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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6


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150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT | Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6

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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 1

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:

A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized foodgrains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.

Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 1 Option B i.e. 'The insistence on linkage with Aadhaar has deprived scores of genuine beneficiaries' is supported by the passage. Refer to the lines 'The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.' None of the other options is supported by the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 2

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:

A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized food grains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.

Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.

Q. Based on the information set out in the passage, which of the following factors worsens the difficulties faced by underprivileged persons?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 2 Refer to the line 'The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways.'

Hence, option D is the right answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 3

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:

A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized food grains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.

Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.

Q. What is the antonym of the word 'conspicuous' as used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 3 'Conspicuous' means attracting notice or attention. 'Concealed' means hidden or not drawing attention.

Hence, option C is the right answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 4

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:

A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized food grains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.

Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.

Q. Which of the following would the author agree with the most in context of Public Distribution System?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 4 Only option A is supported by the views given by the author. Refer to the lines ''The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized foodgrains for profiteering.''
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 5

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:

A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized food grains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.

Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.

Q. ‘This has resulted in a dual burden' mentioned in the passage refers to which of the following two burdens?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 5 The hint can be drawn from, 'This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities'. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 6

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

This passage is from Lydia Minatoya; 'The Strangeness of Beauty' © 1999 by Lydia Minatoya. The setting is Japan in 1920. Chie and her daughter Naomi are members of the House of Fuji, a noble family.

(with edits and reviews)

Akira came directly, breaking all tradition. Was that it? Had he followed form—had he asked his mother to speak to his father to approach a Line go-between—would Chie have been more receptive?

He came on a winter's eve. He pounded on the door while a cold rain beat on the shuttered veranda. So at first Chie thought him only to be the wind. The maid knew better. Chie heard her soft scuttling footsteps, the creak of the door. Then the maid brought a calling card to the drawing room, for Chie.

Chie was reluctant to go to her guest; perhaps she was feeling too cozy. She and Naomi were reading at a low table set atop a charcoal brazier. A thick quilt spread over the sides of the table so their legs were tucked inside with the heat.

"Who is it at this hour, in this weather?" Chie questioned as she picked the name card off the maid's lacquer tray.

"Shinoda, Akira. Kobe Dental College", she read.

Naomi recognized the name. Chie heard a soft intake of air.

"I think you should go", said Naomi.

Akira was waiting in the entryway. He was in his early twenties, slim and serious, wearing the black military-style uniform of a student. As he bowed—his hands hanging straight down, a black cap in one, a yellow oil-paper umbrella in the other—Chie glanced beyond him. In the glistening surface of the courtyard's rain-drenched paving stones, she saw his reflection like a dark double.

"Madame", said Akira, "forgive my disruption, but I come with a matter of urgency".

His voice was soft and refined. He straightened and stole a deferential peek at her face.

In the dim light his eyes shone with sincerity. Chie felt herself starting to like him.

She said, "Come inside, get out of this nasty night. Surely your business can wait for a moment or two."

"I don't want to trouble you. Normally I would approach you more properly but I've received word of a position. I've an opportunity to go to America, as a dentist for Seattle's Japanese community", he responded.

"Congratulations", Chie said with amusement. "That is an opportunity, I'm sure. But how am I involved?"

Even noting Naomi's breathless reaction to the name card, Chie had no idea. Akira's message, delivered like a formal speech, filled her with maternal amusement. You know how children speak so earnestly, so hurriedly, so endearingly about things that have no importance in an adult's mind? That's how she viewed him, as a child.

It was how she viewed Naomi. Even though Naomi was eighteen and training endlessly in the arts needed to make a good marriage, Chie had made no effort to find her a husband.

Akira blushed and said, "Depending on your response, I may stay in Japan. I've come to ask for Naomi's hand."

Suddenly Chie felt the dampness of the night.

"Does Naomi know anything of your . . . ambitions?"

"We have an understanding. Please don't judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal. I ask directly because the use of a go-between takes much time. Either method comes down to the same thing: a matter of parental approval. If you give your consent, I become Naomi's yoshi. We'll live in the House of Fuji. Without your consent, I must go to America to secure a new home for my bride."

Q. The word 'receptive' is the antonym of:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 6 Receptive' means 'ready to listen to new ideas', whereas 'resistant' means 'offering resistance to or being against something or someone'.

These two meanings are exact opposite as a person who is receptive is always willing or inclined to receive suggestions or offers, while a resistant person is unwilling towards it. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 7

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

This passage is from Lydia Minatoya; 'The Strangeness of Beauty' © 1999 by Lydia Minatoya. The setting is Japan in 1920. Chie and her daughter Naomi are members of the House of Fuji, a noble family.

(with edits and reviews)

Akira came directly, breaking all tradition. Was that it? Had he followed form—had he asked his mother to speak to his father to approach a Line go-between—would Chie have been more receptive?

He came on winter's eve. He pounded on the door while a cold rain beat on the shuttered veranda. So at first Chie thought him only to be the wind. The maid knew better. Chie heard her soft scuttling footsteps, the creak of the door. Then the maid brought a calling card to the drawing room, for Chie.

Chie was reluctant to go to her guest; perhaps she was feeling too cozy. She and Naomi were reading at a low table set atop a charcoal brazier. A thick quilt spread over the sides of the table so their legs were tucked inside with the heat.

"Who is it at this hour, in this weather?" Chie questioned as she picked the name card off the maid's lacquer tray.

"Shinoda, Akira. Kobe Dental College", she read.

Naomi recognized the name. Chie heard a soft intake of air.

"I think you should go", said Naomi.

Akira was waiting in the entryway. He was in his early twenties, slim and serious, wearing the black military-style uniform of a student. As he bowed—his hands hanging straight down, a black cap in one, a yellow oil-paper umbrella in the other—Chie glanced beyond him. In the glistening surface of the courtyard's rain-drenched paving stones, she saw his reflection like a dark double.

"Madame", said Akira, "forgive my disruption, but I come with a matter of urgency".

His voice was soft and refined. He straightened and stole a deferential peek at her face.

In the dim light his eyes shone with sincerity. Chie felt herself starting to like him.

She said, "Come inside, get out of this nasty night. Surely your business can wait for a moment or two."

"I don't want to trouble you. Normally I would approach you more properly but I've received word of a position. I've an opportunity to go to America, as a dentist for Seattle's Japanese community", he responded.

"Congratulations", Chie said with amusement. "That is an opportunity, I'm sure. But how am I involved?"

Even noting Naomi's breathless reaction to the name card, Chie had no idea. Akira's message, delivered like a formal speech, filled her with maternal amusement. You know how children speak so earnestly, so hurriedly, so endearingly about things that have no importance in an adult's mind? That's how she viewed him, as a child.

It was how she viewed Naomi. Even though Naomi was eighteen and training endlessly in the arts needed to make a good marriage, Chie had made no effort to find her a husband.

Akira blushed and said, "Depending on your response, I may stay in Japan. I've come to ask for Naomi's hand."

Suddenly Chie felt the dampness of the night.

"Does Naomi know anything of your . . . ambitions?"

"We have an understanding. Please don't judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal. I ask directly because the use of a go-between takes much time. Either method comes down to the same thing: a matter of parental approval. If you give your consent, I become Naomi's yoshi. We'll live in the House of Fuji. Without your consent, I must go to America to secure a new home for my bride."

Q. Why does Akira say his meeting with Chie is 'a matter of urgency'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 7 Option C is the correct answer. Akira states that his unexpected meeting with Chie occurred only because of a 'matter of urgency' as he had an opportunity to go to America as a dentist for Seattle's Japanese community and Chie's response to his marriage proposal would affect his decision whether to accept the job offer or not. It can be gathered from the passage, "I've an opportunity to go to America, as a dentist for Seattle's Japanese community...Depending on your response, I may stay in Japan. I've come to ask for Naomi's hand."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 8

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

This passage is from Lydia Minatoya; 'The Strangeness of Beauty' © 1999 by Lydia Minatoya. The setting is Japan in 1920. Chie and her daughter Naomi are members of the House of Fuji, a noble family.

(with edits and reviews)

Akira came directly, breaking all tradition. Was that it? Had he followed form—had he asked his mother to speak to his father to approach a Line go-between—would Chie have been more receptive?

He came on a winter's eve. He pounded on the door while a cold rain beat on the shuttered veranda. So at first Chie thought him only to be the wind. The maid knew better. Chie heard her soft scuttling footsteps, the creak of the door. Then the maid brought a calling card to the drawing room, for Chie.

Chie was reluctant to go to her guest; perhaps she was feeling too cozy. She and Naomi were reading at a low table set atop a charcoal brazier. A thick quilt spread over the sides of the table so their legs were tucked inside with the heat.

"Who is it at this hour, in this weather?" Chie questioned as she picked the name card off the maid's lacquer tray.

"Shinoda, Akira. Kobe Dental College", she read.

Naomi recognized the name. Chie heard a soft intake of air.

"I think you should go", said Naomi.

Akira was waiting in the entryway. He was in his early twenties, slim and serious, wearing the black military-style uniform of a student. As he bowed—his hands hanging straight down, a black cap in one, a yellow oil-paper umbrella in the other—Chie glanced beyond him. In the glistening surface of the courtyard's rain-drenched paving stones, she saw his reflection like a dark double.

"Madame", said Akira, "forgive my disruption, but I come with a matter of urgency".

His voice was soft and refined. He straightened and stole a deferential peek at her face.

In the dim light his eyes shone with sincerity. Chie felt herself starting to like him.

She said, "Come inside, get out of this nasty night. Surely your business can wait for a moment or two."

"I don't want to trouble you. Normally I would approach you more properly but I've received word of a position. I've an opportunity to go to America, as a dentist for Seattle's Japanese community", he responded.

"Congratulations", Chie said with amusement. "That is an opportunity, I'm sure. But how am I involved?"

Even noting Naomi's breathless reaction to the name card, Chie had no idea. Akira's message, delivered like a formal speech, filled her with maternal amusement. You know how children speak so earnestly, so hurriedly, so endearingly about things that have no importance in an adult's mind? That's how she viewed him, as a child.

It was how she viewed Naomi. Even though Naomi was eighteen and training endlessly in the arts needed to make a good marriage, Chie had made no effort to find her a husband.

Akira blushed and said, "Depending on your response, I may stay in Japan. I've come to ask for Naomi's hand."

Suddenly Chie felt the dampness of the night.

"Does Naomi know anything of your . . . ambitions?"

"We have an understanding. Please don't judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal. I ask directly because the use of a go-between takes much time. Either method comes down to the same thing: a matter of parental approval. If you give your consent, I become Naomi's yoshi. We'll live in the House of Fuji. Without your consent, I must go to America to secure a new home for my bride."

Q. From the passage, it is clear that:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 8 Option b, i.e. "Akira came to ask for Naomi's hand for marriage from Chie", is the correct answer. This is clear from the following lines from the passage, ''Depending on your response, I may stay in Japan. I've come to ask for Naomi's hand.....If you give your consent, I become Naomi's yoshi. We'll live in the House of Fuji. Without your consent, I must go to America, to secure a new home for my bride."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 9

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

This passage is from Lydia Minatoya; 'The Strangeness of Beauty' © 1999 by Lydia Minatoya. The setting is Japan in 1920. Chie and her daughter Naomi are members of the House of Fuji, a noble family.

(with edits and reviews)

Akira came directly, breaking all tradition. Was that it? Had he followed form—had he asked his mother to speak to his father to approach a Line go-between—would Chie have been more receptive?

He came on a winter's eve. He pounded on the door while a cold rain beat on the shuttered veranda. So at first Chie thought him only to be the wind. The maid knew better. Chie heard her soft scuttling footsteps, the creak of the door. Then the maid brought a calling card to the drawing room, for Chie.

Chie was reluctant to go to her guest; perhaps she was feeling too cozy. She and Naomi were reading at a low table set atop a charcoal brazier. A thick quilt spread over the sides of the table so their legs were tucked inside with the heat.

"Who is it at this hour, in this weather?" Chie questioned as she picked the name card off the maid's lacquer tray.

"Shinoda, Akira. Kobe Dental College", she read.

Naomi recognized the name. Chie heard a soft intake of air.

"I think you should go", said Naomi.

Akira was waiting in the entryway. He was in his early twenties, slim and serious, wearing the black military-style uniform of a student. As he bowed—his hands hanging straight down, a black cap in one, a yellow oil-paper umbrella in the other—Chie glanced beyond him. In the glistening surface of the courtyard's rain-drenched paving stones, she saw his reflection like a dark double.

"Madame", said Akira, "forgive my disruption, but I come with a matter of urgency".

His voice was soft and refined. He straightened and stole a deferential peek at her face.

In the dim light his eyes shone with sincerity. Chie felt herself starting to like him.

She said, "Come inside, get out of this nasty night. Surely your business can wait for a moment or two."

"I don't want to trouble you. Normally I would approach you more properly but I've received word of a position. I've an opportunity to go to America, as a dentist for Seattle's Japanese community", he responded.

"Congratulations", Chie said with amusement. "That is an opportunity, I'm sure. But how am I involved?"

Even noting Naomi's breathless reaction to the name card, Chie had no idea. Akira's message, delivered like a formal speech, filled her with maternal amusement. You know how children speak so earnestly, so hurriedly, so endearingly about things that have no importance in an adult's mind? That's how she viewed him, as a child.

It was how she viewed Naomi. Even though Naomi was eighteen and training endlessly in the arts needed to make a good marriage, Chie had made no effort to find her a husband.

Akira blushed and said, "Depending on your response, I may stay in Japan. I've come to ask for Naomi's hand."

Suddenly Chie felt the dampness of the night.

"Does Naomi know anything of your . . . ambitions?"

"We have an understanding. Please don't judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal. I ask directly because the use of a go-between takes much time. Either method comes down to the same thing: a matter of parental approval. If you give your consent, I become Naomi's yoshi. We'll live in the House of Fuji. Without your consent, I must go to America to secure a new home for my bride."

Q. Why was Chie reluctant to meet her guest?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 9 The correct answer, i.e. option D, can be picked from the following lines from the passage, 'Chie was reluctant to go to her guest; perhaps she was feeling too cozy. She and Naomi were reading at a low table set atop a charcoal brazier. A thick quilt spread over the sides of the table so their legs were tucked inside with the heat.' This shows that she was too comfortable and did not want to leave.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 10

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

This passage is from Lydia Minatoya; 'The Strangeness of Beauty' © 1999 by Lydia Minatoya. The setting is Japan in 1920. Chie and her daughter Naomi are members of the House of Fuji, a noble family.

(with edits and reviews)

Akira came directly, breaking all tradition. Was that it? Had he followed form—had he asked his mother to speak to his father to approach a Line go-between—would Chie have been more receptive?

He came on a winter's eve. He pounded on the door while a cold rain beat on the shuttered veranda. So at first Chie thought him only to be the wind. The maid knew better. Chie heard her soft scuttling footsteps, the creak of the door. Then the maid brought a calling card to the drawing room, for Chie.

Chie was reluctant to go to her guest; perhaps she was feeling too cozy. She and Naomi were reading at a low table set atop a charcoal brazier. A thick quilt spread over the sides of the table so their legs were tucked inside with the heat.

"Who is it at this hour, in this weather?" Chie questioned as she picked the name card off the maid's lacquer tray.

"Shinoda, Akira. Kobe Dental College", she read.

Naomi recognized the name. Chie heard a soft intake of air.

"I think you should go", said Naomi.

Akira was waiting in the entryway. He was in his early twenties, slim and serious, wearing the black military-style uniform of a student. As he bowed—his hands hanging straight down, a black cap in one, a yellow oil-paper umbrella in the other—Chie glanced beyond him. In the glistening surface of the courtyard's rain-drenched paving stones, she saw his reflection like a dark double.

"Madame", said Akira, "forgive my disruption, but I come with a matter of urgency".

His voice was soft and refined. He straightened and stole a deferential peek at her face.

In the dim light his eyes shone with sincerity. Chie felt herself starting to like him.

She said, "Come inside, get out of this nasty night. Surely your business can wait for a moment or two."

"I don't want to trouble you. Normally I would approach you more properly but I've received word of a position. I've an opportunity to go to America, as a dentist for Seattle's Japanese community", he responded.

"Congratulations", Chie said with amusement. "That is an opportunity, I'm sure. But how am I involved?"

Even noting Naomi's breathless reaction to the name card, Chie had no idea. Akira's message, delivered like a formal speech, filled her with maternal amusement. You know how children speak so earnestly, so hurriedly, so endearingly about things that have no importance in an adult's mind? That's how she viewed him, as a child.

It was how she viewed Naomi. Even though Naomi was eighteen and training endlessly in the arts needed to make a good marriage, Chie had made no effort to find her a husband.

Akira blushed and said, "Depending on your response, I may stay in Japan. I've come to ask for Naomi's hand."

Suddenly Chie felt the dampness of the night.

"Does Naomi know anything of your . . . ambitions?"

"We have an understanding. Please don't judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal. I ask directly because the use of a go-between takes much time. Either method comes down to the same thing: a matter of parental approval. If you give your consent, I become Naomi's yoshi. We'll live in the House of Fuji. Without your consent, I must go to America to secure a new home for my bride."

Q. Which reaction does Akira most fear from Chie?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 10 Akira is fearful that Chie will find his marriage proposal inappropriate because he did not follow traditional protocol and use a 'go-between'. This is clear when Akira says to Chie, 'Please don't judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal.' So, option A is correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 11

Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.

The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.

India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.

Q. What is the central idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 11 The central idea of the passage is well supported by option B. The passage states that with the end of IUC, the telecommunication companies do not have to pay interconnection charges and now, their focus should be on better service quality. Options 1, 3 and 4 highlight a part of the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 12

Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.

The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.

India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.

Q. Which of the following is TRUE as per the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 12 Only option b is true. The hint can be drawn from the line, ''...TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.'' None of the other options is supported by the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 13

Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.

The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.

India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.

Q. What is the meaning of the word 'poised' as used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 13 The passage mentions 'India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth'. Here, 'poised' means to be ready and prepared for growth.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 14

Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.

The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.

India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.

Q. Which of the following would the author most likely disagree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 14 The author is most likely to disagree with the given option as the first line of the passage states 'The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed'. This means that if we are making a call, our access provider will pay the interconnection charges to the network we placed the call to.

The passage also states 'One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017', which concludes that both A and C are right as per the author.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 15

Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.

The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.

India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.

Q. ''That imbalance has reduced...'' mentioned in the passage refers to:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 15 Refer to the statement ''One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced...''
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 16

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.

On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.

On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. What could have been Gandhiji's answer to Buch about going to London to study?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 16 The correct answer is option b. This is based on Gandhiji's statement 'I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship', which suggests that he was doubtful that he could go, hence the uncertainty. However, he then states, 'From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end', which suggests that he did at least approve of the idea.

Option 1 is incorrect because of the statement 'I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship' suggesting he had some doubts.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 17

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.

On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.

On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. What does the word 'credulous' mean as used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 17 The correct answer is option c. This is because 'credulous' means 'having or showing too great a readiness to believe things or easily convinced'. This can also be derived from the context as Gandhiji's brother "made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me [Gandhiji] to London".
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 18

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.

On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.

On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. What could be the reason behind Mavji Joshi asking Gandhiji to take 'urad dal' to London?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 18 The passage states, 'Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion.' The words 'no objection about religion' indicate that Mavji Joshi wanted Gandhiji to remain true to his religion. So, option 1 is the correct answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 19

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.

On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.

On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. Why did Gandhiji and his brother visit Mavji Joshi?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 19 The correct answer is option D. It can be inferred that Gandhiji and his brother wanted advice about Gandhiji going to London. This can be inferred first from the fact that the passage states that Mavji is the adviser of the Gandhi family. Secondly, we can infer that they sought Mavji's advice to send Gandhiji to study in London based on this sentence: 'Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar.'

Options A and B are incorrect because there is nothing in the passage which suggests them.

Option C is incorrect as there is no mention of Gandhiji leaving for his studies abroad.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 20

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In Bhavnagar, a former princely state in Gujarat, I, Mohandas Gandhi, had a chat with Jayshankar Buch. During the chat he advised me to apply to the Junagadh State to give me a scholarship to proceed to London for continuing my studies, I being an inhabitant of Sorath, a district in Saurashtra. I do not perfectly remember the answer I made to him that day. I suppose I felt the impossibility of getting the scholarship. From that time onwards I had in my mind the intention of visiting the land. And I was finding the means to reach that end.

On 13th April, 1888, I left Bhavnagar to enjoy the vacation in Rajkot. After 15 days of vacation, my elder brother and I went to see Patwari. On our return my brother said: "We would go to see Mavji Joshi", a family friend and adviser of our family, and so we went. Mavji Joshi asked me as usual how I did, then put some questions about my study in Bhavnagar. I plainly told him that I had hardly any chance of passing my examination first year. I also added that I found the course very difficult. Hearing this, he advised my brother to send me as soon as possible to London for being called to the Bar. He said that the expense would be only Rs. 5,000. "Let him take some urad dal. There he will cook some food for himself and thereby there will be no objection about religion. Don't reveal the matter to anybody. Try to get some scholarship. Apply to Junagadh and Porbandar States. See my son Kevalram, the leading lawyer of Kathiwan, and if you fail in getting the pecuniary help and if you have no money, sell your furniture. But anyhow send Mohandas to London. I think that is the only means to keep the reputation of your deceased father." All of our family members have great faith in what Mavji Joshi says. And of my brother who is naturally very credulous made a promise to Mavji Joshi to send me to London. Now was the time for my exertions.

On that very day, my brother, notwithstanding his promise to keep the matter secret, told the thing to Khushalbhai, my cousin and father of Chhaganlal and Maganlal both of whom worked with him in South Africa. He, of course, approved of it in case I could observe my religion. The very day it was told to my cousin Meghjibhai. He quite agreed with the proposal and offered to give me Rs. 5,000. I had some faith in what he said.

Q. What could be a reason why Gandhiji felt that he would not pass his examination?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 20 The correct answer is option c. The answer can be inferred from Gandhiji stating ''I also added that I found the course very difficult'', which suggests a specific reason why he is doubtful about passing the exam.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 21

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.

Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.

While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.

More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 21 The passage highlights the shortcomings of initiatives like DBT i.e. people being unable to access their money, workers not having proper information regarding their wages and technical issues regarding payment rejection. Moreover, the passage also mentions that beneficiaries of the schemes rarely get consulting for the mode of transaction. This lends support to option B that the government need to think about these people and issues before employing digital initiatives. Option A and option C do not get any support from the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 22

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.

Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.

While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.

More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.

Q. Based on the reading of the passage, which of the following is/are the issues faced by rural population?

A. Lack of consultation and accountability

B. Increasing corruption

C. Unable to access their own money freely

D. Low educational attainment

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 22 The passage mentions 'The workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting' and 'Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for...' which hints that (A) is true. The passage also mentions 'This has created new forms of corruption...' which hints (B) is also true. It also mentions 'But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money' which means that (C) is also true. There is no mention of educational attainment in the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 23

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.

Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.

While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.

More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.

Q. Which of the following would the author disagree with the most?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 23 First few lines of the passage conclude that the internet services have helped the user a lot. So, option A is as per the view of the author. Also, the passage mentions ''In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements'' which means option B is supported by the author. As the passage stresses on the difficulties to be faced by the rural people, option C is also consistent with the author's views. Hence, 'none of the above' is the right answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 24

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.

Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.

While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.

More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.

Q. Which of the following could be the most plausible title of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 24 The passage focuses on the difficulties faced by people to use digital technologies in the pursuit of financial inclusion. Option (c) mentions 'rural India' which negates its possibility to be a suitable title. Option (b) focuses on growth and development only and has no mention of the difficulties to be faced. Hence, it cannot be the right answer as well. Thus, only A could be the plausible title.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 25

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Why should I meet young students in particular? Seeking the answer I went back to my student days. From the island of Rameswaram, what a great journey it's been! Looking back it all seems quite incredible.

What was it that made it possible? Hard work? Ambition? Many things come to my mind. I feel the most important thing was that I always assessed my worth by the value of my contribution. The fundamental thing is that you must know that you deserve the good things of life, the benefits that God bestows. Unless our students and young believe that they are worthy of being citizens of a developed India, how will they ever be responsible and enlightened citizens?

There is nothing mysterious about the abundance in developed nations. The historic fact is that the people of these nations - the G8 as they are called - believed over many generations that they must live a good life in a strong and prosperous nation. The reality became aligned with their aspirations.

I do not think that abundance and spirituality are mutually exclusive or that it is wrong to desire material things. For instance, while I personally cherish a life with minimum of possessions, I admire abundance, for it brings along with it security and confidence, and these eventually help preserve our freedom. Nature too does not do anything by half measures, as you will see if you look around you. Go to a garden. In season, there is a profusion of flowers. Or look up. The universe stretches into infinitude, vast beyond belief.

All that we see in the world is an embodiment of energy. We are a part of the comic energy too, as Sri Aurobindo says. Therefore when we begin to appreciate that spirit and matter are both part of existence, are in harmony with each other, we shall realize that it is wrong to feel that it is somehow shameful or non-spiritual to desire material things.

Yet, this is what we are often led to believe. Certainly, there is nothing wrong with an attitude of making do with the minimum, in leading a life of asceticism. Mahatma Gandhi led such a life but in his case as in yours, it has to be a matter of choice. You follow such a lifestyle because it answers a need that arises from deep within you. However, making a virtue of sacrifice and what is forced upon you – to celebrate suffering – is a different thing altogether. This was the basis of my decision to contact our young. To know their dreams and tell them that it is perfectly all right to dream of a good life, an abundant life, a life full of pleasures and comforts, and work for that golden era. Whatever you do must come from the heart, express your spirit, and thereby you will also spread love and joy around you.

Q. Which of the following most accurately expresses the author's main idea in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 25 The passage states that "... be a matter of choice. You follow such a lifestyle because it answers a need that arises from deep within you. However, making a virtue of sacrifice and what is forced upon you - to celebrate suffering - is a different thing altogether." Thus, the most appropriate answer is option B.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 26

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Why should I meet young students in particular? Seeking the answer I went back to my student days. From the island of Rameswaram, what a great journey it's been! Looking back it all seems quite incredible.

What was it that made it possible? Hard work? Ambition? Many things come to my mind. I feel the most important thing was that I always assessed my worth by the value of my contribution. The fundamental thing is that you must know that you deserve the good things of life, the benefits that God bestows. Unless our students and young believe that they are worthy of being citizens of a developed India, how will they ever be responsible and enlightened citizens?

There is nothing mysterious about the abundance in developed nations. The historic fact is that the people of these nations - the G8 as they are called - believed over many generations that they must live a good life in a strong and prosperous nation. The reality became aligned with their aspirations.

I do not think that abundance and spirituality are mutually exclusive or that it is wrong to desire material things. For instance, while I personally cherish a life with minimum of possessions, I admire abundance, for it brings along with it security and confidence, and these eventually help preserve our freedom. Nature too does not do anything by half measures, as you will see if you look around you. Go to a garden. In season, there is a profusion of flowers. Or look up. The universe stretches into infinitude, vast beyond belief.

All that we see in the world is an embodiment of energy. We are a part of the comic energy too, as Sri Aurobindo says. Therefore when we begin to appreciate that spirit and matter are both part of existence, are in harmony with each other, we shall realize that it is wrong to feel that it is somehow shameful or non-spiritual to desire material things.

Yet, this is what we are often led to believe. Certainly, there is nothing wrong with an attitude of making do with the minimum, in leading a life of asceticism. Mahatma Gandhi led such a life but in his case as in yours it has to be a matter of choice. You follow such a lifestyle because it answers a need that arises from deep within you. However, making a virtue of sacrifice and what is forced upon you – to celebrate suffering – is a different thing altogether. This was the basis of my decision to contact our young. To know their dreams and tell them that it is perfectly all right to dream of a good life, an abundant life, a life full of pleasures and comforts, and work for that golden era. Whatever you do must come from the heart, express your spirit, and thereby you will also spread love and joy around you.

Q. Why is the writer in support of desire for abundance?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 26 The context mentions "I admire abundance, for it brings along with it security and confidence ..." Thus, the correct answer is option A.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 27

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Why should I meet young students in particular? Seeking the answer I went back to my student days. From the island of Rameswaram, what a great journey it's been! Looking back it all seems quite incredible.

What was it that made it possible? Hard work? Ambition? Many things come to my mind. I feel the most important thing was that I always assessed my worth by the value of my contribution. The fundamental thing is that you must know that you deserve the good things of life, the benefits that God bestows. Unless our students and young believe that they are worthy of being citizens of a developed India, how will they ever be responsible and enlightened citizens?

There is nothing mysterious about the abundance in developed nations. The historic fact is that the people of these nations - the G8 as they are called - believed over many generations that they must live a good life in a strong and prosperous nation. The reality became aligned with their aspirations.

I do not think that abundance and spirituality are mutually exclusive or that it is wrong to desire material things. For instance, while I personally cherish a life with minimum of possessions, I admire abundance, for it brings along with it security and confidence, and these eventually help preserve our freedom. Nature too does not do anything by half measures, as you will see if you look around you. Go to a garden. In season, there is a profusion of flowers. Or look up. The universe stretches into infinitude, vast beyond belief.

All that we see in the world is an embodiment of energy. We are a part of the comic energy too, as Sri Aurobindo says. Therefore when we begin to appreciate that spirit and matter are both part of existence, are in harmony with each other, we shall realize that it is wrong to feel that it is somehow shameful or non-spiritual to desire material things.

Yet, this is what we are often led to believe. Certainly, there is nothing wrong with an attitude of making do with the minimum, in leading a life of asceticism. Mahatma Gandhi led such a life but in his case as in yours it has to be a matter of choice. You follow such a lifestyle because it answers a need that arises from deep within you. However, making a virtue of sacrifice and what is forced upon you – to celebrate suffering – is a different thing altogether. This was the basis of my decision to contact our young. To know their dreams and tell them that it is perfectly all right to dream of a good life, an abundant life, a life full of pleasures and comforts, and work for that golden era. Whatever you do must come from the heart, express your spirit, and thereby you will also spread love and joy around you.

Q. What does the word "asceticism" as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 27 "Asceticism" means severe self-discipline and avoiding of all forms of indulgence, typically for religious reasons. Even the context states this as "an attitude of making do with the minimum".
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 28

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Among the large number of children wishing to meet me were two who were in a hurry to get an answer from me. One student asked, 'I have read your book Agni Siragugal (the Tamil version of Wings of Fire). You always give a message to dream. Tell me, why dream?'

My answer was to ask the gathered children to recite the following; 'Dream, dream, dream. Dream transforms into thoughts. Thoughts result in actions,' I told them, 'Friends, if there are no dreams, there are no revolutionary thoughts; if there are no thoughts, no actions will emanate. Hence, parents and teachers should allow their children to dream. Success always follows dreams attempted though there may be some setbacks and delays.'

Another boy asked, 'Please tell me, who would be the first scientist in the world?' It occurred to me – science was born and survives only by questions. The whole foundation of science is questioning. And as parents and teachers well know, children are the source of unending questions. Hence, 'Child is the first scientist,' I replied. There was thunderous applause. The children enjoyed this different way of thinking. Teachers and parents also smiled at the answer.

During my visit to Assam, I visited Tezpur. I had gone for the convocation ceremony of Tezpur University and also to receive the honorary doctorate conferred on me. After the convocation, I took off to meet schoolchildren. It was a big gathering of young people. The theme of my address was 'Indomitable spirit'. As soon I finished my talk the youngsters mobbed me for autographs. When I finished giving autographs I faced two interesting questions. One was: 'Why cannot water from the Brahmaputra, which is in flood much of the time, be diverted to Rajasthan or Tamil Nadu which are starved of water?'

Only children will have these innovative ideas. Grownups tend to see more impossibilities. It was such a powerful question, I was completely beaten. I was sure even the Prime Minister would not have been able to answer it! How to tell the boy, rivers are a state subject and our states are fighting for the rights to their waters? That these would bring them prosperity some day but meanwhile they were flowing wastefully into the sea and causing floods every year. How to answer it?

I said, 'India Vision 2020 demands from the young that they start a great mission of connecting rivers cutting across the states.' I personally feel the young have the most powerful minds. They can overcome the negativity of the bureaucracy and some self-centred policies of the state governments to enrich the people of the country. They can even improve coordination between the states and the Centre. And they surely will.

Q. Which of the following statements can be best inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 28 The context mentions "It was a big gathering of young people ... As soon I finished my talk the youngsters mobbed me for autographs." So option 4 is correct.

Option A mentions the pre-requisite of becoming a scientist which is the incorrect inference of "The whole foundation of science is questioning."

Option B cannot be inferred as it simply mentions "... also to receive the honorary doctorate conferred on me." It does not mention the field of studies.

Option C cannot be inferred from the passage.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 29

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Among the large number of children wishing to meet me were two who were in a hurry to get an answer from me. One student asked, 'I have read your book Agni Siragugal (the Tamil version of Wings of Fire). You always give a message to dream. Tell me, why dream?'

My answer was to ask the gathered children to recite the following; 'Dream, dream, dream. Dream transforms into thoughts. Thoughts result in actions,' I told them, 'Friends, if there are no dreams, there are no revolutionary thoughts; if there are no thoughts, no actions will emanate. Hence, parents and teachers should allow their children to dream. Success always follows dreams attempted though there may be some setbacks and delays.'

Another boy asked, 'Please tell me, who would be the first scientist in the world?' It occurred to me – science was born and survives only by questions. The whole foundation of science is questioning. And as parents and teachers well know, children are the source of unending questions. Hence, 'Child is the first scientist,' I replied. There was thunderous applause. The children enjoyed this different way of thinking. Teachers and parents also smiled at the answer.

During my visit to Assam, I visited Tezpur. I had gone for the convocation ceremony of Tezpur University and also to receive the honorary doctorate conferred on me. After the convocation, I took off to meet schoolchildren. It was a big gathering of young people. The theme of my address was 'Indomitable spirit'. As soon I finished my talk the youngsters mobbed me for autographs. When I finished giving autographs I faced two interesting questions. One was: 'Why cannot water from the Brahmaputra, which is in flood much of the time, be diverted to Rajasthan or Tamil Nadu which are starved of water?'

Only children will have these innovative ideas. Grownups tend to see more impossibilities. It was such a powerful question, I was completely beaten. I was sure even the Prime Minister would not have been able to answer it! How to tell the boy, rivers are a state subject and our states are fighting for the rights to their waters? That these would bring them prosperity some day but meanwhile they were flowing wastefully into the sea and causing floods every year. How to answer it?

I said, 'India Vision 2020 demands from the young that they start a great mission of connecting rivers cutting across the states.' I personally feel the young have the most powerful minds. They can overcome the negativity of the bureaucracy and some self-centred policies of the state governments to enrich the people of the country. They can even improve coordination between the states and the Centre. And they surely will.

Q. Which of the following most accurately expresses the author's main idea in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 29 The context mentions a series of questions asked to the author by children. The general idea of the passage is that children have a sense of curiosity and have innovative questions. Refer to the context, "Only children will have these innovative ideas ... I personally feel the young have the most powerful minds ..." Thus, the most appropriate answer is option B.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 30

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Among the large number of children wishing to meet me were two who were in a hurry to get an answer from me. One student asked, 'I have read your book Agni Siragugal (the Tamil version of Wings of Fire). You always give a message to dream. Tell me, why dream?'

My answer was to ask the gathered children to recite the following; 'Dream, dream, dream. Dream transforms into thoughts. Thoughts result in actions,' I told them, 'Friends, if there are no dreams, there are no revolutionary thoughts; if there are no thoughts, no actions will emanate. Hence, parents and teachers should allow their children to dream. Success always follows dreams attempted though there may be some setbacks and delays.'

Another boy asked, 'Please tell me, who would be the first scientist in the world?' It occurred to me – science was born and survives only by questions. The whole foundation of science is questioning. And as parents and teachers well know, children are the source of unending questions. Hence, 'Child is the first scientist,' I replied. There was thunderous applause. The children enjoyed this different way of thinking. Teachers and parents also smiled at the answer.

During my visit to Assam, I visited Tezpur. I had gone for the convocation ceremony of Tezpur University and also to receive the honorary doctorate conferred on me. After the convocation, I took off to meet schoolchildren. It was a big gathering of young people. The theme of my address was 'Indomitable spirit'. As soon as I finished my talk the youngsters mobbed me for autographs. When I finished giving autographs I faced two interesting questions. One was: 'Why cannot water from the Brahmaputra, which is in flood much of the time, be diverted to Rajasthan or Tamil Nadu which are starved of water?'

Only children will have these innovative ideas. Grownups tend to see more impossibilities. It was such a powerful question, I was completely beaten. I was sure even the Prime Minister would not have been able to answer it! How to tell the boy, rivers are a state subject and our states are fighting for the rights to their waters? That these would bring them prosperity some day but meanwhile they were flowing wastefully into the sea and causing floods every year. How to answer it?

I said, 'India Vision 2020 demands from the young that they start a great mission of connecting rivers cutting across the states.' I personally feel the young have the most powerful minds. They can overcome the negativity of the bureaucracy and some self-centred policies of the state governments to enrich the people of the country. They can even improve coordination between the states and the Centre. And they surely will.

Q. What does the word "bureaucracy" as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 30 "Bureaucracy", as used in the passage, means complicated rules, processes, and written work that make it hard to get something done. This is apparent from how the writer mentions "self-centered policies of the state governments".
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 31

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Queen Elizabeth II, Britain's longest-reigning monarch and a symbol of stability in a turbulent era that saw the decline of the British empire and disarray in her own family, died Thursday after 70 years on the throne. She was 96.

The palace announced she died at Balmoral Castle, her summer residence in Scotland, where members of the royal family had rushed to her side after her health took a turn for the worse.

A link to the almost-vanished generation that fought World War II, she was the only monarch most Britons have ever known.

Her 73-year-old son Prince Charles automatically became king and will be known as King Charles III, it was announced. British monarchs in the past have selected new names upon taking the throne. Charles' second wife, Camilla, will be known as the Queen Consort.

A funeral was to be held after 10 days of official mourning.

The BBC played the national anthem, "God Save the Queen," over a portrait of Elizabeth in full regalia as her death was announced, and the flag over Buckingham Palace was lowered to half-staff as the second Elizabethan age came to a close.

[Source - www.apnews.com, September 8, 2022]

Q. Whom had Queen Elizabeth II succeeded?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 31 Elizabeth was born into royalty as the daughter of the second son of King George V. After her uncle Edward VIII abdicated in 1936 (subsequently becoming duke of Windsor), her father became King George VI, and she became heir presumptive. Elizabeth assumed the title of the queen upon her father's death in 1952.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 32

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Queen Elizabeth II, Britain's longest-reigning monarch and a symbol of stability in a turbulent era that saw the decline of the British empire and disarray in her own family, died Thursday after 70 years on the throne. She was 96.

The palace announced she died at Balmoral Castle, her summer residence in Scotland, where members of the royal family had rushed to her side after her health took a turn for the worse.

A link to the almost-vanished generation that fought World War II, she was the only monarch most Britons have ever known.

Her 73-year-old son Prince Charles automatically became king and will be known as King Charles III, it was announced. British monarchs in the past have selected new names upon taking the throne. Charles' second wife, Camilla, will be known as the Queen Consort.

A funeral was to be held after 10 days of official mourning.

The BBC played the national anthem, "God Save the Queen," over a portrait of Elizabeth in full regalia as her death was announced, and the flag over Buckingham Palace was lowered to half-staff as the second Elizabethan age came to a close.

[Source - www.apnews.com, September 8, 2022]

Q. Who among the following decided to "step back as 'senior' members" of the British royal family in the year 2020?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 32 On 8 January 2020, Prince Harry, Duke of Sussex, and Meghan, Duchess of Sussex, announced, on Instagram, their decision to "step back as 'senior' members" of the British royal family, split their time between the United Kingdom and North America, and work to become financially independent.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 33

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Queen Elizabeth II, Britain's longest-reigning monarch and a symbol of stability in a turbulent era that saw the decline of the British empire and disarray in her own family, died Thursday after 70 years on the throne. She was 96.

The palace announced she died at Balmoral Castle, her summer residence in Scotland, where members of the royal family had rushed to her side after her health took a turn for the worse.

A link to the almost-vanished generation that fought World War II, she was the only monarch most Britons have ever known.

Her 73-year-old son Prince Charles automatically became king and will be known as King Charles III, it was announced. British monarchs in the past have selected new names upon taking the throne. Charles' second wife, Camilla, will be known as the Queen Consort.

A funeral was to be held after 10 days of official mourning.

The BBC played the national anthem, "God Save the Queen," over a portrait of Elizabeth in full regalia as her death was announced, and the flag over Buckingham Palace was lowered to half-staff as the second Elizabethan age came to a close.

[Source - www.apnews.com, September 8, 2022]

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I: Elizabeth was Queen of the United Kingdom and other Commonwealth realms until her death in 2022.

Statement II: In 1952, Elizabeth became the queen of seven independent Commonwealth countries.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 33 A Commonwealth realm is a sovereign state in the Commonwealth of Nations. Each realm functions as an independent state, equal with the other realms and nations of the Commonwealth. Elizabeth II was the Queen of the United Kingdom and other Commonwealth realms from 6 February 1952 until her death in 2022. She was queen regnant of 32 sovereign states during her lifetime and 15 at the time of her death. Her reign of 70 years and 214 days was the longest of any British monarch and the longest verified reign of any female monarch in history. When her father died in February 1952, Elizabeth—then 25 years old—became queen of seven independent Commonwealth countries: the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, South Africa, Pakistan, and Ceylon (known today as Sri Lanka), as well as head of the Commonwealth.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 34

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Queen Elizabeth II, Britain's longest-reigning monarch and a symbol of stability in a turbulent era that saw the decline of the British empire and disarray in her own family, died Thursday after 70 years on the throne. She was 96.

The palace announced she died at Balmoral Castle, her summer residence in Scotland, where members of the royal family had rushed to her side after her health took a turn for the worse.

A link to the almost-vanished generation that fought World War II, she was the only monarch most Britons have ever known.

Her 73-year-old son Prince Charles automatically became king and will be known as King Charles III, it was announced. British monarchs in the past have selected new names upon taking the throne. Charles' second wife, Camilla, will be known as the Queen Consort.

A funeral was to be held after 10 days of official mourning.

The BBC played the national anthem, "God Save the Queen," over a portrait of Elizabeth in full regalia as her death was announced, and the flag over Buckingham Palace was lowered to half-staff as the second Elizabethan age came to a close.

[Source - www.apnews.com, September 8, 2022]

Q. Which among the following has monarch form of government?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 34 Bhutan is a constitutional monarchy with Vajrayana Buddhism as the state religion. It is a landlocked country in the Eastern Himalayas, located between China and India.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 35

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Queen Elizabeth II, Britain's longest-reigning monarch and a symbol of stability in a turbulent era that saw the decline of the British empire and disarray in her own family, died Thursday after 70 years on the throne. She was 96.

The palace announced she died at Balmoral Castle, her summer residence in Scotland, where members of the royal family had rushed to her side after her health took a turn for the worse.

A link to the almost-vanished generation that fought World War II, she was the only monarch most Britons have ever known.

Her 73-year-old son Prince Charles automatically became king and will be known as King Charles III, it was announced. British monarchs in the past have selected new names upon taking the throne. Charles' second wife, Camilla, will be known as the Queen Consort.

A funeral was to be held after 10 days of official mourning.

The BBC played the national anthem, "God Save the Queen," over a portrait of Elizabeth in full regalia as her death was announced, and the flag over Buckingham Palace was lowered to half-staff as the second Elizabethan age came to a close.

[Source - www.apnews.com, September 8, 2022]

Q. Nearly 400 years after becoming a British colony, which country became the world's newest republic in 2021?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 35 Nearly 400 years after the country became a British colony, Barbados became the world's newest republic. The Caribbean island nation removed Queen Elizabeth II as the head of the state in a ceremony attended by Prince Charles.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 36

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

India and ASEAN nations have jointly approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022.

The work plan was approved at the 2nd ASEAN Digital Ministers' (ADGMIN) Meeting with India, held virtually.

The telecom ministry in December 2019 had launched a portal to help people in Delhi-NCR block and trace their stolen or lost mobile phones.

The project is backed by the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) system, which was undertaken by the telecom department for addressing security, theft and other concerns including reprogramming of mobile handsets.

During the meeting, the Minister of State for Communications said that information and communication technologies (ICT) enables and strengthens democratic systems and institutions through enhanced engagement between citizens and the state.

He added that use of ICTs promote free speech, human rights and the free flow of information besides expanding citizens' opportunities to participate in decision-making process and have potential to transform lives of people living in rural areas, the statement said.

Source – The Hindu, Jan 29, 2022

Q. Who is the Minister of State for Communications of India, as in 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 36 Devusinh Jesingbhai Chauhan is an Indian politician and is serving as Minister of State for Communications of India. He is Member of Parliament to the 16th Lok Sabha from Kheda, Gujarat. He won the 2014 Indian general election being a Bharatiya Janata Party candidate.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 37

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

India and ASEAN nations have jointly approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022.

The work plan was approved at the 2nd ASEAN Digital Ministers' (ADGMIN) Meeting with India, held virtually.

The telecom ministry in December 2019 had launched a portal to help people in Delhi-NCR block and trace their stolen or lost mobile phones.

The project is backed by the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) system, which was undertaken by the telecom department for addressing security, theft and other concerns including reprogramming of mobile handsets.

During the meeting, the Minister of State for Communications said that information and communication technologies (ICT) enables and strengthens democratic systems and institutions through enhanced engagement between citizens and the state.

He added that use of ICTs promote free speech, human rights and the free flow of information besides expanding citizens' opportunities to participate in decision-making process and have potential to transform lives of people living in rural areas, the statement said.

Source – The Hindu, Jan 29, 2022

Q. Which of the following statements is not true about India-ASEAN relations?

A. India is a Free trade Partner of ASEAN.

B. India became a sectoral dialogue partner of ASEAN in 1997.

C. ASEAN has India as one of its largest trading partners.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 37 The ASEAN-India Free Trade Area (AIFTA) is a free trade area among the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and India. The initial framework agreement was signed on 8 October, 2003 in Bali, Indonesia, and the final agreement was on 13 August, 2009. The free trade area came into effect on 1 January, 2010.

After India became a sectoral dialogue partner of ASEAN in 1992, India saw its trade with ASEAN increase relative to its trade with the rest of the world. Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the 18th ASEAN summit, 2021, said that the year 2022 would mark the completion of 30 years of India's partnership with ASEAN.

ASEAN's six major trading partners are Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, and South Korea.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 38

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

India and ASEAN nations have jointly approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022.

The work plan was approved at the 2nd ASEAN Digital Ministers' (ADGMIN) Meeting with India, held virtually.

The telecom ministry in December 2019 had launched a portal to help people in Delhi-NCR block and trace their stolen or lost mobile phones.

The project is backed by the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) system, which was undertaken by the telecom department for addressing security, theft and other concerns including reprogramming of mobile handsets.

During the meeting, the Minister of State for Communications said that information and communication technologies (ICT) enables and strengthens democratic systems and institutions through enhanced engagement between citizens and the state.

He added that use of ICTs promote free speech, human rights and the free flow of information besides expanding citizens' opportunities to participate in decision-making process and have potential to transform lives of people living in rural areas, the statement said.

Source – The Hindu, Jan 29, 2022

Q. Name the schemed approved by the GoI to provide free wireless internet services across India, especially to small shopkeepers.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 38 The Union Cabinet, in December 2020, approved a scheme called the Prime Minister's Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI), to improve wireless connectivity and pave the way for free wireless internet in public spaces across the country. The scheme will allow anyone, from an individual in a residential area to a Kirana shop owner to a tea shop vendor, to set up public Wi-Fi hotspot and deliver wifi services. It aims to promote the growth of public wi-fi networks in the country.

Under the scheme, small shopkeepers will get better and free internet connectivity to boost their income scale.

This scheme will also strengthen the PM Digital India mission.

This Scheme will make ease of doing business process and also develop the civilized lifestyle.

The government will establish PDOs (Public Data Offices) in the country under the scheme.

According to Ravi Shankar Prasad's statement, no license, no registration, and no fee would be applicable for the PDOs.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 39

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

India and ASEAN nations have jointly approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022.

The work plan was approved at the 2nd ASEAN Digital Ministers' (ADGMIN) Meeting with India, held virtually.

The telecom ministry in December 2019 had launched a portal to help people in Delhi-NCR block and trace their stolen or lost mobile phones.

The project is backed by the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) system, which was undertaken by the telecom department for addressing security, theft and other concerns including reprogramming of mobile handsets.

During the meeting, the Minister of State for Communications said that information and communication technologies (ICT) enables and strengthens democratic systems and institutions through enhanced engagement between citizens and the state.

He added that use of ICTs promote free speech, human rights and the free flow of information besides expanding citizens' opportunities to participate in decision-making process and have potential to transform lives of people living in rural areas, the statement said.

Source – The Hindu, Jan 29, 2022

Q. Consider the following statements about the 2nd ASEAN Digital Ministers' (ADGMIN) Meeting and choose the correct option accordingly.

Statement I: The 2nd ADGMIN Meeting was held between telecom ministers of ASEAN countries and dialogue partner countries.

Statement II: The representatives of Myanmar chaired the Meeting, and China was the Vice-Chair.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 39 ADGMIN is an annual meeting of telecom ministers of 10 ASEAN (Association of South-East Asian Nations) countries-Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam-and dialogue partner countries-Australia, Canada, China, EU, India, Japan, Republic of Korea, New Zealand, Russia, UK and US.

The 2nd ASEAN Digital Ministers' Meeting (ADGMIN) and Related Meetings were held via video conference on 27 and 28 January 2022. The representatives of Myanmar chaired the Meeting, and Philippines was the Vice-Chair. The Meeting also held consultations with their counterparts from China, and India.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 40

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

India and ASEAN nations have jointly approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022.

The work plan was approved at the 2nd ASEAN Digital Ministers' (ADGMIN) Meeting with India, held virtually.

The telecom ministry in December 2019 had launched a portal to help people in Delhi-NCR block and trace their stolen or lost mobile phones.

The project is backed by the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) system, which was undertaken by the telecom department for addressing security, theft and other concerns including reprogramming of mobile handsets.

During the meeting, the Minister of State for Communications said that information and communication technologies (ICT) enables and strengthens democratic systems and institutions through enhanced engagement between citizens and the state.

He added that use of ICTs promote free speech, human rights and the free flow of information besides expanding citizens' opportunities to participate in decision-making process and have potential to transform lives of people living in rural areas, the statement said.

Source – The Hindu, Jan 29, 2022

Q. The India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022 DOES NOT include:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 40 India and ASEAN nations jointly approved the India-ASEAN Digital Work Plan 2022 at the 2nd ASEAN Digital Ministers' Meeting (ADGMIN) held via video conference on 27 and 28 January, 2022.

The work plan includes system for combating the use of stolen and counterfeit mobile handsets, wifi access network interface for nationwide public internet, the capacity building and knowledge sharing in emerging areas in the field of information and communication technologies such as Internet of Things (IoT), 5G, advanced satellite communication, cyber forensics, etc.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 41

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that a new scheme, Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East (PM-DevINE) will be implemented through the North-Eastern Council.

"It will fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti, and social development projects based on felt needs of the northeast. This will enable livelihood activities for youth and women, filling the gaps in various sectors," the Minister said. She said it will not be a substitute for existing Central or State schemes. "While the Central Ministries may also pose their candidate projects, priority will be given to those posed by the States. An initial allocation of ₹1,500 crore will be made."

Some of the projects to be implemented are — Dedicated Services for the Management of Paediatric and Adult Haemotolymphoid Cancers in North East India, Guwahati, construction of Aizawl bypass on western side, gap funding for passenger ropeway system for Pelling to Sanga-Choeling in West Sikkim, gap funding for eco-friendly Ropeway (Cable Car) from Dhapper to Bhaleydhunga in South Sikkim and pilot project for the construction of Bamboo Link Roads.

Source - The Hindu, February 1, 2022.

Q. Bamboo Link Roads will be constructed in ____, under the PM-DevINE scheme.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 41 Bamboo Link Roads will be constructed in Mizoram, under the PM-DevINE scheme. These roads will help in transporting bamboo from forests. They will also help in management of paediatric and adult hematolymphoid (head and neck) cancers in north-east region.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 42

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that a new scheme, Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East (PM-DevINE) will be implemented through the North-Eastern Council.

"It will fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti, and social development projects based on felt needs of the northeast. This will enable livelihood activities for youth and women, filling the gaps in various sectors," the Minister said. She said it will not be a substitute for existing Central or State schemes. "While the Central Ministries may also pose their candidate projects, priority will be given to those posed by the States. An initial allocation of ₹1,500 crores will be made."

Some of the projects to be implemented are — Dedicated Services for the Management of Paediatric and Adult Haemotolymphoid Cancers in North East India, Guwahati, construction of Aizawl bypass on western side, gap funding for passenger ropeway system for Pelling to Sanga-Choeling in West Sikkim, gap funding for eco-friendly Ropeway (Cable Car) from Dhapper to Bhaleydhunga in South Sikkim and pilot project for construction of Bamboo Link Roads.

Source - The Hindu, February 1, 2022.

Q. Mark the incorrect statement about PM GatiShakti.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 42 PM GatiShakti National Master Plan for Multi-Modal Connectivity, launched in October 2021, is an initiative aimed at coordinated planning and execution of infrastructure projects. The objective is to bring down logistics costs.

GatiShakti is a digital platform bringing development projects of 16 ministries, including railways and roadways, together for integrated planning and implementation. When launched, the GatiShakti scheme subsumed the Rs. 110 lakh crore National Infrastructure Pipeline announced in 2019.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 43

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that a new scheme, Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East (PM-DevINE) will be implemented through the North-Eastern Council.

"It will fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti, and social development projects based on felt needs of the northeast. This will enable livelihood activities for youth and women, filling the gaps in various sectors," the Minister said. She said it will not be a substitute for existing Central or State schemes. "While the Central Ministries may also pose their candidate projects, priority will be given to those posed by the States. An initial allocation of ₹1,500 crore will be made."

Some of the projects to be implemented are — Dedicated Services for the Management of Paediatric and Adult Haemotolymphoid Cancers in North East India, Guwahati, construction of Aizawl bypass on western side, gap funding for passenger ropeway system for Pelling to Sanga-Choeling in West Sikkim, gap funding for eco-friendly Ropeway (Cable Car) from Dhapper to Bhaleydhunga in South Sikkim and pilot project for construction of Bamboo Link Roads.

Source - The Hindu, February 1, 2022.

Q. ________ is designed for enhancing efficiency and reducing the cost of logistics in India by creating a transparent, single window platform to provide real-time information to all stakeholders.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 43 Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP) is designed for enhancing efficiency and reducing the cost of logistics in India by creating a transparent, single window platform to provide real-time information to all stakeholders. ULIP will be a major game changer for Indian logistics landscape by assisting just-in-time inventory management, identification of cheaper logistic modes eliminating tedious documentation process, cargo movement monitoring, and improving international competitiveness.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 44

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that a new scheme, Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East (PM-DevINE) will be implemented through the North-Eastern Council.

"It will fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti, and social development projects based on felt needs of the northeast. This will enable livelihood activities for youth and women, filling the gaps in various sectors," the Minister said. She said it will not be a substitute for existing Central or State schemes. "While the Central Ministries may also pose their candidate projects, priority will be given to those posed by the States. An initial allocation of ₹1,500 crore will be made."

Some of the projects to be implemented are — Dedicated Services for the Management of Paediatric and Adult Haemotolymphoid Cancers in North East India, Guwahati, construction of Aizawl bypass on western side, gap funding for passenger ropeway system for Pelling to Sanga-Choeling in West Sikkim, gap funding for eco-friendly Ropeway (Cable Car) from Dhapper to Bhaleydhunga in South Sikkim and pilot project for construction of Bamboo Link Roads.

Source - The Hindu, February 1, 2022.

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: The first freight train reached Manipur in 2022.

Statement II: The first freight train reached the Rani Gaidinliu railway station, Tamenglong.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 44 The first-ever freight train arrived at the Rani Gaidinliu railway station in Tamenglong district of Manipur on January 27, 2022, marking a major breakthrough for railway authorities who put in concerned efforts to improve the railway connectivity across Manipur and other northeastern regions.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi said this would enhance the state's commerce and connectivity, as goods from there would reach all parts of the country.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 45

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that a new scheme, Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East (PM-DevINE) will be implemented through the North-Eastern Council.

"It will fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti, and social development projects based on felt needs of the northeast. This will enable livelihood activities for youth and women, filling the gaps in various sectors," the Minister said. She said it will not be a substitute for existing Central or State schemes. "While the Central Ministries may also pose their candidate projects, priority will be given to those posed by the States. An initial allocation of ₹1,500 crores will be made."

Some of the projects to be implemented are — Dedicated Services for the Management of Paediatric and Adult Haemotolymphoid Cancers in North East India, Guwahati, construction of Aizawl bypass on western side, gap funding for passenger ropeway system for Pelling to Sanga-Choeling in West Sikkim, gap funding for eco-friendly Ropeway (Cable Car) from Dhapper to Bhaleydhunga in South Sikkim and pilot project for construction of Bamboo Link Roads.

Source - The Hindu, February 1, 2022.

Q. ______ connects the seven states of northeast India to the rest of India.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 45 The Siliguri Corridor is a stretch of land in Eastern South Asia, 22 kilometres at the narrowest section, located around the city of Siliguri in West Bengal, India. This geopolitical and geoeconomical corridor or isthmus connects the seven states of northeast India to the rest of India.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 46

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

An application seeking Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Arunachal Pradesh Apatani textile product has been filed. The Apatani weave comes from the Apatani tribe of Arunachal Pradesh living at Ziro, the headquarters of lower Subansiri district. According to the application filed with the Geographical Indications registry in Chennai, the Apatani community weaves its own textiles for various occasions, including rituals and cultural festivals.

The tribe predominantly weaves shawls known as jig-jiro and jilan or jackets called supuntarii. The people here use different leaves and plant resources for organic dying the cotton yarns in their traditional ways. The traditional handloom of this tribe is a type of loin loom, which is called Chichin, and is similar to the traditional handloom of the Nyishi tribe. It is portable, easy to install and operated by a single weaver.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Plea seeks GI tag for Arunachal Apatani textile product', The Hindu]

Q. Who filed the application seeking GI Tag for for the Arunachal Pradesh Apatani textile product?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 46 A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. An application seeking a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Arunachal Pradesh Apatani textile product was filed by a firm, Zeet Zeero Producer Company Limited. Zeet-Zeero Producer Company Limited is a Arunachal Pradesh based private ltd. company. It has been classified as non-govt company and is registered under Registrar of Companies, Arunachal Pradesh India.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 47

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

An application seeking Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Arunachal Pradesh Apatani textile product has been filed. The Apatani weave comes from the Apatani tribe of Arunachal Pradesh living at Ziro, the headquarters of lower Subansiri district. According to the application filed with the Geographical Indications registry in Chennai, the Apatani community weaves its own textiles for various occasions, including rituals and cultural festivals.

The tribe predominantly weaves shawls known as jig-jiro and jilan or jackets called supuntarii. The people here use different leaves and plant resources for organic dying the cotton yarns in their traditional ways. The traditional handloom of this tribe is a type of loin loom, which is called Chichin, and is similar to the traditional handloom of the Nyishi tribe. It is portable, easy to install and operated by a single weaver.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Plea seeks GI tag for Arunachal Apatani textile product', The Hindu]

Q. Identify the correct statement(s) related to Apatani textile products.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 47 Only women folk are engaged in weaving. The traditional handloom is portable, easy to install and operated by a single weaver, especially the female member of the community. The people here use different leaves and plant resources for organic dying the cotton yarns in their traditional ways. The community weaves its own textiles for various occasions, including rituals and cultural festivals.

Thus, only option A is correct.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 48

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

An application seeking Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Arunachal Pradesh Apatani textile product has been filed. The Apatani weave comes from the Apatani tribe of Arunachal Pradesh living at Ziro, the headquarters of lower Subansiri district. According to the application filed with the Geographical Indications registry in Chennai, the Apatani community weaves its own textiles for various occasions, including rituals and cultural festivals.

The tribe predominantly weaves shawls known as jig-jiro and jilan or jackets called supuntarii. The people here use different leaves and plant resources for organic dying the cotton yarns in their traditional ways. The traditional handloom of this tribe is a type of loin loom, which is called Chichin, and is similar to the traditional handloom of the Nyishi tribe. It is portable, easy to install and operated by a single weaver.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Plea seeks GI tag for Arunachal Apatani textile product', The Hindu]

Q. Which is the first product in India to get a GI tag?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 48 Darjeeling tea is the first GI tagged product in India (2004–2005). India, as a member of the World Trade Organisation (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 which came into force with effect from 2003. The Act provides registration and also protection of GI goods in India. This Act is administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, who is also the Registrar of Geographical Indications.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 49

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

An application seeking Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Arunachal Pradesh Apatani textile product has been filed. The Apatani weave comes from the Apatani tribe of Arunachal Pradesh living at Ziro, the headquarters of lower Subansiri district. According to the application filed with the Geographical Indications registry in Chennai, the Apatani community weaves its own textiles for various occasions, including rituals and cultural festivals.

The tribe predominantly weaves shawls known as jig-jiro and jilan or jackets called supuntarii. The people here use different leaves and plant resources for organic dying the cotton yarns in their traditional ways. The traditional handloom of this tribe is a type of loin loom, which is called Chichin, and is similar to the traditional handloom of the Nyishi tribe. It is portable, easy to install and operated by a single weaver.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Plea seeks GI tag for Arunachal Apatani textile product', The Hindu]

Q. The woven fabric of Apatani tribe is known for

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 49 The woven fabric of Apatani tribe is known for its geometric and zigzag patterns and its angular designs. According to the application filed with the Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai, the Apatani community weaves its textiles for various occasions, including rituals and cultural festivals.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 50

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

An application seeking Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the Arunachal Pradesh Apatani textile product has been filed. The Apatani weave comes from the Apatani tribe of Arunachal Pradesh living at Ziro, the headquarters of lower Subansiri district. According to the application filed with the Geographical Indications registry in Chennai, the Apatani community weaves its own textiles for various occasions, including rituals and cultural festivals.

The tribe predominantly weaves shawls known as jig-jiro and jilan or jackets called supuntarii. The people here use different leaves and plant resources for organic dying the cotton yarns in their traditional ways. The traditional handloom of this tribe is a type of loin loom, which is called Chichin, and is similar to the traditional handloom of the Nyishi tribe. It is portable, easy to install and operated by a single weaver.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Plea seeks GI tag for Arunachal Apatani textile product', The Hindu]

Q. Getting a GI tag for a product

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 50 Getting a GI tag for a product indicates that it originates from a particular territory in India and has unique characteristics or quality. Having a GI tag for a product prevents unauthorised use of a registered Geographical Indication by others, boosts exports of Indian Geographical indications by providing legal protection and also enables seeking legal protection in other WTO member countries.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 51

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of 'Swadesh Darshan' and 'PRASHAD' provides financial assistance to State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations/Central Agencies etc. for development of tourism infrastructure in the country. The projects under this scheme are sanctioned subject to availability of funds, submission of suitable Detailed Project Reports (DPR), adherence to scheme guidelines and utilization of funds released earlier etc. The Ministry of Tourism has now revamped its Swadesh Darshan scheme as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0) in order to develop sustainable and responsible destinations with tourist & destination centric approach and has shared the guidelines for SD2.0 scheme. Sanctioning of new tourism projects is a continuous process. The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of Swadesh Darshan and National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) has sanctioned 03 projects in the State of Tamil Nadu since the inception of these schemes. This information was given by Minister of Tourism in a written reply in Rajya Sabha today.

(Source - www.pib.gov.in, dated July 21, 2022)

Q. Consider the following statements about the Swadesh Darshan 2.0 and mark the correct option.

Statement I: The mantra of the scheme is 'vocal for local'.

Statement II: The scheme seeks to encourage theme-specific development of tourism destinations.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 51 With the mantra of 'vocal for local', the revamped scheme namely Swadesh Darshan 2.0 seeks to attain Aatmanirbhar Bharat by realizing India's full potential as a tourism destination. Swadesh Darshan 2.0 is not an incremental change but a generational shift to evolve the Swadesh Darshan Scheme as a holistic mission to develop sustainable and responsible tourism destinations. It will help develop sustainable and responsible destinations with a tourist and destination centric approach. It will encourage the development of benchmarks and standards for generic and theme-specific development of tourism destinations and the states will follow the benchmarks and standards while planning and developing the projects.

The following major themes have been identified for tourism under the Scheme:

  • Culture and Heritage

  • Adventure Tourism

  • Eco-Tourism

  • Wellness Tourism

  • MICE Tourism

  • Rural Tourism

  • Beach Tourism

  • Cruises – Ocean & Inland

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 52

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of 'Swadesh Darshan' and 'PRASHAD' provides financial assistance to State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations/Central Agencies etc. for development of tourism infrastructure in the country. The projects under this scheme are sanctioned subject to availability of funds, submission of suitable Detailed Project Reports (DPR), adherence to scheme guidelines and utilization of funds released earlier etc. The Ministry of Tourism has now revamped its Swadesh Darshan scheme as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0) in order to develop sustainable and responsible destinations with tourist & destination centric approach and has shared the guidelines for SD2.0 scheme. Sanctioning of new tourism projects is a continuous process. The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of Swadesh Darshan and National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) has sanctioned 03 projects in the State of Tamil Nadu since the inception of these schemes. This information was given by Minister of Tourism in a written reply in Rajya Sabha today.

(Source - www.pib.gov.in, dated July 21, 2022)

Q. When was Swadesh Darshan Scheme launched?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 52 Swadesh Darshan Scheme is a Central Sector scheme launched in 2014-15 by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture, Government of India for the integrated development of theme-based tourist circuits - Buddhist Circuit, Coastal Circuit, Desert Circuit, Eco Circuit, Heritage Circuit, Northeast Circuit, Himalayan Circuit, Sufi Circuit, Krishna Circuit, Ramayana Circuit, Rural Circuit, Spiritual Circuit, Tirthankar Circuit, Wildlife Circuit and Tribal Circuit.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 53

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of 'Swadesh Darshan' and 'PRASHAD' provides financial assistance to State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations/Central Agencies etc. for development of tourism infrastructure in the country. The projects under this scheme are sanctioned subject to availability of funds, submission of suitable Detailed Project Reports (DPR), adherence to scheme guidelines and utilization of funds released earlier etc. The Ministry of Tourism has now revamped its Swadesh Darshan scheme as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0) in order to develop sustainable and responsible destinations with tourist & destination centric approach and has shared the guidelines for SD2.0 scheme. Sanctioning of new tourism projects is a continuous process. The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of Swadesh Darshan and National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) has sanctioned 03 projects in the State of Tamil Nadu since the inception of these schemes. This information was given by the Minister of Tourism in a written reply in Rajya Sabha today.

(Source - www.pib.gov.in, dated July 21, 2022)

Q. When is the World Tourism Day celebrated each year?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 53 Since 1980, the United Nations World Tourism Organization has celebrated World Tourism Day as international observances on 27th September. This date was chosen as on that day in 1970, the statutes of the UNWTO were adopted. The adoption of these statutes is considered a milestone in global tourism.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 54

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of 'Swadesh Darshan' and 'PRASHAD' provides financial assistance to State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations/Central Agencies etc. for development of tourism infrastructure in the country. The projects under this scheme are sanctioned subject to availability of funds, submission of suitable Detailed Project Reports (DPR), adherence to scheme guidelines and utilization of funds released earlier etc. The Ministry of Tourism has now revamped its Swadesh Darshan scheme as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0) in order to develop sustainable and responsible destinations with tourist & destination centric approach and has shared the guidelines for SD2.0 scheme. Sanctioning of new tourism projects is a continuous process. The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of Swadesh Darshan and National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) has sanctioned 03 projects in the State of Tamil Nadu since the inception of these schemes. This information was given by Minister of Tourism in a written reply in Rajya Sabha today.

(Source - www.pib.gov.in, dated July 21, 2022)

Q. Some of the prominent places are identified in the Swadesh Darshan 2.0. Match the places with the states in accordance with the scheme.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 54 Swadesh Darshan Scheme 2.0 seeks to encourage the development of benchmarks and standards for generic and theme-specific development of tourism destinations. Some of the prominent places identified are Jhansi and Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh, Gwalior, Chitrakoot and Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh and Ajanta and Ellora in Maharashtra.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 55

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of 'Swadesh Darshan' and 'PRASHAD' provides financial assistance to State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations/Central Agencies etc. for development of tourism infrastructure in the country. The projects under this scheme are sanctioned subject to availability of funds, submission of suitable Detailed Project Reports (DPR), adherence to scheme guidelines and utilization of funds released earlier etc. The Ministry of Tourism has now revamped its Swadesh Darshan scheme as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0) in order to develop sustainable and responsible destinations with tourist & destination centric approach and has shared the guidelines for SD2.0 scheme. Sanctioning of new tourism projects is a continuous process. The Ministry of Tourism under its schemes of Swadesh Darshan and National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) has sanctioned 03 projects in the State of Tamil Nadu since the inception of these schemes. This information was given by Minister of Tourism in a written reply in Rajya Sabha today.

(Source - www.pib.gov.in, dated July 21, 2022)

Q. Who heads the Ministry of Tourism of India as of 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 55 The Ministry of Tourism is the nodal agency for the formulation of national policies and programs and for the co-ordination of activities of various Central Government Agencies, State Governments/UTs and the Private Sector for the development and promotion of tourism in the country. The ministry is headed by the Union Minister for Tourism. The head of the ministry as of 2022 is Minister of Tourism (India) Shri G. Kishan Reddy.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 56

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In just over 50 years, there has been a 69% drop in the wildlife population globally, the Living Planet Report 2022 has flagged, with Latin America and the Caribbean being the worst hit (94% loss since 1970). Among species, fresh water ones have seen the most decline in this period (83%). The Asia-Pacific region that includes India has seen a 55% loss. The causes: habitat degradation and loss, exploitation, the introduction of invasive species, pollution, the climate crisis and disease. WWF India officials said at the launch that most of India's river systems are not free flowing and hence their biodiversity has declined. In 2019, 205 species from India were in the 'endangered', 81 in the 'critically endangered' and 394 in 'vulnerable' category on the 'red list' of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), they added. Globally, only 37% of the rivers longer than 1000 km remain free flowing over the entire length. When some fish species migrate along these swim-ways, the presence of dams and reservoirs pose a threat to their survival.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 14, 2022]

Q. Which of the following organisations released the 'Living Planet Report 2022'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 56 The 'Living Planet Report 2022' is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet. This flagship World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) publication reveals an average decline of 69% in species populations since 1970. While conservation efforts are helping, urgent action is required if we are to reverse nature loss.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 57

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In just over 50 years, there has been a 69% drop in the wildlife population globally, the Living Planet Report 2022 has flagged, with Latin America and the Caribbean being the worst hit (94% loss since 1970). Among species, fresh water ones have seen the most decline in this period (83%). The Asia-Pacific region that includes India has seen a 55% loss. The causes: habitat degradation and loss, exploitation, the introduction of invasive species, pollution, the climate crisis and disease. WWF India officials said at the launch that most of India's river systems are not free flowing and hence their biodiversity has declined. In 2019, 205 species from India were in the 'endangered', 81 in the 'critically endangered' and 394 in 'vulnerable' category on the 'red list' of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), they added. Globally, only 37% of the rivers longer than 1000 km remain free flowing over the entire length. When some fish species migrate along these swim-ways, the presence of dams and reservoirs pose a threat to their survival.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 14, 2022]

Q. In which Indian state was the world's first vulture conservation and breeding centre inaugurated in 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 57 In a major step to check the dwindling population of vultures, the Uttar Pradesh government constructed the world's first vulture conservation and breeding centre in Gorakhpur. It was inaugurated by Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath on September 3, 2022.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 58

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In just over 50 years, there has been a 69% drop in the wildlife population globally, the Living Planet Report 2022 has flagged, with Latin America and the Caribbean being the worst hit (94% loss since 1970). Among species, fresh water ones have seen the most decline in this period (83%). The Asia-Pacific region that includes India has seen a 55% loss. The causes: habitat degradation and loss, exploitation, the introduction of invasive species, pollution, the climate crisis and disease. WWF India officials said at the launch that most of India's river systems are not free flowing and hence their biodiversity has declined. In 2019, 205 species from India were in the 'endangered', 81 in the 'critically endangered' and 394 in 'vulnerable' category on the 'red list' of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), they added. Globally, only 37% of the rivers longer than 1000 km remain free flowing over the entire length. When some fish species migrate along these swim-ways, the presence of dams and reservoirs pose a threat to their survival.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 14, 2022]

Q. When is the 'International Day for Biological Diversity' celebrated?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 58 The United Nations has proclaimed May 22 as 'The International Day for Biological Diversity' (IDB) to increase understanding and awareness of biodiversity issues. When first created by the Second Committee of the UN General Assembly in late 1993, December 29 (the date of entry into force of the Convention of Biological Diversity), was designated 'The International Day for Biological Diversity'. In December 2000, the UN General Assembly adopted May 22 as IDB, to commemorate the adoption of the text of the Convention on May 22, 1992 by the Nairobi Final Act of the Conference for the Adoption of the Agreed Text of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 59

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In just over 50 years, there has been a 69% drop in the wildlife population globally, the Living Planet Report 2022 has flagged, with Latin America and the Caribbean being the worst hit (94% loss since 1970). Among species, fresh water ones have seen the most decline in this period (83%). The Asia-Pacific region that includes India has seen a 55% loss. The causes: habitat degradation and loss, exploitation, the introduction of invasive species, pollution, the climate crisis and disease. WWF India officials said at the launch that most of India's river systems are not free flowing and hence their biodiversity has declined. In 2019, 205 species from India were in the 'endangered', 81 in the 'critically endangered' and 394 in 'vulnerable' category on the 'red list' of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), they added. Globally, only 37% of the rivers longer than 1000 km remain free flowing over the entire length. When some fish species migrate along these swim-ways, the presence of dams and reservoirs pose a threat to their survival.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 14, 2022]

Q. 'Living Planet Report' is released every:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 59 The Living Planet Report is published every 2 years by the World Wide Fund for Nature since 1998. It is based on the Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculations.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 60

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In just over 50 years, there has been a 69% drop in the wildlife population globally, the Living Planet Report 2022 has flagged, with Latin America and the Caribbean being the worst hit (94% loss since 1970). Among species, fresh water ones have seen the most decline in this period (83%). The Asia-Pacific region that includes India has seen a 55% loss. The causes: habitat degradation and loss, exploitation, the introduction of invasive species, pollution, the climate crisis and disease. WWF India officials said at the launch that most of India's river systems are not free flowing and hence their biodiversity has declined. In 2019, 205 species from India were in the 'endangered', 81 in the 'critically endangered' and 394 in 'vulnerable' category on the 'red list' of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), they added. Globally, only 37% of the rivers longer than 1000 km remain free flowing over the entire length. When some fish species migrate along these swim-ways, the presence of dams and reservoirs pose a threat to their survival.

[Source - The Hindustan Times, October 14, 2022]

Q. Which country, in 2022, introduced a plan to halt the extinction of species and change the country's status as 'the mammal extinction capital of the world'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 60 Australia announced a plan to halt the extinction of its native species. The Australian Government is planning on stopping species from going extinct and ending the country's status as 'the mammal extinction capital of the world'. The strategy comes after the 'State of the Environment' report found that Australia has the highest instances of extinction in the world.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 61

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Taking charge as the first non-Gandhi Congress president in 24 years, Mallikarjun Kharge on Wednesday declared that the party will demolish the current regime's system of lies, treachery and hatred and quoted Rahul Gandhi's slogan ' daro mat' as a morale booster for party workers. Passing on the baton, outgoing party chief Sonia Gandhi, who steered the party for over two decades, noted that change is the rule of the world. Today, I will be freed of this responsibility and this weight will be off me and that is why it is natural that I am feeling relieved, she said. Soon after Mr. Kharge formally assumed office, all the existing members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) tendered their resignation to allow the new president to have his own team. In keeping with the provisions of the party constitution, the new Congress chief constituted a 47-member Steering Committee to function until a new CWC is in place. All the previous CWC members, however, have now become members of the Steering Committee. At least half of the new CWC members are expected to be elected. Senior leader Anand Sharma said that even Pradesh Congress Committee (PCC) chiefs to be elected as well.

[Source - The Hindu, October 26, 2022]

Q. Mallikarjun Kharge won the election amassing 7,897 votes compared to 1,072 of:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 61 The 2022 Indian National Congress presidential election was an internal party election that was held to elect the next President of the Indian National Congress. The election was held on October 17, 2022 and counting of votes took place on October 19, 2022. Mallikarjun Kharge won the election amassing 7,897 votes compared to 1,072 of Shashi Tharoor.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 62

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Taking charge as the first non-Gandhi Congress president in 24 years, Mallikarjun Kharge on Wednesday declared that the party will demolish the current regime's system of lies, treachery and hatred and quoted Rahul Gandhi's slogan ' daro mat' as a morale booster for party workers. Passing on the baton, outgoing party chief Sonia Gandhi, who steered the party for over two decades, noted that change is the rule of the world. Today, I will be freed of this responsibility and this weight will be off me and that is why it is natural that I am feeling relieved, she said. Soon after Mr. Kharge formally assumed office, all the existing members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) tendered their resignation to allow the new president to have his own team. In keeping with the provisions of the party constitution, the new Congress chief constituted a 47-member Steering Committee to function until a new CWC is in place. All the previous CWC members, however, have now become members of the Steering Committee. At least half of the new CWC members are expected to be elected. Senior leader Anand Sharma said that even Pradesh Congress Committee (PCC) chiefs to be elected as well.

[Source - The Hindu, October 26, 2022]

Q. When was the Indian National Congress founded?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 62 The Indian National Congress (INC), colloquially the Congress Party but often simply the Congress, is a political party in India with widespread roots. Founded in 1885, it was the first modern nationalist movement to emerge in the British Empire in Asia and Africa. From the late 19th century, and especially after 1920, under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, the Congress became the principal leader of the Indian independence movement. The Congress led India to independence from the United Kingdom, and significantly influenced other anti-colonial nationalist movements in the British Empire. Due to its enduring history, the Congress is often called the "grand old party".
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 63

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Taking charge as the first non-Gandhi Congress president in 24 years, Mallikarjun Kharge on Wednesday declared that the party will demolish the current regime's system of lies, treachery and hatred and quoted Rahul Gandhi's slogan ' daro mat' as a morale booster for party workers. Passing on the baton, outgoing party chief Sonia Gandhi, who steered the party for over two decades, noted that change is the rule of the world. Today, I will be freed of this responsibility and this weight will be off me and that is why it is natural that I am feeling relieved, she said. Soon after Mr. Kharge formally assumed office, all the existing members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) tendered their resignation to allow the new president to have his own team. In keeping with the provisions of the party constitution, the new Congress chief constituted a 47-member Steering Committee to function until a new CWC is in place. All the previous CWC members, however, have now become members of the Steering Committee. At least half of the new CWC members are expected to be elected. Senior leader Anand Sharma said that even Pradesh Congress Committee (PCC) chiefs to be elected as well.

[Source - The Hindu, October 26, 2022]

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Sonia Gandhi is the longest-serving president of the Congress party.

Statement II: INC has led the ruling coalition four times since 1947

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 63 The Congress party is the oldest ruling party of free India. In the 17 general elections since independence, it has won an outright majority on seven occasions and has led the ruling coalition a further three times, heading the central government for more than 54 years. Sonia Gandhi is the longest-serving president of the party till date. She joined the party as a primary member at the 1997 plenary session and was elected president in 1998.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 64

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Taking charge as the first non-Gandhi Congress president in 24 years, Mallikarjun Kharge on Wednesday declared that the party will demolish the current regime's system of lies, treachery and hatred and quoted Rahul Gandhi's slogan ' daro mat' as a morale booster for party workers. Passing on the baton, outgoing party chief Sonia Gandhi, who steered the party for over two decades, noted that change is the rule of the world. Today, I will be freed of this responsibility and this weight will be off me and that is why it is natural that I am feeling relieved, she said. Soon after Mr. Kharge formally assumed office, all the existing members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) tendered their resignation to allow the new president to have his own team. In keeping with the provisions of the party constitution, the new Congress chief constituted a 47-member Steering Committee to function until a new CWC is in place. All the previous CWC members, however, have now become members of the Steering Committee. At least half of the new CWC members are expected to be elected. Senior leader Anand Sharma said that even Pradesh Congress Committee (PCC) chiefs to be elected as well.

[Source - The Hindu, October 26, 2022]

Q. Who founded the Indian National Congress?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 64 Indian National Congress was formed on December 28, 1885, by British civil servant Allan Octavian Hume. It was formed when 72 delegates from all the presidencies and provinces of India met at Bombay from 28 to 30 December, 1885. A. O. Hume played a leading role in the formation of the Congress and acted as its General Secretary. It was set up to bring together a group of educated individuals on a common platform to influence policymaking.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 65

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Taking charge as the first non-Gandhi Congress president in 24 years, Mallikarjun Kharge on Wednesday declared that the party will demolish the current regime's system of lies, treachery and hatred and quoted Rahul Gandhi's slogan ' daro mat' as a morale booster for party workers. Passing on the baton, outgoing party chief Sonia Gandhi, who steered the party for over two decades, noted that change is the rule of the world. Today, I will be freed of this responsibility and this weight will be off me and that is why it is natural that I am feeling relieved, she said. Soon after Mr. Kharge formally assumed office, all the existing members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) tendered their resignation to allow the new president to have his own team. In keeping with the provisions of the party constitution, the new Congress chief constituted a 47-member Steering Committee to function until a new CWC is in place. All the previous CWC members, however, have now become members of the Steering Committee. At least half of the new CWC members are expected to be elected. Senior leader Anand Sharma said that even Pradesh Congress Committee (PCC) chiefs to be elected as well.

[Source - The Hindu, October 26, 2022]

Q. Who, along with Rahul Gandhi, started Bharat Jodo Yatra on 7 September, 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 65 Bharat Jodo Yatra is a mass movement started by the Indian National Congress. It was launched by Rahul Gandhi and Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M. K. Stalin on September 7, 2022. Its main objective is to fight against the 'politics of fear, bigotry and prejudice and the economics of livelihood destruction, increasing unemployment and growing inequalities.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 66

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them.

Q. X & Y were close friends since childhood and both knew each other from skin to bone. X knew that Y was a ferocious horse-rider and out of habit, he tried to take every horse for a stride. X bought a horse and after taking it for rides came to know that the horse had developed an infection on his lower abdomen owing to which hitting it there would make it go wild which could be risky for a rider, particularly for a novice rider. Y, on seeing X's horse, asked X to exchange it for the purpose of a countryside ride with Y's horse. X agreeded to the same. Y, out of habit again took this horse for a stride in the course of which he was hitting it on lower abdomen. The horse got wild and smashed Y on a rock which resulted in hospitalisation of Y. Y filed a claim for damages against X. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 66 It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the known faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. Here it was not mere exchange as bailment is a legal relationship in common law where physical possession but not ownership of personal property, or a chattel, is transferred from one person (the bailor) to another (the bailee) who subsequently has possession of the property. The bailee holds the personal property in trust for a specific purpose and delivers the property back to the bailor when the purpose is accomplished. The purpose here was countryside ride.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 67

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them.

Q. X lends his car to Y, a neighbour, for two days as Y had to go on a marriage. Fuel was filled by Y out of his pocket, out of which some was spared in the car. Also, Y incurred the washing and dry cleaning charges before leaving. As Y entered the street on which X and Y lived, the car was hit by a truck which was being driven rashly. X was not in town that moment so Y took the car for repair and paid for the same. On X's return, Y demanded the repair charges from X. X denied to pay the same as the accident was done by Y, also X in turn demanded money from Y for denting and painting which was still pending which for which Y demanded the charges of remaining fuel, washing and dry cleaning of car. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 67 The bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment but for any extraordinary expenses the bailor is responsible. Here, fuel and cleaning are ordinary expenses which bailee has to bear but repair after accident is extraordinary expense as same could not be ascertained, e.g. A lends his horse to B, a friend, for two days. The feeding charges are to be paid by B. But if the horse meets with an accident, A will have to repay B the medical expenses incurred by B.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 68

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them.

Q. X owned a hatchery. Y brought 20 eggs of duck from a farm and wanted to get them hatched. He also instructed X to hand over the ducklings, when they are a week old, to Y's home. However, only 15 ducklings could survive till a week. X took the ducklings to Y's place on 8th day after they were hatched. Y refused to take the delivery as X was not delivering 20 ducklings and X delayed the delivery by one day. Thereafter, X went to his house. Z, the servant of Y, was witnessing the scene. X approached Z and was told that Y had not been in a good mood for 2 days and was getting annoyed with everyone for no reason. He also assured X that he could take delivery of ducklings and hand over the same to Y, once Y was convinced that X was not at fault. However, X demanded $50 from Z as he knew he would have to take back the ducklings and transportation cost would cost much more to X. Z agreed to the same. In the bill for using services of hatchery, X added $50 which Z agreed to pay to X. Is X justified in adding $50?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 68 It has been mentioned in the passage that if the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor for the necessary expenses of custody/storage.

Here, once the servant accepts the proposal on behalf of his master, the sale is assumed to be completed. After the sale, the seller would become the bailee of the property as he had to take the ducklings back till the next day.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 69

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them.

Q. X, out of gratitude, lent his old motorcycle to Y for four months as Y was very fond of it and wanted the same for road trips. Even though the motorcycle was in operable state, there were concerns regarding its performance during a long drive. Y incurred Rs. 6900 on motorcycle's repair. On returning from a tour after two months, Y had to handover the bike to X as X's son wanted to learn it. Y asked for the amount he spent on repairs. X denied the same. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 69 A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accuring to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. Here X lends the old motorcycle to Y gratuitously for four months, B incurs Rs. 6900 on its repairs. X asked for the return of motorcycle after two months, hence he will have to compensate Y for expenses incurred by Y in excess of the benefit derived by him.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 70

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Contracts of bailment are a special class of contract. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines 'bailment' as 'the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed off according to the directions of the person delivering them'. According to Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, which deals with the duties of bailor, bailors are of two kinds viz. 1) Gratuitous bailor 2) Bailor for reward/consideration. It is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. A gratuitous bailment can be terminated by the bailor at any time even though the bailment was for a specified time or purpose. But in such a case, the loss accruing to the bailee from such premature termination should not exceed the benefit he has derived out of the bailment. If the loss exceeds the benefit, the bailor shall have to indemnify the bailee. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession and, therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. However, the bailee is bound to bear ordinary and reasonable expenses of bailment, but for any extraordinary expenses, the bailor is responsible. It is the duty of the bailor to receive back the goods when the bailee returns them after the expiry of the term of the bailment or when the purpose for which the bailment was created has been accomplished. If the bailor refuses to receive back the goods, the bailee is entitled to receive compensation from the bailor, the necessary expenses of custody/storage. Where the title of the bailor to the goods is defective and the bailee suffers as a consequence, the bailor is responsible to the bailee and may, by reason, sustain that the bailor was not entitled to make bailment, or to receive back the goods, or to give directions respecting them.

Q. X wanted to spend a romantic evening with his fiancee in an old-fashioned manner. For this, he hired a carriage, from Y, who owned cab-hire services, a pair of horses and a driver. During the journey, a bolt in the under-part of the carriage broke, the splinter bar became displaced, the carriage became upset, and X and his fiancee got severely injured. They sued Y for damages. Y pleaded that the defect was not apparent and he was unaware of the same, so he could not make such disclosure and is hence not liable. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 70 As per the passage, it is the first and foremost duty of the bailor to disclose the faults about the goods bailed to the bailee. If he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for any damage caused to the bailee directly from such faults. The duty of a bailor for consideration is much greater. He is making profit from his profession; therefore, it is his duty to see that the goods which he delivers are reasonably safe for the purpose of the bailment. It is no defence for him to say that he was not aware of the defect. Although, a person who lets out carriages is not responsible for all defects discoverable or not; he is not an insurer against all the defects which require care and skill. Yet his duty is to supply a carriage as fit for the purpose for which it is hired as care and skill can render it. As Y runs cab-hire services, he is duty bound to ascertain and reveal the defects if any.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 71

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A condition is essentially the basis for a contract. It provides for the obligations of each party in an agreement. The simplest way to think of a condition in contract law is found in the terms 'If …then'. 'If' one party fulfills an obligation as contained in the agreement, 'then' the other party to the agreement must fulfill their obligation to that party. If the goods do not correspond with the description but such goods are fit for buyer's purpose, even then the buyer may reject the goods and the seller cannot take the defence by saying that the goods will serve the buyer's purpose.

There are two types of conditions that can be found in a contract; Expressed or Implied Conditions. Expressed Conditions are conditions that have been clearly described and agreed upon by both parties to an agreement. If obligations laid forth in an expressed condition are not met, a breach of contract can be determined with liability assessed and damages awarded. Implied Conditions are conditions that are assumed to be accepted by both parties regarding their obligations. These may include conditions that ownership is not in question, the goods are not damaged, or that it is not necessary to provide detailed descriptions of the goods being sold beyond its name.

A warranty is a term in a contract that is more like a promise by one party than a condition agreed upon by both parties. In warranty the buyer should have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods after having the possession of the goods. A major difference is that if a party fails to live up to a warranty, the aggrieved party can sue for damages, but that failure does not provide cause for termination of the contract.

If the other party considers the warranty by one party important enough, then it could be classified as a condition. Generally, however a warranty is usually only a statement of facts. They can be expressed or implied and can be for the lifetime of the contract or be contractual only for a limited time. Express warranties are distinguished from other types of warranties by their specificity. They are specific promises made by a seller either orally or in writing. These promises can include descriptions of items or services, representations of goods in samples or models, and statements of fact. Exaggerated statements or opinions are not considered express warranties.

Q. Meera wants to purchase a printer from Paras, which has a capacity to print minimum of 30 pages/minute. Paras pointed to a particular printer and suggested Meera to buy the same. Meera, after using it at home, finds that the printer could print 20 pages in half a minute. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 71 There is no breach of any sort as the appliance is fully functional.

This doesn't amount to a breach of condition. In this case, the printing of page was a stipulation that was essential to the main purpose of the contract and it is being met as it prints 20 pages in half a minute and amounting to 40 pages/minute.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 72

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A condition is essentially the basis for a contract. It provides for the obligations of each party in an agreement. The simplest way to think of a condition in contract law is found in the terms 'If …then'. 'If' one party fulfills an obligation as contained in the agreement, 'then' the other party to the agreement must fulfill their obligation to that party. If the goods do not correspond with the description but such goods are fit for buyer's purpose, even then the buyer may reject the goods and the seller cannot take the defence by saying that the goods will serve the buyer's purpose.

There are two types of conditions that can be found in a contract; Expressed or Implied Conditions. Expressed Conditions are conditions that have been clearly described and agreed upon by both parties to an agreement. If obligations laid forth in an expressed condition are not met, a breach of contract can be determined with liability assessed and damages awarded. Implied Conditions are conditions that are assumed to be accepted by both parties regarding their obligations. These may include conditions that ownership is not in question, the goods are not damaged, or that it is not necessary to provide detailed descriptions of the goods being sold beyond its name.

A warranty is a term in a contract that is more like a promise by one party than a condition agreed upon by both parties. In warranty the buyer should have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods after having the possession of the goods. A major difference is that if a party fails to live up to a warranty, the aggrieved party can sue for damages, but that failure does not provide cause for termination of the contract.

If the other party considers the warranty by one party important enough, then it could be classified as a condition. Generally, however a warranty is usually only a statement of facts. They can be expressed or implied and can be for the lifetime of the contract or be contractual only for a limited time. Express warranties are distinguished from other types of warranties by their specificity. They are specific promises made by a seller either orally or in writing. These promises can include descriptions of items or services, representations of goods in samples or models, and statements of fact. Exaggerated statements or opinions are not considered express warranties.

Q. Raju told Ram that he is in a need of a phone. Ram suggested Raju that he has a spare phone at home and he could buy it. Raju, trusting on his friend, bought the phone. The phone needed repairs as the screen was broken. Ram invested on it and got it repaired. After a month, it turned out that the phone was stolen and was taken from him and was delivered to the rightful owner. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 72 Raju shall be held responsible for the breach of warranty and Ram is entitled for damages including cost of the phone and repairs. Once the goods are bought they shouldn't be taken away from buyer. This warranty means that the buyer should have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods after having the possession of the goods. If he is disturbed in his possession, he is entitled to sue the seller for breach of the warranty.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 73

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A condition is essentially the basis for a contract. It provides for the obligations of each party in an agreement. The simplest way to think of a condition in contract law is found in the terms 'If …then'. 'If' one party fulfils an obligation as contained in the agreement, 'then' the other party to the agreement must fulfil their obligation to that party. If the goods do not correspond with the description but such goods are fit for buyer's purpose, even then the buyer may reject the goods and the seller cannot take the defence by saying that the goods will serve the buyer's purpose.

There are two types of conditions that can be found in a contract; Expressed or Implied Conditions. Expressed Conditions are conditions that have been clearly described and agreed upon by both parties to an agreement. If obligations laid forth in an expressed condition are not met, a breach of contract can be determined with liability assessed and damages awarded. Implied Conditions are conditions that are assumed to be accepted by both parties regarding their obligations. These may include conditions that ownership is not in question, the goods are not damaged, or that it is not necessary to provide detailed descriptions of the goods being sold beyond its name.

A warranty is a term in a contract that is more like a promise by one party than a condition agreed upon by both parties. In warranty the buyer should have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods after having the possession of the goods. A major difference is that if a party fails to live up to a warranty, the aggrieved party can sue for damages, but that failure does not provide cause for termination of the contract.

If the other party considers the warranty by one party important enough, then it could be classified as a condition. Generally, however a warranty is usually only a statement of facts. They can be expressed or implied and can be for the lifetime of the contract or be contractual only for a limited time. Express warranties are distinguished from other types of warranties by their specificity. They are specific promises made by a seller either orally or in writing. These promises can include descriptions of items or services, representations of goods in samples or models, and statements of fact. Exaggerated statements or opinions are not considered express warranties.

Q. Joy purchased from Riya 100 Kg of Kaju Barfi to be packed in cases, each containing 2 Kg but Riya supplied cases containing 3 Kg of Kaju Barfi. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 73 Joy is entitled to reject the goods as this is a case of implied condition and hence, the goods would be rejected.

The goods do not correspond with the description but such goods are fit for buyer's purpose, even then the buyer may reject the goods and the seller cannot take the defence by saying that the goods will serve the buyer's purpose.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 74

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A condition is essentially the basis for a contract. It provides for the obligations of each party in an agreement. The simplest way to think of a condition in contract law is found in the terms 'If …then'. 'If' one party fulfills an obligation as contained in the agreement, 'then' the other party to the agreement must fulfill their obligation to that party. If the goods do not correspond with the description but such goods are fit for buyer's purpose, even then the buyer may reject the goods and the seller cannot take the defence by saying that the goods will serve the buyer's purpose.

There are two types of conditions that can be found in a contract; Expressed or Implied Conditions. Expressed Conditions are conditions that have been clearly described and agreed upon by both parties to an agreement. If obligations laid forth in an expressed condition are not met, a breach of contract can be determined with liability assessed and damages awarded. Implied Conditions are conditions that are assumed to be accepted by both parties regarding their obligations. These may include conditions that ownership is not in question, the goods are not damaged, or that it is not necessary to provide detailed descriptions of the goods being sold beyond its name.

A warranty is a term in a contract that is more like a promise by one party than a condition agreed upon by both parties. In warranty the buyer should have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods after having the possession of the goods. A major difference is that if a party fails to live up to a warranty, the aggrieved party can sue for damages, but that failure does not provide cause for termination of the contract.

If the other party considers the warranty by one party important enough, then it could be classified as a condition. Generally, however a warranty is usually only a statement of facts. They can be expressed or implied and can be for the lifetime of the contract or be contractual only for a limited time. Express warranties are distinguished from other types of warranties by their specificity. They are specific promises made by a seller either orally or in writing. These promises can include descriptions of items or services, representations of goods in samples or models, and statements of fact. Exaggerated statements or opinions are not considered express warranties.

Q. Jiya buys a microwave which is warranted to provide hassle free baking of cakes and cookies. It turns out after some days that the microwave makes a very unpleasant noise while baking and the cakes and cookies are not cooked properly. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 74 The buyer's only remedy is to claim damages. This is not a breach of the condition but rather a breach of warranty, because the stipulation made by the seller was only a collateral one.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 75

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A condition is essentially the basis for a contract. It provides for the obligations of each party in an agreement. The simplest way to think of a condition in contract law is found in the terms 'If …then'. 'If' one party fulfills an obligation as contained in the agreement, 'then' the other party to the agreement must fulfill their obligation to that party. If the goods do not correspond with the description but such goods are fit for buyer's purpose, even then the buyer may reject the goods and the seller cannot take the defence by saying that the goods will serve the buyer's purpose.

There are two types of conditions that can be found in a contract; Expressed or Implied Conditions. Expressed Conditions are conditions that have been clearly described and agreed upon by both parties to an agreement. If obligations laid forth in an expressed condition are not met, a breach of contract can be determined with liability assessed and damages awarded. Implied Conditions are conditions that are assumed to be accepted by both parties regarding their obligations. These may include conditions that ownership is not in question, the goods are not damaged, or that it is not necessary to provide detailed descriptions of the goods being sold beyond its name.

A warranty is a term in a contract that is more like a promise by one party than a condition agreed upon by both parties. In warranty the buyer should have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods after having the possession of the goods. A major difference is that if a party fails to live up to a warranty, the aggrieved party can sue for damages, but that failure does not provide cause for termination of the contract.

If the other party considers the warranty by one party important enough, then it could be classified as a condition. Generally, however a warranty is usually only a statement of facts. They can be expressed or implied and can be for the lifetime of the contract or be contractual only for a limited time. Express warranties are distinguished from other types of warranties by their specificity. They are specific promises made by a seller either orally or in writing. These promises can include descriptions of items or services, representations of goods in samples or models, and statements of fact. Exaggerated statements or opinions are not considered express warranties.

Q. An advertisement for a pen ABC Ltd. says, "These are the world's smoothest pens you'll ever own". After watching this advertisement, Akash buys the pen. After using the pen, Akash realises that his already owned pen is much smoother. He filed a suit against the pen manufacturers to claim damages. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 75 Exaggerated statements or opinions are not considered express warranties. Akash cannot hold the seller to that proclamation because it is an opinion and not an express warranty.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 76

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Part XIII of Constitution contains provisions relating to the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse within the territory of India. Just as the Legislature cannot take away individual freedom of trade, the individual cannot barter it away by an agreement.

S. 27 of Contract Act says Agreement in restraint of trade is void, i.e. every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is void. The main reason behind this section is that agreements of restraint are unfair and unjustified as they impose an undue restriction on the personal freedom of a contracting party.

There is exception, if a party sells his goodwill to another, he can agree with the buyer that he will not carry on a similar business within the specified local limits.

As per S. 11 Partnership Act, partners during the continuance of the firm to restrict none of them shall carry on any other business than that of the firm and S. 36 of this Act, is related to restrain an outgoing partner from carrying on a similar business within the specified period and specified local limits. The agreement should specify the local limits or the period of restraint, and restrictions imposed must be reasonable.

Agreement of service containing negative covenants is for preventing the employee from working anywhere during period covered by the agreement. Now, trade secrets are main contention for negative covenants. Employer wants to protect his trade secrets because of that employment agreement with negative covenants are generally used. Agreements for protection of confidentiality and trade secrets are not one sided or unfair or unreasonable. Any breach of such clauses on the part of employee can be treated as misconduct.

As per Indian laws, any agreement which is related to restraint of trade and profession shall not be binding on the parties and the same shall be null and void. By using the term void ab initio, it has shown that it has kept such non-compete clause in the agreements beyond consideration. Indian courts have also consistently refused to enforce post termination non-compete clauses in employment contracts as 'restraint of trade' is impermissible under S. 27 of Contract Act, and have held them as void and against the public policy because of their potential to deprive an individual of his or her fundamental right to earn a living.

Q. Mohan and Rohan used to carry a tempo traveller service in XYZ city. They both arrived at a business settlement whereby Mohan promised to pay a certain amount to Rohan in order that Rohan would abstain from carrying on tempo for a period of 6 months. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 76 The agreement is void as the restraining covenant was a vital part of the agreement and did not fall under the goodwill exception to section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Moreover, he is completely restrained from pursuing the business.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 77

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Part XIII of Constitution contains provisions relating to the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse within the territory of India. Just as the Legislature cannot take away individual freedom of trade, the individual cannot barter it away by an agreement.

S. 27 of Contract Act says Agreement in restraint of trade is void, i.e. every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is void. The main reason behind this section is that agreements of restraint are unfair and unjustified as they impose an undue restriction on the personal freedom of a contracting party.

There is exception, if a party sells his goodwill to another, he can agree with the buyer that he will not carry on a similar business within the specified local limits.

As per S. 11 Partnership Act, partners during the continuance of the firm to restrict none of them shall carry on any other business than that of the firm and S. 36 of this Act, is related to restrain an outgoing partner from carrying on a similar business within the specified period and specified local limits. The agreement should specify the local limits or the period of restraint, and restrictions imposed must be reasonable.

Agreement of service containing negative covenants is for preventing the employee from working anywhere during period covered by the agreement. Now, trade secrets are main contention for negative covenants. Employer wants to protect his trade secrets because of that employment agreement with negative covenants are generally used. Agreements for protection of confidentiality and trade secrets are not one sided or unfair or unreasonable. Any breach of such clauses on the part of employee can be treated as misconduct.

As per Indian laws, any agreement which is related to restraint of trade and profession shall not be binding on the parties and the same shall be null and void. By using the term void ab initio, it has shown that it has kept such non-compete clause in the agreements beyond consideration. Indian courts have also consistently refused to enforce post termination non-compete clauses in employment contracts as 'restraint of trade' is impermissible under S. 27 of Contract Act, and have held them as void and against the public policy because of their potential to deprive an individual of his or her fundamental right to earn a living.

Q. DUST, a UK based Artificial Intelligence company, offered a collaboration to India based SYX company to design an interface programme for DUST on the condition that the company shall maintain secrecy of all the technical information from its employees. The project manager was appointed for a period of five years, the condition being that during this period, he shall not serve anywhere else even if he left the service earlier. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 77 The passage includes that agreements for protection of confidentiality and trade secrets are not one sided or unfair or unreasonable. Any breach of such clauses on the part of employee can be treated as misconduct. Therefore, agreement is to be considered as valid as the project manger was restrained from serving anywhere else during the time of the agreement.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 78

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Part XIII of Constitution contains provisions relating to the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse within the territory of India. Just as the Legislature cannot take away individual freedom of trade, the individual cannot barter it away by an agreement.

S. 27 of Contract Act says Agreement in restraint of trade is void, i.e. every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is void. The main reason behind this section is that agreements of restraint are unfair and unjustified as they impose an undue restriction on the personal freedom of a contracting party.

There is exception, if a party sells his goodwill to another, he can agree with the buyer that he will not carry on a similar business within the specified local limits.

As per S. 11 Partnership Act, partners during the continuance of the firm to restrict none of them shall carry on any other business than that of the firm and S. 36 of this Act, is related to restrain an outgoing partner from carrying on a similar business within the specified period and specified local limits. The agreement should specify the local limits or the period of restraint, and restrictions imposed must be reasonable.

Agreement of service containing negative covenants is for preventing the employee from working anywhere during period covered by the agreement. Now, trade secrets are main contention for negative covenants. Employer wants to protect his trade secrets because of that employment agreement with negative covenants are generally used. Agreements for protection of confidentiality and trade secrets are not one sided or unfair or unreasonable. Any breach of such clauses on the part of employee can be treated as misconduct.

As per Indian laws, any agreement which is related to restraint of trade and profession shall not be binding on the parties and the same shall be null and void. By using the term void ab initio, it has shown that it has kept such non-compete clause in the agreements beyond consideration. Indian courts have also consistently refused to enforce post termination non-compete clauses in employment contracts as 'restraint of trade' is impermissible under S. 27 of Contract Act, and have held them as void and against the public policy because of their potential to deprive an individual of his or her fundamental right to earn a living.

Q. Archit sells his leading clothing franchise of India to Maya. Archit and Maya signed an agreement stating that Archit won't open another clothing store for the next 10 years. Is the agreement valid?

None of the above

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 78 This is not a valid agreement since the time of restrain is unreasonable. An agreement in restraint of trade should have reasonable terms. While 10 years is not a short time, the terms are not reasonable So, this will be one of the void agreements.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 79

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Part XIII of Constitution contains provisions relating to the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse within the territory of India. Just as the Legislature cannot take away individual freedom of trade, the individual cannot barter it away by an agreement.

S. 27 of Contract Act says Agreement in restraint of trade is void, i.e. every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is void. The main reason behind this section is that agreements of restraint are unfair and unjustified as they impose an undue restriction on the personal freedom of a contracting party.

There is an exception, if a party sells his goodwill to another, he can agree with the buyer that he will not carry on a similar business within the specified local limits.

As per S. 11 Partnership Act, partners during the continuance of the firm to restrict none of them shall carry on any other business than that of the firm and S. 36 of this Act, is related to restrain an outgoing partner from carrying on a similar business within the specified period and specified local limits. The agreement should specify the local limits or the period of restraint, and restrictions imposed must be reasonable.

Agreement of service containing negative covenants is for preventing the employee from working anywhere during period covered by the agreement. Now, trade secrets are main contention for negative covenants. Employer wants to protect his trade secrets because of that employment agreement with negative covenants are generally used. Agreements for protection of confidentiality and trade secrets are not one sided or unfair or unreasonable. Any breach of such clauses on the part of employee can be treated as misconduct.

As per Indian laws, any agreement which is related to restraint of trade and profession shall not be binding on the parties and the same shall be null and void. By using the term void ab initio, it has shown that it has kept such non-compete clause in the agreements beyond consideration. Indian courts have also consistently refused to enforce post termination non-compete clauses in employment contracts as 'restraint of trade' is impermissible under S. 27 of Contract Act, and have held them as void and against the public policy because of their potential to deprive an individual of his or her fundamental right to earn a living.

Q. Joe and Zee are in partnership, owning four factories of thermal paste used in CPU building. The factory owners, constituting a partnership, agreed that the factories will be working alternately, one at a time and the profits would be distributed among them. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 79 The trade restriction is valid as it has been done under the ambit of partnership deed.

According to Section 11 of the Partnership Act, 1932, partners during the continuance of the firm to restrict none of them shall carry on any other business than that of the firm.

The restriction imposed must be reasonable. Here in this case, reasonable restriction has been imposed.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 80

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Part XIII of Constitution contains provisions relating to the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse within the territory of India. Just as the Legislature cannot take away individual freedom of trade, the individual cannot barter it away by an agreement.

S. 27 of Contract Act says Agreement in restraint of trade is void, i.e. every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is void. The main reason behind this section is that agreements of restraint are unfair and unjustified as they impose an undue restriction on the personal freedom of a contracting party.

There is exception, if a party sells his goodwill to another, he can agree with the buyer that he will not carry on a similar business within the specified local limits.

As per S. 11 Partnership Act, partners during the continuance of the firm to restrict none of them shall carry on any other business than that of the firm and S. 36 of this Act, is related to restrain an outgoing partner from carrying on a similar business within the specified period and specified local limits. The agreement should specify the local limits or the period of restraint, and restrictions imposed must be reasonable.

Agreement of service containing negative covenants is for preventing the employee from working anywhere during period covered by the agreement. Now, trade secrets are main contention for negative covenants. Employer wants to protect his trade secrets because of that employment agreement with negative covenants are generally used. Agreements for protection of confidentiality and trade secrets are not one sided or unfair or unreasonable. Any breach of such clauses on the part of employee can be treated as misconduct.

As per Indian laws, any agreement which is related to restraint of trade and profession shall not be binding on the parties and the same shall be null and void. By using the term void ab initio, it has shown that it has kept such non-compete clause in the agreements beyond consideration. Indian courts have also consistently refused to enforce post termination non-compete clauses in employment contracts as 'restraint of trade' is impermissible under S. 27 of Contract Act, and have held them as void and against the public policy because of their potential to deprive an individual of his or her fundamental right to earn a living.

Q. Aman, a wholesale dealer in rice, enters into an agreement with Bishal that he would not sell rice beyond a radius of one mile of his godown.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 80 This is a valid agreement since the place of carrying on business (a restraint) is specified. An agreement, in restraint of trade, should have reasonable terms. Restriction of one mile would be termed as reasonable. Hence, it is valid.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 81

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws in the Territory of India. Article 14 uses two expressions 'equality before law', which implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of individuals and the subject of all classes to the ordinary law, and 'equal protection of the law,' which implies equal treatment in equal circumstances.

'Equality before law' means that among equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and be prosecuted for the same kind of action should be same for all. Article 14 permits classification but prohibits class legislation. Class legislation is that which makes an improper discrimination by conferring particular privileges upon a class of person arbitrarily selected from a large number of persons. Article 14 does not forbid reasonable classification of persons for the purpose of achieving specific ends, but the classification should be reasonable.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India states:

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth–

1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, place of residence or any of them.

2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to:

(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or

(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public,

3. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.

4. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India is accessible to citizens of India only. Article 15 directs that the State will not oppress any subject on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them. Any law separating or discriminating on at least one on these grounds would be void. Segregation dependent on at least one of these grounds and furthermore on different ground or grounds won't be influenced by Article 15(1).

Q. A citizen of the US wants to sue a restaurant which did not allow him to enter the restaurant. He wants to sue this restaurant by availing the right conferred by Article 15. Can he succeed in his action?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 81 In the passage, it has been stated that Article 15 is specifically for Indian citizens and not foreigners. Hence, his action won't be successful.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 82

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws in the Territory of India. Article 14 uses two expressions 'equality before law', which implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of individuals and the subject of all classes to the ordinary law, and 'equal protection of the law,' which implies equal treatment in equal circumstances.

'Equality before law' means that among equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and be prosecuted for the same kind of action should be same for all. Article 14 permits classification but prohibits class legislation. Class legislation is that which makes an improper discrimination by conferring particular privileges upon a class of person arbitrarily selected from a large number of persons. Article 14 does not forbid reasonable classification of persons for the purpose of achieving specific ends, but the classification should be reasonable.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India states:

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth–

1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, place of residence or any of them.

2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to:

(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or

(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public,

3. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.

4. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India is accessible to citizens of India only. Article 15 directs that the State will not oppress any subject on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them. Any law separating or discriminating on at least one on these grounds would be void. Segregation dependent on at least one of these grounds and furthermore on different ground or grounds won't be influenced by Article 15(1).

Q. The government of India passes legislation wherein women are given reservations in private jobs. Is this legislation valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 82 Article 15 clearly states that nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children. Hence, the legislation is valid, i.e. no Article is violated.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 83

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws in the Territory of India. Article 14 uses two expressions 'equality before law', which implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of individuals and the subject of all classes to the ordinary law, and 'equal protection of the law,' which implies equal treatment in equal circumstances.

'Equality before law' means that among equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and be prosecuted for the same kind of action should be same for all. Article 14 permits classification but prohibits class legislation. Class legislation is that which makes an improper discrimination by conferring particular privileges upon a class of person arbitrarily selected from a large number of persons. Article 14 does not forbid reasonable classification of persons for the purpose of achieving specific ends, but the classification should be reasonable.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India states:

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth–

1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, place of residence or any of them.

2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to:

(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or

(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public,

3. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.

4. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India is accessible to citizens of India only. Article 15 directs that the State will not oppress any subject on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them. Any law separating or discriminating on at least one on these grounds would be void. Segregation dependent on at least one of these grounds and furthermore on different ground or grounds won't be influenced by Article 15(1).

Q. X opens a cafe in Shimla. Here, he only employs blind persons as waiters. Can this be regarded as a violation of Article 15 of visually correct persons?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 83 Article 15 doesn't classify the given case to be discriminatory as it directs that the State will not oppress any subject on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them. Hence, there is no discrimination or violation of Article 15 of the persons who feel that it's violative of their rights.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 84

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws in the Territory of India. Article 14 uses two expressions 'equality before law', which implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of individuals and the subject of all classes to the ordinary law, and 'equal protection of the law,' which implies equal treatment in equal circumstances.

'Equality before law' means that among equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and be prosecuted for the same kind of action should be same for all. Article 14 permits classification but prohibits class legislation. Class legislation is that which makes an improper discrimination by conferring particular privileges upon a class of person arbitrarily selected from a large number of persons. Article 14 does not forbid reasonable classification of persons for the purpose of achieving specific ends, but the classification should be reasonable.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India states:

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth–

1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, place of residence or any of them.

2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to:

(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or

(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public,

3. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.

4. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India is accessible to citizens of India only. Article 15 directs that the State will not oppress any subject on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them. Any law separating or discriminating on at least one on these grounds would be void. Segregation dependent on at least one of these grounds and furthermore on different ground or grounds won't be influenced by Article 15(1).

Q. X, a foreigner, gets robbed by Y. Y gets caught, and courtroom trial takes place. The court acquits Y by stating that X cannot claim rights under the Indian Penal Code. Is the court's decision valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 84 In the passage, it has been stated that the right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and be prosecuted for the same kind of action should be the same for all. Hence, the court's decision is not valid.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 85

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws in the Territory of India. Article 14 uses two expressions 'equality before law', which implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of individuals and the subject of all classes to the ordinary law, and 'equal protection of the law,' which implies equal treatment in equal circumstances.

'Equality before law' means that among equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and be prosecuted for the same kind of action should be same for all. Article 14 permits classification but prohibits class legislation. Class legislation is that which makes an improper discrimination by conferring particular privileges upon a class of person arbitrarily selected from a large number of persons. Article 14 does not forbid reasonable classification of persons for the purpose of achieving specific ends, but the classification should be reasonable.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India states:

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth–

1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, place of residence or any of them.

2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to:

(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or

(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public,

3. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.

4. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India is accessible to citizens of India only. Article 15 directs that the State will not oppress any subject on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them. Any law separating or discriminating on at least one on these grounds would be void. Segregation dependent on at least one of these grounds and furthermore on different ground or grounds won't be influenced by Article 15(1).

Q. X is a citizen of India living in the US. X wants to start a business in India, but isn't granted a licence as he is living in the US. At the same time, Y, a citizen of India living in Canada, gets the same licence. X wants to take legal action. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 85 The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, place of residence or any of them. The licence was rejected to X but the same was given to Y; this shows discrimination. Hence, it is violating Article 15.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 86

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Agreement without consideration is void, unless it is in writing and registered, or it is a promise to compensate for something done, or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

The Contract Act was the first law to be placed in India which expressly made any such agreement, which in its effect would result in restraining the liberty of either of the parties to marry as per their wish, void. The fundamental idea behind this provision was to ensure that the citizens did not lose their right to marry as per their choice, which is an essential part of a civil society having both personal and social significance, due to some contractual obligation entered into at any point of time.

Any agreement between the two parties that debars either or both of them from going to a court of law in case of non-compliance of the contract, is a void agreement. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act says that any agreement that restricts an aggrieved party from enforcing his rights to approach a relevant court or tribunal in case of a breach of contract, or limits the time within which he may do so, is a void agreement. There are two exceptions to Section 28, i.e. a future dispute or a past dispute can be referred to arbitration and an agreement stating the limit of time as per the Limitation Act, 1963.

An agreement may be uncertain either because the terms in it are ambiguous or vague or because it is incomplete. The general rule is that if the terms of an agreement are vague or indefinite which cannot be ascertained with reasonable certainty of the intention of the parties, then there is no contract enforceable by law.

The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30.

Q. Amir finds Riya's wallet and returns it to her. Riya promises to give Amir Rs. 500 as a reward. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 86 As stated in the passage, agreement without consideration is void, unless it is in writing and registered, or it is a promise to compensate for something done, or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation.

Therefore, it is a valid contract.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 87

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Agreement without consideration is void, unless it is in writing and registered, or it is a promise to compensate for something done, or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

The Contract Act was the first law to be placed in India which expressly made any such agreement, which in its effect would result in restraining the liberty of either of the parties to marry as per their wish, void. The fundamental idea behind this provision was to ensure that the citizens did not lose their right to marry as per their choice, which is an essential part of a civil society having both personal and social significance, due to some contractual obligation entered into at any point of time.

Any agreement between the two parties that debars either or both of them from going to a court of law in case of non-compliance of the contract, is a void agreement. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act says that any agreement that restricts an aggrieved party from enforcing his rights to approach a relevant court or tribunal in case of a breach of contract, or limits the time within which he may do so, is a void agreement. There are two exceptions to Section 28, i.e. a future dispute or a past dispute can be referred to arbitration and an agreement stating the limit of time as per the Limitation Act, 1963.

An agreement may be uncertain either because the terms in it are ambiguous or vague or because it is incomplete. The general rule is that if the terms of an agreement are vague or indefinite which cannot be ascertained with reasonable certainty of the intention of the parties, then there is no contract enforceable by law.

The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30.

Q. A and B entered into a contract of processing 200 kg of supreme quality of cotton which would be used to produce yarn in B's factory stating that if any default occurred, the dispute won't be taken to court; rather arbitration route will be followed. A did a default by processing of a lower quality of cotton. B filed a suit stating that his legal rights have been denied. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 87 The contract is valid as any dispute would be solved through arbitration as they had mentioned in the contract.

As mentioned above, there are two exceptions to Section 28, i.e. a future dispute or a past dispute can be referred to arbitration and an agreement stating the limit of time as per the Limitation Act, 1963.

Therefore, it is a valid contract.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 88

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Agreement without consideration is void, unless it is in writing and registered, or it is a promise to compensate for something done, or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

The Contract Act was the first law to be placed in India which expressly made any such agreement, which in its effect would result in restraining the liberty of either of the parties to marry as per their wish, void. The fundamental idea behind this provision was to ensure that the citizens did not lose their right to marry as per their choice, which is an essential part of a civil society having both personal and social significance, due to some contractual obligation entered into at any point of time.

Any agreement between the two parties that debars either or both of them from going to a court of law in case of non-compliance of the contract, is a void agreement. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act says that any agreement that restricts an aggrieved party from enforcing his rights to approach a relevant court or tribunal in case of a breach of contract, or limits the time within which he may do so, is a void agreement. There are two exceptions to Section 28, i.e. a future dispute or a past dispute can be referred to arbitration and an agreement stating the limit of time as per the Limitation Act, 1963.

An agreement may be uncertain either because the terms in it are ambiguous or vague or because it is incomplete. The general rule is that if the terms of an agreement are vague or indefinite which cannot be ascertained with reasonable certainty of the intention of the parties, then there is no contract enforceable by law.

The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30.

Q. A coach and a student agree with each other that if the student wins his national finals, the coach will pay Rs. 5000 to the student and if he is unable to do so, the student will pay the coach Rs. 10,000. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 88 Such an agreement is a wagering agreement and is not enforceable by law.

It has been stated that the Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 89

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Agreement without consideration is void, unless it is in writing and registered, or it is a promise to compensate for something done, or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

The Contract Act was the first law to be placed in India which expressly made any such agreement, which in its effect would result in restraining the liberty of either of the parties to marry as per their wish, void. The fundamental idea behind this provision was to ensure that the citizens did not lose their right to marry as per their choice, which is an essential part of a civil society having both personal and social significance, due to some contractual obligation entered into at any point of time.

Any agreement between the two parties that debars either or both of them from going to a court of law in case of non-compliance of the contract, is a void agreement. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act says that any agreement that restricts an aggrieved party from enforcing his rights to approach a relevant court or tribunal in case of a breach of contract, or limits the time within which he may do so, is a void agreement. There are two exceptions to Section 28, i.e. a future dispute or a past dispute can be referred to arbitration and an agreement stating the limit of time as per the Limitation Act, 1963.

An agreement may be uncertain either because the terms in it are ambiguous or vague or because it is incomplete. The general rule is that if the terms of an agreement are vague or indefinite which cannot be ascertained with reasonable certainty of the intention of the parties, then there is no contract enforceable by law.

The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30.

Q. Gopi entered into a promise under seal that Geeta will marry no one and she agreed to a penalty of paying him Rs. 1,00,000 within three months of marrying anyone else. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 89 Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 90

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Agreement without consideration is void, unless it is in writing and registered, or it is a promise to compensate for something done, or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

The Contract Act was the first law to be placed in India which expressly made any such agreement, which in its effect would result in restraining the liberty of either of the parties to marry as per their wish, void. The fundamental idea behind this provision was to ensure that the citizens did not lose their right to marry as per their choice, which is an essential part of a civil society having both personal and social significance, due to some contractual obligation entered into at any point of time.

Any agreement between the two parties that debars either or both of them from going to a court of law in case of non-compliance of the contract, is a void agreement. Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act says that any agreement that restricts an aggrieved party from enforcing his rights to approach a relevant court or tribunal in case of a breach of contract, or limits the time within which he may do so, is a void agreement. There are two exceptions to Section 28, i.e. a future dispute or a past dispute can be referred to arbitration and an agreement stating the limit of time as per the Limitation Act, 1963.

An agreement may be uncertain either because the terms in it are ambiguous or vague or because it is incomplete. The general rule is that if the terms of an agreement are vague or indefinite which cannot be ascertained with reasonable certainty of the intention of the parties, then there is no contract enforceable by law.

The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30.

Q. Shriya signs a contract to sell to Jaya 5 sets of ornaments for 5 lakhs. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 90 This is a void contract since the type of ornament is not mentioned. However, if Shriya had exclusively mentioned 'Gold' ornaments, then the agreement would have been valid because the meaning would then be certain.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 91

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court delivered its judgement in the Central Vista case last month. By a majority of 2 : 1, the Supreme Court upheld the project in its entirety. The majority judgement reveals blind spots in the reasoning and several instances of blinders being put on. In the writ petitions challenging the environmental clearances, the judgement found the project environmentally sound and upheld the clearances. The court was satisfied with the mitigation measures identified by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD), the project proponent. It added that so long as the trees are protected and the pollution levels are controlled by installing permanent smog towers, the 'environment is not a hurdle for development'.

Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification (2006), talks about the disclosure of the information in Form 1/Form 1-A in the application for clearance. The information disclosed must be honest and complete to assess the real environmental impact. When this information is false or misrepresented, the basis of the exercise is compromised. This is why the EIA Notification mandates revocation of a clearance granted on the basis of false and misrepresented information. Fundamental to the principle of the 'Environmental Rule of Law' is the principle of 'non-regression' that requires that the state does not allow further environmental deterioration unless 'strong justifications for a retrogressive measure are provided'. In the context of International environmental law, 'the principle of non-regression prohibits any recession of environmental law or existing levels of environmental protection and comprises its protective norms in the category of non-revocable and intangible legal rules, in the common interest of humanity.'

The court observed that in matters of planning and development, the government has the sole prerogative regarding the nature, expanse, and timeline of development work. The environment and development are not sworn enemies. The environment cannot be a hurdle for development and a balance between the two is required by implementing mitigation measures. The objective of environmental law is not pollution mitigation alone. This is urgent, but only one part of the agenda. Environmental issues cannot be addressed by an approach that allows polluting activities and then suggests minimal mitigation measures to address unmeasured environmental consequences. The law and the state of the environment demand more ambition from the court and the decision makers in the country.

Q. A metro project was planned between Pune and Mumbai by the government, but the same was opposed by several environment activists and it caused a huge uproar in national media. The matter went to court, and the court upheld the construction of the project. What could be the reason for the same?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 91 The court upheld the project; hence, it must have weighed the environmental consequence with the development aspect. Both go hand in hand with the need of the future generation.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 92

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court delivered its judgement in the Central Vista case last month. By a majority of 2 : 1, the Supreme Court upheld the project in its entirety. The majority judgement reveals blind spots in the reasoning and several instances of blinders being put on. In the writ petitions challenging the environmental clearances, the judgement found the project environmentally sound and upheld the clearances. The court was satisfied with the mitigation measures identified by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD), the project proponent. It added that so long as the trees are protected and the pollution levels are controlled by installing permanent smog towers, the 'environment is not a hurdle for development'.

Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification (2006), talks about the disclosure of the information in Form 1/Form 1-A in the application for clearance. The information disclosed must be honest and complete to assess the real environmental impact. When this information is false or misrepresented, the basis of the exercise is compromised. This is why the EIA Notification mandates revocation of a clearance granted on the basis of false and misrepresented information. Fundamental to the principle of the 'Environmental Rule of Law' is the principle of 'non-regression' that requires that the state does not allow further environmental deterioration unless 'strong justifications for a retrogressive measure are provided'. In the context of International environmental law, 'the principle of non-regression prohibits any recession of environmental law or existing levels of environmental protection and comprises its protective norms in the category of non-revocable and intangible legal rules, in the common interest of humanity.'

The court observed that in matters of planning and development, the government has the sole prerogative regarding the nature, expanse, and timeline of development work. The environment and development are not sworn enemies. The environment cannot be a hurdle for development and a balance between the two is required by implementing mitigation measures. The objective of environmental law is not pollution mitigation alone. This is urgent, but only one part of the agenda. Environmental issues cannot be addressed by an approach that allows polluting activities and then suggests minimal mitigation measures to address unmeasured environmental consequences. The law and the state of the environment demand more ambition from the court and the decision makers in the country.

Q. As long as the trees are protected and the pollution levels are controlled by installing permanent smog towers, the environment is not a hurdle for development. Imagine a situation that a person planned to start an industry in a residential area, but he assured that the resulting pollution would be taken care of by the instalment of smog towers and a new plantation of the tree would be done. Can he be allowed to start the industry in that area?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 92 The passage is silent about the residential area and other aspects which are given in the factual scenario.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 93

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court delivered its judgement in the Central Vista case last month. By a majority of 2 : 1, the Supreme Court upheld the project in its entirety. The majority judgement reveals blind spots in the reasoning and several instances of blinders being put on. In the writ petitions challenging the environmental clearances, the judgement found the project environmentally sound and upheld the clearances. The court was satisfied with the mitigation measures identified by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD), the project proponent. It added that so long as the trees are protected and the pollution levels are controlled by installing permanent smog towers, the 'environment is not a hurdle for development'.

Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification (2006), talks about the disclosure of the information in Form 1/Form 1-A in the application for clearance. The information disclosed must be honest and complete to assess the real environmental impact. When this information is false or misrepresented, the basis of the exercise is compromised. This is why the EIA Notification mandates revocation of a clearance granted on the basis of false and misrepresented information. Fundamental to the principle of the 'Environmental Rule of Law' is the principle of 'non-regression' that requires that the state does not allow further environmental deterioration unless 'strong justifications for a retrogressive measure are provided'. In the context of International environmental law, 'the principle of non-regression prohibits any recession of environmental law or existing levels of environmental protection and comprises its protective norms in the category of non-revocable and intangible legal rules, in the common interest of humanity.'

The court observed that in matters of planning and development, the government has the sole prerogative regarding the nature, expanse, and timeline of development work. The environment and development are not sworn enemies. The environment cannot be a hurdle for development and a balance between the two is required by implementing mitigation measures. The objective of environmental law is not pollution mitigation alone. This is urgent, but only one part of the agenda. Environmental issues cannot be addressed by an approach that allows polluting activities and then suggests minimal mitigation measures to address unmeasured environmental consequences. The law and the state of the environment demand more ambition from the court and the decision makers in the country.

Q. As per your reading, what is the main aim of the author of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 93 As per reading of the passage, the main intention which appears from the author side is one to criticise the Central Vista project judgement and another one is highlighting the blindspot of the Supreme Court in cases related to environmental law.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 94

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court delivered its judgement in the Central Vista case last month. By a majority of 2 : 1, the Supreme Court upheld the project in its entirety. The majority judgement reveals blind spots in the reasoning and several instances of blinders being put on. In the writ petitions challenging the environmental clearances, the judgement found the project environmentally sound and upheld the clearances. The court was satisfied with the mitigation measures identified by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD), the project proponent. It added that so long as the trees are protected and the pollution levels are controlled by installing permanent smog towers, the 'environment is not a hurdle for development'.

Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification (2006), talks about the disclosure of the information in Form 1/Form 1-A in the application for clearance. The information disclosed must be honest and complete to assess the real environmental impact. When this information is false or misrepresented, the basis of the exercise is compromised. This is why the EIA Notification mandates revocation of a clearance granted on the basis of false and misrepresented information. Fundamental to the principle of the 'Environmental Rule of Law' is the principle of 'non-regression' that requires that the state does not allow further environmental deterioration unless 'strong justifications for a retrogressive measure are provided'. In the context of International environmental law, 'the principle of non-regression prohibits any recession of environmental law or existing levels of environmental protection and comprises its protective norms in the category of non-revocable and intangible legal rules, in the common interest of humanity.'

The court observed that in matters of planning and development, the government has the sole prerogative regarding the nature, expanse, and timeline of development work. The environment and development are not sworn enemies. The environment cannot be a hurdle for development and a balance between the two is required by implementing mitigation measures. The objective of environmental law is not pollution mitigation alone. This is urgent, but only one part of the agenda. Environmental issues cannot be addressed by an approach that allows polluting activities and then suggests minimal mitigation measures to address unmeasured environmental consequences. The law and the state of the environment demand more ambition from the court and the decision makers in the country.

Q. A person got the clearance under 2006 notification, by disclosing that his industrial plant will provide job to 50 thousand people and the impact on the environment would be very less, and same will be mitigated by various measures as shown in the submitted study of the environmental impact of the said location. Later on, after the construction, it turns out that the said study was false. Can the clearance granted be revoked? If yes, why?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 94 The passage provides that EIA Notification mandates revocation of a clearance granted on the basis of false and misrepresented information.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 95

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Supreme Court delivered its judgement in the Central Vista case last month. By a majority of 2 : 1, the Supreme Court upheld the project in its entirety. The majority judgement reveals blind spots in the reasoning and several instances of blinders being put on. In the writ petitions challenging the environmental clearances, the judgement found the project environmentally sound and upheld the clearances. The court was satisfied with the mitigation measures identified by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD), the project proponent. It added that so long as the trees are protected and the pollution levels are controlled by installing permanent smog towers, the 'environment is not a hurdle for development'.

Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification (2006), talks about the disclosure of the information in Form 1/Form 1-A in the application for clearance. The information disclosed must be honest and complete to assess the real environmental impact. When this information is false or misrepresented, the basis of the exercise is compromised. This is why the EIA Notification mandates revocation of a clearance granted on the basis of false and misrepresented information. Fundamental to the principle of the 'Environmental Rule of Law' is the principle of 'non-regression' that requires that the state does not allow further environmental deterioration unless 'strong justifications for a retrogressive measure are provided'. In the context of International environmental law, 'the principle of non-regression prohibits any recession of environmental law or existing levels of environmental protection and comprises its protective norms in the category of non-revocable and intangible legal rules, in the common interest of humanity.'

The court observed that in matters of planning and development, the government has the sole prerogative regarding the nature, expanse, and timeline of development work. The environment and development are not sworn enemies. The environment cannot be a hurdle for development and a balance between the two is required by implementing mitigation measures. The objective of environmental law is not pollution mitigation alone. This is urgent, but only one part of the agenda. Environmental issues cannot be addressed by an approach that allows polluting activities and then suggests minimal mitigation measures to address unmeasured environmental consequences. The law and the state of the environment demand more ambition from the court and the decision makers in the country.

Q. The government was planning to demolish an ancient structure in the city of Delhi by citing the danger it poses to a residential building that surrounds the area and also the visitors around it. Taking into account the principle of 'non-regression', answer whether the demolition should be allowed or not.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 95 In the interest of humanity, demolition should be allowed because of the danger it poses to the visitors and other residential buildings in that area.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 96

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Statement given by an accused to police under Section 161 of CrPC is not admissible as evidence. In this case, the accused were convicted under Section 302 IPC by the Trial Court and their appeals were dismissed by the High Court of Karnataka. In appeal, the Apex Court bench noted that the entire case of the prosecution is based on the so-called confessional statements or voluntary statements given by accused while they were in police custody. As per the police, all the accused were arrested from a school building and formally arrested the next day. They confessed to as many as 24 crimes committed by them. Their confessions of how they planned and executed the murders has been captured on a video, which was also exhibited before the court. The Trial Court had held that these video tapes can also be used as corroborative evidence. This view was upheld by the High Court. Both the Trial Court and the Appellate Court went completely wrong in placing reliance on the voluntary statements of the accused and their videography statements. Under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution of India, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. Again, under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; a confessional statement given by an accused before a Police officer is inadmissible as evidence., the bench observed. The court also referred to a recent judgment Venkatesh @ Chandra vs State of Karnataka in which similar observations were made.

Q. Omar was giving a speech in the urban area of Mumbai wherein he was alleged to promote enmity between two religious groups. One of the policemen, Kumar, from the police station where the FIR against Omar was filed happened to be attending that event off-duty. Kumar had a full recording of Omar's speech and police wants to present this as an evidence before the court. Can the prosecution do so?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 96 Option C is correct as it is evident in the passage that the court had stressed upon the inadmissibility of the confessions recorded before police when one is in custody, and in this scenario, the speech was made openly in the public and the speech was recorded by Kumar while he was off-duty. Option 2 is incorrect as confessions made before the police under custody are not admissible. Options 1 and 4 are incorrect as they are contrary to the above explanation.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 97

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Statement given by an accused to police under Section 161 of CrPC is not admissible as evidence. In this case, the accused were convicted under Section 302 IPC by the Trial Court and their appeals were dismissed by the High Court of Karnataka. In appeal, the Apex Court bench noted that the entire case of the prosecution is based on the so-called confessional statements or voluntary statements given by accused while they were in police custody. As per the police, all the accused were arrested from a school building and formally arrested the next day. They confessed to as many as 24 crimes committed by them. Their confessions of how they planned and executed the murders has been captured on a video, which was also exhibited before the court. The Trial Court had held that these video tapes can also be used as corroborative evidence. This view was upheld by the High Court. Both the Trial Court and the Appellate Court went completely wrong in placing reliance on the voluntary statements of the accused and their videography statements. Under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution of India, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. Again, under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; a confessional statement given by an accused before a Police officer is inadmissible as evidence., the bench observed. The court also referred to a recent judgment Venkatesh @ Chandra vs State of Karnataka in which similar observations were made.

Q. Lakhan, a notorious goon of Bihar, was arrested for allegedly committing criminal breach of trust. During the police custody, he did not confess to criminal breach of trust but did confess to all of his previous crimes. The police videographed his evidence. Would this be admissible in the court in the present case?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 97 Option C is correct as it is given in the passage that confessions made before the police when under custody are inadmissible and it is immaterial if the confessions were made for the crime for which the person is arrested or other alleged crimes. Therefore, option A is incorrect. Option B is incorrect as it is out of the scope of the passage. Option D is incorrect as confessions even for the crime for which a person is arrested are inadmissible if made before the police.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 98

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Statement given by an accused to police under Section 161 of CrPC is not admissible as evidence. In this case, the accused were convicted under Section 302 IPC by the Trial Court and their appeals were dismissed by the High Court of Karnataka. In appeal, the Apex Court bench noted that the entire case of the prosecution is based on the so-called confessional statements or voluntary statements given by accused while they were in police custody. As per the police, all the accused were arrested from a school building and formally arrested the next day. They confessed to as many as 24 crimes committed by them. Their confessions of how they planned and executed the murders has been captured on a video, which was also exhibited before the court. The Trial Court had held that these video tapes can also be used as corroborative evidence. This view was upheld by the High Court. Both the Trial Court and the Appellate Court went completely wrong in placing reliance on the voluntary statements of the accused and their videography statements. Under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution of India, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. Again, under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; a confessional statement given by an accused before a Police officer is inadmissible as evidence., the bench observed. The court also referred to a recent judgment Venkatesh @ Chandra vs State of Karnataka in which similar observations were made.

Q. Anand kills Mahesh and enters in his diary that he has killed Mahesh. He then hides the diary and absconds. During a search operation the police finds the diary and now wishes to produce this as evidence of Anand's confession in the court. Can it be admitted in court?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 98 It is clearly mentioned in the passage that under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a confessional statement given by an accused before a Police officer is inadmissible as evidence. In the given case, the confession was neither made to the police nor made in the police custody. So, it is not barred by Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act and is admissible as evidence in court. Hence, option 3 is the correct answer. Option 4 is out of the context of the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 99

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Statement given by an accused to police under Section 161 of CrPC is not admissible as evidence. In this case, the accused were convicted under Section 302 IPC by the Trial Court and their appeals were dismissed by the High Court of Karnataka. In appeal, the Apex Court bench noted that the entire case of the prosecution is based on the so-called confessional statements or voluntary statements given by accused while they were in police custody. As per the police, all the accused were arrested from a school building and formally arrested the next day. They confessed to as many as 24 crimes committed by them. Their confessions of how they planned and executed the murders has been captured on a video, which was also exhibited before the court. The Trial Court had held that these video tapes can also be used as corroborative evidence. This view was upheld by the High Court. Both the Trial Court and the Appellate Court went completely wrong in placing reliance on the voluntary statements of the accused and their videography statements. Under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution of India, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. Again, under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; a confessional statement given by an accused before a Police officer is inadmissible as evidence., the bench observed. The court also referred to a recent judgment Venkatesh @ Chandra vs State of Karnataka in which similar observations were made.

Q. Sobo was arrested by the Delhi police for allegedly committing affray near Rajiv Chowk. During the police custody, upon torture, Sobo wrote a letter wherein he confessed to committing affray and sent the same letter to an influential IAS officer of the area. Would this evidence be admissible in the court?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 99 Option D is correct as it is mentioned in the passage that no accused could be compelled to be a witness against himself. Moreover, it is also mentioned that confessions made before the police are not admissible in the court. Therefore, both B and C are correct. Option A is incorrect as it is immaterial as to how the confession is made.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 100

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Statement given by an accused to police under Section 161 of CrPC is not admissible as evidence. In this case, the accused were convicted under Section 302 IPC by the Trial Court and their appeals were dismissed by the High Court of Karnataka. In appeal, the Apex Court bench noted that the entire case of the prosecution is based on the so-called confessional statements or voluntary statements given by accused while they were in police custody. As per the police, all the accused were arrested from a school building and formally arrested the next day. They confessed to as many as 24 crimes committed by them. Their confessions of how they planned and executed the murders has been captured on a video, which was also exhibited before the court. The Trial Court had held that these video tapes can also be used as corroborative evidence. This view was upheld by the High Court. Both the Trial Court and the Appellate Court went completely wrong in placing reliance on the voluntary statements of the accused and their videography statements. Under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution of India, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. Again, under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; a confessional statement given by an accused before a Police officer is inadmissible as evidence., the bench observed. The court also referred to a recent judgment Venkatesh @ Chandra vs State of Karnataka in which similar observations were made.

Q. Toshak was arrested for allegedly committing a crime under Section 272 of the Indian Penal Code. Upon arrest and torture by the police, and knowing that the punishment for such a crime is not much, he confessed before the superintendent of the police that he committed the crime. The confession was not recorded in either documentary or video format but the superintendent presented himself before the court as a witness of the confession made by Toshak. Will Toshak's confession be admissible in the court?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 100 Option A is incorrect as rank of the police officer before whom the confession is made is immaterial. If the confession is made when under the custody of the police, it is inadmissible. Option B is incorrect as it is immaterial in which form the statement of confession is recorded. The essence is that confessions made before police when under police custody are not admissible in the court. Therefore, option C is correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 101

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Hate speech as defined by the 267th report of the Law Commission of India is an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, religious belief, and the like. To effectively curb hate speech, the Supreme Court requested the Law Commission of India to examine the issue. The 267th report of the Law Commission was of the clear opinion that new provisions in the IPC such as Section 153C (Prohibiting incitement to hatred) and Section 505A (Causing fear, alarm, or provocation of violence in certain cases) were needed to address the issue.

As the Constituent Assembly deliberated on Article 13 of the Draft Constitution, which would later become Article 19 in the enacted Constitution, intense apprehensions were expressed on the proposed proviso to Article 13 listing restrictions to the freedom of speech and expression. These restrictions finally became Article 19(2). The exceptions under the same clause fell under four broad categories: 'libel, slander, defamation', 'contempt of court', 'offends against decency or morality' and 'undermines the security of or tends to overthrow the state'. The term 'public order' was added later by an amendment which is now known as the First Amendment. Jawaharlal Nehru was a staunch supporter of the First Amendment.

The proposed restrictions were resisted on the ground that these sought to rein in free speech and are not seen in the American Constitution, which had tremendously inspired members of the Constituent Assembly. Dr. Ambedkar sought to douse the fire of concern by declaring, It is wrong to say that fundamental rights in America are absolute. The difference between the position under the American Constitution and the Draft Constitution is one of form and not of substance. That the fundamental rights in America are not absolute rights is beyond dispute. In support of every exception to the fundamental rights set out in the Draft Constitution, one can refer to at least one judgment of the United States Supreme Court.

Q. Based on the definition of hate speech as per the passage, identify the hate speech from the below-given examples.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 101 The example in option B, i.e. 'Call by a leader to not allow people of other religions to pass through their area' reflects the hatred incited against a group of people. Similar is the case with option C where people are incited to overthrow an established authority. Option A does not amount to hate speech, as the motive behind the comments is to obtain alteration of the measures of the government by lawful means.

Thus, only options B and C constitute hate speech.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 102

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Hate speech as defined by the 267th report of the Law Commission of India is an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, religious belief, and the like. To effectively curb hate speech, the Supreme Court requested the Law Commission of India to examine the issue. The 267th report of the Law Commission was of the clear opinion that new provisions in the IPC such as Section 153C (Prohibiting incitement to hatred) and Section 505A (Causing fear, alarm, or provocation of violence in certain cases) were needed to address the issue.

As the Constituent Assembly deliberated on Article 13 of the Draft Constitution, which would later become Article 19 in the enacted Constitution, intense apprehensions were expressed on the proposed proviso to Article 13 listing restrictions to the freedom of speech and expression. These restrictions finally became Article 19(2). The exceptions under the same clause fell under four broad categories: 'libel, slander, defamation', 'contempt of court', 'offends against decency or morality' and 'undermines the security of or tends to overthrow the state'. The term 'public order' was added later by an amendment which is now known as the First Amendment. Jawaharlal Nehru was a staunch supporter of the First Amendment.

The proposed restrictions were resisted on the ground that these sought to rein in free speech and are not seen in the American Constitution, which had tremendously inspired members of the Constituent Assembly. Dr. Ambedkar sought to douse the fire of concern by declaring, It is wrong to say that fundamental rights in America are absolute. The difference between the position under the American Constitution and the Draft Constitution is one of form and not of substance. That the fundamental rights in America are not absolute rights is beyond dispute. In support of every exception to the fundamental rights set out in the Draft Constitution, one can refer to at least one judgment of the United States Supreme Court.

Q. Roshan told Shivani that Lucky got suspended from the college on account of cheating in an exam, and the same was also heard by Punit. The statement made is:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 102 If defamation is done orally, it will be said to fall under slander by the spoken word. Roshan made an oral statement related to Lucky; therefore, it will fall under slanderous defamation.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 103

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Hate speech as defined by the 267th report of the Law Commission of India is an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, religious belief, and the like. To effectively curb hate speech, the Supreme Court requested the Law Commission of India to examine the issue. The 267th report of the Law Commission was of the clear opinion that new provisions in the IPC such as Section 153C (Prohibiting incitement to hatred) and Section 505A (Causing fear, alarm, or provocation of violence in certain cases) were needed to address the issue.

As the Constituent Assembly deliberated on Article 13 of the Draft Constitution, which would later become Article 19 in the enacted Constitution, intense apprehensions were expressed on the proposed proviso to Article 13 listing restrictions to the freedom of speech and expression. These restrictions finally became Article 19(2). The exceptions under the same clause fell under four broad categories: 'libel, slander, defamation', 'contempt of court', 'offends against decency or morality' and 'undermines the security of or tends to overthrow the state'. The term 'public order' was added later by an amendment which is now known as the First Amendment. Jawaharlal Nehru was a staunch supporter of the First Amendment.

The proposed restrictions were resisted on the ground that these sought to rein in free speech and are not seen in the American Constitution, which had tremendously inspired members of the Constituent Assembly. Dr. Ambedkar sought to douse the fire of concern by declaring, It is wrong to say that fundamental rights in America are absolute. The difference between the position under the American Constitution and the Draft Constitution is one of form and not of substance. That the fundamental rights in America are not absolute rights is beyond dispute. In support of every exception to the fundamental rights set out in the Draft Constitution, one can refer to at least one judgment of the United States Supreme Court.

Q. In a civil action for defamation, truth is an absolute defence. The burden of proving the truth is on the defendant, and if this burden is not discharged, then the person making such statements is liable. Dinesh, the editor of a local daily, published a series of articles mentioning that Puru, a government servant, used to accept a bribe and have adopted corrupt and illegal means to mint money. Puru brought a civil suit against Dinesh. In the given facts and circumstances, which of the following derivations is correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 103 At the start of the question, it has already been laid out that truth is a defence. Therefore, to escape liability, Dinesh has to prove his allegations, and if he fails to do so, he would be liable for civil defamation.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 104

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Hate speech as defined by the 267th report of the Law Commission of India is an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, religious belief, and the like. To effectively curb hate speech, the Supreme Court requested the Law Commission of India to examine the issue. The 267th report of the Law Commission was of the clear opinion that new provisions in the IPC such as Section 153C (Prohibiting incitement to hatred) and Section 505A (Causing fear, alarm, or provocation of violence in certain cases) were needed to address the issue.

As the Constituent Assembly deliberated on Article 13 of the Draft Constitution, which would later become Article 19 in the enacted Constitution, intense apprehensions were expressed on the proposed proviso to Article 13 listing restrictions to the freedom of speech and expression. These restrictions finally became Article 19(2). The exceptions under the same clause fell under four broad categories: 'libel, slander, defamation', 'contempt of court', 'offends against decency or morality' and 'undermines the security of or tends to overthrow the state'. The term 'public order' was added later by an amendment which is now known as the First Amendment. Jawaharlal Nehru was a staunch supporter of the First Amendment.

The proposed restrictions were resisted on the ground that these sought to rein in free speech and are not seen in the American Constitution, which had tremendously inspired members of the Constituent Assembly. Dr. Ambedkar sought to douse the fire of concern by declaring, It is wrong to say that fundamental rights in America are absolute. The difference between the position under the American Constitution and the Draft Constitution is one of form and not of substance. That the fundamental rights in America are not absolute rights is beyond dispute. In support of every exception to the fundamental rights set out in the Draft Constitution, one can refer to at least one judgment of the United States Supreme Court.

Q. After reading the passage, two students discussed it; Rajesh pointed out that Sections 153C and 505A of the IPC need to be imposed on those who deliver hate speech, and Rohit pointed out that it cannot be done in the present scenario. Who has the correct observation?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 104 The Law Commission has suggested the insertion of new sections, Section 153C (Prohibiting incitement to hatred) and Section 505A (Causing fear, alarm, or provocation of violence in some instances) to curb the menace of hate speech. It has not been inserted yet, so Rohit is correct as it is not already in the IPC; hence, it is not possible to charge/impose someone with it.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 105

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

There once lived in a village a peasant named Iván Stcherbakóf. He was comfortably off, in the prime of life, the best worker in the village, and had three sons all able to work. The eldest was married, the second about to marry, and the third was a big lad who could mind the horses and was already beginning to plough. Ivan's wife was an able and thrifty woman, and they were fortunate in having a quiet, hard-working daughter-in-law. There was nothing to prevent Iván and his family from living happily. They had only one idle mouth to feed; that was Iván's old father, who suffered from asthma and had been lying ill on the top of the brick even for seven years. Iván had all he needed: three horses and a colt, a cow with a calf, and fifteen sheep. The women made all the clothing for the family, besides helping in the fields, and the men tilled the land. They always had grain enough of their own to last over beyond the next harvest and sold enough oats to pay the taxes and meet their other needs. So Iván and his children might have lived quite comfortably had it not been for a feud between him and his next-door neighbour, Limping Gabriel, the son of Gordéy Ivánof.

As long as old Gordéy was alive and Iván's father was still able to manage the household, the peasants lived as neighbours should. If the women of either house happened to want a sieve or a tub, or the men required a sack, or if a cart- 53 wheels got broken and could not be mended at once, they used to send to the other house and helped each other in neighbourly fashion. When a calf strayed into the neighbour's thrashing-ground they would just drive it out, and only say, 'Don't let it get in again; our grain is lying there.' And such things as locking up the barns and outhouses, hiding things from one another, or backbiting were never thought of in those days. That was in the fathers' time. When the sons came to be at the head of the families, everything changed.

Q. Which sentence in the excerpt best supports the theme of harmonious living?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 105 After reading the whole passage, we can see that harmonious living means If people are living in harmony with each other, they are living together peacefully rather than fighting or arguing. The statement in option one correctly supports the theme of harmonious living.

Hence, 'There was nothing to prevent Ivan and his family from living happily' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 106

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

There once lived in a village a peasant named Iván Stcherbakóf. He was comfortably off, in the prime of life, the best worker in the village, and had three sons all able to work. The eldest was married, the second about to marry, and the third was a big lad who could mind the horses and was already beginning to plough. Ivan's wife was an able and thrifty woman, and they were fortunate in having a quiet, hard-working daughter-in-law. There was nothing to prevent Iván and his family from living happily. They had only one idle mouth to feed; that was Iván's old father, who suffered from asthma and had been lying ill on the top of the brick even for seven years. Iván had all he needed: three horses and a colt, a cow with a calf, and fifteen sheep. The women made all the clothing for the family, besides helping in the fields, and the men tilled the land. They always had grain enough of their own to last over beyond the next harvest and sold enough oats to pay the taxes and meet their other needs. So Iván and his children might have lived quite comfortably had it not been for a feud between him and his next-door neighbour, Limping Gabriel, the son of Gordéy Ivánof.

As long as old Gordéy was alive and Iván's father was still able to manage the household, the peasants lived as neighbours should. If the women of either house happened to want a sieve or a tub, or the men required a sack, or if a cart- 53 wheels got broken and could not be mended at once, they used to send to the other house and helped each other in neighbourly fashion. When a calf strayed into the neighbour's thrashing-ground they would just drive it out, and only say, 'Don't let it get in again; our grain is lying there.' And such things as locking up the barns and outhouses, hiding things from one another, or backbiting were never thought of in those days. That was in the fathers' time. When the sons came to be at the head of the families, everything changed.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from these lines of the passage- "So Iván and his children might have lived quite comfortably had it not been in a feud between him and his next-door neighbour."?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 106 After reading the passage, we can see that the statement in the question is present in the last line of the first paragraph of the passage. The statement tries to imply that relationship between Ivan and his neighbour was not good. First option also tells the same thing.

Hence, 'Ivan and his children had to face a big trouble after the fight between him and his next-door neighbour' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 107

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

There once lived in a village a peasant named Iván Stcherbakóf. He was comfortably off, in the prime of life, the best worker in the village, and had three sons all able to work. The eldest was married, the second about to marry, and the third was a big lad who could mind the horses and was already beginning to plough. Ivan's wife was an able and thrifty woman, and they were fortunate in having a quiet, hard-working daughter-in-law. There was nothing to prevent Iván and his family from living happily. They had only one idle mouth to feed; that was Iván's old father, who suffered from asthma and had been lying ill on the top of the brick even for seven years. Iván had all he needed: three horses and a colt, a cow with a calf, and fifteen sheep. The women made all the clothing for the family, besides helping in the fields, and the men tilled the land. They always had grain enough of their own to last over beyond the next harvest and sold enough oats to pay the taxes and meet their other needs. So Iván and his children might have lived quite comfortably had it not been for a feud between him and his next-door neighbour, Limping Gabriel, the son of Gordéy Ivánof.

As long as old Gordéy was alive and Iván's father was still able to manage the household, the peasants lived as neighbours should. If the women of either house happened to want a sieve or a tub, or the men required a sack, or if a cart- 53 wheels got broken and could not be mended at once, they used to send to the other house and helped each other in neighbourly fashion. When a calf strayed into the neighbour's thrashing-ground they would just drive it out, and only say, 'Don't let it get in again; our grain is lying there.' And such things as locking up the barns and outhouses, hiding things from one another, or backbiting were never thought of in those days. That was in the fathers' time. When the sons came to be at the head of the families, everything changed.

Q. Which of these statements weakens the author's following statement- "They always had grain enough of their own to last over beyond the next harvest and sold enough oats to pay the taxes and meet their other needs".

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 107 After reading the passage we can see that the statement given in the question is present in the Third line from the last of the first paragraph of the passage. The statement in both first and the second options weakens the statement.

Hence, 'Both (a) and (b)' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 108

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

There once lived in a village a peasant named Iván Stcherbakóf. He was comfortably off, in the prime of life, the best worker in the village, and had three sons all able to work. The eldest was married, the second about to marry, and the third was a big lad who could mind the horses and was already beginning to plough. Ivan's wife was an able and thrifty woman, and they were fortunate in having a quiet, hard-working daughter-in-law. There was nothing to prevent Iván and his family from living happily. They had only one idle mouth to feed; that was Iván's old father, who suffered from asthma and had been lying ill on the top of the brick even for seven years. Iván had all he needed: three horses and a colt, a cow with a calf, and fifteen sheep. The women made all the clothing for the family, besides helping in the fields, and the men tilled the land. They always had grain enough of their own to last over beyond the next harvest and sold enough oats to pay the taxes and meet their other needs. So Iván and his children might have lived quite comfortably had it not been for a feud between him and his next-door neighbour, Limping Gabriel, the son of Gordéy Ivánof.

As long as old Gordéy was alive and Iván's father was still able to manage the household, the peasants lived as neighbours should. If the women of either house happened to want a sieve or a tub, or the men required a sack, or if a cart- 53 wheels got broken and could not be mended at once, they used to send to the other house and helped each other in neighbourly fashion. When a calf strayed into the neighbour's thrashing-ground they would just drive it out, and only say, 'Don't let it get in again; our grain is lying there.' And such things as locking up the barns and outhouses, hiding things from one another, or backbiting were never thought of in those days. That was in the fathers' time. When the sons came to be at the head of the families, everything changed.

Q. "They had only one idle mouth to feed; that was Iván's old father, who suffered from asthma and had been lying ill on the top of the brick oven for seven years." What does the author try to convey by these lines of the passage?

I. Ivan's father was the only member of the family who was dependent on him.

II. Ivan's father was a patient and going to die very soon.

III. All the family members of Ivan were self-dependent except Ivan's father.

IV. Ivan's father suffered from asthma, which was a dreadful disease.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 108 After reading the passage, we can see that the statement in the question is present in the fourth line of the first paragraph. Both the statement I and statement III conveys the same idea as in the given statement.

Hence, 'I and III only' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 109

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

There once lived in a village a peasant named Iván Stcherbakóf. He was comfortably off, in the prime of life, the best worker in the village, and had three sons all able to work. The eldest was married, the second about to marry, and the third was a big lad who could mind the horses and was already beginning to plough. Ivan's wife was an able and thrifty woman, and they were fortunate in having a quiet, hard-working daughter-in-law. There was nothing to prevent Iván and his family from living happily. They had only one idle mouth to feed; that was Iván's old father, who suffered from asthma and had been lying ill on the top of the brick even for seven years. Iván had all he needed: three horses and a colt, a cow with a calf, and fifteen sheep. The women made all the clothing for the family, besides helping in the fields, and the men tilled the land. They always had grain enough of their own to last over beyond the next harvest and sold enough oats to pay the taxes and meet their other needs. So Iván and his children might have lived quite comfortably had it not been for a feud between him and his next-door neighbour, Limping Gabriel, the son of Gordéy Ivánof.

As long as old Gordéy was alive and Iván's father was still able to manage the household, the peasants lived as neighbours should. If the women of either house happened to want a sieve or a tub, or the men required a sack, or if a cart- 53 wheels got broken and could not be mended at once, they used to send to the other house and helped each other in neighbourly fashion. When a calf strayed into the neighbour's thrashing-ground they would just drive it out, and only say, 'Don't let it get in again; our grain is lying there.' And such things as locking up the barns and outhouses, hiding things from one another, or backbiting were never thought of in those days. That was in the fathers' time. When the sons came to be at the head of the families, everything changed.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following could be the reason behind the harmonious way of solving the basic daily disputes between the families of Ivan and his neighbor, Gabriel?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 109 After reading the passage, we can see that the relationship between Ivan and his neighbour and not good enough. So, the best way to settle the disputes in a harmonious way is that the family head manages everything. Second option also tells the same thing.

Hence, 'Both the heads of the families, Ivan's father and Gabriel's father were able to manage everything very well' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 110

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Cricket in India has often been littered with stereotypes. Much akin to the great Indian rope trick, the game was reduced to the tropes of wristy batsmen and magical spinners. The sport was also blinkered to ancient geographical contours, often linked to royalty or the erstwhile British Presidencies of Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta. Despite these boxy references, Kapil Dev emerged as an all-rounder from Haryana, and after him, it was Mahendra Singh Dhoni's turn to stun the pundits. Hailing from Jharkhand, never previously known for its prowess in the willow game, Dhoni kept dismantling clichés as he built a splendid career that defied odds and technical benchmarks.

As a batsman and wicket-keeper, aesthetics was not his strong point; but supreme athleticism, innate talent, a calm head, and remarkable effectiveness in the crunch, made him an outstanding player. If there was a pattern to him, it was his unpredictability, be it the way he dealt with opposition bowlers, led India, and timed his goodbyes - from Tests in 2014 or limited-overs international cricket this Saturday. In the first instance, the BCCI issued a statement, and in the second, the former India captain picked Instagram as his medium. The initial reaction of overwhelming shock quickly became an acceptance of his quirks and then it sunk in - an era had ended in Indian cricket. If Sourav Ganguly helped India tide past the match-fixing crisis of 2000, Dhoni took his side to greater heights and India became the number one team in Tests during 2009. But it was ODIs and Twenty20s that enhanced Dhoni's aura. It was in the abridged versions that he was at his supreme best, flexing those helicopter sixes, effecting mind-boggling stumpings, being astute in his field placements, running between wickets seemingly at the speed of light and making his men believe that they could win big trophies.

Q. Which of the following statements are NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 110 After reading the passage, we can see that all the statements given in the options are given in the passage expect the statement in the third option which tells that Sourav Ganguly and Dhoni were found guilty in the match fixing.

Hence, 'Sourav Ganguly and Dhoni were found guilty in the match fixing crisis of 2000.' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 111

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Cricket in India has often been littered with stereotypes. Much akin to the great Indian rope trick, the game was reduced to the tropes of wristy batsmen and magical spinners. The sport was also blinkered to ancient geographical contours, often linked to royalty or the erstwhile British Presidencies of Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta. Despite these boxy references, Kapil Dev emerged as an all-rounder from Haryana, and after him, it was Mahendra Singh Dhoni's turn to stun the pundits. Hailing from Jharkhand, never previously known for its prowess in the willow game, Dhoni kept dismantling clichés as he built a splendid career that defied odds and technical benchmarks.

As a batsman and wicket-keeper, aesthetics was not his strong point; but supreme athleticism, innate talent, a calm head, and remarkable effectiveness in the crunch, made him an outstanding player. If there was a pattern to him, it was his unpredictability, be it the way he dealt with opposition bowlers, led India, and timed his goodbyes - from Tests in 2014 or limited-overs international cricket this Saturday. In the first instance, the BCCI issued a statement, and in the second, the former India captain picked Instagram as his medium. The initial reaction of overwhelming shock quickly became an acceptance of his quirks and then it sunk in - an era had ended in Indian cricket. If Sourav Ganguly helped India tide past the match-fixing crisis of 2000, Dhoni took his side to greater heights and India became the number one team in Tests during 2009. But it was ODIs and Twenty20s that enhanced Dhoni's aura. It was in the abridged versions that he was at his supreme best, flexing those helicopter sixes, effecting mind-boggling stumpings, being astute in his field placements, running between wickets seemingly at the speed of light and making his men believe that they could win big trophies.

Q. The statement-"Cricket in India has often been littered with stereotypes" means that-

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 111 After reading the passage we can say that the statement in the question is the starting line of the passage, and it means that cricket is influenced by the predetermined mindset and also dominated by fixed opinions. Both the first and the second statement tells the same thing.

Hence, 'Both (a) and (b)' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 112

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Cricket in India has often been littered with stereotypes. Much akin to the great Indian rope trick, the game was reduced to the tropes of wristy batsmen and magical spinners. The sport was also blinkered to ancient geographical contours, often linked to royalty or the erstwhile British Presidencies of Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta. Despite these boxy references, Kapil Dev emerged as an all-rounder from Haryana, and after him, it was Mahendra Singh Dhoni's turn to stun the pundits. Hailing from Jharkhand, never previously known for its prowess in the willow game, Dhoni kept dismantling clichés as he built a splendid career that defied odds and technical benchmarks.

As a batsman and wicket-keeper, aesthetics was not his strong point; but supreme athleticism, innate talent, a calm head, and remarkable effectiveness in the crunch, made him an outstanding player. If there was a pattern to him, it was his unpredictability, be it the way he dealt with opposition bowlers, led India, and timed his goodbyes - from Tests in 2014 or limited-overs international cricket this Saturday. In the first instance, the BCCI issued a statement, and in the second, the former India captain picked Instagram as his medium. The initial reaction of overwhelming shock quickly became an acceptance of his quirks and then it sunk in - an era had ended in Indian cricket. If Sourav Ganguly helped India tide past the match-fixing crisis of 2000, Dhoni took his side to greater heights and India became the number one team in Tests during 2009. But it was ODIs and Twenty20s that enhanced Dhoni's aura. It was in the abridged versions that he was at his supreme best, flexing those helicopter sixes, effecting mind-boggling stumpings, being astute in his field placements, running between wickets seemingly at the speed of light and making his men believe that they could win big trophies.

Q. Which of the following traits of Dhoni made him so popular among his team and fans?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 112 After reading the passage, we can see that there are many traits of Dhoni that made him famous. Some of which are he being an excellent wicket-keeper, batsman, and also he knew to boost the morale of his teammates. All the option satisfies the excellency of Dhoni.

Hence, 'All of the above' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 113

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Cricket in India has often been littered with stereotypes. Much akin to the great Indian rope trick, the game was reduced to the tropes of wristy batsmen and magical spinners. The sport was also blinkered to ancient geographical contours, often linked to royalty or the erstwhile British Presidencies of Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta. Despite these boxy references, Kapil Dev emerged as an all-rounder from Haryana, and after him, it was Mahendra Singh Dhoni's turn to stun the pundits. Hailing from Jharkhand, never previously known for its prowess in the willow game, Dhoni kept dismantling clichés as he built a splendid career that defied odds and technical benchmarks.

As a batsman and wicket-keeper, aesthetics was not his strong point; but supreme athleticism, innate talent, a calm head, and remarkable effectiveness in the crunch, made him an outstanding player. If there was a pattern to him, it was his unpredictability, be it the way he dealt with opposition bowlers, led India, and timed his goodbyes - from Tests in 2014 or limited-overs international cricket this Saturday. In the first instance, the BCCI issued a statement, and in the second, the former India captain picked Instagram as his medium. The initial reaction of overwhelming shock quickly became an acceptance of his quirks and then it sunk in - an era had ended in Indian cricket. If Sourav Ganguly helped India tide past the match-fixing crisis of 2000, Dhoni took his side to greater heights and India became the number one team in Tests during 2009. But it was ODIs and Twenty20s that enhanced Dhoni's aura. It was in the abridged versions that he was at his supreme best, flexing those helicopter sixes, effecting mind-boggling stumpings, being astute in his field placements, running between wickets seemingly at the speed of light and making his men believe that they could win big trophies.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 113 After reading the passage we can conclude that Dhoni played outstanding in ODI's and T -Twenty matches which made him outshine the other players. The same is being said in First option.

Hence, 'Dhoni's performance in ODI's and Twenty 20 matches made him outshine the other players' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 114

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Cricket in India has often been littered with stereotypes. Much akin to the great Indian rope trick, the game was reduced to the tropes of wristy batsmen and magical spinners. The sport was also blinkered to ancient geographical contours, often linked to royalty or the erstwhile British Presidencies of Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta. Despite these boxy references, Kapil Dev emerged as an all-rounder from Haryana, and after him, it was Mahendra Singh Dhoni's turn to stun the pundits. Hailing from Jharkhand, never previously known for its prowess in the willow game, Dhoni kept dismantling clichés as he built a splendid career that defied odds and technical benchmarks.

As a batsman and wicket-keeper, aesthetics was not his strong point; but supreme athleticism, innate talent, a calm head, and remarkable effectiveness in the crunch, made him an outstanding player. If there was a pattern to him, it was his unpredictability, be it the way he dealt with opposition bowlers, led India, and timed his goodbyes - from Tests in 2014 or limited-overs international cricket this Saturday. In the first instance, the BCCI issued a statement, and in the second, the former India captain picked Instagram as his medium. The initial reaction of overwhelming shock quickly became an acceptance of his quirks and then it sunk in - an era had ended in Indian cricket. If Sourav Ganguly helped India tide past the match-fixing crisis of 2000, Dhoni took his side to greater heights and India became the number one team in Tests during 2009. But it was ODIs and Twenty20s that enhanced Dhoni's aura. It was in the abridged versions that he was at his supreme best, flexing those helicopter sixes, effecting mind-boggling stumpings, being astute in his field placements, running between wickets seemingly at the speed of light and making his men believe that they could win big trophies.

Q. Which of the following statements weakens the argument that "Hailing from Jharkhand, never previously known for its prowess in the willow game, Dhoni kept dismantling clichés as he built a splendid career that defied the odds and technical benchmarks".

I. Dhoni was not accepted by the fans, so quickly as he was not from a Royal family background.

II. Dhoni was able to maintain his level of perfection in his career despite the fact that he hailed from the small town of Jharkhand.

III. Jharkhand has been famous for bringing good cricketers always, even before Dhoni came.

IV. Dhoni came from a common family and reached heights in his life due to his efforts.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 114 After reading the passage, we can see that the statement given in the question is the last line of the first paragraph of the passage. The statements I and III weakens the main statement given in the question.

Hence, 'I and III' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 115

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer accordingly.

In an unnamed village in India, an astrologer lays out his tools of the trade, a mix of cowrie shells, obscure charts, a notebook, and other such curios. They serve no purpose but to create the illusion of mysticism. The astrologer has also painted his forehead with sacred ash, wrapped his head in a turban, and seated himself and his gear beneath a large tree. All of these things serve to give him an air of wisdom, transcendence, and prophetic power, though the narrator is quick to point out that none of these qualities actually belong to the man.

The astrologer has set up his little shop amidst a busy marketplace among people fencing stolen goods, presenting the same cheap food as a variety of gourmet delicacies, and auctioning off low-quality fabrics. The astrologer, quickly established as a fraud, is in the company of other fraudsters and spin doctors selling their wares and making their livings. The marketplace is lit by various shop lights and flares, the dancing shadows of which enhance the astrologer's mystical quality. He notably has no light of his own, but simply borrows that of the other vendors.

The astrologer had never had any intention of becoming one, but had been forced to leave his ancestral home and travel several hundred miles away with no plan and no money. Even so, he is a convincing holy man, using his own insights into human problems to offer vague but comforting advice to people in the market. He functions as a sort of therapist, offering self-affirming advice that he wraps in the guise of astrological wisdom. He is good at his trade; he tells people what they want to hear, and they leave comforted by it. Though it is not an honest living that the astrologer makes, it is still a well-earned one.

Q. Which of the following serves as the most plausible explanation of the statement- "Though it is not an honest living that the astrologer makes, it is still a well-earned one."

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 115 After reading the passage, we can see that the statement given in the passage is the last line of the passage which tells about the living of an astrologer. First option clearly explains the statement given in the passage.

Hence, 'The astrologer just gives self-affirming advice to the people to earn his living which is vague in nature' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 116

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer accordingly.

In an unnamed village in India, an astrologer lays out his tools of the trade, a mix of cowrie shells, obscure charts, a notebook, and other such curios. They serve no purpose but to create the illusion of mysticism. The astrologer has also painted his forehead with sacred ash, wrapped his head in a turban, and seated himself and his gear beneath a large tree. All of these things serve to give him an air of wisdom, transcendence, and prophetic power, though the narrator is quick to point out that none of these qualities actually belong to the man.

The astrologer has set up his little shop amidst a busy marketplace among people fencing stolen goods, presenting the same cheap food as a variety of gourmet delicacies, and auctioning off low-quality fabrics. The astrologer, quickly established as a fraud, is in the company of other fraudsters and spin doctors selling their wares and making their livings. The marketplace is lit by various shop lights and flares, the dancing shadows of which enhance the astrologer's mystical quality. He notably has no light of his own, but simply borrows that of the other vendors.

The astrologer had never had any intention of becoming one, but had been forced to leave his ancestral home and travel several hundred miles away with no plan and no money. Even so, he is a convincing holy man, using his own insights into human problems to offer vague but comforting advice to people in the market. He functions as a sort of therapist, offering self-affirming advice that he wraps in the guise of astrological wisdom. He is good at his trade; he tells people what they want to hear, and they leave comforted by it. Though it is not an honest living that the astrologer makes, it is still a well-earned one.

Q. Which of the following go in the favour of the statement as mentioned by the author- "He notably has no light of his own, but simply borrows that of the other vendors."

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 116 After reading the passage, we can see that the statement in the question is the last line of the second paragraph which tries to tell that the astrologer struggled to fulfil his daily basic needs. Second option also tells the same thing.

Hence, 'The astrologer is not able to earn the money to fulfil his daily basic needs.' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 117

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer accordingly.

In an unnamed village in India, an astrologer lays out his tools of the trade, a mix of cowrie shells, obscure charts, a notebook, and other such curios. They serve no purpose but to create the illusion of mysticism. The astrologer has also painted his forehead with sacred ash, wrapped his head in a turban, and seated himself and his gear beneath a large tree. All of these things serve to give him an air of wisdom, transcendence, and prophetic power, though the narrator is quick to point out that none of these qualities actually belong to the man.

The astrologer has set up his little shop amidst a busy marketplace among people fencing stolen goods, presenting the same cheap food as a variety of gourmet delicacies, and auctioning off low-quality fabrics. The astrologer, quickly established as a fraud, is in the company of other fraudsters and spin doctors selling their wares and making their livings. The marketplace is lit by various shop lights and flares, the dancing shadows of which enhance the astrologer's mystical quality. He notably has no light of his own, but simply borrows that of the other vendors.

The astrologer had never had any intention of becoming one, but had been forced to leave his ancestral home and travel several hundred miles away with no plan and no money. Even so, he is a convincing holy man, using his own insights into human problems to offer vague but comforting advice to people in the market. He functions as a sort of therapist, offering self-affirming advice that he wraps in the guise of astrological wisdom. He is good at his trade; he tells people what they want to hear, and they leave comforted by it. Though it is not an honest living that the astrologer makes, it is still a well-earned one.

Q. What is the main theme of the story given here?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 117 After reading the passage, we can see that the story is about astrologer, their ways and means of living, how he earns money by frauding people, how he struggles to fulfil his daily needs. So, the first option tells about the main theme of the story.

Hence, 'It tells the story of a fraudulent astrologer who makes his living by selling cosmic insights to gullible villagers' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 118

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer accordingly.

In an unnamed village in India, an astrologer lays out his tools of the trade, a mix of cowrie shells, obscure charts, a notebook, and other such curios. They serve no purpose but to create the illusion of mysticism. The astrologer has also painted his forehead with sacred ash, wrapped his head in a turban, and seated himself and his gear beneath a large tree. All of these things serve to give him an air of wisdom, transcendence, and prophetic power, though the narrator is quick to point out that none of these qualities actually belong to the man.

The astrologer has set up his little shop amidst a busy marketplace among people fencing stolen goods, presenting the same cheap food as a variety of gourmet delicacies, and auctioning off low-quality fabrics. The astrologer, quickly established as a fraud, is in the company of other fraudsters and spin doctors selling their wares and making their livings. The marketplace is lit by various shop lights and flares, the dancing shadows of which enhance the astrologer's mystical quality. He notably has no light of his own, but simply borrows that of the other vendors.

The astrologer had never had any intention of becoming one, but had been forced to leave his ancestral home and travel several hundred miles away with no plan and no money. Even so, he is a convincing holy man, using his own insights into human problems to offer vague but comforting advice to people in the market. He functions as a sort of therapist, offering self-affirming advice that he wraps in the guise of astrological wisdom. He is good at his trade; he tells people what they want to hear, and they leave comforted by it. Though it is not an honest living that the astrologer makes, it is still a well-earned one.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from these lines of the passage- "The astrologer had never had any intention of becoming one, but had been forced to leave his ancestral home and travel several hundred miles away with no plan and no money."

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 118 After reading the passage, we can see that the statement given in the question is the starting line of the third paragraph which tells that the astrologer never wanted to be number one, but he was forced to go out of his ancestral home. Second option clearly infers the statement.

Hence, 'The astrologer had to leave his home unwillingly without any plans to settle further.' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 119

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer accordingly.

In an unnamed village in India, an astrologer lays out his tools of the trade, a mix of cowrie shells, obscure charts, a notebook, and other such curios. They serve no purpose but to create the illusion of mysticism. The astrologer has also painted his forehead with sacred ash, wrapped his head in a turban, and seated himself and his gear beneath a large tree. All of these things serve to give him an air of wisdom, transcendence, and prophetic power, though the narrator is quick to point out that none of these qualities actually belong to the man.

The astrologer has set up his little shop amidst a busy marketplace among people fencing stolen goods, presenting the same cheap food as a variety of gourmet delicacies, and auctioning off low-quality fabrics. The astrologer, quickly established as a fraud, is in the company of other fraudsters and spin doctors selling their wares and making their livings. The marketplace is lit by various shop lights and flares, the dancing shadows of which enhance the astrologer's mystical quality. He notably has no light of his own, but simply borrows that of the other vendors.

The astrologer had never had any intention of becoming one, but had been forced to leave his ancestral home and travel several hundred miles away with no plan and no money. Even so, he is a convincing holy man, using his own insights into human problems to offer vague but comforting advice to people in the market. He functions as a sort of therapist, offering self-affirming advice that he wraps in the guise of astrological wisdom. He is good at his trade; he tells people what they want to hear, and they leave comforted by it. Though it is not an honest living that the astrologer makes, it is still a well-earned one.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

I. The bunch of fraudsters includes the astrologer also who earn their money by using fraud methods to earn their basic living.

II. The astrologer does not possess an air of wisdom, transcendence, and prophetic power which he tries to show and highlight.

III. The astrologer functions as a sort of therapist, offering self-affirming advice full of wisdom for others.

IV. The astrologer is apt at offering solutions to the basic problems of common people using his insight.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 119 After reading the passage, we can see that all the four statements given in the question can be inferred from the passage. We can say that in the passage it is told that astrologer is one of the fraudsters who earn money using fraud methods, astrologer does not possess an air of wisdom, Astrologer functions as a sort of therapist who offers solutions to the basic problems.

Hence, 'I, II, III and IV' is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 6 - Question 120

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer accordingly.

The Aravali hills have shaped the climate of the upper Indo-Gangetic plains for many hundreds of years. So, it's no surprise that their rapid man-made degradation in recent decades is proving very consequential, pushing the spread of the Indian desert towards eastern Rajasthan, Haryana and west Uttar Pradesh. Yet, despite numerous warning signs, governments have simply not stepped up to protect the Aravalis as they should. In 2018 the Supreme Court was informed that one-fourth of these hills in Rajasthan were gone forever. This newspaper has reported how after that too, the wrecking ball of construction has continued erasing hillocks in Haryana.

The Supreme Court took cognizance of yesterday's report to direct immediate stay on construction, asking the Haryana government to explain allowing such construction in violation of its orders. It appears court orders keep getting undermined just like government regulations - this may be the real contempt of court, rather than somebody's tweet - even as from the Himalayas to Western Ghats the local administration mindset is that if they aren't being used for mining or roads or to house people, the mountains are being wasted. In cases like Haryana the state itself can be seen resisting the notification of natural conservation zones, so much so that an exasperated Punjab and Haryana High Court said earlier this year, "If your intention is that you are not going to protect it.... then say so." It's against the backdrop of such challenges that the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) notification 2020 has been passionately debated.

Q. "This newspaper has reported how after that too, the wrecking ball of construction has continued erasing hillocks in Haryana"- Which of the following statements weakens the argument given here?

Detailed Solution for Test: