that a person who, by willful misrepresentation, or by willful concealment of a material fact which he is bound to disclose, voluntarily causes or procures, or attempts to cause or procure, a thing to be done, is said to instigate the doing of that thing. To constitute the offence of abetment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the offence should be caused.

Whoever, either prior to or at the time of the commission of an act, does anything in order to facilitate the commission of that act, and thereby facilitates the commission thereof, is said to aid the doing of that act.

The term 'instigate' here denotes incitement or urging to do some drastic or inadvisable action. In committing abetment, mens rea is a necessary ingredient. When a person provokes another to do an act prohibited by law, he is said to commit the offence of abetment by instigation.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence by conspiracy if he enters into an agreement with one or more persons to do an illegal act.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence if he intentionally provides assistance or gives aid by doing or omitting an act. Mere intention to provide assistance is not sufficient in these cases. To hold a person guilty and liable for abetment, there must be some active conduct on the part of the abettor and the act must be accomplished in furtherance of that.

It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge. A person abets an offence within the meaning of this Code who, in India, abets the commission of any act without and beyond India which would constitute an offence if committed in India.

Q. Shikha instigates Madan to murder Shubh. Madan in pursuance of the instigation stabs Shubh. Shubh recovers from the wound. Decide the liability and answer accordingly.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 84 Shikha will be guilty as this is the case of abetment and only Shikha will be liable for the murder.

To constitute the offence of abetment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the offence should be caused.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 85

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

As per Section 107 IPC, a person is said to abet the doing of a thing, who instigates any person to do that thing or engages with one or more other persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing or intentionally aids, by an act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing.

Explanations to this section state that a person who, by willful misrepresentation, or by willful concealment of a material fact which he is bound to disclose, voluntarily causes or procures, or attempts to cause or procure, a thing to be done, is said to instigate the doing of that thing. To constitute the offence of abetment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed, or that the effect requisite to constitute the offence should be caused.

Whoever, either prior to or at the time of the commission of an act, does anything in order to facilitate the commission of that act, and thereby facilitates the commission thereof, is said to aid the doing of that act.

The term 'instigate' here denotes incitement or urging to do some drastic or inadvisable action. In committing abetment, mens rea is a necessary ingredient. When a person provokes another to do an act prohibited by law, he is said to commit the offence of abetment by instigation.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence by conspiracy if he enters into an agreement with one or more persons to do an illegal act.

A person is said to abet the commission of an offence if he intentionally provides assistance or gives aid by doing or omitting an act. Mere intention to provide assistance is not sufficient in these cases. To hold a person guilty and liable for abetment, there must be some active conduct on the part of the abettor and the act must be accomplished in furtherance of that.

It is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable by law of committing an offence, or that he should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor, or any guilty intention or knowledge. A person abets an offence within the meaning of this Code who, in India, abets the commission of any act without and beyond India which would constitute an offence if committed in India.

Q. Siya, in India, instigates North, a foreigner in Poland, to commit a murder in Poland. Who would be held guilty?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 85 Siya will be guilty as this is the case of abetment and only Siya will be liable for the murder as she is an Indian citizen.

Siya is guilty of abetting murder as it has been stated in the passage that a person abets an offence within the meaning of this Code who, in India, abets the commission of any act without and beyond India which would constitute an offence if committed in India.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 86

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.

The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.

However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.

Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.

Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.

According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.

The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. If a partnership firm was made between three adults and a minor, then what is the validity of such a contract?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 86 It is not mentioned in the passage whether the minor entering into a contract to form a partnership will void the contract. The Supreme Court stated that it only barred them for registration with Income Tax authorities.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 87

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.

The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.

However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.

Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.

Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.

According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.

The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. A minor, being suspicious whether he is receiving the exact share in profits of the firm, wished to go through the contracts of transactions entered into by the firm to calculate profits. The firm challenged this action. Who will succeed?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 87 A minor has only the right to inspect accounts to see the profits and his share. He does not have right to inspect any other documents.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 88

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.

The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.

However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.

Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.

Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.

According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.

The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. A minor wished to sever his ties with the partnership after attaining the age of majority. He has not received the share of profits due to him. Can he still avail it as a right?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 88 Even after choosing to leave the firm, he can demand to receive the profits due to him by right.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 89

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.

The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.

However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.

Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.

Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.

According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.

The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. James, an adult, had been with the partnership firm since he was a minor. He had enjoyed the benefits even when the firm was in loss. When the firm began to attain financial stability, James, who had just reached the age of majority, decided to continue in the partnership. What are his liabilities on the date of continuing as a major?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 89 Once a minor continues in the partnership after becoming a major, he shall be liable for the past liabilities since the date of admission as a minor.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 90

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines persons as partners who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. A minor is a person who hasn't yet attained the age of majority, which is eighteen years, according to the Indian Majority Act, 1875.

The general principle has been laid down by Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where it is discussed that who is competent to a contract and thereby stating that a minor doesn't have the ability to contract. Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, a firm means a group of people who has entered into a contract of partnership among themselves and reading it with Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, it can be interpreted that a minor cannot be a part of a partnership contract.

However, the Supreme Court in the landmark judgement of Commissioner of Income Tax v. D. Khaitan and Co. took a legal stand that in a situation where a minor is made a full-fledged partner in the firm, the partnership cannot be registered by the Income Tax Department only.

Section 30(2) of the Indian Partnership Act states that a minor is entitled to share of profits and the property of the firm, which may have decided at the time the minor was admitted to the benefits of the partnership. Under this provision, a minor has the right to inspect the accounts of the partnership but to that fact does not have any right to inspect other documents of the partnership.

Even in Section 30(3) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can only be liable to the extent of his share in the partnership and can't be liable personally to the partnership for the losses of the firm.

According to Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act, a minor has two options after attaining majority, either he can sever the connection with the firm or he can become a full-fledged partner in the firm. After leaving, he can avail any pending share of profits he is entitled to.

The minor has to make his decision within six months of his attaining majority. Section 7(a) of the Indian Partnership Act also states that after a minor partner has been admitted in the partnership as a full-fledged partner, he will be liable not only for the future liabilities of the firm but also the past liability from the date of his admission in the partnership.

Q. A minor, a partner in firm 'A', entered into a business contract with firm 'B' for a particular service. Firm 'B' filed a suit for non-payment of fees. Who will succeed?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 90 A contract entered into with a minor is void regardless of whether he/she is a partner in a firm.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 91

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The ministry of corporate affairs (MCA) has permitted the funds spent on awareness programmes and public outreach campaigns regarding the Covid-19 vaccination drive, to be classified as corporate social responsibility (CSR) activity. Specifically, the newly permitted activities would come under the categories relating to promotion of healthcare, including preventive health care and sanitation, promoting education and disaster management, the circular said.

Previously, the MCA had amended the CSR rules to permit companies engaged in research and development (R&D) activity of new vaccine, drugs and medical devices to categorise as CSR activity. Earlier in March 2020, the ministry had allowed funds donated to the Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM CARES) Fund by corporates to be classified as CSR spends.

CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility. It has been incorporated in Companies Act 2013. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to every company registered under the Act. India is one of the first countries to make CSR mandatory. Due to an amendment in the Companies Act 2013 in April 2014, businesses are able to invest their profits in areas such as education, betterment of society, sanitization, and disaster relief as part of CSR Compliance

The purpose of corporate social responsibility is to give back to the community, take part in philanthropic causes, and provide positive social value. Businesses are increasingly turning to CSR to make a difference and build a positive brand around their company

Q. Based on the principle set out in the passage above, CSR was introduced as a measure to assess the corporate responsibility of a business towards the :

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 91 Corporate social responsibility (also known as CSR) is a term used to describe a company’s efforts to improve society in some way. These efforts can range from donating money to nonprofits to implementing environmentally friendly policies in the workplace – This is clear from the words ‘betterment of society’ and ‘community’.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 92

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The ministry of corporate affairs (MCA) has permitted the funds spent on awareness programmes and public outreach campaigns regarding the Covid-19 vaccination drive, to be classified as corporate social responsibility (CSR) activity. Specifically, the newly permitted activities would come under the categories relating to promotion of healthcare, including preventive health care and sanitation, promoting education and disaster management, the circular said.

Previously, the MCA had amended the CSR rules to permit companies engaged in research and development (R&D) activity of new vaccine, drugs and medical devices to categorise as CSR activity. Earlier in March 2020, the ministry had allowed funds donated to the Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM CARES) Fund by corporates to be classified as CSR spends.

CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility. It has been incorporated in Companies Act 2013. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to every company registered under the Act. India is one of the first countries to make CSR mandatory. Due to an amendment in the Companies Act 2013 in April 2014, businesses are able to invest their profits in areas such as education, betterment of society, sanitization, and disaster relief as part of CSR Compliance

The purpose of corporate social responsibility is to give back to the community, take part in philanthropic causes, and provide positive social value. Businesses are increasingly turning to CSR to make a difference and build a positive brand around their company

Q. What in your view are the advantages of CSR?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 92 Certain advantages of CSR which can be deciphered are–
  • CSR increases availability of finance to sectors like education, poverty, gender equality

  • CSR improves the public image by publicizing the efforts towards a better society and increase their chance of becoming favourable in the eyes of consumers.

  • CSR increases media coverage as media visibility throws a positive light on the organisation.

  • CSR enhances the company’s brand value by building a socially strong relationship with customers.

  • CSR helps companies to stand out from the competition when companies are involved in any kind of community.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 93

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The ministry of corporate affairs (MCA) has permitted the funds spent on awareness programmes and public outreach campaigns regarding the Covid-19 vaccination drive, to be classified as corporate social responsibility (CSR) activity. Specifically, the newly permitted activities would come under the categories relating to promotion of healthcare, including preventive health care and sanitation, promoting education and disaster management, the circular said.

Previously, the MCA had amended the CSR rules to permit companies engaged in research and development (R&D) activity of new vaccine, drugs and medical devices to categorise as CSR activity. Earlier in March 2020, the ministry had allowed funds donated to the Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM CARES) Fund by corporates to be classified as CSR spends.

CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility. It has been incorporated in Companies Act 2013. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to every company registered under the Act. India is one of the first countries to make CSR mandatory. Due to an amendment in the Companies Act 2013 in April 2014, businesses are able to invest their profits in areas such as education, betterment of society, sanitization, and disaster relief as part of CSR Compliance

The purpose of corporate social responsibility is to give back to the community, take part in philanthropic causes, and provide positive social value. Businesses are increasingly turning to CSR to make a difference and build a positive brand around their company

Q. ABC, a multinational clothing brand company wants to invest for CSR Compliance. In which of the following sectors can ABC invest, according to your understanding of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 93 All the sectors which relate to education, betterment of society, sanitization, and disaster relief etc come under CSR Compliance. The above mentioned sectors are all within the specified sectors. Hence ABC can invest in all the sectors above
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 94

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The ministry of corporate affairs (MCA) has permitted the funds spent on awareness programmes and public outreach campaigns regarding the Covid-19 vaccination drive, to be classified as corporate social responsibility (CSR) activity. Specifically, the newly permitted activities would come under the categories relating to promotion of healthcare, including preventive health care and sanitation, promoting education and disaster management, the circular said.

Previously, the MCA had amended the CSR rules to permit companies engaged in research and development (R&D) activity of new vaccine, drugs and medical devices to categorise as CSR activity. Earlier in March 2020, the ministry had allowed funds donated to the Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM CARES) Fund by corporates to be classified as CSR spends.

CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility. It has been incorporated in Companies Act 2013. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to every company registered under the Act. India is one of the first countries to make CSR mandatory. Due to an amendment in the Companies Act 2013 in April 2014, businesses are able to invest their profits in areas such as education, betterment of society, sanitization, and disaster relief as part of CSR Compliance

The purpose of corporate social responsibility is to give back to the community, take part in philanthropic causes, and provide positive social value. Businesses are increasingly turning to CSR to make a difference and build a positive brand around their company

Q. Why do you think the concept of CSR was introduced in the Companies Act, 2013?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 94 From the understanding of passage, it can be said that CSR is statutorily imposed on businesses through Companies act and is mandatory. It is not a voluntary activity done by businesses. CSR Compliance is mandatory and the reason behind its introduction is to give back to the community, take part in philanthropic causes, and provide positive social value
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 95

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The ministry of corporate affairs (MCA) has permitted the funds spent on awareness programmes and public outreach campaigns regarding the Covid-19 vaccination drive, to be classified as corporate social responsibility (CSR) activity. Specifically, the newly permitted activities would come under the categories relating to promotion of healthcare, including preventive health care and sanitation, promoting education and disaster management, the circular said.

Previously, the MCA had amended the CSR rules to permit companies engaged in research and development (R&D) activity of new vaccine, drugs and medical devices to categorise as CSR activity. Earlier in March 2020, the ministry had allowed funds donated to the Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM CARES) Fund by corporates to be classified as CSR spends.

CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility. It has been incorporated in Companies Act 2013. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to every company registered under the Act. India is one of the first countries to make CSR mandatory. Due to an amendment in the Companies Act 2013 in April 2014, businesses are able to invest their profits in areas such as education, betterment of society, sanitization, and disaster relief as part of CSR Compliance

The purpose of corporate social responsibility is to give back to the community, take part in philanthropic causes, and provide positive social value. Businesses are increasingly turning to CSR to make a difference and build a positive brand around their company

Q. Based on your understanding of the passage above, CSR is applicable to

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 95 Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to every company registered under the Act – Thus the word ‘ every company’ specifies that CSR is applicable to both public and private sector.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 96

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

The ministry of corporate affairs (MCA) has permitted the funds spent on awareness programmes and public outreach campaigns regarding the Covid-19 vaccination drive, to be classified as corporate social responsibility (CSR) activity. Specifically, the newly permitted activities would come under the categories relating to promotion of healthcare, including preventive health care and sanitation, promoting education and disaster management, the circular said.

Previously, the MCA had amended the CSR rules to permit companies engaged in research and development (R&D) activity of new vaccine, drugs and medical devices to categorise as CSR activity. Earlier in March 2020, the ministry had allowed funds donated to the Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM CARES) Fund by corporates to be classified as CSR spends.

CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility. It has been incorporated in Companies Act 2013. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to every company registered under the Act. India is one of the first countries to make CSR mandatory. Due to an amendment in the Companies Act 2013 in April 2014, businesses are able to invest their profits in areas such as education, betterment of society, sanitization, and disaster relief as part of CSR Compliance

The purpose of corporate social responsibility is to give back to the community, take part in philanthropic causes, and provide positive social value. Businesses are increasingly turning to CSR to make a difference and build a positive brand around their company

Q. Considering the situation mentioned in the above question, ABC launched a campaign to support a non profit organization XYZ aimed to promote literacy among children . The company establishes a wine factory, produced and sold its wine, donating all its proceeds from sales supporting XYZ. Has ABC fulfilled its CSR Compliance?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 96 As is clear from the passage, The purpose of corporate social responsibility is to give back to the community, take part in philanthropic causes, and provide positive social value. Hence here the purpose of ABC company to promote literacy among children via donating to XYZ, fulfills CSR Compliance criteria.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 97

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Federalism in India reminds one of the grinning Cheshire cat in Alice in Wonderland. At one point the cat disappears and all that remains is the grin, an enigmatic trace of doubtful significance. Federalism is such a vanishing act. The truth, however, is that there never has been a serious principled constituency for federalism in India.

Four things sustain federalism. But, in retrospect, they turned out to be very contingent political foundations for federalism. The first was a genuine concern about whether a centralised state could accommodate India’s linguistic and cultural diversity. The States Reorganisation Act and the compromises on the issue of languages was a victory for federalism. It allowed India to use federalism to accommodate linguistic diversity.

The second underpinning of federalism is actual distribution of political power. The rise of coalition governments, economic liberalisation, regional parties, seemed to provide propitious ground for political federalism. But one must not overestimate the commitment to federalism in that period of fragmentation. Political federalism is quite compatible with financial, and administrative centralisation. But what fragmentation of power effectively meant was that each state could bargain for certain things; or very strong leaders could veto central proposals.

The third thing that sustains federalism is the political and institutional culture. But the culture of political parties ruling at the Centre was committed to the most extreme interpretation of flexible federalism, including procedural impropriety to oust opponents. Because of the increasing presidentialisation of national politics, a single-party dominance with powerful messaging power, and change in forms of communication, the attribution of policy successes or failures might change, diminishing the stature of chief ministers considerably. The other source of institutional culture might be the Supreme Court.

The fourth thing that sustained federalism was what Louise Tillin has brilliantly analysed as “asymmetrical federalism” — special exemptions given to various states. But asymmetrical federalism has always been subject to three pressures. For Kashmir, asymmetrical federalism came to be seen as the source, not the resolution, of the security threat. Even in the North-east, local conflicts within the scheme of asymmetrical federalism and a discourse of security allowed the Centre to step in.

Q. Based on your understanding of the passage, the real success of federalism in India can be attributed to :

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 97 The passage mentions four things that sustain federalism -accommodation India’s linguistic and cultural diversity; actual distribution of political power; political and institutional culture; special exemptions given to various states. There is no mention of Constitution in the passage and hence Option a is correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 98

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Federalism in India reminds one of the grinning Cheshire cat in Alice in Wonderland. At one point the cat disappears and all that remains is the grin, an enigmatic trace of doubtful significance. Federalism is such a vanishing act. The truth, however, is that there never has been a serious principled constituency for federalism in India.

Four things sustain federalism. But, in retrospect, they turned out to be very contingent political foundations for federalism. The first was a genuine concern about whether a centralised state could accommodate India’s linguistic and cultural diversity. The States Reorganisation Act and the compromises on the issue of languages was a victory for federalism. It allowed India to use federalism to accommodate linguistic diversity.

The second underpinning of federalism is actual distribution of political power. The rise of coalition governments, economic liberalisation, regional parties, seemed to provide propitious ground for political federalism. But one must not overestimate the commitment to federalism in that period of fragmentation. Political federalism is quite compatible with financial, and administrative centralisation. But what fragmentation of power effectively meant was that each state could bargain for certain things; or very strong leaders could veto central proposals.

The third thing that sustains federalism is the political and institutional culture. But the culture of political parties ruling at the Centre was committed to the most extreme interpretation of flexible federalism, including procedural impropriety to oust opponents. Because of the increasing presidentialisation of national politics, a single-party dominance with powerful messaging power, and change in forms of communication, the attribution of policy successes or failures might change, diminishing the stature of chief ministers considerably. The other source of institutional culture might be the Supreme Court.

The fourth thing that sustained federalism was what Louise Tillin has brilliantly analysed as “asymmetrical federalism” — special exemptions given to various states. But asymmetrical federalism has always been subject to three pressures. For Kashmir, asymmetrical federalism came to be seen as the source, not the resolution, of the security threat. Even in the North-east, local conflicts within the scheme of asymmetrical federalism and a discourse of security allowed the Centre to step in.

Q. Consider the following statements and choose the best option.

I. Presidentialisation of national politics is against the spirit of Indian federalism.

II. The concentration of power around political leaders in democratic political systems affect the idea of parliamentary form of government.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 98 In the fourth paragraph – “Because of the increasing presidentialisation of national politics, a single-party dominance with powerful messaging power, and change in forms of communication, the attribution of policy successes or failures might change, diminishing the stature of chief ministers considerably”.

These statements show that Presidentialisation of politics cause the democracy to behave as a monarchy and hence the say of states is reduced- it causes a virtual shift from parliamentary form of governance to presidential form.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 99

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Federalism in India reminds one of the grinning Cheshire cat in Alice in Wonderland. At one point the cat disappears and all that remains is the grin, an enigmatic trace of doubtful significance. Federalism is such a vanishing act. The truth, however, is that there never has been a serious principled constituency for federalism in India.

Four things sustain federalism. But, in retrospect, they turned out to be very contingent political foundations for federalism. The first was a genuine concern about whether a centralised state could accommodate India’s linguistic and cultural diversity. The States Reorganisation Act and the compromises on the issue of languages was a victory for federalism. It allowed India to use federalism to accommodate linguistic diversity.

The second underpinning of federalism is actual distribution of political power. The rise of coalition governments, economic liberalisation, regional parties, seemed to provide propitious ground for political federalism. But one must not overestimate the commitment to federalism in that period of fragmentation. Political federalism is quite compatible with financial, and administrative centralisation. But what fragmentation of power effectively meant was that each state could bargain for certain things; or very strong leaders could veto central proposals.

The third thing that sustains federalism is the political and institutional culture. But the culture of political parties ruling at the Centre was committed to the most extreme interpretation of flexible federalism, including procedural impropriety to oust opponents. Because of the increasing presidentialisation of national politics, a single-party dominance with powerful messaging power, and change in forms of communication, the attribution of policy successes or failures might change, diminishing the stature of chief ministers considerably. The other source of institutional culture might be the Supreme Court.

The fourth thing that sustained federalism was what Louise Tillin has brilliantly analysed as “asymmetrical federalism” — special exemptions given to various states. But asymmetrical federalism has always been subject to three pressures. For Kashmir, asymmetrical federalism came to be seen as the source, not the resolution, of the security threat. Even in the North-east, local conflicts within the scheme of asymmetrical federalism and a discourse of security allowed the Centre to step in.

Q. Which of the following could be considered the advantage of federalism and decentralization?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 99 Option a is the advantage of federalism and it improves governance and fulfills the local needs. Option b,c,d are against the spirit of division of power- federalism.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 100

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Federalism in India reminds one of the grinning Cheshire cat in Alice in Wonderland. At one point the cat disappears and all that remains is the grin, an enigmatic trace of doubtful significance. Federalism is such a vanishing act. The truth, however, is that there never has been a serious principled constituency for federalism in India.

Four things sustain federalism. But, in retrospect, they turned out to be very contingent political foundations for federalism. The first was a genuine concern about whether a centralised state could accommodate India’s linguistic and cultural diversity. The States Reorganisation Act and the compromises on the issue of languages was a victory for federalism. It allowed India to use federalism to accommodate linguistic diversity.

The second underpinning of federalism is actual distribution of political power. The rise of coalition governments, economic liberalisation, regional parties, seemed to provide propitious ground for political federalism. But one must not overestimate the commitment to federalism in that period of fragmentation. Political federalism is quite compatible with financial, and administrative centralisation. But what fragmentation of power effectively meant was that each state could bargain for certain things; or very strong leaders could veto central proposals.

The third thing that sustains federalism is the political and institutional culture. But the culture of political parties ruling at the Centre was committed to the most extreme interpretation of flexible federalism, including procedural impropriety to oust opponents. Because of the increasing presidentialisation of national politics, a single-party dominance with powerful messaging power, and change in forms of communication, the attribution of policy successes or failures might change, diminishing the stature of chief ministers considerably. The other source of institutional culture might be the Supreme Court.

The fourth thing that sustained federalism was what Louise Tillin has brilliantly analysed as “asymmetrical federalism” — special exemptions given to various states. But asymmetrical federalism has always been subject to three pressures. For Kashmir, asymmetrical federalism came to be seen as the source, not the resolution, of the security threat. Even in the North-east, local conflicts within the scheme of asymmetrical federalism and a discourse of security allowed the Centre to step in.

Q. Which of the following is not a feature of fragmentation of power under political federalism?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 100 Fragmentation of political power is mentioned in paragraph 3. While Option (a) and (c) are examples how political power is fragmented and hence provide actual distribution of power, Option b is feature of concentration of power in Centre and against the doctrine of federalism.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 101

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Federalism in India reminds one of the grinning Cheshire cat in Alice in Wonderland. At one point the cat disappears and all that remains is the grin, an enigmatic trace of doubtful significance. Federalism is such a vanishing act. The truth, however, is that there never has been a serious principled constituency for federalism in India.

Four things sustain federalism. But, in retrospect, they turned out to be very contingent political foundations for federalism. The first was a genuine concern about whether a centralised state could accommodate India’s linguistic and cultural diversity. The States Reorganisation Act and the compromises on the issue of languages was a victory for federalism. It allowed India to use federalism to accommodate linguistic diversity.

The second underpinning of federalism is actual distribution of political power. The rise of coalition governments, economic liberalisation, regional parties, seemed to provide propitious ground for political federalism. But one must not overestimate the commitment to federalism in that period of fragmentation. Political federalism is quite compatible with financial, and administrative centralisation. But what fragmentation of power effectively meant was that each state could bargain for certain things; or very strong leaders could veto central proposals.

The third thing that sustains federalism is the political and institutional culture. But the culture of political parties ruling at the Centre was committed to the most extreme interpretation of flexible federalism, including procedural impropriety to oust opponents. Because of the increasing presidentialisation of national politics, a single-party dominance with powerful messaging power, and change in forms of communication, the attribution of policy successes or failures might change, diminishing the stature of chief ministers considerably. The other source of institutional culture might be the Supreme Court.

The fourth thing that sustained federalism was what Louise Tillin has brilliantly analysed as “asymmetrical federalism” — special exemptions given to various states. But asymmetrical federalism has always been subject to three pressures. For Kashmir, asymmetrical federalism came to be seen as the source, not the resolution, of the security threat. Even in the North-east, local conflicts within the scheme of asymmetrical federalism and a discourse of security allowed the Centre to step in.

Q. Which of the following is not an example of Assymetrical Federalism with respect to India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 101 Asymmetrical federalism means — special exemptions given to various states i.e accommodating the State’s needs. In all the given options attempt has been made to differentiate states based on special provisions provided to them. Hence Option d is correct
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 102

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Interpreting what constitutes a sexual assault with a minor under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, the Nagpur bench of the Bombay high court has ruled that there must be a “skin-to-skin contact” with sexual intent, and mere groping is not sufficient.

Under section 7 of the POCSO Act, sexual assault is defined as an act of touching the private parts of the child or making the child touch the private parts of the accused or any other person or any act with sexual intent that involves physical contact without penetration.

The court acquitted the convict under POCSO Act while recognizing the act of the accused as use of criminal force with the intention to outrage a woman’s modesty defined under Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code.

An offence U/s 07 of the POCSO Act involves two things. The sexual desire of the accused and the resultant injury caused to the body of the 'CHILD' . Section 354 of Indian Penal Code says “ Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any woman, intending to outrage or knowing it to be likely that he will thereby outrage her modesty, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.”

The Supreme Court had stayed the Bombay high court order acquitting the man after Attorney General K.K. Venugopal said the order would set a dangerous precedent.

Q. Keeping in view the principle set out in the above passage, which of the following is not an offence under POSCO act?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 102 As all the situations mentioned in Option a,b,c are without sexual intent, they are not an offence under POSCO Act.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 103

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Interpreting what constitutes a sexual assault with a minor under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, the Nagpur bench of the Bombay high court has ruled that there must be a “skin-to-skin contact” with sexual intent, and mere groping is not sufficient.

Under section 7 of the POCSO Act, sexual assault is defined as an act of touching the private parts of the child or making the child touch the private parts of the accused or any other person or any act with sexual intent that involves physical contact without penetration.

The court acquitted the convict under POCSO Act while recognizing the act of the accused as use of criminal force with the intention to outrage a woman’s modesty defined under Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code.

An offence U/s 07 of the POCSO Act involves two things. The sexual desire of the accused and the resultant injury caused to the body of the 'CHILD'. Section 354 of Indian Penal Code says “ Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any woman, intending to outrage or knowing it to be likely that he will thereby outrage her modesty, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.”

The Supreme Court had stayed the Bombay high court order acquitting the man after Attorney General K.K. Venugopal said the order would set a dangerous precedent.

Q. In the context of above passage, why do you think the Supreme Court stayed the Bombay High court order?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 103 The statement – “…Attorney General K.K. Venugopal said the order would set a dangerous precedent”- Clearly states that Option c is correct.

Option b is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Option a does not justify the order alone- because if Attorney General ask for something else, Supreme Court will look into the issue but not order it.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 104

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Interpreting what constitutes a sexual assault with a minor under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, the Nagpur bench of the Bombay high court has ruled that there must be a “skin-to-skin contact” with sexual intent, and mere groping is not sufficient.

Under section 7 of the POCSO Act, sexual assault is defined as an act of touching the private parts of the child or making the child touch the private parts of the accused or any other person or any act with sexual intent that involves physical contact without penetration.

The court acquitted the convict under POCSO Act while recognizing the act of the accused as use of criminal force with the intention to outrage a woman’s modesty defined under Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code.

An offence U/s 07 of the POCSO Act involves two things. The sexual desire of the accused and the resultant injury caused to the body of the 'CHILD' . Section 354 of Indian Penal Code says “ Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any woman, intending to outrage or knowing it to be likely that he will thereby outrage her modesty, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.”

The Supreme Court had stayed the Bombay high court order acquitting the man after Attorney General K.K. Venugopal said the order would set a dangerous precedent.

Q. Section 7 of POSCO Act applies to:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 104 “The sexual desire of the accused and the resultant injury caused to the body of the 'CHILD'”- In this statement the word ‘CHILD’ is mentioned- hence POSCO act applies to both male and female child
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 105

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Today marks the first anniversary of the day the central government announced an ill-planned national lockdown. India is home to nearly 500 million informal sector workers with practically non-existent social security and the unilateral decision pushed them into perilous circumstances, triggering their great exodus from cities. After spawning such a crisis, has the government responded with compassion towards the majority in the country? According to a recent article by economist Himanshu, as on January 1 this year, the Food Corporation of India (FCI) has four times the buffer stock norms. Despite this, the Centre discontinued the supply of additional food grains through the PDS in November. In light of such plenty among penury, it is astonishing that the NITI Aayog would propose to lower the food subsidies from 75 per cent to 60 per cent in rural areas and from 50 per cent to 40 per cent in urban areas. The shortage of income and food will have a further devastating impact on women and children’s nutrition. Consequently, there is an urgent need to universalise rations. Instead, the government insists on relying on technocratic fixes. For example, although One Nation One Ration (ONOR) Card sounds good in theory, it is fraught with several problems. For instance, supplying the right quantity of grains to different ration shops is likely to be a logistical nightmare. Further, ONOR gives easy ammunition for corrupt ration dealers to escape scrutiny as they can claim that a migrant from their household has drawn full rations elsewhere.

Q. Which of the following conveys the main idea expressed in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 105 The main idea behind the passage is about the discussion regarding the misery that was faced by the Indian Migrant workers after the Lockdown. Though option (a) and option (b) is mentioned in the passage, it is not the main idea, so the correct answer is Option (c).
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 106

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Today marks the first anniversary of the day the central government announced an ill-planned national lockdown. India is home to nearly 500 million informal sector workers with practically non-existent social security and the unilateral decision pushed them into perilous circumstances, triggering their great exodus from cities. After spawning such a crisis, has the government responded with compassion towards the majority in the country? According to a recent article by economist Himanshu, as on January 1 this year, the Food Corporation of India (FCI) has four times the buffer stock norms. Despite this, the Centre discontinued the supply of additional food grains through the PDS in November. In light of such plenty among penury, it is astonishing that the NITI Aayog would propose to lower the food subsidies from 75 per cent to 60 per cent in rural areas and from 50 per cent to 40 per cent in urban areas. The shortage of income and food will have a further devastating impact on women and children’s nutrition. Consequently, there is an urgent need to universalise rations. Instead, the government insists on relying on technocratic fixes. For example, although One Nation One Ration (ONOR) Card sounds good in theory, it is fraught with several problems. For instance, supplying the right quantity of grains to different ration shops is likely to be a logistical nightmare. Further, ONOR gives easy ammunition for corrupt ration dealers to escape scrutiny as they can claim that a migrant from their household has drawn full rations elsewhere.

Q. Which of the following is inferred by the Author through the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 106 All the option a, b and c are inferred by the Author and is true as per the passage, so all the points are correct. Hence Option d is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 107

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Today marks the first anniversary of the day the central government announced an ill-planned national lockdown. India is home to nearly 500 million informal sector workers with practically non-existent social security and the unilateral decision pushed them into perilous circumstances, triggering their great exodus from cities. After spawning such a crisis, has the government responded with compassion towards the majority in the country? According to a recent article by economist Himanshu, as on January 1 this year, the Food Corporation of India (FCI) has four times the buffer stock norms. Despite this, the Centre discontinued the supply of additional food grains through the PDS in November. In light of such plenty among penury, it is astonishing that the NITI Aayog would propose to lower the food subsidies from 75 per cent to 60 per cent in rural areas and from 50 per cent to 40 per cent in urban areas. The shortage of income and food will have a further devastating impact on women and children’s nutrition. Consequently, there is an urgent need to universalise rations. Instead, the government insists on relying on technocratic fixes. For example, although One Nation One Ration (ONOR) Card sounds good in theory, it is fraught with several problems. For instance, supplying the right quantity of grains to different ration shops is likely to be a logistical nightmare. Further, ONOR gives easy ammunition for corrupt ration dealers to escape scrutiny as they can claim that a migrant from their household has drawn full rations elsewhere.

Q. Consider the following statement-”500 million informal sector workers are pushed into perilous circumstances”

Which of the following statements strengthens the statement?

I. The Centre discontinued the supply of additional food grains

II. The shortage of income and food will have a further devastating impact

III. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) has four times the buffer stock norms

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 107 Statement I and II directly talks about some of the reasons that have pushed the Migrant workers to perilous circumstances like the discontinuation of food grains and shortage of income & food.

Whereas Statement III is emphasising on the fact that buffer stocks are high which is not strengthening the given sentence.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 108

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Today marks the first anniversary of the day the central government announced an ill-planned national lockdown. India is home to nearly 500 million informal sector workers with practically non-existent social security and the unilateral decision pushed them into perilous circumstances, triggering their great exodus from cities. After spawning such a crisis, has the government responded with compassion towards the majority in the country? According to a recent article by economist Himanshu, as on January 1 this year, the Food Corporation of India (FCI) has four times the buffer stock norms. Despite this, the Centre discontinued the supply of additional food grains through the PDS in November. In light of such plenty among penury, it is astonishing that the NITI Aayog would propose to lower the food subsidies from 75 per cent to 60 per cent in rural areas and from 50 per cent to 40 per cent in urban areas. The shortage of income and food will have a further devastating impact on women and children’s nutrition. Consequently, there is an urgent need to universalise rations. Instead, the government insists on relying on technocratic fixes. For example, although One Nation One Ration (ONOR) Card sounds good in theory, it is fraught with several problems. For instance, supplying the right quantity of grains to different ration shops is likely to be a logistical nightmare. Further, ONOR gives easy ammunition for corrupt ration dealers to escape scrutiny as they can claim that a migrant from their household has drawn full rations elsewhere.

Q. In this line, ―” although One Nation One Ration (ONOR) Card sounds good in theory”

Here the Author implies that:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 108 As per the author, he is telling about the ONOR card, and mentioning that it seems good only in theory, which means it is only good in theory and not practical.

Option (a) and (d) is not what is said in the passage.

Option c is true as per the passage but it is not connected to the given sentence of this question.

Hence Option (b) is correct.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 109

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Today marks the first anniversary of the day the central government announced an ill-planned national lockdown. India is home to nearly 500 million informal sector workers with practically non-existent social security and the unilateral decision pushed them into perilous circumstances, triggering their great exodus from cities. After spawning such a crisis, has the government responded with compassion towards the majority in the country? According to a recent article by economist Himanshu, as on January 1 this year, the Food Corporation of India (FCI) has four times the buffer stock norms. Despite this, the Centre discontinued the supply of additional food grains through the PDS in November. In light of such plenty among penury, it is astonishing that the NITI Aayog would propose to lower the food subsidies from 75 per cent to 60 per cent in rural areas and from 50 per cent to 40 per cent in urban areas. The shortage of income and food will have a further devastating impact on women and children’s nutrition. Consequently, there is an urgent need to universalise rations. Instead, the government insists on relying on technocratic fixes. For example, although One Nation One Ration (ONOR) Card sounds good in theory, it is fraught with several problems. For instance, supplying the right quantity of grains to different ration shops is likely to be a logistical nightmare. Further, ONOR gives easy ammunition for corrupt ration dealers to escape scrutiny as they can claim that a migrant from their household has drawn full rations elsewhere.

Q. What is implied by “plenty among penury” in the passage above mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 109 The author is talking about the migrants who are in extreme poverty and at the same time they are not have enough access to food even though as per the author, the Food Corporation of India (FCI) has four times the buffer stock norms, despite of that the plenty of migrant workers who need the food are not able to get the supply. Hence only option d is correct as per the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 110

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Mutation is quintessential to viruses. Such changes in the pathogen can be inconsequential, deadly or even beneficial. Genome sequencing can help us understand how fast the virus will spread and how lethal it could turn out to be. Even if a mutant is not more virulent, it could be more infectious and that could put pressure on an area’s health infrastructure. We know, for example, that healthcare facilities in most of the COVID hotspots in the country, including Maharashtra, are badly stretched. It also seems that the infection is spreading faster than last year. But we need to track the virus’s genome sequence to understand if this is because the pathogen turned more infectious. Hospital-level analyses can help ascertain if the mutant is deadlier or more debilitating than the virus’s original avatar.

It’s now apparent that getting the better of the coronavirus will require multiple strategies. Inoculation, of course, remains the best bet against the scourge. Studies indicating that the South African variant can evade vaccines do point to a new challenge. Vaccine developers have reported early signs of success in plugging this gap. Also, a negligible number of people in India have, so far, been infected by this mutant. The potency of the vaccines currently in use in the country against B.I.617 is another cause of assurance. Even then, the need to be vigilant cannot be overstated. There can, therefore, be no compromise on COVID-appropriate behaviour.Exigencies that require putting curbs on movement — as in Maharashtra — may still arise. In all this, the imperative to follow science remains paramount. The virus needs to be tracked more closely and scientifically to protect people against its vagaries.

Q. What according to the author is the “the best bet” in the situation?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 110 The question is pertaining to this part of the passage-“ It’s now apparent that getting the better of the coronavirus will require multiple strategies. Inoculation, of course, remains the best bet against the scourge.” Here the author is trying to say that the Inoculation or Immunization is the best way forward in the situation. Hence the option (b) is correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 111

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Mutation is quintessential to viruses. Such changes in the pathogen can be inconsequential, deadly or even beneficial. Genome sequencing can help us understand how fast the virus will spread and how lethal it could turn out to be. Even if a mutant is not more virulent, it could be more infectious and that could put pressure on an area’s health infrastructure. We know, for example, that healthcare facilities in most of the COVID hotspots in the country, including Maharashtra, are badly stretched. It also seems that the infection is spreading faster than last year. But we need to track the virus’s genome sequence to understand if this is because the pathogen turned more infectious. Hospital-level analyses can help ascertain if the mutant is deadlier or more debilitating than the virus’s original avatar.

It’s now apparent that getting the better of the coronavirus will require multiple strategies. Inoculation, of course, remains the best bet against the scourge. Studies indicating that the South African variant can evade vaccines do point to a new challenge. Vaccine developers have reported early signs of success in plugging this gap. Also, a negligible number of people in India have, so far, been infected by this mutant. The potency of the vaccines currently in use in the country against B.I.617 is another cause of assurance. Even then, the need to be vigilant cannot be overstated. There can, therefore, be no compromise on COVID-appropriate behaviour.Exigencies that require putting curbs on movement — as in Maharashtra — may still arise. In all this, the imperative to follow science remains paramount. The virus needs to be tracked more closely and scientifically to protect people against its vagaries.

Q. “The potency of the vaccines currently in use in the country against B.I.617 is another cause of assurance” Which of the following statements serves as an assumption for the same?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 111 “The potency of the vaccines currently in use in the country against B.I.617 is another cause of assurance” As per the sentence, the country should have started vaccination as it is telling about the “potency of the vaccines currently in use in the country” The first part of the sentence-“potency of the vaccine” here it is assumed that the vaccine is to some extent effective. And last part of the sentence “… cause of assurance” means the author is assuming that there is a form of assurance from this vaccination drive.

Hence all the given sentences are part of the assumption from the sentence.Hence option d is correct.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 112

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Mutation is quintessential to viruses. Such changes in the pathogen can be inconsequential, deadly or even beneficial. Genome sequencing can help us understand how fast the virus will spread and how lethal it could turn out to be. Even if a mutant is not more virulent, it could be more infectious and that could put pressure on an area’s health infrastructure. We know, for example, that healthcare facilities in most of the COVID hotspots in the country, including Maharashtra, are badly stretched. It also seems that the infection is spreading faster than last year. But we need to track the virus’s genome sequence to understand if this is because the pathogen turned more infectious. Hospital-level analyses can help ascertain if the mutant is deadlier or more debilitating than the virus’s original avatar.

It’s now apparent that getting the better of the coronavirus will require multiple strategies. Inoculation, of course, remains the best bet against the scourge. Studies indicating that the South African variant can evade vaccines do point to a new challenge. Vaccine developers have reported early signs of success in plugging this gap. Also, a negligible number of people in India have, so far, been infected by this mutant. The potency of the vaccines currently in use in the country against B.I.617 is another cause of assurance. Even then, the need to be vigilant cannot be overstated. There can, therefore, be no compromise on COVID-appropriate behaviour.Exigencies that require putting curbs on movement — as in Maharashtra — may still arise. In all this, the imperative to follow science remains paramount. The virus needs to be tracked more closely and scientifically to protect people against its vagaries.

Q. What is the “the new challenge” stated by the author in the passage above?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 112 The question is pertaining to this part of the passage- “Studies indicating that the South African variant can evade vaccines do point to a new challenge.” Here the author is explaining about the South African Variant which is able toevade the vaccine and telling about the challenge due to this. Hence the option (c) is correct.

Option b seems like the answer, but when read carefully, option b is only telling about the Virus, whereas the new challenge indicates to the variant which is able to evade the vaccine. Hence b is incorrect.

Option a is also incorrect as the sentence is not just telling about mutation as the challenge rather the effect of mutation and that due to mutation the variant is able to evade the vaccine. Hence a is also incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 113

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Mutation is quintessential to viruses. Such changes in the pathogen can be inconsequential, deadly or even beneficial. Genome sequencing can help us understand how fast the virus will spread and how lethal it could turn out to be. Even if a mutant is not more virulent, it could be more infectious and that could put pressure on an area’s health infrastructure. We know, for example, that healthcare facilities in most of the COVID hotspots in the country, including Maharashtra, are badly stretched. It also seems that the infection is spreading faster than last year. But we need to track the virus’s genome sequence to understand if this is because the pathogen turned more infectious. Hospital-level analyses can help ascertain if the mutant is deadlier or more debilitating than the virus’s original avatar.

It’s now apparent that getting the better of the coronavirus will require multiple strategies. Inoculation, of course, remains the best bet against the scourge. Studies indicating that the South African variant can evade vaccines do point to a new challenge. Vaccine developers have reported early signs of success in plugging this gap. Also, a negligible number of people in India have, so far, been infected by this mutant. The potency of the vaccines currently in use in the country against B.I.617 is another cause of assurance. Even then, the need to be vigilant cannot be overstated. There can, therefore, be no compromise on COVID-appropriate behaviour.Exigencies that require putting curbs on movement — as in Maharashtra — may still arise. In all this, the imperative to follow science remains paramount. The virus needs to be tracked more closely and scientifically to protect people against its vagaries.

Q. Which of the following is the main idea behind the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 113 Though the Author is explaining about the hopelessness of the situation in the article, but it is not the main idea, hence option a is incorrect.

The strategies of vaccination drives are not being discussed in the passage, hence option b is also not the main idea.

The author is discussing about the ways of handling the virus throughout the passage, hence option d is correct.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 114

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Centre’s decision to postpone Class 12 CBSE exams and cancel Class 10 boards casts the spotlight on the difficult situation students are facing for the second year running. With the second Covid wave lashing at least 10 states very badly, conducting the exams in a ‘normal’ way could have proved disastrous. But concurrently, anxiety levels are running high in the student community over their higher education future, including admissions to foreign universities. They know that depending on the path of the pandemic further unpleasant surprises could be around the corner, and a sense of radical uncertainty overhangs all.As a national board CBSE also confronts the possibility that another set of states could witness a late surge when the next window for scheduling exams opens. States can speak for local students and must be consulted. They must take quick decisions on state board exams too.Some uniformity also needs to be worked on to give a level playing ground to meritorious students across the country.Last year’s approach of relying on internal assessments to grade students gets a lot more complicated this time because of inadequate physical classroom time. The sharp digital divides at play have anyway made online education an uneven experience. Importance of Class 12 boards also varies across the education spectrum. Most state universities rely on these results for admissions but there are also institutions that have shifted to online entrance exams, even online interviews, with Class 12 results just a formality.In all likelihood, universities and colleges will have a delayed start to their academic calendars this year too.

Q. What is inferred by the “ sense of radical uncertainty” in the above passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 114 In the passage “They know that depending on the path of the pandemic further unpleasant surprises could be around the corner, and a sense of radical uncertainty overhangs all. “implies the uncertainties that the student community is facing over the exams, higher education & foreign universities admissions, Hence option d is correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 115

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Centre’s decision to postpone Class 12 CBSE exams and cancel Class 10 boards casts the spotlight on the difficult situation students are facing for the second year running. With the second Covid wave lashing at least 10 states very badly, conducting the exams in a ‘normal’ way could have proved disastrous. But concurrently, anxiety levels are running high in the student community over their higher education future, including admissions to foreign universities. They know that depending on the path of the pandemic further unpleasant surprises could be around the corner, and a sense of radical uncertainty overhangs all.As a national board CBSE also confronts the possibility that another set of states could witness a late surge when the next window for scheduling exams opens. States can speak for local students and must be consulted. They must take quick decisions on state board exams too.Some uniformity also needs to be worked on to give a level playing ground to meritorious students across the country.Last year’s approach of relying on internal assessments to grade students gets a lot more complicated this time because of inadequate physical classroom time. The sharp digital divides at play have anyway made online education an uneven experience. Importance of Class 12 boards also varies across the education spectrum. Most state universities rely on these results for admissions but there are also institutions that have shifted to online entrance exams, even online interviews, with Class 12 results just a formality.In all likelihood, universities and colleges will have a delayed start to their academic calendars this year too.

Q. In the sentence- “conducting the exams in a ‘normal’ way could have proved disastrous”.

What is implied by ‘normal’ in author’s opinion?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 115 By the normal way, the author is trying to convey the times before when the Pandemic when offline exams where conducted.

Option b is telling about cancelled exams, which is happening now as per the passage.

Option c is telling about previous year 2020, which was also a new way of conducting exams that was adopted after Pandemic.

Hence only option b is correct as per the author.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 116

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court has delivered a seminal judgment that could have a significant impact in enlarging and expanding women's reproductive rights in the country. The apex court bench comprising Justices DY Chandrachud, Surya Kant and AS Bopanna said that all women — whether married or in consensual relationships, and including "persons other than cis-gender women" — are entitled to seek an abortion within 20-24 weeks of the pregnancy. The bench was hearing the case of a 25-year-old unmarried woman, whose plea for termination of her pregnancy in the 24th week was turned down by a division bench of the Delhi High Court on the ground that the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Rules, 2003, did not extend to unmarried women in consensual relationships.

In a country where the woman's body has, more often than not, been a site of the patriarchy index, the Supreme Court's recognition of her right to equality and, equally significantly, to her agency and choice, is momentous. In recent times, in comparison to many other countries, including the US — where the landmark Roe vs Wade judgment granting constitutional validity to the right to abort was recently overturned — abortion laws in India have moved in a more progressive direction, but much more needs to be done. Under Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, abortion remains a criminal offence, to which the MTP Act provides exceptions, and, even within the wider ambit of the much-needed recent amendments to the law, it continues to adhere to hetero-patriarchal structures that make the approval of others integral to abortion-related services and do not recognise a broader gender spectrum.

Q. Which of the following is the central theme of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 116 The main idea of the passage can be derived from the second paragraph wherein the author approves of the importance of the Court's judgment, but he also highlights that there is scope for improvement in providing women the right to equality. Refer to the part, 'Supreme Court's recognition of her right to equality and, equally significantly, to her agency and choice, is momentous...but much more needs to be done.' Option 3 is the best choice.

Option 1 is incorrect as nothing is given about other countries making abortion rules more relaxed. The context is that the rules have become equitable to women, not relaxed.

Option 2 is related to a minor point discussed in the passage, and is not the central theme.

Option 4 does not relate to the theme and is also far-fetched (distinctly placed). Nothing about 'abortion' can be inferred from this statement.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 117

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court has delivered a seminal judgment that could have a significant impact in enlarging and expanding women's reproductive rights in the country. The apex court bench comprising Justices DY Chandrachud, Surya Kant and AS Bopanna said that all women — whether married or in consensual relationships, and including "persons other than cis-gender women" — are entitled to seek an abortion within 20-24 weeks of the pregnancy. The bench was hearing the case of a 25-year-old unmarried woman, whose plea for termination of her pregnancy in the 24th week was turned down by a division bench of the Delhi High Court on the ground that the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Rules, 2003, did not extend to unmarried women in consensual relationships.

In a country where the woman's body has, more often than not, been a site of the patriarchy index, the Supreme Court's recognition of her right to equality and, equally significantly, to her agency and choice, is momentous. In recent times, in comparison to many other countries, including the US — where the landmark Roe vs Wade judgment granting constitutional validity to the right to abort was recently overturned — abortion laws in India have moved in a more progressive direction, but much more needs to be done. Under Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, abortion remains a criminal offence, to which the MTP Act provides exceptions, and, even within the wider ambit of the much-needed recent amendments to the law, it continues to adhere to hetero-patriarchal structures that make the approval of others integral to abortion-related services and do not recognise a broader gender spectrum.

Q. Based on the ideas presented in the paragraph, the Supreme Court's effort to provide the right to equality and to agency and choice to women may be lacking, if

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 117 The author argues that despite the recent judgment by the Supreme Court, a lot needs to be done for women empowerment. The author states 'Under Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, abortion remains a criminal offence, to which the MTP Act provides exceptions, and, even within the wider ambit of the much-needed recent amendments to the law, it continues to adhere to hetero-patriarchal structures that make the approval of others integral to abortion-related services and do not recognise a broader gender spectrum.' Option 4 is the answer.

Option 1 is incorrect; if the marital status affects the right to abort, then it can be said to be against the SC judgment. Thus, the marital status not affecting the decision to abort does not convey any weakness.

Option 3 is contrary to the context.

Option 2 is also contrary to context and hence incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 118

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court has delivered a seminal judgment that could have a significant impact in enlarging and expanding women's reproductive rights in the country. The apex court bench comprising Justices DY Chandrachud, Surya Kant and AS Bopanna said that all women — whether married or in consensual relationships, and including "persons other than cis-gender women" — are entitled to seek an abortion within 20-24 weeks of the pregnancy. The bench was hearing the case of a 25-year-old unmarried woman, whose plea for termination of her pregnancy in the 24th week was turned down by a division bench of the Delhi High Court on the ground that the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Rules, 2003, did not extend to unmarried women in consensual relationships.

In a country where the woman's body has, more often than not, been a site of the patriarchy index, the Supreme Court's recognition of her right to equality and, equally significantly, to her agency and choice, is momentous. In recent times, in comparison to many other countries, including the US — where the landmark Roe vs Wade judgment granting constitutional validity to the right to abort was recently overturned — abortion laws in India have moved in a more progressive direction, but much more needs to be done. Under Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, abortion remains a criminal offence, to which the MTP Act provides exceptions, and, even within the wider ambit of the much-needed recent amendments to the law, it continues to adhere to hetero-patriarchal structures that make the approval of others integral to abortion-related services and do not recognise a broader gender spectrum.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 118 Option 2 can be inferred from, '…abortion laws in India have moved in a more progressive direction, but much more needs to be done.' Other options do not get support from the context.

Option 1 is incorrect as it is far-fetched in context. It pertains to all 'laws'. Nothing about proportionately can be inferred from the passage.

Option 3 is incorrect as the decisions being 'contentious globally' does not find any support from the passage.

Option 4 is also incorrect nothing is stated about 'growing social conservatism'.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 119

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court has delivered a seminal judgment that could have a significant impact in enlarging and expanding women's reproductive rights in the country. The apex court bench comprising Justices DY Chandrachud, Surya Kant and AS Bopanna said that all women — whether married or in consensual relationships, and including "persons other than cis-gender women" — are entitled to seek an abortion within 20-24 weeks of the pregnancy. The bench was hearing the case of a 25-year-old unmarried woman, whose plea for termination of her pregnancy in the 24th week was turned down by a division bench of the Delhi High Court on the ground that the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Rules, 2003, did not extend to unmarried women in consensual relationships.

In a country where the woman's body has, more often than not, been a site of the patriarchy index, the Supreme Court's recognition of her right to equality and, equally significantly, to her agency and choice, is momentous. In recent times, in comparison to many other countries, including the US — where the landmark Roe vs Wade judgment granting constitutional validity to the right to abort was recently overturned — abortion laws in India have moved in a more progressive direction, but much more needs to be done. Under Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, abortion remains a criminal offence, to which the MTP Act provides exceptions, and, even within the wider ambit of the much-needed recent amendments to the law, it continues to adhere to hetero-patriarchal structures that make the approval of others integral to abortion-related services and do not recognise a broader gender spectrum.

Q. Which of the following is an underlying assumption in the author calling the Supreme Court's judgment important?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 119 Negating the assumption should negate the conclusion also. The author believes that the Supreme Court's recognition of women's right to equality, and to their agency and choice, is important because earlier the MTP rules did not extend to unmarried women in consensual relationships. If the women outside marriages had a choice of safe or legal ways to abort unwanted pregnancies in the first 24 weeks, then the judgment would stand meaningless or unimportant. Option 3 is the answer.

Option 1 is incorrect. 'Complicated life decisions' is a vague phrase and does not in any way concludes if the judgement of the Supreme Court is important or not. Even if pregnant women can undertake complex life decisions without any external interference, it does not explain anything about the importance of SC's judgement.

Option 2 is incorrect; if the consequences of an unwanted pregnancy cannot be understated or downplayed, then it makes the SC judgment worth it.

Option 4 is incorrect as negating the option does not undermine the conclusion.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 120

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court has delivered a seminal judgment that could have a significant impact in enlarging and expanding women's reproductive rights in the country. The apex court bench comprising Justices DY Chandrachud, Surya Kant and AS Bopanna said that all women — whether married or in consensual relationships, and including "persons other than cis-gender women" — are entitled to seek an abortion within 20-24 weeks of the pregnancy. The bench was hearing the case of a 25-year-old unmarried woman, whose plea for termination of her pregnancy in the 24th week was turned down by a division bench of the Delhi High Court on the ground that the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Rules, 2003, did not extend to unmarried women in consensual relationships.

In a country where the woman's body has, more often than not, been a site of the patriarchy index, the Supreme Court's recognition of her right to equality and, equally significantly, to her agency and choice, is momentous. In recent times, in comparison to many other countries, including the US — where the landmark Roe vs Wade judgment granting constitutional validity to the right to abort was recently overturned — abortion laws in India have moved in a more progressive direction, but much more needs to be done. Under Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, abortion remains a criminal offence, to which the MTP Act provides exceptions, and, even within the wider ambit of the much-needed recent amendments to the law, it continues to adhere to hetero-patriarchal structures that make the approval of others integral to abortion-related services and do not recognise a broader gender spectrum.

Q. 'The bench was hearing the case of a 25-year-old unmarried woman, whose plea for termination of her pregnancy in the 24th week was turned down by a division bench of the Delhi High Court on the ground that the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Rules, 2003, did not extend to unmarried women in consensual relationships.' What role does the given statement play in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 120 The author mentions that the Supreme Court has delivered a seminal judgment entitling 'all' pregnant women to seek an abortion, if they need it, within 20-24 weeks of the pregnancy, and then argues that this judgment is momentous. The statement given in the question serves as a supporting evidence why the judgment is called momentous or seminal. Option 3 is correct.

Option 1 is incorrect as the context is about India and not 'the developing countries'.

Option 2 is incorrect as rather the contrary may be true.

Option 4 is incorrect as the given statement does not act as a conclusion.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 2 - Question 121

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

India is pioneering the concept of digital public goods that enhance the ease, transparency and speed with which individuals, markets and governments interact with each other. Built on the foundation of Aadhaar and India Stack, modular applications, big and small, are transforming the way we make payments, withdraw our PF, get our passport and driving licence and check land records, to name just a few activities.

So, there is an opportunity for India to embark on digital diplomacy — to take its made-in-India digital public goods to hundreds of emerging economies across the world. This could be a strategic and effective counter to China's Belt and Road Initiative. The cost of setting up an open source-based high school online educational infrastructure, to supplement the physical infrastructure, for an entire country is less than laying two kilometres of high-quality road. The investments required for transporting digital public goods are minuscule in comparison and there is no chance of a debt trap.

It is a fact that the emerging economies are characterised by gross inefficiencies in the delivery of government services and a consequent trust deficit. Digital public goods spread speed, transparency, ease and productivity across the individual-government-market ecosystem and enhance inclusivity, equity and development at scale. It eliminates ghost beneficiaries of government services, removes touts collecting rent, creates an audit trail, makes the individual-government-market interface transparent and provides efficiencies that help recoup the investments quickly. Processes get streamlined and wait times for any service come down dramatically. Therefore, pursuing digital diplomacy will take made-in-India digital public goods across the world and boost India's brand positioning as a leading technology player in the digital age. It will enable quick, visible and compounding benefits for India's partner countries and earn India immense goodwill.

Q. What is the main idea of the passage as conveyed by the author?