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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8


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150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT | Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 for CLAT 2023 is part of Mock Test Series for CLAT preparation. The Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus.The Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 MCQs are made for CLAT 2023 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 below.
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Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 1

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

I was eleven when the Taliban started bombing girls' schools throughout the Swat Valley. The attacks happened at night, so at least no one was hurt, but imagine arriving at school in the morning to find it a pile of rubble. It felt beyond cruel. They had begun cutting our electricity and targeting local politicians. They even banned children's games. We had been told stories of Taliban fighters who heard children laughing in their homes and burst in to destroy the game. They also bombed police stations and attacked individuals.

If the Taliban heard that someone had spoken out against them, they would announce those names on their radio station. And then the next morning, those people might be found dead in Green Square, our city centre, often with notes pinned to the bodies explaining their so-called sins. It got so bad that each morning, several bodies would be lined up in the town centre, which people started calling Bloody Square.

This was all part of their extremist propaganda. It was working: they were asserting control over the Swat Valley.

My father had been cautioned to stop speaking out on behalf of girls' education and peace. He didn't. But he did start varying his routes home in case he was being followed. And I started a new habit: I would check the locks on the doors and windows before I went to sleep each night.

We felt hopeful when the army sent troops to Swat to protect us. But it meant the fighting had come closer. They had a base in Mingora near our home, so I would hear the whirring of helicopter blades cutting the thick air and then look up to see metal hunks filled with soldiers in uniform. Those images, just like Taliban fighters holding machine guns in the streets, became such a big part of our daily lives that my brothers and their friends started playing Taliban versus army instead of hide-and-seek. They would make guns from paper and stage battles and 'shoot' at one another. Rather than share idle gossip and talk about our favourite movie stars, my friends and I shared information about death threats and wondered if we'd ever feel safe again.

This was our life now. It was nothing any of us could have ever imagined.

Scary things became normal. We'd hear the big, booming sounds of bombs and feel the ground tremble. The stronger the tremor, the closer the bomb. If we didn't hear a bomb blast for an entire day, we'd say, 'Today was a good day.' If we didn't hear firearms being shot at night, like firecrackers, then we might even get a good night's sleep.

Q. Which of the following most accurately expresses the author's main idea in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 1 The author describes how the attacks of Taliban in the Swat valley continued to disrupt the normal life of people. She describes the several experiences and real life incidents that she came across in the entire passage. The only option that covers most of what is stated in the passage is option C.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 2

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

I was eleven when the Taliban started bombing girls' schools throughout the Swat Valley. The attacks happened at night, so at least no one was hurt, but imagine arriving at school in the morning to find it a pile of rubble. It felt beyond cruel. They had begun cutting our electricity and targeting local politicians. They even banned children's games. We had been told stories of Taliban fighters who heard children laughing in their homes and burst in to destroy the game. They also bombed police stations and attacked individuals.

If the Taliban heard that someone had spoken out against them, they would announce those names on their radio station. And then the next morning, those people might be found dead in Green Square, our city centre, often with notes pinned to the bodies explaining their so-called sins. It got so bad that each morning, several bodies would be lined up in the town centre, which people started calling Bloody Square.

This was all part of their extremist propaganda. It was working: they were asserting control over the Swat Valley.

My father had been cautioned to stop speaking out on behalf of girls' education and peace. He didn't. But he did start varying his routes home in case he was being followed. And I started a new habit: I would check the locks on the doors and windows before I went to sleep each night.

We felt hopeful when the army sent troops to Swat to protect us. But it meant the fighting had come closer. They had a base in Mingora near our home, so I would hear the whirring of helicopter blades cutting the thick air and then look up to see metal hunks filled with soldiers in uniform. Those images, just like Taliban fighters holding machine guns in the streets, became such a big part of our daily lives that my brothers and their friends started playing Taliban versus army instead of hide-and-seek. They would make guns from paper and stage battles and 'shoot' at one another. Rather than share idle gossip and talk about our favourite movie stars, my friends and I shared information about death threats and wondered if we'd ever feel safe again.

This was our life now. It was nothing any of us could have ever imagined.

Scary things became normal. We'd hear the big, booming sounds of bombs and feel the ground tremble. The stronger the tremor, the closer the bomb. If we didn't hear a bomb blast for an entire day, we'd say, 'Today was a good day.' If we didn't hear firearms being shot at night, like firecrackers, then we might even get a good night's sleep.

Q. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following can rightly be inferred?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 2 The correct answer is option 1. It can be inferred from the author's statement: "My father had been cautioned to stop speaking out on behalf of girls' education and peace. He didn't." Other options cannot be inferred from the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 3

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

I was eleven when the Taliban started bombing girls' schools throughout the Swat Valley. The attacks happened at night, so at least no one was hurt, but imagine arriving at school in the morning to find it a pile of rubble. It felt beyond cruel. They had begun cutting our electricity and targeting local politicians. They even banned children's games. We had been told stories of Taliban fighters who heard children laughing in their homes and burst in to destroy the game. They also bombed police stations and attacked individuals.

If the Taliban heard that someone had spoken out against them, they would announce those names on their radio station. And then the next morning, those people might be found dead in Green Square, our city centre, often with notes pinned to the bodies explaining their so-called sins. It got so bad that each morning, several bodies would be lined up in the town centre, which people started calling Bloody Square.

This was all part of their extremist propaganda. It was working: they were asserting control over the Swat Valley.

My father had been cautioned to stop speaking out on behalf of girls' education and peace. He didn't. But he did start varying his routes home in case he was being followed. And I started a new habit: I would check the locks on the doors and windows before I went to sleep each night.

We felt hopeful when the army sent troops to Swat to protect us. But it meant the fighting had come closer. They had a base in Mingora near our home, so I would hear the whirring of helicopter blades cutting the thick air and then look up to see metal hunks filled with soldiers in uniform. Those images, just like Taliban fighters holding machine guns in the streets, became such a big part of our daily lives that my brothers and their friends started playing Taliban versus army instead of hide-and-seek. They would make guns from paper and stage battles and 'shoot' at one another. Rather than share idle gossip and talk about our favourite movie stars, my friends and I shared information about death threats and wondered if we'd ever feel safe again.

This was our life now. It was nothing any of us could have ever imagined.

Scary things became normal. We'd hear the big, booming sounds of bombs and feel the ground tremble. The stronger the tremor, the closer the bomb. If we didn't hear a bomb blast for an entire day, we'd say, 'Today was a good day.' If we didn't hear firearms being shot at night, like firecrackers, then we might even get a good night's sleep.

Q. What does the word 'extremist' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 3 The correct answer is option 3. It is evident from the author's description of the activities of Taliban in the passage. Their bombing of the girls' school and hanging of people who disagreed with their views are some examples of their extremist activities. Hence, the correct answer is option C which describes the nature of these activities.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 4

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

I was eleven when the Taliban started bombing girls' schools throughout the Swat Valley. The attacks happened at night, so at least no one was hurt, but imagine arriving at school in the morning to find it a pile of rubble. It felt beyond cruel. They had begun cutting our electricity and targeting local politicians. They even banned children's games. We had been told stories of Taliban fighters who heard children laughing in their homes and burst in to destroy the game. They also bombed police stations and attacked individuals.

If the Taliban heard that someone had spoken out against them, they would announce those names on their radio station. And then the next morning, those people might be found dead in Green Square, our city centre, often with notes pinned to the bodies explaining their so-called sins. It got so bad that each morning, several bodies would be lined up in the town centre, which people started calling Bloody Square.

This was all part of their extremist propaganda. It was working: they were asserting control over the Swat Valley.

My father had been cautioned to stop speaking out on behalf of girls' education and peace. He didn't. But he did start varying his routes home in case he was being followed. And I started a new habit: I would check the locks on the doors and windows before I went to sleep each night.

We felt hopeful when the army sent troops to Swat to protect us. But it meant the fighting had come closer. They had a base in Mingora near our home, so I would hear the whirring of helicopter blades cutting the thick air and then look up to see metal hunks filled with soldiers in uniform. Those images, just like Taliban fighters holding machine guns in the streets, became such a big part of our daily lives that my brothers and their friends started playing Taliban versus army instead of hide-and-seek. They would make guns from paper and stage battles and 'shoot' at one another. Rather than share idle gossip and talk about our favourite movie stars, my friends and I shared information about death threats and wondered if we'd ever feel safe again.

This was our life now. It was nothing any of us could have ever imagined.

Scary things became normal. We'd hear the big, booming sounds of bombs and feel the ground tremble. The stronger the tremor, the closer the bomb. If we didn't hear a bomb blast for an entire day, we'd say, 'Today was a good day.' If we didn't hear firearms being shot at night, like firecrackers, then we might even get a good night's sleep.

Q. What, according to the author, would the Taliban do if they heard someone had spoken against them?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 4 The correct answer is option D. The author states in the passage: "If the Taliban heard that someone had spoken out against them, they would announce those names on their radio station. And then the next morning, those people might be found dead in Green Square, our city centre, often with notes pinned to the bodies explaining their so-called sins. "
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 5

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

I was eleven when the Taliban started bombing girls' schools throughout the Swat Valley. The attacks happened at night, so at least no one was hurt, but imagine arriving at school in the morning to find it a pile of rubble. It felt beyond cruel. They had begun cutting our electricity and targeting local politicians. They even banned children's games. We had been told stories of Taliban fighters who heard children laughing in their homes and burst in to destroy the game. They also bombed police stations and attacked individuals.

If the Taliban heard that someone had spoken out against them, they would announce those names on their radio station. And then the next morning, those people might be found dead in Green Square, our city centre, often with notes pinned to the bodies explaining their so-called sins. It got so bad that each morning, several bodies would be lined up in the town centre, which people started calling Bloody Square.

This was all part of their extremist propaganda. It was working: they were asserting control over the Swat Valley.

My father had been cautioned to stop speaking out on behalf of girls' education and peace. He didn't. But he did start varying his routes home in case he was being followed. And I started a new habit: I would check the locks on the doors and windows before I went to sleep each night.

We felt hopeful when the army sent troops to Swat to protect us. But it meant the fighting had come closer. They had a base in Mingora near our home, so I would hear the whirring of helicopter blades cutting the thick air and then look up to see metal hunks filled with soldiers in uniform. Those images, just like Taliban fighters holding machine guns in the streets, became such a big part of our daily lives that my brothers and their friends started playing Taliban versus army instead of hide-and-seek. They would make guns from paper and stage battles and 'shoot' at one another. Rather than share idle gossip and talk about our favourite movie stars, my friends and I shared information about death threats and wondered if we'd ever feel safe again.

This was our life now. It was nothing any of us could have ever imagined.

Scary things became normal. We'd hear the big, booming sounds of bombs and feel the ground tremble. The stronger the tremor, the closer the bomb. If we didn't hear a bomb blast for an entire day, we'd say, 'Today was a good day.' If we didn't hear firearms being shot at night, like firecrackers, then we might even get a good night's sleep.

Q. What, according to the passage, is suggested by the author's statement that children "started playing Taliban versus army instead of hide-and-seek"?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 5 The correct answer is option B - Children were mimicking what was going on around them. This is apparent from the fifth paragraph which states; 'Those images, just like Taliban fighters holding machine guns in the streets, became such a big part of our daily lives' and is supported in the sixth paragraph which states; 'This was our life now.' There is nothing to support that children were expressing rage in this manner, so option A cannot be correct. There is nothing in the passage to support either option C or D, so these also cannot be correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 6

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

When her grandmother learned of Ashima's pregnancy, she was particularly thrilled at the prospect of naming the family's first sahib. And so Ashima and Ashoke have agreed to put off the decision of what to name the baby until a letter comes, ignoring the forms from the hospital about filing for a birth certificate. Ashima's grandmother has mailed the letter herself, walking with her cane to the post office, her first trip out of the house in a decade. The letter contains one name for a girl, one for a boy. Ashima's grandmother has revealed them to no one.

Though the letter was sent a month ago, in July, it has yet to arrive. Ashima and Ashoke are not terribly concerned. After all, they both know, an infant doesn't really need a name. He needs to be fed and blessed, to be given some gold and silver, to be patted on the back after feedings and held carefully behind the neck. Names can wait. In India parents take their time. It wasn't unusual for years to pass before the right name, the best possible name, was determined. Ashima and Ashoke can both cite examples of cousins who were not officially named until they were registered, at six or seven, in school. The Nandis and Dr. Gupta understand perfectly. Of course you must wait, they agree, wait for the name in his great-grandmother's letter.

Besides, there are always pet names to tide one over: a practice of Bengali nomenclature grants, to every single person, two names. In Bengali the word for pet name is daknam, meaning, literally, the name by which one is called, by friends, family, and other intimates, at home and in other private, unguarded moments. Pet names are a persistent remnant of childhood, a reminder that life is not always so serious, so formal, so complicated. They are a reminder, too, that one is not all things to all people. They all have pet names. Ashima's pet name is Monu, Ashoke's is Mithu, and even as adults, these are the names by which they are known in their respective families, the names by which they are adored and scolded and missed and loved.

Every pet name is paired with a good name, a bhalonam, for identification in the outside world. Consequently, good names appear on envelopes, on diplomas, in telephone directories, and in all other public places. (For this reason, letters from Ashima's mother say "Ashima" on the outside, "Monu" on the inside.) Good names tend to represent dignified and enlightened qualities. Ashima means "she who is limitless, without borders." Ashoke, the name of an emperor, means "he who transcends grief." Pet names have no such aspirations. Pet names are never recorded officially, only uttered and remembered. Unlike good names, pet names are frequently meaningless, deliberately silly, ironic, even onomatopoetic. Often in one's infancy, one answers unwittingly to dozens of pet names, until one eventually sticks.

Q. Why, according the passage, does Ashima's grandmother leave the house after 10 years?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 6 The correct answer is option D. This is suggested in this sentence: "When her grandmother learned of Ashima's pregnancy, she was particularly thrilled at the prospect of naming the family's first sahib ... Ashima's grandmother has mailed the letter herself, walking with her cane to the post office, her first trip out of the house in a decade. The letter contains one name for a girl, one for a boy. Ashima's grandmother has revealed them to no one."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 7

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

When her grandmother learned of Ashima's pregnancy, she was particularly thrilled at the prospect of naming the family's first sahib. And so Ashima and Ashoke have agreed to put off the decision of what to name the baby until a letter comes, ignoring the forms from the hospital about filing for a birth certificate. Ashima's grandmother has mailed the letter herself, walking with her cane to the post office, her first trip out of the house in a decade. The letter contains one name for a girl, one for a boy. Ashima's grandmother has revealed them to no one.

Though the letter was sent a month ago, in July, it has yet to arrive. Ashima and Ashoke are not terribly concerned. After all, they both know, an infant doesn't really need a name. He needs to be fed and blessed, to be given some gold and silver, to be patted on the back after feedings and held carefully behind the neck. Names can wait. In India parents take their time. It wasn't unusual for years to pass before the right name, the best possible name, was determined. Ashima and Ashoke can both cite examples of cousins who were not officially named until they were registered, at six or seven, in school. The Nandis and Dr. Gupta understand perfectly. Of course you must wait, they agree, wait for the name in his great-grandmother's letter.

Besides, there are always pet names to tide one over: a practice of Bengali nomenclature grants, to every single person, two names. In Bengali the word for pet name is daknam, meaning, literally, the name by which one is called, by friends, family, and other intimates, at home and in other private, unguarded moments. Pet names are a persistent remnant of childhood, a reminder that life is not always so serious, so formal, so complicated. They are a reminder, too, that one is not all things to all people. They all have pet names. Ashima's pet name is Monu, Ashoke's is Mithu, and even as adults, these are the names by which they are known in their respective families, the names by which they are adored and scolded and missed and loved.

Every pet name is paired with a good name, a bhalonam, for identification in the outside world. Consequently, good names appear on envelopes, on diplomas, in telephone directories, and in all other public places. (For this reason, letters from Ashima's mother say "Ashima" on the outside, "Monu" on the inside.) Good names tend to represent dignified and enlightened qualities. Ashima means "she who is limitless, without borders." Ashoke, the name of an emperor, means "he who transcends grief." Pet names have no such aspirations. Pet names are never recorded officially, only uttered and remembered. Unlike good names, pet names are frequently meaningless, deliberately silly, ironic, even onomatopoetic. Often in one's infancy, one answers unwittingly to dozens of pet names, until one eventually sticks.

Q. Which of the following is not a reason for the significance of a pet name that the author states in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 7 The correct answer is option C. All except option C are stated as reasons why pet names are significant in the following lines: "Pet names are a persistent remnant of childhood, a reminder that life is not always so serious, so formal, so complicated. They are a reminder, too, that one is not all things to all people. They all have pet names."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 8

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

When her grandmother learned of Ashima's pregnancy, she was particularly thrilled at the prospect of naming the family's first sahib. And so Ashima and Ashoke have agreed to put off the decision of what to name the baby until a letter comes, ignoring the forms from the hospital about filing for a birth certificate. Ashima's grandmother has mailed the letter herself, walking with her cane to the post office, her first trip out of the house in a decade. The letter contains one name for a girl, one for a boy. Ashima's grandmother has revealed them to no one.

Though the letter was sent a month ago, in July, it has yet to arrive. Ashima and Ashoke are not terribly concerned. After all, they both know, an infant doesn't really need a name. He needs to be fed and blessed, to be given some gold and silver, to be patted on the back after feedings and held carefully behind the neck. Names can wait. In India parents take their time. It wasn't unusual for years to pass before the right name, the best possible name, was determined. Ashima and Ashoke can both cite examples of cousins who were not officially named until they were registered, at six or seven, in school. The Nandis and Dr. Gupta understand perfectly. Of course you must wait, they agree, wait for the name in his great-grandmother's letter.

Besides, there are always pet names to tide one over: a practice of Bengali nomenclature grants, to every single person, two names. In Bengali the word for pet name is daknam, meaning, literally, the name by which one is called, by friends, family, and other intimates, at home and in other private, unguarded moments. Pet names are a persistent remnant of childhood, a reminder that life is not always so serious, so formal, so complicated. They are a reminder, too, that one is not all things to all people. They all have pet names. Ashima's pet name is Monu, Ashoke's is Mithu, and even as adults, these are the names by which they are known in their respective families, the names by which they are adored and scolded and missed and loved.

Every pet name is paired with a good name, a bhalonam, for identification in the outside world. Consequently, good names appear on envelopes, on diplomas, in telephone directories, and in all other public places. (For this reason, letters from Ashima's mother say "Ashima" on the outside, "Monu" on the inside.) Good names tend to represent dignified and enlightened qualities. Ashima means "she who is limitless, without borders." Ashoke, the name of an emperor, means "he who transcends grief." Pet names have no such aspirations. Pet names are never recorded officially, only uttered and remembered. Unlike good names, pet names are frequently meaningless, deliberately silly, ironic, even onomatopoetic. Often in one's infancy, one answers unwittingly to dozens of pet names, until one eventually sticks.

Q. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 8 The author will only agree with what is stated in option D. From the author's description: "Names can wait. In India parents take their time. It wasn't unusual for years to pass before the right name, the best possible name, was determined. Ashima and Ashoke can both cite examples of cousins who were not officially named until they were registered, at six or seven, in school", only option D appears to be correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 9

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

When her grandmother learned of Ashima's pregnancy, she was particularly thrilled at the prospect of naming the family's first sahib. And so Ashima and Ashoke have agreed to put off the decision of what to name the baby until a letter comes, ignoring the forms from the hospital about filing for a birth certificate. Ashima's grandmother has mailed the letter herself, walking with her cane to the post office, her first trip out of the house in a decade. The letter contains one name for a girl, one for a boy. Ashima's grandmother has revealed them to no one.

Though the letter was sent a month ago, in July, it has yet to arrive. Ashima and Ashoke are not terribly concerned. After all, they both know, an infant doesn't really need a name. He needs to be fed and blessed, to be given some gold and silver, to be patted on the back after feedings and held carefully behind the neck. Names can wait. In India parents take their time. It wasn't unusual for years to pass before the right name, the best possible name, was determined. Ashima and Ashoke can both cite examples of cousins who were not officially named until they were registered, at six or seven, in school. The Nandis and Dr. Gupta understand perfectly. Of course you must wait, they agree, wait for the name in his great-grandmother's letter.

Besides, there are always pet names to tide one over: a practice of Bengali nomenclature grants, to every single person, two names. In Bengali the word for pet name is daknam, meaning, literally, the name by which one is called, by friends, family, and other intimates, at home and in other private, unguarded moments. Pet names are a persistent remnant of childhood, a reminder that life is not always so serious, so formal, so complicated. They are a reminder, too, that one is not all things to all people. They all have pet names. Ashima's pet name is Monu, Ashoke's is Mithu, and even as adults, these are the names by which they are known in their respective families, the names by which they are adored and scolded and missed and loved.

Every pet name is paired with a good name, a bhalonam, for identification in the outside world. Consequently, good names appear on envelopes, on diplomas, in telephone directories, and in all other public places. (For this reason, letters from Ashima's mother say "Ashima" on the outside, "Monu" on the inside.) Good names tend to represent dignified and enlightened qualities. Ashima means "she who is limitless, without borders." Ashoke, the name of an emperor, means "he who transcends grief." Pet names have no such aspirations. Pet names are never recorded officially, only uttered and remembered. Unlike good names, pet names are frequently meaningless, deliberately silly, ironic, even onomatopoetic. Often in one's infancy, one answers unwittingly to dozens of pet names, until one eventually sticks.

Q. Why, according to the passage, does Ashima and Ashoke believe an infant doesn't need a name immediately?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 9 The correct answer is option C. The author states this in the following line: "Ashima and Ashoke are not terribly concerned. After all, they both know, an infant doesn't really need a name. He needs to be fed and blessed, to be given some gold and silver, to be patted on the back after feedings and held carefully behind the neck. Names can wait."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 10

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

When her grandmother learned of Ashima's pregnancy, she was particularly thrilled at the prospect of naming the family's first sahib. And so Ashima and Ashoke have agreed to put off the decision of what to name the baby until a letter comes, ignoring the forms from the hospital about filing for a birth certificate. Ashima's grandmother has mailed the letter herself, walking with her cane to the post office, her first trip out of the house in a decade. The letter contains one name for a girl, one for a boy. Ashima's grandmother has revealed them to no one.

Though the letter was sent a month ago, in July, it has yet to arrive. Ashima and Ashoke are not terribly concerned. After all, they both know, an infant doesn't really need a name. He needs to be fed and blessed, to be given some gold and silver, to be patted on the back after feedings and held carefully behind the neck. Names can wait. In India parents take their time. It wasn't unusual for years to pass before the right name, the best possible name, was determined. Ashima and Ashoke can both cite examples of cousins who were not officially named until they were registered, at six or seven, in school. The Nandis and Dr. Gupta understand perfectly. Of course you must wait, they agree, wait for the name in his great-grandmother's letter.

Besides, there are always pet names to tide one over: a practice of Bengali nomenclature grants, to every single person, two names. In Bengali the word for pet name is daknam, meaning, literally, the name by which one is called, by friends, family, and other intimates, at home and in other private, unguarded moments. Pet names are a persistent remnant of childhood, a reminder that life is not always so serious, so formal, so complicated. They are a reminder, too, that one is not all things to all people. They all have pet names. Ashima's pet name is Monu, Ashoke's is Mithu, and even as adults, these are the names by which they are known in their respective families, the names by which they are adored and scolded and missed and loved.

Every pet name is paired with a good name, a bhalonam, for identification in the outside world. Consequently, good names appear on envelopes, on diplomas, in telephone directories, and in all other public places. (For this reason, letters from Ashima's mother say "Ashima" on the outside, "Monu" on the inside.) Good names tend to represent dignified and enlightened qualities. Ashima means "she who is limitless, without borders." Ashoke, the name of an emperor, means "he who transcends grief." Pet names have no such aspirations. Pet names are never recorded officially, only uttered and remembered. Unlike good names, pet names are frequently meaningless, deliberately silly, ironic, even onomatopoetic. Often in one's infancy, one answers unwittingly to dozens of pet names, until one eventually sticks.

Q. What does the phrase 'unguarded moments' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 10 The correct answer is option B. Unguarded moments are times when you are not paying attention to what you are doing or saying. This is even evident from the author's description of the use of pet names by which "one is called, by friends, family, and other intimates, at home and in other private".
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 11

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

While packing my luggage for the boarding school at Sophia, Mum had slipped in a bag of the dry powder I was supposed to mix with milk or water and use during my bath. Before leaving me at the dormitory, she also left unnecessarily detailed instructions on how that was to be done with the seventeen-year-old caretaker who managed the "junior girls" in that wing. I knew the caretaker did not appreciate Mum's directive because she repeatedly reminded me of it for the two years I lived there, often humiliating me in front of my hostel mates. During the common bath time, she would loudly enquire about that powder my mum left for me to become fair. Of all the times my ubtan embarrassed me, those were the worst.

My seven years so far had taught me nothing about standing up for myself, or defending what I thought was right. I also lacked the entitlement that a combination of wealth and caste pride allow many, even at that young age, to take on much older, more influential bullies with fortitude. I was poor and pretending to be upper caste in a hostel filled with mostly older girls; I had to fit in.

So I joined the raucous laughter in the room or smiled like I was in on the joke she was making at my expense and about Mum, even as a part of me cringed. The caretaker must have sensed that I was hiding something, for she soon added a new element to her weekly routine: asking me if I thought my mother was a bad person. She wasn't content with just mocking me, she also needed me to assure her that she was right.

I didn't tell Mum about this. I knew she would want to intervene or report it to the administration. And I thought that would only make things worse for me. The caretaker might be reprimanded. But after that, living at the hostel could get a lot worse. Pretending to dislike my own mother while blaming myself for not defending her didn't take long to turn into deep self-disgust. That plastic bag of ubtan became its centre and source. I would shove it deep into the belly of my locker so no one, not even I, could see it.

The bag would sit there unopened during the semester and I would bring it home with me during the break. Even though Mum had half-expected that I wouldn't actually use it, she would still be disappointed. During the weeks I spent at home, she would go through old magazines looking for the least messy ubtan recipes. She'd spend hours searching for the ingredients, and painstakingly blend them either by hand or in an old mixer.

Q. Which of the following can be rightly inferred about the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 11 The correct answer is option A. This is supported in the second paragraph in which she states: 'I also lacked the entitlement that a combination of wealth and caste pride allow many' and 'I was poor and pretending to be upper caste.'
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 12

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

While packing my luggage for the boarding school at Sophia, Mum had slipped in a bag of the dry powder I was supposed to mix with milk or water and use during my bath. Before leaving me at the dormitory, she also left unnecessarily detailed instructions on how that was to be done with the seventeen-year-old caretaker who managed the "junior girls" in that wing. I knew the caretaker did not appreciate Mum's directive because she repeatedly reminded me of it for the two years I lived there, often humiliating me in front of my hostel mates. During the common bath time, she would loudly enquire about that powder my mum left for me to become fair. Of all the times my ubtan embarrassed me, those were the worst.

My seven years so far had taught me nothing about standing up for myself, or defending what I thought was right. I also lacked the entitlement that a combination of wealth and caste pride allow many, even at that young age, to take on much older, more influential bullies with fortitude. I was poor and pretending to be upper caste in a hostel filled with mostly older girls; I had to fit in.

So I joined the raucous laughter in the room or smiled like I was in on the joke she was making at my expense and about Mum, even as a part of me cringed. The caretaker must have sensed that I was hiding something, for she soon added a new element to her weekly routine: asking me if I thought my mother was a bad person. She wasn't content with just mocking me, she also needed me to assure her that she was right.

I didn't tell Mum about this. I knew she would want to intervene or report it to the administration. And I thought that would only make things worse for me. The caretaker might be reprimanded. But after that, living at the hostel could get a lot worse. Pretending to dislike my own mother while blaming myself for not defending her didn't take long to turn into deep self-disgust. That plastic bag of ubtan became its centre and source. I would shove it deep into the belly of my locker so no one, not even I, could see it.

The bag would sit there unopened during the semester and I would bring it home with me during the break. Even though Mum had half-expected that I wouldn't actually use it, she would still be disappointed. During the weeks I spent at home, she would go through old magazines looking for the least messy ubtan recipes. She'd spend hours searching for the ingredients, and painstakingly blend them either by hand or in an old mixer.

Q. What does the word 'raucous' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 12 The correct answer is option B. From the author's description of the way she was being treated at the hostel, we can only assume that the warden harassed the author in front of her friends by asking her questions which she wasn't comfortable with. When the author states a 'part of me cringed' we can only understand that her friends who heard what the warden said burst out in laughter that was loud and harsh.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 13

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

While packing my luggage for the boarding school at Sophia, Mum had slipped in a bag of the dry powder I was supposed to mix with milk or water and use during my bath. Before leaving me at the dormitory, she also left unnecessarily detailed instructions on how that was to be done with the seventeen-year-old caretaker who managed the "junior girls" in that wing. I knew the caretaker did not appreciate Mum's directive because she repeatedly reminded me of it for the two years I lived there, often humiliating me in front of my hostel mates. During the common bath time, she would loudly enquire about that powder my mum left for me to become fair. Of all the times my ubtan embarrassed me, those were the worst.

My seven years so far had taught me nothing about standing up for myself, or defending what I thought was right. I also lacked the entitlement that a combination of wealth and caste pride allow many, even at that young age, to take on much older, more influential bullies with fortitude. I was poor and pretending to be upper caste in a hostel filled with mostly older girls; I had to fit in.

So I joined the raucous laughter in the room or smiled like I was in on the joke she was making at my expense and about Mum, even as a part of me cringed. The caretaker must have sensed that I was hiding something, for she soon added a new element to her weekly routine: asking me if I thought my mother was a bad person. She wasn't content with just mocking me, she also needed me to assure her that she was right.

I didn't tell Mum about this. I knew she would want to intervene or report it to the administration. And I thought that would only make things worse for me. The caretaker might be reprimanded. But after that, living at the hostel could get a lot worse. Pretending to dislike my own mother while blaming myself for not defending her didn't take long to turn into deep self-disgust. That plastic bag of ubtan became its centre and source. I would shove it deep into the belly of my locker so no one, not even I, could see it.

The bag would sit there unopened during the semester and I would bring it home with me during the break. Even though Mum had half-expected that I wouldn't actually use it, she would still be disappointed. During the weeks I spent at home, she would go through old magazines looking for the least messy ubtan recipes. She'd spend hours searching for the ingredients, and painstakingly blend them either by hand or in an old mixer.

Q. From the given passage, which of the following can be rightly inferred about the author's mother?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 13 The correct answer is option A. This is supported in the final paragraph of the author's description of her mother's attempt to find recipes and make ubtan for the author to use. From the author's description, we can understand that the author's mother cared for the author's appearance.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 14

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

While packing my luggage for the boarding school at Sophia, Mum had slipped in a bag of the dry powder I was supposed to mix with milk or water and use during my bath. Before leaving me at the dormitory, she also left unnecessarily detailed instructions on how that was to be done with the seventeen-year-old caretaker who managed the "junior girls" in that wing. I knew the caretaker did not appreciate Mum's directive because she repeatedly reminded me of it for the two years I lived there, often humiliating me in front of my hostel mates. During the common bath time, she would loudly enquire about that powder my mum left for me to become fair. Of all the times my ubtan embarrassed me, those were the worst.

My seven years so far had taught me nothing about standing up for myself, or defending what I thought was right. I also lacked the entitlement that a combination of wealth and caste pride allow many, even at that young age, to take on much older, more influential bullies with fortitude. I was poor and pretending to be upper caste in a hostel filled with mostly older girls; I had to fit in.

So I joined the raucous laughter in the room or smiled like I was in on the joke she was making at my expense and about Mum, even as a part of me cringed. The caretaker must have sensed that I was hiding something, for she soon added a new element to her weekly routine: asking me if I thought my mother was a bad person. She wasn't content with just mocking me, she also needed me to assure her that she was right.

I didn't tell Mum about this. I knew she would want to intervene or report it to the administration. And I thought that would only make things worse for me. The caretaker might be reprimanded. But after that, living at the hostel could get a lot worse. Pretending to dislike my own mother while blaming myself for not defending her didn't take long to turn into deep self-disgust. That plastic bag of ubtan became its centre and source. I would shove it deep into the belly of my locker so no one, not even I, could see it.

The bag would sit there unopened during the semester and I would bring it home with me during the break. Even though Mum had half-expected that I wouldn't actually use it, she would still be disappointed. During the weeks I spent at home, she would go through old magazines looking for the least messy ubtan recipes. She'd spend hours searching for the ingredients, and painstakingly blend them either by hand or in an old mixer.

Q. What, according to the passage, is the reason why the author's mother asked her to use ubtan?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 14 The correct answer is option C. This is supported in paragraph 1: 'she would loudly enquire about that powder my mum left for me to become fair' which suggests that the author had a darker complexion. For options A and D, there is nothing to support that she had rashes or sores, so these are incorrect. There is nothing to support that her skin was too pale, so option B cannot be correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 15

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

While packing my luggage for the boarding school at Sophia, Mum had slipped in a bag of the dry powder I was supposed to mix with milk or water and use during my bath. Before leaving me at the dormitory, she also left unnecessarily detailed instructions on how that was to be done with the seventeen-year-old caretaker who managed the "junior girls" in that wing. I knew the caretaker did not appreciate Mum's directive because she repeatedly reminded me of it for the two years I lived there, often humiliating me in front of my hostel mates. During the common bath time, she would loudly enquire about that powder my mum left for me to become fair. Of all the times my ubtan embarrassed me, those were the worst.

My seven years so far had taught me nothing about standing up for myself, or defending what I thought was right. I also lacked the entitlement that a combination of wealth and caste pride allow many, even at that young age, to take on much older, more influential bullies with fortitude. I was poor and pretending to be upper caste in a hostel filled with mostly older girls; I had to fit in.

So I joined the raucous laughter in the room or smiled like I was in on the joke she was making at my expense and about Mum, even as a part of me cringed. The caretaker must have sensed that I was hiding something, for she soon added a new element to her weekly routine: asking me if I thought my mother was a bad person. She wasn't content with just mocking me, she also needed me to assure her that she was right.

I didn't tell Mum about this. I knew she would want to intervene or report it to the administration. And I thought that would only make things worse for me. The caretaker might be reprimanded. But after that, living at the hostel could get a lot worse. Pretending to dislike my own mother while blaming myself for not defending her didn't take long to turn into deep self-disgust. That plastic bag of ubtan became its centre and source. I would shove it deep into the belly of my locker so no one, not even I, could see it.

The bag would sit there unopened during the semester and I would bring it home with me during the break. Even though Mum had half-expected that I wouldn't actually use it, she would still be disappointed. During the weeks I spent at home, she would go through old magazines looking for the least messy ubtan recipes. She'd spend hours searching for the ingredients, and painstakingly blend them either by hand or in an old mixer.

Q. What, according to the author, does the bag of ubtan represent?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 15 The correct answer is option C. This is apparent in the fourth paragraph which states; 'Pretending to dislike my own mother while blaming myself for not defending her didn't take long to turn into deep self-disgust. That plastic bag of ubtan became its centre and source.' Because the author uses the phrase 'deep self-disgust', we can infer that the bag of ubtan represents shame and derision, which are synonymous to 'self-disgust'.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 16

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In our current age, finding an accurate map of the Ganga River system in India is almost as difficult as in Columbus's time. In 2017, the Survey of India started operating according to a new law. Any maps of India published in India must first be sent there. Often, the maps languish in their office for several months. Nine out of ten times, they send the map back with corrections and changes.

Often, they look like the kind of simplistic maps used when we were schoolchildren. Showing Tibet is a no-no, as is showing the borders. Violators risk forty-five days in jail and a fine. Children are growing up with distorted maps of the country. This is an incredible paradox at a time when Google Maps offers such exquisite detail.

Traditionally, Gangaji was the one who did not honour boundaries – she was the place where bodies disappeared, the place where a rigidly bound society slipped off its boundaries. Today we violate her boundaries, half-disappeared and sewage-choked, strapped up with barrages and dams. In the old days, sages would learn how Gangaji changed during the monsoon season. Now, the river's personality is determined more by the opening and shutting of the barrage gates.

Time and water are both flowing faster. For millennia, most of the rain in the subcontinent has fallen within one hundred stormy hours during the three-month monsoon season in northern India. With each passing year, more rain falls within a shorter time span. According to the World Economic Forum, out of sixty-seven surveyed countries, India is the most vulnerable to climate change.

As peak rainfall becomes more intense, landslides – already an existential threat to thousands of mountain villages – will become more common. The monsoon crops, chief among them rice, will be alternately drowned and starved, and the summer crops will die if more irrigation cannot be drawn from the limited water table. But a lot of solutions exist.

Through this troubled landscape winds the mighty river, now glimmering, now dull, now out of sight. Each day, with our excreta, our disavowal of balance and responsibility and our acceptance of the legacy of industrialisation, we are writing a dark chapter in the biography of this ancient goddess, the eternal life force, the Ganga River.

Q. Which of the following is most similar to the 'incredible paradox' that the author discusses in the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 16 The author presents a paradox in the passage about what children are taught at school. A paradox is something that starts with something apparently true and that leads to unacceptable conclusions. The passage describes that children are exposed to distorted maps at school but if students find the map online that offers a lot of detail, what they have read about in school would be proved to be untrue. A similar paradox is presented in option B with a similar situation about news. Other options are not parallel to what is presented in the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 17

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In our current age, finding an accurate map of the Ganga River system in India is almost as difficult as in Columbus's time. In 2017, the Survey of India started operating according to a new law. Any maps of India published in India must first be sent there. Often, the maps languish in their office for several months. Nine out of ten times, they send the map back with corrections and changes.

Often, they look like the kind of simplistic maps used when we were schoolchildren. Showing Tibet is a no-no, as is showing the borders. Violators risk forty-five days in jail and a fine. Children are growing up with distorted maps of the country. This is an incredible paradox at a time when Google Maps offers such exquisite detail.

Traditionally, Gangaji was the one who did not honour boundaries – she was the place where bodies disappeared, the place where a rigidly bound society slipped off its boundaries. Today we violate her boundaries, half-disappeared and sewage-choked, strapped up with barrages and dams. In the old days, sages would learn how Gangaji changed during the monsoon season. Now, the river's personality is determined more by the opening and shutting of the barrage gates.

Time and water are both flowing faster. For millennia, most of the rain in the subcontinent has fallen within one hundred stormy hours during the three-month monsoon season in northern India. With each passing year, more rain falls within a shorter time span. According to the World Economic Forum, out of sixty-seven surveyed countries, India is the most vulnerable to climate change.

As peak rainfall becomes more intense, landslides – already an existential threat to thousands of mountain villages – will become more common. The monsoon crops, chief among them rice, will be alternately drowned and starved, and the summer crops will die if more irrigation cannot be drawn from the limited water table. But a lot of solutions exist.

Through this troubled landscape winds the mighty river, now glimmering, now dull, now out of sight. Each day, with our excreta, our disavowal of balance and responsibility and our acceptance of the legacy of industrialisation, we are writing a dark chapter in the biography of this ancient goddess, the eternal life force, the Ganga River.

Q. What does the phrase 'strapped up' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 17 The correct answer is option B. The author is using the phrase 'strapped up' to suggest that the river is constrained to flow in a predetermined manner as suggested by 'barrages and dams'. Given this meaning, the options 1, 3 and 4 cannot be correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 18

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In our current age, finding an accurate map of the Ganga River system in India is almost as difficult as in Columbus's time. In 2017, the Survey of India started operating according to a new law. Any maps of India published in India must first be sent there. Often, the maps languish in their office for several months. Nine out of ten times, they send the map back with corrections and changes.

Often, they look like the kind of simplistic maps used when we were schoolchildren. Showing Tibet is a no-no, as is showing the borders. Violators risk forty-five days in jail and a fine. Children are growing up with distorted maps of the country. This is an incredible paradox at a time when Google Maps offers such exquisite detail.

Traditionally, Gangaji was the one who did not honour boundaries – she was the place where bodies disappeared, the place where a rigidly bound society slipped off its boundaries. Today we violate her boundaries, half-disappeared and sewage-choked, strapped up with barrages and dams. In the old days, sages would learn how Gangaji changed during the monsoon season. Now, the river's personality is determined more by the opening and shutting of the barrage gates.

Time and water are both flowing faster. For millennia, most of the rain in the subcontinent has fallen within one hundred stormy hours during the three-month monsoon season in northern India. With each passing year, more rain falls within a shorter time span. According to the World Economic Forum, out of sixty-seven surveyed countries, India is the most vulnerable to climate change.

As peak rainfall becomes more intense, landslides – already an existential threat to thousands of mountain villages – will become more common. The monsoon crops, chief among them rice, will be alternately drowned and starved, and the summer crops will die if more irrigation cannot be drawn from the limited water table. But a lot of solutions exist.

Through this troubled landscape winds the mighty river, now glimmering, now dull, now out of sight. Each day, with our excreta, our disavowal of balance and responsibility and our acceptance of the legacy of industrialisation, we are writing a dark chapter in the biography of this ancient goddess, the eternal life force, the Ganga River.

Q. Which of the following sums up the author's main point in the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 18 The correct answer is option D. The author begins by discussing that an accurate map the Ganga is difficult to come across. The author then states that traditionally the Ganga did not observe borders and that now the river is determined by 'barrage gates'. From there the author then discusses the problems associated with this and concludes that humans are writing a dark chapter regarding the Ganga. All of this points to option 4 as the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 19

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In our current age, finding an accurate map of the Ganga River system in India is almost as difficult as in Columbus's time. In 2017, the Survey of India started operating according to a new law. Any maps of India published in India must first be sent there. Often, the maps languish in their office for several months. Nine out of ten times, they send the map back with corrections and changes.

Often, they look like the kind of simplistic maps used when we were schoolchildren. Showing Tibet is a no-no, as is showing the borders. Violators risk forty-five days in jail and a fine. Children are growing up with distorted maps of the country. This is an incredible paradox at a time when Google Maps offers such exquisite detail.

Traditionally, Gangaji was the one who did not honour boundaries – she was the place where bodies disappeared, the place where a rigidly bound society slipped off its boundaries. Today we violate her boundaries, half-disappeared and sewage-choked, strapped up with barrages and dams. In the old days, sages would learn how Gangaji changed during the monsoon season. Now, the river's personality is determined more by the opening and shutting of the barrage gates.

Time and water are both flowing faster. For millennia, most of the rain in the subcontinent has fallen within one hundred stormy hours during the three-month monsoon season in northern India. With each passing year, more rain falls within a shorter time span. According to the World Economic Forum, out of sixty-seven surveyed countries, India is the most vulnerable to climate change.

As peak rainfall becomes more intense, landslides – already an existential threat to thousands of mountain villages – will become more common. The monsoon crops, chief among them rice, will be alternately drowned and starved, and the summer crops will die if more irrigation cannot be drawn from the limited water table. But a lot of solutions exist.

Through this troubled landscape winds the mighty river, now glimmering, now dull, now out of sight. Each day, with our excreta, our disavowal of balance and responsibility and our acceptance of the legacy of industrialisation, we are writing a dark chapter in the biography of this ancient goddess, the eternal life force, the Ganga River.

Q. Based on the information in the given passage, which of the following can we ascribe to the river Ganga?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 19 The correct answer is option D. These are described in the passage in these lines: "Traditionally, Gangaji was the one who did not honour boundaries – she was the place where bodies disappeared, the place where a rigidly bound society slipped off its boundaries. Today we violate her boundaries, half-disappeared and sewage-choked, strapped up with barrages and dams."
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 20

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

In our current age, finding an accurate map of the Ganga River system in India is almost as difficult as in Columbus's time. In 2017, the Survey of India started operating according to a new law. Any maps of India published in India must first be sent there. Often, the maps languish in their office for several months. Nine out of ten times, they send the map back with corrections and changes.

Often, they look like the kind of simplistic maps used when we were schoolchildren. Showing Tibet is a no-no, as is showing the borders. Violators risk forty-five days in jail and a fine. Children are growing up with distorted maps of the country. This is an incredible paradox at a time when Google Maps offers such exquisite detail.

Traditionally, Gangaji was the one who did not honour boundaries – she was the place where bodies disappeared, the place where a rigidly bound society slipped off its boundaries. Today we violate her boundaries, half-disappeared and sewage-choked, strapped up with barrages and dams. In the old days, sages would learn how Gangaji changed during the monsoon season. Now, the river's personality is determined more by the opening and shutting of the barrage gates.

Time and water are both flowing faster. For millennia, most of the rain in the subcontinent has fallen within one hundred stormy hours during the three-month monsoon season in northern India. With each passing year, more rain falls within a shorter time span. According to the World Economic Forum, out of sixty-seven surveyed countries, India is the most vulnerable to climate change.

As peak rainfall becomes more intense, landslides – already an existential threat to thousands of mountain villages – will become more common. The monsoon crops, chief among them rice, will be alternately drowned and starved, and the summer crops will die if more irrigation cannot be drawn from the limited water table. But a lot of solutions exist.

Through this troubled landscape winds the mighty river, now glimmering, now dull, now out of sight. Each day, with our excreta, our disavowal of balance and responsibility and our acceptance of the legacy of industrialisation, we are writing a dark chapter in the biography of this ancient goddess, the eternal life force, the Ganga River.

Q. Based on the information in the given passage, which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 20 The correct answer is option D. In the third paragraph the author states that the river's 'personality', referring to its looks and flow, is 'determined more by the opening and shutting of the barrage gates'. This is followed by the description of several problems arising out of our restricting the boundaries of Ganga and then the final paragraph which describes the Ganga as it flows through 'this troubled landscape'. From this, it can be inferred that the author may believe that by allowing the Ganga to flow more naturally, some of the problems may be eased.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 21

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Five years older than Free India, the India of Quit India was geopolitically undivided, emotionally self-confident, and capable of sacrifice, of suffering in its very confidence. But that India of Quit India was about more than a challenge to the British raj, more than a proclamation of India's readiness and ability to participate in the war effort as an equal partner of the Allies, something which neither London nor Delhi was willing to recognise. That India was about a unifying wholeness. It was about a unity of resolves and, therefore, of action in and for that unity, that wholeness.

In his iconic address at the 'monster' meeting at Gowalia Tank in Bombay on August 8, 1942 at which the Quit India resolution was passed, Gandhi spoke of "the coming revolution" that would throw colonialism and imperialism off the nation's back. But he devoted as much if not more time in his address to 'India' than to Britain's rule over India. The Hindu-Muslim impasse and the call for Partition were on his mind. Gandhi had in mind a clear concept — a united India — but he also had in mind clear examples of those who strove and died in the striving for a non-sectarian, non-communal, non-distrusting India.

On this double anniversary — the 80th of Quit India and the 75th of Free India — those who believe that the different communities who make up the peoplehood of India are equal and equally bound by duties and empowered by rights must celebrate the bravehearts who died for that unity, for that equality. The Greats of the struggle for freedom are being commemorated. But the no-less Greats of the struggle for harmony deserve no less. Their names bear wounds and their memories scars. These demand our attention. But more, our solidarity. Gujarat gave an immortal example of what may be termed heroic deaths for harmony. On July 1, 1946, an annual rath yatra was to take place. Tension rose around the procession and violence followed between the two communities. Two friends, Vasantrao Hegishte and Rajab Ali Lakhani, "staved off... rioters, the former protecting Muslims and the latter saving Hindus, and both losing their lives".

On this double anniversary, seventy-five salutes and eighty genuflections to these heroes and — not to forget — to the heroic women in their bereaved families. Thinking of them how small our pre-occupations seem and how blind to the lethal dangers that incubate in disharmony. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had observed and applauded Quit India in August 1942. He was not there to see Free India in 1947. But his beckoning hand points to the motto he gave to his Indian National Army: Etihaad (unity), Etmad (faith) and Kurbani (sacrifice) — for the greatness of a Hindustan which is now our India that is Bharat.

Q. Which of the following is the most prominent theme/idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 21 The whole passage revolves around the central idea of 'unity' or unified India. 'That India was about a unifying wholeness' in paragraph 1, 'Gandhi had in mind a clear concept — a united India' in paragraph 2, 'those who believe that . . . died for that unity' in paragraph 3 and 'greatness of a Hindustan which is now our India that is Bharat' in paragraph 4, all point towards 'unity' as the central theme of the passage. Nothing about 'prejudice' can be inferred.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 22

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Five years older than Free India, the India of Quit India was geopolitically undivided, emotionally self-confident, and capable of sacrifice, of suffering in its very confidence. But that India of Quit India was about more than a challenge to the British raj, more than a proclamation of India's readiness and ability to participate in the war effort as an equal partner of the Allies, something which neither London nor Delhi was willing to recognise. That India was about a unifying wholeness. It was about a unity of resolves and, therefore, of action in and for that unity, that wholeness.

In his iconic address at the 'monster' meeting at Gowalia Tank in Bombay on August 8, 1942 at which the Quit India resolution was passed, Gandhi spoke of "the coming revolution" that would throw colonialism and imperialism off the nation's back. But he devoted as much if not more time in his address to 'India' than to Britain's rule over India. The Hindu-Muslim impasse and the call for Partition were on his mind. Gandhi had in mind a clear concept — a united India — but he also had in mind clear examples of those who strove and died in the striving for a non-sectarian, non-communal, non-distrusting India.

On this double anniversary — the 80th of Quit India and the 75th of Free India — those who believe that the different communities who make up the peoplehood of India are equal and equally bound by duties and empowered by rights must celebrate the bravehearts who died for that unity, for that equality. The Greats of the struggle for freedom are being commemorated. But the no-less Greats of the struggle for harmony deserve no less. Their names bear wounds and their memories scars. These demand our attention. But more, our solidarity. Gujarat gave an immortal example of what may be termed heroic deaths for harmony. On July 1, 1946, an annual rath yatra was to take place. Tension rose around the procession and violence followed between the two communities. Two friends, Vasantrao Hegishte and Rajab Ali Lakhani, "staved off... rioters, the former protecting Muslims and the latter saving Hindus, and both losing their lives".

On this double anniversary, seventy-five salutes and eighty genuflections to these heroes and — not to forget — to the heroic women in their bereaved families. Thinking of them how small our pre-occupations seem and how blind to the lethal dangers that incubate in disharmony. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had observed and applauded Quit India in August 1942. He was not there to see Free India in 1947. But his beckoning hand points to the motto he gave to his Indian National Army: Etihaad (unity), Etmad (faith) and Kurbani (sacrifice) — for the greatness of a Hindustan which is now our India that is Bharat.

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 22 Only option A can be inferred from 'The Greats of the struggle for freedom are being commemorated. But the no-less Greats of the struggle for harmony deserve no less' in the third paragraph. The author, in the whole passage, is stressing upon the unity and the idea of 'Bharat'. Nothing about Gandhi being confused between the 'pros' and 'cons' can be inferred. Also, nothing is mentioned about the level of India's preparation to help allies in their war effort. While it is true that many participated, option D is extreme as it uses 'each and every', which cannot be inferred.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 23

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Five years older than Free India, the India of Quit India was geopolitically undivided, emotionally self-confident, and capable of sacrifice, of suffering in its very confidence. But that India of Quit India was about more than a challenge to the British raj, more than a proclamation of India's readiness and ability to participate in the war effort as an equal partner of the Allies, something which neither London nor Delhi was willing to recognise. That India was about a unifying wholeness. It was about a unity of resolves and, therefore, of action in and for that unity, that wholeness.

In his iconic address at the 'monster' meeting at Gowalia Tank in Bombay on August 8, 1942 at which the Quit India resolution was passed, Gandhi spoke of "the coming revolution" that would throw colonialism and imperialism off the nation's back. But he devoted as much if not more time in his address to 'India' than to Britain's rule over India. The Hindu-Muslim impasse and the call for Partition were on his mind. Gandhi had in mind a clear concept — a united India — but he also had in mind clear examples of those who strove and died in the striving for a non-sectarian, non-communal, non-distrusting India.

On this double anniversary — the 80th of Quit India and the 75th of Free India — those who believe that the different communities who make up the peoplehood of India are equal and equally bound by duties and empowered by rights must celebrate the bravehearts who died for that unity, for that equality. The Greats of the struggle for freedom are being commemorated. But the no-less Greats of the struggle for harmony deserve no less. Their names bear wounds and their memories scars. These demand our attention. But more, our solidarity. Gujarat gave an immortal example of what may be termed heroic deaths for harmony. On July 1, 1946, an annual rath yatra was to take place. Tension rose around the procession and violence followed between the two communities. Two friends, Vasantrao Hegishte and Rajab Ali Lakhani, "staved off... rioters, the former protecting Muslims and the latter saving Hindus, and both losing their lives".

On this double anniversary, seventy-five salutes and eighty genuflections to these heroes and — not to forget — to the heroic women in their bereaved families. Thinking of them how small our pre-occupations seem and how blind to the lethal dangers that incubate in disharmony. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had observed and applauded Quit India in August 1942. He was not there to see Free India in 1947. But his beckoning hand points to the motto he gave to his Indian National Army: Etihaad (unity), Etmad (faith) and Kurbani (sacrifice) — for the greatness of a Hindustan which is now our India that is Bharat.

Q. The phrase 'staved off', in context of the passage, means:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 23 The phrase 'stave off' means to avert or delay something bad or dangerous. Thus, according to the example given in the passage, the two friends delayed the rioters to protect the citizens. Thus, option D is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 24

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Five years older than Free India, the India of Quit India was geopolitically undivided, emotionally self-confident, and capable of sacrifice, of suffering in its very confidence. But that India of Quit India was about more than a challenge to the British raj, more than a proclamation of India's readiness and ability to participate in the war effort as an equal partner of the Allies, something which neither London nor Delhi was willing to recognise. That India was about a unifying wholeness. It was about a unity of resolves and, therefore, of action in and for that unity, that wholeness.

In his iconic address at the 'monster' meeting at Gowalia Tank in Bombay on August 8, 1942 at which the Quit India resolution was passed, Gandhi spoke of "the coming revolution" that would throw colonialism and imperialism off the nation's back. But he devoted as much if not more time in his address to 'India' than to Britain's rule over India. The Hindu-Muslim impasse and the call for Partition were on his mind. Gandhi had in mind a clear concept — a united India — but he also had in mind clear examples of those who strove and died in the striving for a non-sectarian, non-communal, non-distrusting India.

On this double anniversary — the 80th of Quit India and the 75th of Free India — those who believe that the different communities who make up the peoplehood of India are equal and equally bound by duties and empowered by rights must celebrate the bravehearts who died for that unity, for that equality. The Greats of the struggle for freedom are being commemorated. But the no-less Greats of the struggle for harmony deserve no less. Their names bear wounds and their memories scars. These demand our attention. But more, our solidarity. Gujarat gave an immortal example of what may be termed heroic deaths for harmony. On July 1, 1946, an annual rath yatra was to take place. Tension rose around the procession and violence followed between the two communities. Two friends, Vasantrao Hegishte and Rajab Ali Lakhani, "staved off... rioters, the former protecting Muslims and the latter saving Hindus, and both losing their lives".

On this double anniversary, seventy-five salutes and eighty genuflections to these heroes and — not to forget — to the heroic women in their bereaved families. Thinking of them how small our pre-occupations seem and how blind to the lethal dangers that incubate in disharmony. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had observed and applauded Quit India in August 1942. He was not there to see Free India in 1947. But his beckoning hand points to the motto he gave to his Indian National Army: Etihaad (unity), Etmad (faith) and Kurbani (sacrifice) — for the greatness of a Hindustan which is now our India that is Bharat.

Q. It can be said that India

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 24 The answer can be inferred from 'Five years older than Free India, . . . in its very confidence' and 'That India was about a unifying wholeness' in the 1st paragraph. Thus, option B is the answer. No 'rebellion ideology' or 'opposition to Gandhian politics' can be inferred. Similarly, nothing about the demands of the population is mentioned in the passage.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 25

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Five years older than Free India, the India of Quit India was geopolitically undivided, emotionally self-confident, and capable of sacrifice, of suffering in its very confidence. But that India of Quit India was about more than a challenge to the British raj, more than a proclamation of India's readiness and ability to participate in the war effort as an equal partner of the Allies, something which neither London nor Delhi was willing to recognise. That India was about a unifying wholeness. It was about a unity of resolves and, therefore, of action in and for that unity, that wholeness.

In his iconic address at the 'monster' meeting at Gowalia Tank in Bombay on August 8, 1942 at which the Quit India resolution was passed, Gandhi spoke of "the coming revolution" that would throw colonialism and imperialism off the nation's back. But he devoted as much if not more time in his address to 'India' than to Britain's rule over India. The Hindu-Muslim impasse and the call for Partition were on his mind. Gandhi had in mind a clear concept — a united India — but he also had in mind clear examples of those who strove and died in the striving for a non-sectarian, non-communal, non-distrusting India.

On this double anniversary — the 80th of Quit India and the 75th of Free India — those who believe that the different communities who make up the peoplehood of India are equal and equally bound by duties and empowered by rights must celebrate the bravehearts who died for that unity, for that equality. The Greats of the struggle for freedom are being commemorated. But the no-less Greats of the struggle for harmony deserve no less. Their names bear wounds and their memories scars. These demand our attention. But more, our solidarity. Gujarat gave an immortal example of what may be termed heroic deaths for harmony. On July 1, 1946, an annual rath yatra was to take place. Tension rose around the procession and violence followed between the two communities. Two friends, Vasantrao Hegishte and Rajab Ali Lakhani, "staved off... rioters, the former protecting Muslims and the latter saving Hindus, and both losing their lives".

On this double anniversary, seventy-five salutes and eighty genuflections to these heroes and — not to forget — to the heroic women in their bereaved families. Thinking of them how small our pre-occupations seem and how blind to the lethal dangers that incubate in disharmony. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had observed and applauded Quit India in August 1942. He was not there to see Free India in 1947. But his beckoning hand points to the motto he gave to his Indian National Army: Etihaad (unity), Etmad (faith) and Kurbani (sacrifice) — for the greatness of a Hindustan which is now our India that is Bharat.

Q. The author is of the opinion that:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 25 Option A can be inferred from 'not to forget - to the heroic women in their bereaved families' in the last paragraph. Passive participants refer to 'heroic women' who suffered equally. Nothing about option B can be inferred. Thus, option A is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 26

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Climate change is a global concern and requires a well-coordinated global approach to address it. In simple terms, what needs to be done is to assess and monitor the net stock of GHG (greenhouse gases) present in the atmosphere at any given time, and work out ways to contain/reduce it.

Unlike many pollutant gases that have a relatively shorter life span once emitted, GHG can remain in the atmosphere for a fairly long time. For instance, carbon dioxide, the major constituent of GHG, can remain in the atmosphere for as long as a thousand years.

The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century and industrialisation in the world added to great volumes of GHG in the atmosphere over time. Unfortunately, the realisation of their adverse impact on climate came quite late.

To address this, substantial financial resources and the latest technologies are required. Developed countries, which are responsible for creating this mess in the first place and have the better financial capacity and technological capability, have to bear the major burden for this. They need to provide funds to the developing countries and facilitate technology transfers. This is the basic philosophy behind the "common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities" principle.

Unfortunately, despite all the talk, this is not happening. In the COP (Conference of the Parties) meeting in Copenhagen in 2009, developed countries pledged to channel $100 billion a year to developing countries by 2020 to help them adapt to and mitigate climate change. This pledge is nowhere near being honoured. Developed countries have tried to further confuse the matter with accounting issues. Many have come out with various win-win solutions trying to obfuscate the need for financial transfers.

Excessive hot weather, untimely and excessive rains, flooding and extreme climatic conditions this year have affected people across the world. It is, however, the poor and developing countries in Africa, South Asia and Latin America which suffer the most due to a lack of resources to deal with the problem. Even if these countries were to follow the emissions discipline strictly individually, they might still suffer the climate change consequences.

India has shown leadership in declaring voluntary, ambitious NDCs (Nationally Determined Contribution) in Paris, followed by bold commitments in COPs thereafter. This is likely to motivate others, especially developing countries, to follow. But this is certainly not enough and may only serve a limited purpose.

India should use its global stature, lobbying power and leadership to take the bull by its horns – make developed countries do what they should rightly be doing, be it during the COP meetings on climate change or in other forums like G-20. As India takes over the G-20 presidency, this should be our main agenda. The developed country members of G-20 routinely corner developing countries over the subsidy issue in these meetings. It is time now to show them the mirror.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 26 In the 4th paragraph, it is mentioned that '"developed countries pledged to channel $100 billion a year to developing countries by 2020 to help them adapt to and mitigate climate change'. This pledge is nowhere near being honoured. Developed countries have tried to further confuse the matter with accounting issues. Many have come out with various win-win solutions trying to obfuscate the need for financial transfers." Option A is incorrect as developed countries are just obfuscating the matter and have not sent any money. Option B is incorrect as it is not mentioned anywhere in the passage. Option D is incorrect as the realisation came very late. Option C is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 27

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Climate change is a global concern and requires a well-coordinated global approach to address it. In simple terms, what needs to be done is to assess and monitor the net stock of GHG (greenhouse gases) present in the atmosphere at any given time, and work out ways to contain/reduce it.

Unlike many pollutant gases that have a relatively shorter life span once emitted, GHG can remain in the atmosphere for a fairly long time. For instance, carbon dioxide, the major constituent of GHG, can remain in the atmosphere for as long as a thousand years.

The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century and industrialisation in the world added to great volumes of GHG in the atmosphere over time. Unfortunately, the realisation of their adverse impact on climate came quite late.

To address this, substantial financial resources and the latest technologies are required. Developed countries, which are responsible for creating this mess in the first place and have the better financial capacity and technological capability, have to bear the major burden for this. They need to provide funds to the developing countries and facilitate technology transfers. This is the basic philosophy behind the "common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities" principle.

Unfortunately, despite all the talk, this is not happening. In the COP (Conference of the Parties) meeting in Copenhagen in 2009, developed countries pledged to channel $100 billion a year to developing countries by 2020 to help them adapt to and mitigate climate change. This pledge is nowhere near being honoured. Developed countries have tried to further confuse the matter with accounting issues. Many have come out with various win-win solutions trying to obfuscate the need for financial transfers.

Excessive hot weather, untimely and excessive rains, flooding and extreme climatic conditions this year have affected people across the world. It is, however, the poor and developing countries in Africa, South Asia and Latin America which suffer the most due to a lack of resources to deal with the problem. Even if these countries were to follow the emissions discipline strictly individually, they might still suffer the climate change consequences.

India has shown leadership in declaring voluntary, ambitious NDCs (Nationally Determined Contribution) in Paris, followed by bold commitments in COPs thereafter. This is likely to motivate others, especially developing countries, to follow. But this is certainly not enough and may only serve a limited purpose.

India should use its global stature, lobbying power and leadership to take the bull by its horns – make developed countries do what they should rightly be doing, be it during the COP meetings on climate change or in other forums like G-20. As India takes over the G-20 presidency, this should be our main agenda. The developed country members of G-20 routinely corner developing countries over the subsidy issue in these meetings. It is time now to show them the mirror.

Q. The tone of the passage is:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 27 Throughout the passage, the tone of the author is critical. He repeatedly mentions the negatives of developed countries.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 28

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Climate change is a global concern and requires a well-coordinated global approach to address it. In simple terms, what needs to be done is to assess and monitor the net stock of GHG (greenhouse gases) present in the atmosphere at any given time, and work out ways to contain/reduce it.

Unlike many pollutant gases that have a relatively shorter life span once emitted, GHG can remain in the atmosphere for a fairly long time. For instance, carbon dioxide, the major constituent of GHG, can remain in the atmosphere for as long as a thousand years.

The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century and industrialisation in the world added to great volumes of GHG in the atmosphere over time. Unfortunately, the realisation of their adverse impact on climate came quite late.

To address this, substantial financial resources and the latest technologies are required. Developed countries, which are responsible for creating this mess in the first place and have the better financial capacity and technological capability, have to bear the major burden for this. They need to provide funds to the developing countries and facilitate technology transfers. This is the basic philosophy behind the "common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities" principle.

Unfortunately, despite all the talk, this is not happening. In the COP (Conference of the Parties) meeting in Copenhagen in 2009, developed countries pledged to channel $100 billion a year to developing countries by 2020 to help them adapt to and mitigate climate change. This pledge is nowhere near being honoured. Developed countries have tried to further confuse the matter with accounting issues. Many have come out with various win-win solutions trying to obfuscate the need for financial transfers.

Excessive hot weather, untimely and excessive rains, flooding and extreme climatic conditions this year have affected people across the world. It is, however, the poor and developing countries in Africa, South Asia and Latin America which suffer the most due to a lack of resources to deal with the problem. Even if these countries were to follow the emissions discipline strictly individually, they might still suffer the climate change consequences.

India has shown leadership in declaring voluntary, ambitious NDCs (Nationally Determined Contribution) in Paris, followed by bold commitments in COPs thereafter. This is likely to motivate others, especially developing countries, to follow. But this is certainly not enough and may only serve a limited purpose.

India should use its global stature, lobbying power and leadership to take the bull by its horns – make developed countries do what they should rightly be doing, be it during the COP meetings on climate change or in other forums like G-20. As India takes over the G-20 presidency, this should be our main agenda. The developed country members of G-20 routinely corner developing countries over the subsidy issue in these meetings. It is time now to show them the mirror.

Q. Which of the following can most likely be used as an antonym for the word 'obfuscate'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 28 'Obfuscate' is mentioned in the last paragraph - 'Developed countries have tried to further confuse the matter with accounting issues. Many have come out with various win-win solutions trying to obfuscate the need for financial transfers.' 'Obfuscate' means to confuse. Thus, many have come out with solutions trying to muddle the need for financial transfers. 'Explicate', on the other hand, means to explain something in detail or clarify. Thus, they are antonyms of each other. Other options are unrelated to the given word.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 29

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Climate change is a global concern and requires a well-coordinated global approach to address it. In simple terms, what needs to be done is to assess and monitor the net stock of GHG (greenhouse gases) present in the atmosphere at any given time, and work out ways to contain/reduce it.

Unlike many pollutant gases that have a relatively shorter life span once emitted, GHG can remain in the atmosphere for a fairly long time. For instance, carbon dioxide, the major constituent of GHG, can remain in the atmosphere for as long as a thousand years.

The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century and industrialisation in the world added to great volumes of GHG in the atmosphere over time. Unfortunately, the realisation of their adverse impact on climate came quite late.

To address this, substantial financial resources and the latest technologies are required. Developed countries, which are responsible for creating this mess in the first place and have the better financial capacity and technological capability, have to bear the major burden for this. They need to provide funds to the developing countries and facilitate technology transfers. This is the basic philosophy behind the "common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities" principle.

Unfortunately, despite all the talk, this is not happening. In the COP (Conference of the Parties) meeting in Copenhagen in 2009, developed countries pledged to channel $100 billion a year to developing countries by 2020 to help them adapt to and mitigate climate change. This pledge is nowhere near being honoured. Developed countries have tried to further confuse the matter with accounting issues. Many have come out with various win-win solutions trying to obfuscate the need for financial transfers.

Excessive hot weather, untimely and excessive rains, flooding and extreme climatic conditions this year have affected people across the world. It is, however, the poor and developing countries in Africa, South Asia and Latin America which suffer the most due to a lack of resources to deal with the problem. Even if these countries were to follow the emissions discipline strictly individually, they might still suffer the climate change consequences.

India has shown leadership in declaring voluntary, ambitious NDCs (Nationally Determined Contribution) in Paris, followed by bold commitments in COPs thereafter. This is likely to motivate others, especially developing countries, to follow. But this is certainly not enough and may only serve a limited purpose.

India should use its global stature, lobbying power and leadership to take the bull by its horns – make developed countries do what they should rightly be doing, be it during the COP meetings on climate change or in other forums like G-20. As India takes over the G-20 presidency, this should be our main agenda. The developed country members of G-20 routinely corner developing countries over the subsidy issue in these meetings. It is time now to show them the mirror.

Q. The author is trying to ______ that India must use its ______ to make developed countries follow the right path.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 29 In the last paragraph, it is mentioned that 'India should use its global stature, lobbying power and leadership to take the bull by its horns – make developed countries do what they should rightly be doing'. Thus, option A is correct.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 30

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Climate change is a global concern and requires a well-coordinated global approach to address it. In simple terms, what needs to be done is to assess and monitor the net stock of GHG (greenhouse gases) present in the atmosphere at any given time, and work out ways to contain/reduce it.

Unlike many pollutant gases that have a relatively shorter life span once emitted, GHG can remain in the atmosphere for a fairly long time. For instance, carbon dioxide, the major constituent of GHG, can remain in the atmosphere for as long as a thousand years.

The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century and industrialisation in the world added to great volumes of GHG in the atmosphere over time. Unfortunately, the realisation of their adverse impact on climate came quite late.

To address this, substantial financial resources and the latest technologies are required. Developed countries, which are responsible for creating this mess in the first place and have the better financial capacity and technological capability, have to bear the major burden for this. They need to provide funds to the developing countries and facilitate technology transfers. This is the basic philosophy behind the "common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities" principle.

Unfortunately, despite all the talk, this is not happening. In the COP (Conference of the Parties) meeting in Copenhagen in 2009, developed countries pledged to channel $100 billion a year to developing countries by 2020 to help them adapt to and mitigate climate change. This pledge is nowhere near being honoured. Developed countries have tried to further confuse the matter with accounting issues. Many have come out with various win-win solutions trying to obfuscate the need for financial transfers.

Excessive hot weather, untimely and excessive rains, flooding and extreme climatic conditions this year have affected people across the world. It is, however, the poor and developing countries in Africa, South Asia and Latin America which suffer the most due to a lack of resources to deal with the problem. Even if these countries were to follow the emissions discipline strictly individually, they might still suffer the climate change consequences.

India has shown leadership in declaring voluntary, ambitious NDCs (Nationally Determined Contribution) in Paris, followed by bold commitments in COPs thereafter. This is likely to motivate others, especially developing countries, to follow. But this is certainly not enough and may only serve a limited purpose.

India should use its global stature, lobbying power and leadership to take the bull by its horns – make developed countries do what they should rightly be doing, be it during the COP meetings on climate change or in other forums like G-20. As India takes over the G-20 presidency, this should be our main agenda. The developed country members of G-20 routinely corner developing countries over the subsidy issue in these meetings. It is time now to show them the mirror.

Q. Which of the following is the main conclusion evident from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 30 Option A is incorrect as it is a vague statement. Option B is not the conclusion but is mentioned randomly in the 5th paragraph of the passage. Option D is incorrect as it is also a vague statement. Option C is correct as it is mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage – 'India should use its global stature, lobbying power and leadership to take the bull by its horns – make developed countries do what they should rightly be doing, be it during the COP meetings on climate change or in other forums like G-20.'
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 31

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A study shows that corals are under siege from global warming. Fourteen percent of the world's corals were lost between 2009 and 2018. Global warming has killed 14% of the world's coral reefs in a decade and more will be wiped out if oceans keep rising in temperature, a study released has revealed. According to a report, coral reefs equalling about 11,700 square kilometres - which is 2.5 times the size of Grand Canyon National Park - were lost between 2009 and 2018.

Climate change is the biggest threat to the world's reefs, co-author Paul Hardisty, CEO of the Australian Institute of Marine Science, said in a statement shared by the UN. There are clearly unsettling trends toward coral loss, and we can expect these to continue as warming persists, he added. The report by the United Nations-supported global data network is the largest ever survey of coral health and covers data for 40 years, among 73 countries and 12,000 locations.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Climate Change Killed 14% of World's Coral Reefs in 10 Years: Study', Outlook India]

Q. Which organisation releases the report on the condition of coral reefs?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 31 The Global Coral Reef Monitoring Network (GCRMN) is an operational network of the International Coral Reef Initiative that aims to provide the best available scientific information on the status and trends of coral reef ecosystems for their conservation and management.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 32

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A study shows that corals are under siege from global warming. Fourteen percent of the world's corals were lost between 2009 and 2018. Global warming has killed 14% of the world's coral reefs in a decade and more will be wiped out if oceans keep rising in temperature, a study released has revealed. According to a report, coral reefs equalling about 11,700 square kilometres - which is 2.5 times the size of Grand Canyon National Park - were lost between 2009 and 2018.

Climate change is the biggest threat to the world's reefs, co-author Paul Hardisty, CEO of the Australian Institute of Marine Science, said in a statement shared by the UN. There are clearly unsettling trends toward coral loss, and we can expect these to continue as warming persists, he added. The report by the United Nations-supported global data network is the largest ever survey of coral health and covers data for 40 years, among 73 countries and 12,000 locations.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Climate Change Killed 14% of World's Coral Reefs in 10 Years: Study', Outlook India]

Q. Identify the correct statement(s) related to coral reefs.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 32 Coral reefs are large underwater structures composed of the skeletons of colonial marine invertebrates called coral. The coral species that build reefs are known as hermatypic, or hard corals.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 33

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A study shows that corals are under siege from global warming. Fourteen percent of the world's corals were lost between 2009 and 2018. Global warming has killed 14% of the world's coral reefs in a decade and more will be wiped out if oceans keep rising in temperature, a study released has revealed. According to a report, coral reefs equalling about 11,700 square kilometres - which is 2.5 times the size of Grand Canyon National Park - were lost between 2009 and 2018.

Climate change is the biggest threat to the world's reefs, co-author Paul Hardisty, CEO of the Australian Institute of Marine Science, said in a statement shared by the UN. There are clearly unsettling trends toward coral loss, and we can expect these to continue as warming persists, he added. The report by the United Nations-supported global data network is the largest ever survey of coral health and covers data for 40 years, among 73 countries and 12,000 locations.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Climate Change Killed 14% of World's Coral Reefs in 10 Years: Study', Outlook India]

Q. What provides corals with their lively colours?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 33 Corals have a symbiotic, or mutually beneficial, relationship with the zooxanthellae. The zooxanthellae provides corals with their lively colours. Most coral polyp bodies are transparent and colourless without zooxanthellae. About 25% of all known marine species rely on coral reefs for food, shelter and breeding. These are sometimes referred to as 'the rainforests of the sea' for their biodiversity.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 34

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A study shows that corals are under siege from global warming. Fourteen percent of the world's corals were lost between 2009 and 2018. Global warming has killed 14% of the world's coral reefs in a decade and more will be wiped out if oceans keep rising in temperature, a study released has revealed. According to a report, coral reefs equalling about 11,700 square kilometres - which is 2.5 times the size of Grand Canyon National Park - were lost between 2009 and 2018.

Climate change is the biggest threat to the world's reefs, co-author Paul Hardisty, CEO of the Australian Institute of Marine Science, said in a statement shared by the UN. There are clearly unsettling trends toward coral loss, and we can expect these to continue as warming persists, he added. The report by the United Nations-supported global data network is the largest ever survey of coral health and covers data for 40 years, among 73 countries and 12,000 locations.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Climate Change Killed 14% of World's Coral Reefs in 10 Years: Study', Outlook India]

Q. Identify the place(s) in India where coral reefs are present.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 34 Coral reefs in India are mainly present in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Strait and the Lakshadweep islands.

All of these reefs are fringing reefs, except Lakshadweep which are atolls. There are patchy corals present along the intertidal areas of the central west coast like the intertidal regions of Ratnagiri, Gaveshani Bank, etc.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 35

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A study shows that corals are under siege from global warming. Fourteen percent of the world's corals were lost between 2009 and 2018. Global warming has killed 14% of the world's coral reefs in a decade and more will be wiped out if oceans keep rising in temperature, a study released has revealed. According to a report, coral reefs equalling about 11,700 square kilometres - which is 2.5 times the size of Grand Canyon National Park - were lost between 2009 and 2018.

Climate change is the biggest threat to the world's reefs, co-author Paul Hardisty, CEO of the Australian Institute of Marine Science, said in a statement shared by the UN. There are clearly unsettling trends toward coral loss, and we can expect these to continue as warming persists, he added. The report by the United Nations-supported global data network is the largest ever survey of coral health and covers data for 40 years, among 73 countries and 12,000 locations.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from, 'Climate Change Killed 14% of World's Coral Reefs in 10 Years: Study', Outlook India]

Q. The coral species that build reefs extract what from seawater?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 35 The coral species that build reefs are known as hard corals because they extract calcium carbonate from seawater to create a hard, durable exoskeleton that protects their soft, sac-like bodies. The other species of corals that are not involved in reef-building are known as soft corals.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 36

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 October declared Modhera in Gujarat's Mehsana district as India's first 24x7 solar-powered village. Addressing a rally, PM said, 'Today, a new energy of development has been infused for Modhera, Mehsana & the whole of North Gujarat. From electricity, water to road & rail. Many projects related to dairy, skill development & healthcare have been inaugurated & foundation stones have been laid today.' He added that Modhera was known for the Sun temple, now it will also be known as solar-powered village. Making Modhera the country's first round-the-clock solar-powered village involved developing a ground-mounted solar power plant and more than 1,300 rooftop solar systems on residential and government buildings, a government release said. Earlier in the day, the Prime Minister had laid the foundation stone and dedicated multiple projects worth over Rs. 3,900 crore in Modhera, Mehsana in Gujarat. He also visited Modheshwari Mata Temple in Modhera, performed darshan and pooja. Assembly elections in the Bharatiya Janata Party-ruled Gujarat are scheduled to be held by the end of this year.

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: All solar systems in Modhera village are connected to the battery energy storage system (BESS).

Statement II: Only the central government has invested in this project.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 36 The Modhera village in Mehsana district of Gujarat became the first 24X7 solar powered village in India. All these solar systems are connected to the battery energy storage system (BESS) - the country's first grid-connected megawatt hour scale battery energy storage system. The project was implemented in two phases, with state allocating 12 hectares of land for its implementation. Both the central and state governments have invested around Rs. 80 crores for this project.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 37

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 October declared Modhera in Gujarat's Mehsana district as India's first 24x7 solar-powered village. Addressing a rally, PM said, 'Today, a new energy of development has been infused for Modhera, Mehsana & the whole of North Gujarat. From electricity, water to road & rail. Many projects related to dairy, skill development & healthcare have been inaugurated & foundation stones have been laid today.' He added that Modhera was known for the Sun temple, now it will also be known as solar-powered village. Making Modhera the country's first round-the-clock solar-powered village involved developing a ground-mounted solar power plant and more than 1,300 rooftop solar systems on residential and government buildings, a government release said. Earlier in the day, the Prime Minister had laid the foundation stone and dedicated multiple projects worth over Rs. 3,900 crores in Modhera, Mehsana in Gujarat. He also visited Modheshwari Mata Temple in Modhera, performed darshan and pooja. Assembly elections in the Bharatiya Janata Party-ruled Gujarat are scheduled to be held by the end of this year.

Q. Which of the following maintains the Sun Temple of Modhera?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 37 The Sun Temple of Modhera is a Hindu temple dedicated to the solar deity Surya located at Modhera village of Mehsana district, Gujarat, India. No worship is offered now. It is a protected monument maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 38

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 October declared Modhera in Gujarat's Mehsana district as India's first 24x7 solar-powered village. Addressing a rally, PM said, 'Today, a new energy of development has been infused for Modhera, Mehsana & the whole of North Gujarat. From electricity, water to road & rail. Many projects related to dairy, skill development & healthcare have been inaugurated & foundation stones have been laid today.' He added that Modhera was known for the Sun temple, now it will also be known as solar-powered village. Making Modhera the country's first round-the-clock solar-powered village involved developing a ground-mounted solar power plant and more than 1,300 rooftop solar systems on residential and government buildings, a government release said. Earlier in the day, the Prime Minister had laid the foundation stone and dedicated multiple projects worth over Rs. 3,900 crore in Modhera, Mehsana in Gujarat. He also visited Modheshwari Mata Temple in Modhera, performed darshan and pooja. Assembly elections in the Bharatiya Janata Party-ruled Gujarat are scheduled to be held by the end of this year.

Q. Mark the incorrect statement.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 38 The One Sun, One World, One Grid (OSOWOG) is a transnational electricity grid supplying power all over the world. The idea was first proposed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during the first assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in 2018. This is an initiative by the International Solar Alliance (ISA), India and the United Kingdom to build a global green energy grid, primarily focusing on solar and wind energy. The concept behind the OSOWOG is 'The Sun Never Sets' and is a constant at some geographical location, globally, at any given point of time.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 39

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 October declared Modhera in Gujarat's Mehsana district as India's first 24x7 solar-powered village. Addressing a rally, PM said, 'Today, a new energy of development has been infused for Modhera, Mehsana & the whole of North Gujarat. From electricity, water to road & rail. Many projects related to dairy, skill development & healthcare have been inaugurated & foundation stones have been laid today.' He added that Modhera was known for the Sun temple, now it will also be known as solar-powered village. Making Modhera the country's first round-the-clock solar-powered village involved developing a ground-mounted solar power plant and more than 1,300 rooftop solar systems on residential and government buildings, a government release said. Earlier in the day, the Prime Minister had laid the foundation stone and dedicated multiple projects worth over Rs. 3,900 crores in Modhera, Mehsana in Gujarat. He also visited Modheshwari Mata Temple in Modhera, performed darshan and pooja. Assembly elections in the Bharatiya Janata Party-ruled Gujarat are scheduled to be held by the end of this year.

Q. The famous Sun Temple of Modhera was built by the ruler of the

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 39 The Sun Temple of Modhera is a Hindu temple dedicated to the solar deity Surya located at Modhera village of Mehsana district, Gujarat, India. It is situated on the banks of the river Pushpavati. It was built after 1026-27 CE during the reign of Bhima I of the Chalukya dynasty.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 40

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 October declared Modhera in Gujarat's Mehsana district as India's first 24x7 solar-powered village. Addressing a rally, PM said, 'Today, a new energy of development has been infused for Modhera, Mehsana & the whole of North Gujarat. From electricity, water to road & rail. Many projects related to dairy, skill development & healthcare have been inaugurated & foundation stones have been laid today.' He added that Modhera was known for the Sun temple, now it will also be known as solar-powered village. Making Modhera the country's first round-the-clock solar-powered village involved developing a ground-mounted solar power plant and more than 1,300 rooftop solar systems on residential and government buildings, a government release said. Earlier in the day, the Prime Minister had laid the foundation stone and dedicated multiple projects worth over Rs. 3,900 crores in Modhera, Mehsana in Gujarat. He also visited Modheshwari Mata Temple in Modhera, performed darshan and pooja. Assembly elections in the Bharatiya Janata Party-ruled Gujarat are scheduled to be held by the end of this year.

Q. In which year was the International Solar Alliance launched by Narendra Modi?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 40 The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an alliance of 121 signatory nice countries, most being sunshine countries, which lie either completely or partly between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. The primary objective of the alliance is to work for efficient consumption of solar energy to reduce dependence on fossil fuels. This initiative was first proposed by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in a speech in November 2015 at Wembley Stadium, in which he referred to sunshine countries as Suryaputra ("Sons of the Sun"). The alliance is a treaty-based inter-governmental organisation. The initiative was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the India Africa Summit and a meeting of member countries ahead of the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference in Paris in November 2015.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 41

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Indian Naval Warship INS Tarkash participated in the joint multinational maritime exercise IBSAMAR from October 10 to 12. IBSAMAR is a series of naval exercises between the navies of India, Brazil and South Africa. The harbour phase of IBSAMAR VII includes professional exchanges such as damage control and fire-fighting drills alongside VBSS/cross-boarding lectures and interaction among special forces. Notably, the joint Maritime Exercise will strengthen maritime security, joint operational training, sharing of best practices and building interoperability to address common maritime threats, the Union Ministry of Defence said in a press release. The previous edition of IBSAMAR (IBSAMAR VI) was conducted off Simons Town, South Africa from October 1 to 13 in 2018. The Indian Navy is represented by the Teg class guided missile frigate, INS Tarkash, a Chetak helicopter and the personnel from the Marine Commando Force (MARCOS). Earlier in August, INS Tarkash participated in a Maritime Partnership Exercise which included operations such as cross-deck landing, replenishment at sea (RAS) approaches and other tactical manoeuvres. The warship also hoisted the Indian Tricolour on August 15, 2022, as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.

Q. Where was the seventh edition of the IBSAMAR held in 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 41 The seventh edition of the IBSAMAR, a joint multinational maritime exercise, among the Indian, Brazilian and South Africa navies, was held at Port Gqeberha (also known as Port Elizabeth), South Africa from 10 to 12 October, 2022.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 42

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Indian Naval Warship INS Tarkash participated in the joint multinational maritime exercise IBSAMAR from October 10 to 12. IBSAMAR is a series of naval exercises between the navies of India, Brazil and South Africa. The harbour phase of IBSAMAR VII includes professional exchanges such as damage control and fire-fighting drills alongside VBSS/cross-boarding lectures and interaction among special forces. Notably, the joint Maritime Exercise will strengthen maritime security, joint operational training, sharing of best practices and building interoperability to address common maritime threats, the Union Ministry of Defence said in a press release. The previous edition of IBSAMAR (IBSAMAR VI) was conducted off Simons Town, South Africa from October 1 to 13 in 2018. The Indian Navy is represented by the Teg class guided missile frigate, INS Tarkash, a Chetak helicopter and the personnel from the Marine Commando Force (MARCOS). Earlier in August, INS Tarkash participated in a Maritime Partnership Exercise which included operations such as cross-deck landing, replenishment at sea (RAS) approaches and other tactical manoeuvres. The warship also hoisted the Indian Tricolour on August 15, 2022, as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.

Q. IBSA Fund is a unique fund through which development projects are executed in fellow developing countries. Which among the following manages the fund?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 42 Established in 2004, IBSA Fund (India, Brazil and South Africa Facility for Poverty and Hunger Alleviation) is a unique fund through which development projects are executed in fellow developing countries. The fund is managed by the United Nations (UN) Office for South-South Cooperation (UNOSSC). Each IBSA member country is required to contribute $1 million per annum to the fund.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 43

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Indian Naval Warship INS Tarkash participated in the joint multinational maritime exercise IBSAMAR from October 10 to 12. IBSAMAR is a series of naval exercises between the navies of India, Brazil and South Africa. The harbour phase of IBSAMAR VII includes professional exchanges such as damage control and fire-fighting drills alongside VBSS/cross-boarding lectures and interaction among special forces. Notably, the joint Maritime Exercise will strengthen maritime security, joint operational training, sharing of best practices and building interoperability to address common maritime threats, the Union Ministry of Defence said in a press release. The previous edition of IBSAMAR (IBSAMAR VI) was conducted off Simons Town, South Africa from October 1 to 13 in 2018. The Indian Navy is represented by the Teg class guided missile frigate, INS Tarkash, a Chetak helicopter and the personnel from the Marine Commando Force (MARCOS). Earlier in August, INS Tarkash participated in a Maritime Partnership Exercise which included operations such as cross-deck landing, replenishment at sea (RAS) approaches and other tactical manoeuvres. The warship also hoisted the Indian Tricolour on August 15, 2022, as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.

Q. Which country called off the CSTO's military drills called Indestructible Brotherhood-2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 43 On October 11, 2022, Kyrgyzstan's Defence Ministry confirmed that it had cancelled its participation in the CSTO's Frontier 2022 exercises, scheduled to run in Tajikistan from October 10-21, 2022 focusing on the CSTO's Collective Rapid Deployment Forces.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 44

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Indian Naval Warship INS Tarkash participated in the joint multinational maritime exercise IBSAMAR from October 10 to 12. IBSAMAR is a series of naval exercises between the navies of India, Brazil and South Africa. The harbour phase of IBSAMAR VII includes professional exchanges such as damage control and fire-fighting drills alongside VBSS/cross-boarding lectures and interaction among special forces. Notably, the joint Maritime Exercise will strengthen maritime security, joint operational training, sharing of best practices and building interoperability to address common maritime threats, the Union Ministry of Defence said in a press release. The previous edition of IBSAMAR (IBSAMAR VI) was conducted off Simons Town, South Africa from October 1 to 13 in 2018. The Indian Navy is represented by the Teg class guided missile frigate, INS Tarkash, a Chetak helicopter and the personnel from the Marine Commando Force (MARCOS). Earlier in August, INS Tarkash participated in a Maritime Partnership Exercise which included operations such as cross-deck landing, replenishment at sea (RAS) approaches and other tactical manoeuvres. The warship also hoisted the Indian Tricolour on August 15, 2022, as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.

Q. The IBSA is a trilateral and developmental initiative to promote __________.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 44 The IBSA Dialogue Forum (India, Brazil, South Africa) is an international tripartite grouping for promoting international cooperation among these countries. It represents three important poles for galvanising South-South cooperation and greater understanding between three important continents of the developing world namely, Africa, Asia, and South America.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 45

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Indian Naval Warship INS Tarkash participated in the joint multinational maritime exercise IBSAMAR from October 10 to 12. IBSAMAR is a series of naval exercises between the navies of India, Brazil and South Africa. The harbour phase of IBSAMAR VII includes professional exchanges such as damage control and fire-fighting drills alongside VBSS/cross-boarding lectures and interaction among special forces. Notably, the joint Maritime Exercise will strengthen maritime security, joint operational training, sharing of best practices and building interoperability to address common maritime threats, the Union Ministry of Defence said in a press release. The previous edition of IBSAMAR (IBSAMAR VI) was conducted off Simons Town, South Africa from October 1 to 13 in 2018. The Indian Navy is represented by the Teg class guided missile frigate, INS Tarkash, a Chetak helicopter and the personnel from the Marine Commando Force (MARCOS). Earlier in August, INS Tarkash participated in a Maritime Partnership Exercise which included operations such as cross-deck landing, replenishment at sea (RAS) approaches and other tactical manoeuvres. The warship also hoisted the Indian Tricolour on August 15, 2022, as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.

Q. Malabar is the most complex naval exercise. Which of the following countries is not a part of the naval exercise?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 45 Exercise Malabar is a naval exercise involving the United States, Japan and India as permanent partners. The annual Malabar exercise includes diverse activities, ranging from fighter combat operations from aircraft carriers through maritime interdiction operations, anti-submarine warfare, diving salvage operations, amphibious operations, counter-piracy operations, cross-deck helicopter landings and anti-air warfare operations.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 46

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Cheetah Reintroduction Project, which aims to restore the population of cheetahs in the country, will formally take off on Prime Minister Narendra Modi's 72nd birthday. The last spotted feline died in 1948 in the Sal forests of Chhattisgarh's Koriya district. Starting in the 1970s, the efforts of the Indian government to re-establish the species in its historical ranges in the country led to the signing of a pact with Namibia, which donated the first eight individuals to launch the Cheetah reintroduction programme on July 20 this year. Eight cheetahs, five female and three male, will be brought to Jaipur in Rajasthan. A specially customised B747 jumbo jet is going to bring the cheetahs as part of an inter-continental translocation project. Cheetahs will have to spend their entire air transit period empty stomach, a senior Indian forest department official said. This is done because long journeys can create nausea-like feelings in animals leading to other health complications. The aircraft bringing the cheetahs to India has been modified to allow cages to be secured in the main cabin but will still allow vets to have full access to the cats during the flight.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are true with reference to the cheetah reintroduction plan in India?

Statement I: 'Cheetahmitras' have been trained to create awareness about cheetahs.

Statement II: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as well as the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has been spearheading the project on behalf of the Indian government.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 46 Cheetah reintroduction in India involves the attempt to introduce and sustain a small population of Southeast African cheetahs in India more than 70 years after India's native subspecies, namely, the Asiatic cheetah became extinct there. Under the cheetah reintroduction plan, 50 cheetahs would be introduced in different national parks in the country in a span of 5 years. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as well as the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has been spearheading the project on behalf of the Indian government. 'Cheetahmitras' are a group of about 400 youngsters who have been trained to create awareness among the villagers about cheetahs.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 47

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Cheetah Reintroduction Project, which aims to restore the population of cheetahs in the country, will formally take off on Prime Minister Narendra Modi's 72nd birthday. The last spotted feline died in 1948 in the Sal forests of Chhattisgarh's Koriya district. Starting in the 1970s, the efforts of the Indian government to re-establish the species in its historical ranges in the country led to the signing of a pact with Namibia, which donated the first eight individuals to launch the Cheetah reintroduction programme on July 20 this year. Eight cheetahs, five female and three male, will be brought to Jaipur in Rajasthan. A specially customised B747 jumbo jet is going to bring the cheetahs as part of an inter-continental translocation project. Cheetahs will have to spend their entire air transit period empty stomach, a senior Indian forest department official said. This is done because long journeys can create nausea-like feelings in animals leading to other health complications. The aircraft bringing the cheetahs to India has been modified to allow cages to be secured in the main cabin but will still allow vets to have full access to the cats during the flight.

Q. In which year was the cheetah declared extinct in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 47 The cheetah is the only large carnivore to have gone extinct in India, primarily due to hunting and habitat loss. Maharaja Ramanuj Pratap Singh Deo of Korea, Madhya Pradesh, is widely believed to have killed the last three recorded cheetahs in India in 1947. In 1952, the Indian government officially declared extinction of cheetah in the country.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 48

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Cheetah Reintroduction Project, which aims to restore the population of cheetahs in the country, will formally take off on Prime Minister Narendra Modi's 72nd birthday. The last spotted feline died in 1948 in the Sal forests of Chhattisgarh's Koriya district. Starting in the 1970s, the efforts of the Indian government to re-establish the species in its historical ranges in the country led to the signing of a pact with Namibia, which donated the first eight individuals to launch the Cheetah reintroduction programme on July 20 this year. Eight cheetahs, five female and three male, will be brought to Jaipur in Rajasthan. A specially customised B747 jumbo jet is going to bring the cheetahs as part of an inter-continental translocation project. Cheetahs will have to spend their entire air transit period empty stomach, a senior Indian forest department official said. This is done because long journeys can create nausea-like feelings in animals leading to other health complications. The aircraft bringing the cheetahs to India has been modified to allow cages to be secured in the main cabin but will still allow vets to have full access to the cats during the flight.

Q. Who holds the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, as in 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 48 The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is an Indian government ministry, headed by Secretary Rank senior most IAS officer. The ministry portfolio is held by Bhupender Yadav, Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, as in 2022.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 49

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Cheetah Reintroduction Project, which aims to restore the population of cheetahs in the country, will formally take off on Prime Minister Narendra Modi's 72nd birthday. The last spotted feline died in 1948 in the Sal forests of Chhattisgarh's Koriya district. Starting in the 1970s, the efforts of the Indian government to re-establish the species in its historical ranges in the country led to the signing of a pact with Namibia, which donated the first eight individuals to launch the Cheetah reintroduction programme on July 20 this year. Eight cheetahs, five female and three male, will be brought to Jaipur in Rajasthan. A specially customised B747 jumbo jet is going to bring the cheetahs as part of an inter-continental translocation project. Cheetahs will have to spend their entire air transit period empty stomach, a senior Indian forest department official said. This is done because long journeys can create nausea-like feelings in animals leading to other health complications. The aircraft bringing the cheetahs to India has been modified to allow cages to be secured in the main cabin but will still allow vets to have full access to the cats during the flight.

Q. In which of the following national parks were the cheetahs, which were flown in from Namibia, released?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 49 Cheetahs flown in from Namibia were released into special enclosure in Kuno National Park. Prime Minister Narendra Modi released wild cheetahs, which had become extinct from India, in the Park.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 50

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Cheetah Reintroduction Project, which aims to restore the population of cheetahs in the country, will formally take off on Prime Minister Narendra Modi's 72nd birthday. The last spotted feline died in 1948 in the Sal forests of Chhattisgarh's Koriya district. Starting in the 1970s, the efforts of the Indian government to re-establish the species in its historical ranges in the country led to the signing of a pact with Namibia, which donated the first eight individuals to launch the Cheetah reintroduction programme on July 20 this year. Eight cheetahs, five female and three male, will be brought to Jaipur in Rajasthan. A specially customised B747 jumbo jet is going to bring the cheetahs as part of an inter-continental translocation project. Cheetahs will have to spend their entire air transit period empty stomach, a senior Indian forest department official said. This is done because long journeys can create nausea-like feelings in animals leading to other health complications. The aircraft bringing the cheetahs to India has been modified to allow cages to be secured in the main cabin but will still allow vets to have full access to the cats during the flight.

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: IUCN Red List of Threatened Species assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.

Statement II: IUCN's headquarters is in Gland, Switzerland.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 50 The International Union for Conservation of Nature is an international organisation working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. The organisation is best known to the wider public for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide. It employs over 900 full-time staff in more than 50 countries. Its headquarters is in Gland, Switzerland.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 51

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The University Grants Commission has drafted guidelines for Professor of Practice positions in universities and colleges. The Commission's secretary, Rajnish Jain, has written to industry bodies, including FICCI, CII, ASSOCHAM and NASSCOM regarding the rules for engagement. He has pointed out that the National Education Policy 2020 recommends transformative reforms in the higher education sector. The main thrust of the policy is the promotion of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Integration of academic scholarship with practical experience is an important step in the context of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Towards this, the UGC has taken a new initiative of engaging Professor of Practice in Higher Educational Institutions (HEls). The document states that experts with remarkable contributions in their professions from various fields, with proven expertise in their specific professions are eligible to be Professor of Practice. A formal academic qualification is not essential if they have exemplary professional practice in lieu and nor will they be required to have authored publications. Such faculty may be involved in developing and designing courses and curriculum; deliver lectures; mentor students; improve industry-academia collaboration; conduct with regular faculty members workshops, seminars and training programmes besides research projects.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Hindu, October 1, 2022]

Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.

Statement I: Any expert having 10 years or more experience in a particular field is eligible to become the Professor of Practice.

Statement II: The posts of Professors of Practice must not surpass 10 per cent of the sanctioned faculty number in an institute.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 51 Any expert having 15 years or more experience in a particular field is eligible to become the Professor of Practice. A Professor of Practice can be anyone with a background in diverse areas of expertise like technology, science, armed forces, social science, literature, legal affairs, fine arts, media, etc. The posts of Professors of Practice must not surpass 10 per cent of the sanctioned faculty number in an institute. The post can either be full-time or part-time and it can last for a minimum of 4 years.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 52

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The University Grants Commission has drafted guidelines for Professor of Practice positions in universities and colleges. The Commission's secretary, Rajnish Jain, has written to industry bodies, including FICCI, CII, ASSOCHAM and NASSCOM regarding the rules for engagement. He has pointed out that the National Education Policy 2020 recommends transformative reforms in the higher education sector. The main thrust of the policy is the promotion of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Integration of academic scholarship with practical experience is an important step in the context of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Towards this, the UGC has taken a new initiative of engaging Professor of Practice in Higher Educational Institutions (HEls). The document states that experts with remarkable contributions in their professions from various fields, with proven expertise in their specific professions are eligible to be Professor of Practice. A formal academic qualification is not essential if they have exemplary professional practice in lieu and nor will they be required to have authored publications. Such faculty may be involved in developing and designing courses and curriculum; deliver lectures; mentor students; improve industry-academia collaboration; conduct with regular faculty members workshops, seminars and training programmes besides research projects.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Hindu, October 1, 2022]

Q. The University Grants Commission (UGC) is a statutory body set up by the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India, in accordance with the

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 52 The University Grants Commission (UGC) is a statutory body set up by the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India, in accordance with the UGC Act, 1956 and is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of higher education in India. It provides recognition to universities in India, and disbursements of funds to such recognised universities and colleges.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 53

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The University Grants Commission has drafted guidelines for Professor of Practice positions in universities and colleges. The Commission's secretary, Rajnish Jain, has written to industry bodies, including FICCI, CII, ASSOCHAM and NASSCOM regarding the rules for engagement. He has pointed out that the National Education Policy 2020 recommends transformative reforms in the higher education sector. The main thrust of the policy is the promotion of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Integration of academic scholarship with practical experience is an important step in the context of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Towards this, the UGC has taken a new initiative of engaging Professor of Practice in Higher Educational Institutions (HEls). The document states that experts with remarkable contributions in their professions from various fields, with proven expertise in their specific professions are eligible to be Professor of Practice. A formal academic qualification is not essential if they have exemplary professional practice in lieu and nor will they be required to have authored publications. Such faculty may be involved in developing and designing courses and curriculum; deliver lectures; mentor students; improve industry-academia collaboration; conduct with regular faculty members workshops, seminars and training programmes besides research projects.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Hindu, October 1, 2022]

Q. Which Article in the Constitution of India provides for free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 53 The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which represents the consequential legislation envisaged under Article 21-A, means that every child has a right to full time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 54

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The University Grants Commission has drafted guidelines for Professor of Practice positions in universities and colleges. The Commission's secretary, Rajnish Jain, has written to industry bodies, including FICCI, CII, ASSOCHAM and NASSCOM regarding the rules for engagement. He has pointed out that the National Education Policy 2020 recommends transformative reforms in the higher education sector. The main thrust of the policy is the promotion of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Integration of academic scholarship with practical experience is an important step in the context of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Towards this, the UGC has taken a new initiative of engaging Professor of Practice in Higher Educational Institutions (HEls). The document states that experts with remarkable contributions in their professions from various fields, with proven expertise in their specific professions are eligible to be Professor of Practice. A formal academic qualification is not essential if they have exemplary professional practice in lieu and nor will they be required to have authored publications. Such faculty may be involved in developing and designing courses and curriculum; deliver lectures; mentor students; improve industry-academia collaboration; conduct with regular faculty members workshops, seminars and training programmes besides research projects.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Hindu, October 1, 2022]

Q. What is the total number of service years of Professors of Practice?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 54 According to the UGC guidelines, a Professor of Practice can serve for up to three years and the post can be extended by one year. The total number of service years should not surpass four years regardless of the circumstances.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 55

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The University Grants Commission has drafted guidelines for Professor of Practice positions in universities and colleges. The Commission's secretary, Rajnish Jain, has written to industry bodies, including FICCI, CII, ASSOCHAM and NASSCOM regarding the rules for engagement. He has pointed out that the National Education Policy 2020 recommends transformative reforms in the higher education sector. The main thrust of the policy is the promotion of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Integration of academic scholarship with practical experience is an important step in the context of holistic and multidisciplinary education. Towards this, the UGC has taken a new initiative of engaging Professor of Practice in Higher Educational Institutions (HEls). The document states that experts with remarkable contributions in their professions from various fields, with proven expertise in their specific professions are eligible to be Professor of Practice. A formal academic qualification is not essential if they have exemplary professional practice in lieu and nor will they be required to have authored publications. Such faculty may be involved in developing and designing courses and curriculum; deliver lectures; mentor students; improve industry-academia collaboration; conduct with regular faculty members workshops, seminars and training programmes besides research projects.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Hindu, October 1, 2022]

Q. According to the National Education Policy of India, 2020, the 10+2 structure would be replaced with the

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 55 The National Education Policy 2020 has revised the education structure which has been modified from the old educational structure of the 10+2 system to the 5+3+3+4 system. With emphasis on Early Childhood Care and Education, the 10+2 structure of school curricula would be replaced by a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure. Earlier the education system in school was well known as 10+2, which depicts 10 years of secondary education and 2 years of higher secondary education, after which the students was eligible to take admission into colleges for graduation and higher studies. The new system would have 12 years of schooling with three years of Anganwadi/pre schooling. This would be implemented as follows

(1) Foundational Stage

(2) Preparatory Stage

(3) Middle Stage

(4) Secondary Stage

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 56

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Minister of State for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has said that the ministry has taken several steps to improve fish production, export and infrastructure development in the last eight years. Speaking at the valedictory of Inland Fisheries Summit in Bengaluru, he said, India stands third in the world in terms of fish production. Making specific reference to Karnataka, the Union Minister said that 734.77 crore rupees was allocated to the state under the flagship scheme of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) from 2020-21 till date for the development of infrastructure facilities. Under PMMSY, over 53 crore rupees was given to complete phase three expansion of Mangalore fishing harbour. In principle, approval is given for the development of state of an art fishing harbour at Majali in Uttara Kannada district at a total cost of 250 crore rupees. Under PMMSY, approval is given to acquire 114 new deep-sea fishing vessels at a total cost of 136 crore rupees for traditional fishermen in the state. The minister informed the fish production in Karnataka has increased from 6.80 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 10.74 lakh tonnes during 2021-22 which is about 76 percent growth.

Q. Who is the Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying as of 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 56 Parshottam Rupala is an Indian politician and Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying as of 2022. He is a member of Rajya Sabha, representing the Indian state of Gujarat and a leader of Bharatiya Janata Party.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 57

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Minister of State for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has said that the ministry has taken several steps to improve fish production, export and infrastructure development in the last eight years. Speaking at the valedictory of Inland Fisheries Summit in Bengaluru, he said, India stands third in the world in terms of fish production. Making specific reference to Karnataka, the Union Minister said that 734.77 crore rupees was allocated to the state under the flagship scheme of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) from 2020-21 till date for the development of infrastructure facilities. Under PMMSY, over 53 crore rupees was given to complete phase three expansion of Mangalore fishing harbour. In principle, approval is given for the development of state of an art fishing harbour at Majali in Uttara Kannada district at a total cost of 250 crore rupees. Under PMMSY, approval is given to acquire 114 new deep-sea fishing vessels at a total cost of 136 crore rupees for traditional fishermen in the state. The minister informed the fish production in Karnataka has increased from 6.80 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 10.74 lakh tonnes during 2021-22 which is about 76 percent growth.

[Source - www.newsonair.gov.in, October 17, 2022]

Q. Blue Revolution also called as Neel or Nil Kranti Mission in India was launched in 1985-1990 during the:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 57 Blue Revolution also called as Neel or Nil Kranti Mission in India was launched in 1985-1990 during the 7th Five-Year Plan. The main objective was to develop, manage, and promote fisheries to double the farmers' income. The Blue Revolution (Nil Kranti) is an initiative taken by the government for the growth of the aquaculture industry.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 58

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Minister of State for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has said that the ministry has taken several steps to improve fish production, export and infrastructure development in the last eight years. Speaking at the valedictory of Inland Fisheries Summit in Bengaluru, he said, India stands third in the world in terms of fish production. Making specific reference to Karnataka, the Union Minister said that 734.77 crore rupees was allocated to the state under the flagship scheme of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) from 2020-21 till date for the development of infrastructure facilities. Under PMMSY, over 53 crore rupees was given to complete phase three expansion of Mangalore fishing harbour. In principle, approval is given for the development of state of an art fishing harbour at Majali in Uttara Kannada district at a total cost of 250 crore rupees. Under PMMSY, approval is given to acquire 114 new deep-sea fishing vessels at a total cost of 136 crore rupees for traditional fishermen in the state. The minister informed the fish production in Karnataka has increased from 6.80 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 10.74 lakh tonnes during 2021-22 which is about 76 percent growth.

Q. Koyilandy harbour in __________ is the largest fishing harbour in Asia.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 58 Koyilandy harbour in Kerala is the largest fishing harbour in Asia. It has the longest breakwater.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 59

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Minister of State for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has said that the ministry has taken several steps to improve fish production, export and infrastructure development in the last eight years. Speaking at the valedictory of Inland Fisheries Summit in Bengaluru, he said, India stands third in the world in terms of fish production. Making specific reference to Karnataka, the Union Minister said that 734.77 crore rupees was allocated to the state under the flagship scheme of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) from 2020-21 till date for the development of infrastructure facilities. Under PMMSY, over 53 crore rupees was given to complete phase three expansion of Mangalore fishing harbour. In principle, approval is given for the development of state of an art fishing harbour at Majali in Uttara Kannada district at a total cost of 250 crore rupees. Under PMMSY, approval is given to acquire 114 new deep-sea fishing vessels at a total cost of 136 crore rupees for traditional fishermen in the state. The minister informed the fish production in Karnataka has increased from 6.80 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 10.74 lakh tonnes during 2021-22 which is about 76 percent growth.

[Source - www.newsonair.gov.in, October 17, 2022]

Q. Which country is the world's largest fish producer?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 59 China is the world's largest fish producer. With a total global fish production of 178.8 million tons, China accounts for one-third of worlds total fish production. The abundant fish production is due to the government policies which encourage massive fish cultivation which is supported by efficient technology.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 60

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Union Minister of State for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has said that the ministry has taken several steps to improve fish production, export and infrastructure development in the last eight years. Speaking at the valedictory of Inland Fisheries Summit in Bengaluru, he said, India stands third in the world in terms of fish production. Making specific reference to Karnataka, the Union Minister said that 734.77 crore rupees was allocated to the state under the flagship scheme of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) from 2020-21 till date for the development of infrastructure facilities. Under PMMSY, over 53 crore rupees was given to complete phase three expansion of Mangalore fishing harbour. In principle, approval is given for the development of state of an art fishing harbour at Majali in Uttara Kannada district at a total cost of 250 crore rupees. Under PMMSY, approval is given to acquire 114 new deep-sea fishing vessels at a total cost of 136 crore rupees for traditional fishermen in the state. The minister informed the fish production in Karnataka has increased from 6.80 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 10.74 lakh tonnes during 2021-22 which is about 76 percent growth.

Q. What is the motto of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 60 The Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Government of India is implementing Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana - A scheme to bring about ecologically healthy, economically viable, and socially inclusive development of the Fisheries sector of India. The main motto of PMMSY is 'Reform, Perform and Transform' in the fisheries sector.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 61

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A consistent effort is yet again visible to taint India's image as a Nation that does not fulfill the food security and nutritional requirements of its population. Misinformation seems to be the hallmark of the annually released Global Hunger Index. The Global Hunger Report 2022 released by Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe, Non-Government Organisations from Ireland and Germany respectively. The index is an erroneous measure of hunger and suffers from serious methodological issues. Three out of the four indicators used for calculation of the index are related to health of Children and cannot be representative of the entire population. The fourth and most important indicator estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population is based on an opinion poll conducted on a very small sample size of 3000. The report is not only disconnected from ground reality but also chooses to deliberately ignore efforts made by the Government to ensure food Security for the population especially during the Covid Pandemic. Taking a one-dimensional view, the report lowers India's rank based on the estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population for India at 16.3%.

Q. What was India's rank in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 61 India ranked 107 out of 121 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022. The peer-reviewed annual report, jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe, termed the level of hunger in India as 'serious' as its GHI score is 29.1.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 62

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A consistent effort is yet again visible to taint India's image as a Nation that does not fulfill the food security and nutritional requirements of its population. Misinformation seems to be the hallmark of the annually released Global Hunger Index. The Global Hunger Report 2022 released by Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe, Non-Government Organisations from Ireland and Germany respectively. The index is an erroneous measure of hunger and suffers from serious methodological issues. Three out of the four indicators used for calculation of the index are related to health of Children and cannot be representative of the entire population. The fourth and most important indicator estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population is based on an opinion poll conducted on a very small sample size of 3000. The report is not only disconnected from ground reality but also chooses to deliberately ignore efforts made by the Government to ensure food Security for the population especially during the Covid Pandemic. Taking a one-dimensional view, the report lowers India's rank based on the estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population for India at 16.3%.

Q. Which month was celebrated as Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2022 by the Ministry of Women and Child Development?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 62 Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2022 was celebrated from 1st to 30th September 2022 by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. This was the 5th edition of Rashtriya Poshan Maah. With the main focus on Mahila aur Swasthya and Bacha aur Shiksha, Poshan Maah 2022 started as Poshan Panchayat through Gram Panchayats.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 63

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A consistent effort is yet again visible to taint India's image as a Nation that does not fulfill the food security and nutritional requirements of its population. Misinformation seems to be the hallmark of the annually released Global Hunger Index. The Global Hunger Report 2022 released by Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe, Non-Government Organisations from Ireland and Germany respectively. The index is an erroneous measure of hunger and suffers from serious methodological issues. Three out of the four indicators used for calculation of the index are related to health of Children and cannot be representative of the entire population. The fourth and most important indicator estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population is based on an opinion poll conducted on a very small sample size of 3000. The report is not only disconnected from ground reality but also chooses to deliberately ignore efforts made by the Government to ensure food Security for the population especially during the Covid Pandemic. Taking a one-dimensional view, the report lowers India's rank based on the estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population for India at 16.3%.

Q. As announced in September, 2022 the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana has been further extended by:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 63 Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana is a food security welfare scheme announced by the Government of India on March 26, 2020, during the COVID-19 pandemic in India. The program is operated by the Department of Food and Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. The Union Cabinet in September 2022 gave its approval to extend the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY) scheme by three months till December 2022.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 64

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A consistent effort is yet again visible to taint India's image as a Nation that does not fulfill the food security and nutritional requirements of its population. Misinformation seems to be the hallmark of the annually released Global Hunger Index. The Global Hunger Report 2022 released by Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe, Non-Government Organisations from Ireland and Germany respectively. The index is an erroneous measure of hunger and suffers from serious methodological issues. Three out of the four indicators used for calculation of the index are related to health of Children and cannot be representative of the entire population. The fourth and most important indicator estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population is based on an opinion poll conducted on a very small sample size of 3000. The report is not only disconnected from ground reality but also chooses to deliberately ignore efforts made by the Government to ensure food Security for the population especially during the Covid Pandemic. Taking a one-dimensional view, the report lowers India's rank based on the estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population for India at 16.3%.

Q. The Global Hunger Index is a tool for measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. Which among the following is not one of the four key components used for measurement?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 64 The aim of the GHI is to trigger action to reduce hunger around the world. The four key components of the GHI are:
  • Undernourishment: the share of the population with insufficient caloric intake;

  • Child stunting: the share of children under-5 who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition;

  • Child wasting: the share of children under-5 who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition;

  • Child mortality: the share of children who die before their fifth birthday, partly reflecting the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 65

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A consistent effort is yet again visible to taint India's image as a Nation that does not fulfill the food security and nutritional requirements of its population. Misinformation seems to be the hallmark of the annually released Global Hunger Index. The Global Hunger Report 2022 released by Concern Worldwide and Welt Hunger Hilfe, Non-Government Organisations from Ireland and Germany respectively. The index is an erroneous measure of hunger and suffers from serious methodological issues. Three out of the four indicators used for calculation of the index are related to health of Children and cannot be representative of the entire population. The fourth and most important indicator estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population is based on an opinion poll conducted on a very small sample size of 3000. The report is not only disconnected from ground reality but also chooses to deliberately ignore efforts made by the Government to ensure food Security for the population especially during the Covid Pandemic. Taking a one-dimensional view, the report lowers India's rank based on the estimate of Proportion of Undernourished (PoU) population for India at 16.3%.

Q. Mark the incorrect statement about National Food Security Act.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 65 The National Food Security Act 2013 (also 'Right to Food Act') is an Indian Act of Parliament which aims to provide subsidized food grains to approximately two thirds of the country's 1.2 billion people. It was signed into law on September 12, 2013, retroactive to July 5, 2013.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 66

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution prohibits Ex Post Facto laws. The expression Ex Post Facto Law means a law, which imposes penalties or convictions on the acts already done and increases the penalty for such acts. In other words, Ex Post Facto Law imposes penalties retrospectively. For example, The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 came into force from 20.5.1961. A person guilty of accepting dowry is punishable under the Act after 20.5 .1961 and not before 20.5.1961. Ex post facto laws are of three kinds as follows: (a) A law which declared some act or omission as an offence for the first time after the completion of that act or omission. (b) A law that enhances the punishment or penalty for an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence. (c) A law that prescribes a new and different procedure for the prosecution of an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence.

Clause (1) of Art. 20 provides protection only in respect of the above first two categories of ex post facto laws i.e., laws that declare acts as offences subsequent to the commission to those acts and laws which enhance the penalty subsequently.

Article 20(1) provides: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. The first part of clause (1) provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for a violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence. The second part of the clause (1) protects a person from a penalty greater than that which he might have been subjected to at the time of the commission of the offence.

Q. The Parliament of India legislated the Sexual Harassment at Workplace Act, in the year 2013, and simultaneously some new offences were also added to the Indian Penal Code, 1860. Mr. A is an employee of an institution, against whom departmental inquiry has been initiated for committing sexual harassment of a female colleague in the year 2012. Now, choose the correct option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 66 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

On the basis of the information given in the passage and after reading the above-given situation we can conclude that since the act was committed in 2012, when no laws were available for such an offence and no provision under the Indian Penal Code.

Therefore, the Article 20 (1) implies that the person cannot be punished.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 67

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution prohibits Ex Post Facto laws. The expression Ex Post Facto Law means a law, which imposes penalties or convictions on the acts already done and increases the penalty for such acts. In other words, Ex Post Facto Law imposes penalties retrospectively. For example, The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 came into force from 20.5.1961. A person guilty of accepting dowry is punishable under the Act after 20.5 .1961 and not before 20.5.1961. Ex post facto laws are of three kinds as follows: (a) A law which declared some act or omission as an offence for the first time after the completion of that act or omission. (b) A law that enhances the punishment or penalty for an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence. (c) A law that prescribes a new and different procedure for the prosecution of an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence.

Clause (1) of Art. 20 provides protection only in respect of the above first two categories of ex post facto laws i.e., laws that declare acts as offences subsequent to the commission to those acts and laws which enhance the penalty subsequently.

Article 20(1) provides: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. The first part of clause (1) provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for a violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence. The second part of the clause (1) protects a person from a penalty greater than that which he might have been subjected to at the time of the commission of the offence.

Q. Mr. A is a student of Law, aged 19 years. He is socially active and expresses his opinion on every social and political event of the nation through social media platforms. In one of his blog, he severely criticised the policy of a state government of changing the names of cities and towns. He also stated that the government is biased towards a particular religion. The said blog was posted on 19th April 2020 and subsequently, an amendment was made to the Indian Penal Code whereby 'Hate Speech' was made a distinct offence and punishment was prescribed. An action was brought against him under the said provision for the blog. Now, choose the most appropriate option amongst the following:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 67 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

After analyzing the statement "An action was brought against him under the said provision for the blog.” – it shows that the provision was applicable when it was brought against him.

If in the case the blog was active even after the new provision was introduced, then Mr A is liable.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 68

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution prohibits Ex Post Facto laws. The expression Ex Post Facto Law means a law, which imposes penalties or convictions on the acts already done and increases the penalty for such acts. In other words, Ex Post Facto Law imposes penalties retrospectively. For example, The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 came into force from 20.5.1961. A person guilty of accepting dowry is punishable under the Act after 20.5 .1961 and not before 20.5.1961. Ex post facto laws are of three kinds as follows: (a) A law which declared some act or omission as an offence for the first time after the completion of that act or omission. (b) A law that enhances the punishment or penalty for an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence. (c) A law that prescribes a new and different procedure for the prosecution of an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence.

Clause (1) of Art. 20 provides protection only in respect of the above first two categories of ex post facto laws i.e., laws that declare acts as offences subsequent to the commission to those acts and laws which enhance the penalty subsequently.

Article 20(1) provides: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. The first part of clause (1) provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for a violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence. The second part of the clause (1) protects a person from a penalty greater than that which he might have been subjected to at the time of the commission of the offence.

Q. Considering the fact situation in the third question to this passage, the Parliament passes legislation for the Probation of Offenders, under which any offender below the age of 21 will not serve the sentence of imprisonment in a prison, instead he will serve the sentence in a probation house. Now, choose the most appropriate option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 68 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

After reading the situation we can conclude that spending time in a probation house is still a lesser punishment when compared to being in jail.

This law is then applicable to Mr A under Article 20 (1). The punishment that he got is not of his choice. The courts should sentence him according to the Probation of Offenders act.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 69

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution prohibits Ex Post Facto laws. The expression Ex Post Facto Law means a law, which imposes penalties or convictions on the acts already done and increases the penalty for such acts. In other words, Ex Post Facto Law imposes penalties retrospectively. For example, The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 came into force from 20.5.1961. A person guilty of accepting dowry is punishable under the Act after 20.5 .1961 and not before 20.5.1961. Ex post facto laws are of three kinds as follows: (a) A law which declared some act or omission as an offence for the first time after the completion of that act or omission. (b) A law that enhances the punishment or penalty for an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence. (c) A law that prescribes a new and different procedure for the prosecution of an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence.

Clause (1) of Art. 20 provides protection only in respect of the above first two categories of ex post facto laws i.e., laws that declare acts as offences subsequent to the commission to those acts and laws which enhance the penalty subsequently.

Article 20(1) provides: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. The first part of clause (1) provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for a violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence. The second part of the clause (1) protects a person from a penalty greater than that which he might have been subjected to at the time of the commission of the offence.

Q. Article 20 (1) would not affect which of the following acts of the legislature?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 69 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

Under Article 20 (1) no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty that is greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.

Therefore, the Act of the legislature changing the punishment of death to life imprisonment would not be affected by this Article.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 70

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution prohibits Ex Post Facto laws. The expression Ex Post Facto Law means a law, which imposes penalties or convictions on the acts already done and increases the penalty for such acts. In other words, Ex Post Facto Law imposes penalties retrospectively. For example, The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 came into force from 20.5.1961. A person guilty of accepting dowry is punishable under the Act after 20.5 .1961 and not before 20.5.1961. Ex post facto laws are of three kinds as follows: (a) A law which declared some act or omission as an offence for the first time after the completion of that act or omission. (b) A law that enhances the punishment or penalty for an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence. (c) A law that prescribes a new and different procedure for the prosecution of an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence.

Clause (1) of Art. 20 provides protection only in respect of the above first two categories of ex post facto laws i.e., laws that declare acts as offences subsequent to the commission to those acts and laws which enhance the penalty subsequently.

Article 20(1) provides: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. The first part of clause (1) provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for a violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence. The second part of the clause (1) protects a person from a penalty greater than that which he might have been subjected to at the time of the commission of the offence.

Q. Considering the fact situations given in the above question, the Parliament passes legislation in September 2020, whereby an amendment is made to the Juvenile Act and now a person below the age of 20 would be a Juvenile and special procedure would be followed for his trial. Choose the most appropriate option amongst the following:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 70 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

After reading the given situation above we can conclude that Mr A would be considered as a juvenile.

Since the backdated application of a law is allowed when it lowers the amount of punishment for the offence.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 71

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Intellectual property law protects use of ideas and information that are of commercial value and prevents others, to the exclusion of the owner of the property, to commercially exploit the material without the owner's consent. With the rapid growth of industrialisation and international trade, protection of this intellectual property and vis-à-vis to have sufficient safeguards, in the form of Rules or Statutes, has gained immense importance. India can boast of a sound legal regime to deal with the intellectual property protection. The considerable number of statutes that India has, to deal with intellectual property issues, is itself an indication of her concerned attitude towards protection of intellectual property issues. The various Indian Acts are : Copyright Act, 1957, Trade Marks Act, 1999; Patents Act, 1970 [as amended by Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005], Designs Act, 2000; The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999; The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 and last but not the least, Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001. Apart from laying down what are the rights available to the intellectual property owner, these Acts also contain a sound mechanism to prevent infringement of IPR. The remedies available for the protection of IPR are broadly classified into civil and criminal remedies. The orders in the line with Anton Piller's orders are made under the head of civil remedies. In India, Ordinance 39 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, authorises the court to issue orders in line with Anton Piller's order. Not only CPC, even the statutes like Trademarks Act, 1999, The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 specifically provide for such an order. However, there have not been many case-laws debating over the aspects of Anton Piller's order. One of the earliest cases that dealt with the concept of Anton Piller's order, though cursorily was National Garments vs. National Apparels. Though it was not a case under Anton Piller under the interlocutory injunction, for restraining the defendant from doing business under the trade name which is in dispute, the court cited with approval from Kerly's treatise that 'in extremely urgent cases an ex-parte injunction may be obtained before full hearing of the motion or an Anton Piller order, for inspection of the defendant's premises without prior warning and discovery of his records, may be obtained. The Court also observed that Anton Piller's order is similar to the ex parte interlocutory order to take an inventory of the articles etc. passed in an ordinary suit.

Q. Match the following and choose the correct option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 71 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, the various Indian Acts are: Copyright Act, 1957, Trade Marks Act, 1999; Patents Act, 1970 [as amended by Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005], Designs Act, 2000; The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999; The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 and last but not the least, Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 72

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Intellectual property law protects use of ideas and information that are of commercial value and prevents others, to the exclusion of the owner of the property, to commercially exploit the material without the owner's consent. With the rapid growth of industrialisation and international trade, protection of this intellectual property and vis-à-vis to have sufficient safeguards, in the form of Rules or Statutes, has gained immense importance. India can boast of a sound legal regime to deal with the intellectual property protection. The considerable number of statutes that India has, to deal with intellectual property issues, is itself an indication of her concerned attitude towards protection of intellectual property issues. The various Indian Acts are: Copyright Act, 1957, Trade Marks Act, 1999; Patents Act, 1970 [as amended by Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005], Designs Act, 2000; The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999; The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 and last but not the least, Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001. Apart from laying down what are the rights available to the intellectual property owner, these Acts also contain a sound mechanism to prevent infringement of IPR. The remedies available for the protection of IPR are broadly classified into civil and criminal remedies. The orders in the line with Anton Piller's orders are made under the head of civil remedies. In India, Ordinance 39 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, authorises the court to issue orders in line with Anton Piller's order. Not only CPC, even the statutes like Trademarks Act, 1999, The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 specifically provide for such an order. However, there have not been many case-laws debating over the aspects of Anton Piller's order. One of the earliest cases that dealt with the concept of Anton Piller's order, though cursorily was National Garments vs. National Apparels. Though it was not a case under Anton Piller under the interlocutory injunction, for restraining the defendant from doing business under the trade name which is in dispute, the court cited with approval from Kerly's treatise that 'in extremely urgent cases an ex-parte injunction may be obtained before full hearing of the motion or an Anton Piller order, for inspection of the defendant's premises without prior warning and discovery of his records, may be obtained. The Court also observed that Anton Piller's order is similar to the ex parte interlocutory order to take an inventory of the articles etc. passed in an ordinary suit.

Q. The remedies available for protection of Intellectual property Rights are classified into:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 72 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, the difference between the criminal remedies or sanctions and civil remedies is that “criminal law is meant to punish, while the civil law is meant to compensate.” International human rights law requires an effective remedy where an individual's rights or freedoms have been violated.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 73

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Intellectual property law protects use of ideas and information that are of commercial value and prevents others, to the exclusion of the owner of the property, to commercially exploit the material without the owner's consent. With the rapid growth of industrialisation and international trade, protection of this intellectual property and vis-à-vis to have sufficient safeguards, in the form of Rules or Statutes, has gained immense importance. India can boast of a sound legal regime to deal with the intellectual property protection. The considerable number of statutes that India has, to deal with intellectual property issues, is itself an indication of her concerned attitude towards protection of intellectual property issues. The various Indian Acts are: Copyright Act, 1957, Trade Marks Act, 1999; Patents Act, 1970 [as amended by Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005], Designs Act, 2000; The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999; The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 and last but not the least, Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001. Apart from laying down what are the rights available to the intellectual property owner, these Acts also contain a sound mechanism to prevent infringement of IPR. The remedies available for the protection of IPR are broadly classified into civil and criminal remedies. The orders in the line with Anton Piller's orders are made under the head of civil remedies. In India, Ordinance 39 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, authorises the court to issue orders in line with Anton Piller's order. Not only CPC, even the statutes like Trademarks Act, 1999, The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 specifically provide for such an order. However, there have not been many case-laws debating over the aspects of Anton Piller's order. One of the earliest cases that dealt with the concept of Anton Piller's order, though cursorily was National Garments vs. National Apparels. Though it was not a case under Anton Piller under the interlocutory injunction, for restraining the defendant from doing business under the trade name which is in dispute, the court cited with approval from Kerly's treatise that 'in extremely urgent cases an ex-parte injunction may be obtained before full hearing of the motion or an Anton Piller order, for inspection of the defendant's premises without prior warning and discovery of his records, may be obtained. The Court also observed that Anton Piller's order is similar to the ex parte interlocutory order to take an inventory of the articles etc. passed in an ordinary suit.

Q. Under which remedies, orders in line of Anton Piller order are made?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 73 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, This order is used in cases where there is a high probability that the Defendant may destroy crucial evidence in his custody for the sole purpose of defeating the ends of justice. The Court also observed that Anton Piller's order is similar to the ex-parte interlocutory order to take an inventory of the articles etc. passed in an ordinary suit.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 74

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Intellectual property law protects use of ideas and information that are of commercial value and prevents others, to the exclusion of the owner of the property, to commercially exploit the material without the owner's consent. With the rapid growth of industrialisation and international trade, protection of this intellectual property and vis-à-vis to have sufficient safeguards, in the form of Rules or Statutes, has gained immense importance. India can boast of a sound legal regime to deal with the intellectual property protection. The considerable number of statutes that India has, to deal with intellectual property issues, is itself an indication of her concerned attitude towards protection of intellectual property issues. The various Indian Acts are: Copyright Act, 1957, Trade Marks Act, 1999; Patents Act, 1970 [as amended by Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005], Designs Act, 2000; The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999; The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 and last but not the least, Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001. Apart from laying down what are the rights available to the intellectual property owner, these Acts also contain a sound mechanism to prevent infringement of IPR. The remedies available for the protection of IPR are broadly classified into civil and criminal remedies. The orders in the line with Anton Piller's orders are made under the head of civil remedies. In India, Ordinance 39 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, authorises the court to issue orders in line with Anton Piller's order. Not only CPC, even the statutes like Trademarks Act, 1999, The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 specifically provide for such an order. However, there have not been many case-laws debating over the aspects of Anton Piller's order. One of the earliest cases that dealt with the concept of Anton Piller's order, though cursorily was National Garments vs. National Apparels. Though it was not a case under Anton Piller under the interlocutory injunction, for restraining the defendant from doing business under the trade name which is in dispute, the court cited with approval from Kerly's treatise that 'in extremely urgent cases an ex-parte injunction may be obtained before full hearing of the motion or an Anton Piller order, for inspection of the defendant's premises without prior warning and discovery of his records, may be obtained. The Court also observed that Anton Piller's order is similar to the ex parte interlocutory order to take an inventory of the articles etc. passed in an ordinary suit.

Q. The Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999 includes:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 74 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, as per the (Indian) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 "Geographical Indication", in relation to goods, means an indication which identifies such goods as agricultural goods, natural goods or manufactured goods as originating, or manufactured in the territory of a country.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 75

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Intellectual property law protects use of ideas and information that are of commercial value and prevents others, to the exclusion of the owner of the property, to commercially exploit the material without the owner's consent. With the rapid growth of industrialisation and international trade, protection of this intellectual property and vis-à-vis to have sufficient safeguards, in the form of Rules or Statutes, has gained immense importance. India can boast of a sound legal regime to deal with the intellectual property protection. The considerable number of statutes that India has, to deal with intellectual property issues, is itself an indication of her concerned attitude towards protection of intellectual property issues. The various Indian Acts are: Copyright Act, 1957, Trade Marks Act, 1999; Patents Act, 1970 [as amended by Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005], Designs Act, 2000; The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999; The Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout Design Act, 2000 and last but not the least, Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001. Apart from laying down what are the rights available to the intellectual property owner, these Acts also contain a sound mechanism to prevent infringement of IPR. The remedies available for the protection of IPR are broadly classified into civil and criminal remedies. The orders in the line with Anton Piller's orders are made under the head of civil remedies. In India, Ordinance 39 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, authorises the court to issue orders in line with Anton Piller's order. Not only CPC, even the statutes like Trademarks Act, 1999, The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 specifically provide for such an order. However, there have not been many case-laws debating over the aspects of Anton Piller's order. One of the earliest cases that dealt with the concept of Anton Piller's order, though cursorily was National Garments vs. National Apparels. Though it was not a case under Anton Piller under the interlocutory injunction, for restraining the defendant from doing business under the trade name which is in dispute, the court cited with approval from Kerly's treatise that 'in extremely urgent cases an ex-parte injunction may be obtained before full hearing of the motion or an Anton Piller order, for inspection of the defendant's premises without prior warning and discovery of his records, may be obtained. The Court also observed that Anton Piller's order is similar to the ex parte interlocutory order to take an inventory of the articles etc. passed in an ordinary suit.

Q. Which court order is used to compel or prevent a party from doing certain acts pending the final determination of the case?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 75 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, an interlocutory injunction is a court order to compel or prevent a party from doing certain acts pending the final determination of the case. It is an order made at an interim stage during the trial, and is usually issued to maintain the status quo until judgment can be made.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 76

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan and acting in concert pursuant to the plan. Common intention comes into being prior to the commission of the act, which need not be a long gap. To bring common intention into effect a pre-concert is not necessarily be proved, but it may well develop on the spot as between a number of persons and could be inferred from facts and circumstances of each case. For example, A and B caught hold of C where only B stabbed C with a knife but A is also liable for murder as there was a preconcerted action. In the case Pandurang vs. the State of Hyderabad, the Supreme court emphasised on this point that prior concert need not be something always very much prior to the incident, but could well be something that may develop on the spot, on the spur of the moment.

Common Intention and Similar Intention

Common intention does not mean a similar intention of several persons. To constitute common intention it is necessary that the intention of each one of them be known to the rest of them and shared by them. In the case of Dukhmochan Pandey vs. the State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that: “Common intention which developed at the spur of the moment is different from the similar intention actuated a number of persons at the same time....the distinction between a common intention and similar intention may be fine, but is nonetheless a real one and if overlooked, may lead to miscarriage of justice...." The mere presence of the accused together is not sufficient to hold that they shared the common intention to commit the offence in question. It is necessary that the intention of each one of 'several persons" be known to each other for constituting common intention.

Q. A gang of six members went to a bank, armed with weapons to commit a heist. While five of the gang members went inside the bank, Mr. A (the sixth member) waited outside the bank to alert them of any threat. During the heist one of the gang members fired a gun at the branch manager, as a result, he died. All five escaped but Mr. A was caught and arrested. Now, choose the most appropriate option as per the principle stated in the above passage.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 76 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The gang as a whole decided to rob the bank, and therefore a common intention existed to do the act, and it involved murder as a part of the process.

Therefore, Mr. A eased the murder by being on guard and is therefore liable for murder.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 77

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan and acting in concert pursuant to the plan. Common intention comes into being prior to the commission of the act, which need not be a long gap. To bring common intention into effect a pre-concert is not necessarily be proved, but it may well develop on the spot as between a number of persons and could be inferred from facts and circumstances of each case. For example, A and B caught hold of C where only B stabbed C with a knife but A is also liable for murder as there was a preconcerted action. In the case Pandurang vs. the State of Hyderabad, the Supreme court emphasised on this point that prior concert need not be something always very much prior to the incident, but could well be something that may develop on the spot, on the spur of the moment.

Common Intention and Similar Intention

Common intention does not mean a similar intention of several persons. To constitute common intention it is necessary that the intention of each one of them be known to the rest of them and shared by them. In the case of Dukhmochan Pandey vs. the State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that: “Common intention which developed at the spur of the moment is different from the similar intention actuated a number of persons at the same time....the distinction between a common intention and similar intention may be fine, but is nonetheless a real one and if overlooked, may lead to miscarriage of justice...." The mere presence of the accused together is not sufficient to hold that they shared the common intention to commit the offence in question. It is necessary that the intention of each one of 'several persons" be known to each other for constituting common intention.

Q. After reading the passage which of the following is not correct in relation to the difference between Common and Similar intention?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 77 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

The author of the passage tells us in the second paragraph that common intention which is developed at the spur of the moment is different from the similar intention actuated by a number of persons at the same time.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 78

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan and acting in concert pursuant to the plan. Common intention comes into being prior to the commission of the act, which need not be a long gap. To bring common intention into effect a pre-concert is not necessarily be proved, but it may well develop on the spot as between a number of persons and could be inferred from facts and circumstances of each case. For example, A and B caught hold of C where only B stabbed C with a knife but A is also liable for murder as there was a preconcerted action. In the case Pandurang vs. the State of Hyderabad, the Supreme court emphasised on this point that prior concert need not be something always very much prior to the incident, but could well be something that may develop on the spot, on the spur of the moment.

Common Intention and Similar Intention

Common intention does not mean a similar intention of several persons. To constitute common intention it is necessary that the intention of each one of them be known to the rest of them and shared by them. In the case of Dukhmochan Pandey vs. the State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that: “Common intention which developed at the spur of the moment is different from the similar intention actuated a number of persons at the same time....the distinction between a common intention and similar intention may be fine, but is nonetheless a real one and if overlooked, may lead to miscarriage of justice...." The mere presence of the accused together is not sufficient to hold that they shared the common intention to commit the offence in question. It is necessary that the intention of each one of 'several persons" be known to each other for constituting common intention.

Q. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the difference between common intention and similar intention?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 78 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

After reading the second paragraph of the given passage we can conclude that the intention of the accused and co-accused can be concluded from the circumstances and facts of each specific case.

In the case of common intention, it is necessary that all the accused have jointly committed the offence by themselves and are thus liable for it together.

Also, each of the accused is liable for the offence he has actually committed, in case, if the common intention is not proven.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 79

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan and acting in concert pursuant to the plan. Common intention comes into being prior to the commission of the act, which need not be a long gap. To bring common intention into effect a pre-concert is not necessarily be proved, but it may well develop on the spot as between a number of persons and could be inferred from facts and circumstances of each case. For example, A and B caught hold of C where only B stabbed C with a knife but A is also liable for murder as there was a preconcerted action. In the case Pandurang vs. the State of Hyderabad, the Supreme court emphasised on this point that prior concert need not be something always very much prior to the incident, but could well be something that may develop on the spot, on the spur of the moment.

Common Intention and Similar Intention

Common intention does not mean a similar intention of several persons. To constitute common intention it is necessary that the intention of each one of them be known to the rest of them and shared by them. In the case of Dukhmochan Pandey vs. the State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that: “Common intention which developed at the spur of the moment is different from the similar intention actuated a number of persons at the same time....the distinction between a common intention and similar intention may be fine, but is nonetheless a real one and if overlooked, may lead to miscarriage of justice...." The mere presence of the accused together is not sufficient to hold that they shared the common intention to commit the offence in question. It is necessary that the intention of each one of 'several persons" be known to each other for constituting common intention.

Q. Raman and Raghav were riding on a motorcycle on a busy street, suddenly Aman (another biker) bumped into their bike. A heated argument started between the three of them. While Raghav started abusing Aman, Raman hit Aman with an iron rod lying on the road and as a consequence, he died. Now, chose the correct option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 79 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

After reading the above-given passage and post-analysis of the above-given situation one can easily conclude that Raghav is not liable for the murder as there was no common intention to kill Aman.

As to constitute common intention it is necessary that the intention of each one of them be known to the rest of them and shared by them.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 80

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan and acting in concert pursuant to the plan. Common intention comes into being prior to the commission of the act, which need not be a long gap. To bring common intention into effect a pre-concert is not necessarily be proved, but it may well develop on the spot as between a number of persons and could be inferred from facts and circumstances of each case. For example, A and B caught hold of C where only B stabbed C with a knife but A is also liable for murder as there was a preconcerted action. In the case Pandurang vs. the State of Hyderabad, the Supreme court emphasised on this point that prior concert need not be something always very much prior to the incident, but could well be something that may develop on the spot, on the spur of the moment.

Common Intention and Similar Intention

Common intention does not mean a similar intention of several persons. To constitute common intention it is necessary that the intention of each one of them be known to the rest of them and shared by them. In the case of Dukhmochan Pandey vs. the State of Bihar, the Supreme Court held that: “Common intention which developed at the spur of the moment is different from the similar intention actuated a number of persons at the same time....the distinction between a common intention and similar intention may be fine, but is nonetheless a real one and if overlooked, may lead to miscarriage of justice...." The mere presence of the accused together is not sufficient to hold that they shared the common intention to commit the offence in question. It is necessary that the intention of each one of 'several persons" be known to each other for constituting common intention.

Q. Mr. X and Mr. Y entered a house at night to commit theft, while committing theft Mr. Y committed sexual assault on a minor girl aged 11 years. Identify for which of the following offences Mr. X is liable:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 80 This is the most suitable answer for the following question.

After reading the given passage and post-analysis of the given situation above we can conclude that only Mr. Y will be liable for the rape that he committed as Mr. X had a different intention than him; robbery.

The act of rape done by Mr. Y is not a common intention for him and Mr. X as Mr. Y did not know about the latter's intentions.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 81

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Absolute Liability: If an industry or enterprise is engaged in some inherently dangerous activity from which it is deriving commercial gain and that activity is capable of causing catastrophic damage then the industry officials are absolutely liable to pay compensation to the aggrieved parties. The industry cannot plead that all safety measures were taken care of by them and that there was negligence on their part. They will not be allowed any exceptions neither can they take up any defence like that of 'Act of God' or 'Act of Stranger'.

Strict Liability: The Strict Liability principle is also called as 'No Fault Liability'. This is contradictory to the general principle of negligence in torts where a person can be held liable for commission of a tort only when the plaintiff can prove negligence on his part and the defendant himself is unable to disprove it. In the cases that I will now mention, the onus of being negligent can be ignored. In spite of all due care taken by the defendant, he will invariably be held for the consequences of the damages caused to any person outside of the boundary of the defendant's land by any hazardous thing that he maintained on the same stretch of land i.e. in spite of no intentional or unintentional fault of his, the defendant can be held liable hence, explaining the term 'No Fault Liability'. The earlier stated definition remains half done if the following terms are not emphasised upon:-

Dangerous Thing: According to the above mentioned rule, the liability of escape of a thing from a person's land will arise only when the thing or substance collected is a dangerous thing i.e. a thing which is likely to cause mischief or damage to other people in person or their property on its escape. In various torts cases filed worldwide,liability have held "large body of water, gas, electricity, vibrations, yew

Escape: The thing that has caused damage or mischief must 'escape' from the area under the occupation and control of the defendant.

Non-natural use of land: Water collected on land for domestic purposes does not amount to non-natural use of land but storing it in huge quantity like that in a reservoir amounts to non-natural use of the land (Rylands vs. Fletcher). This distinction between natural and non-natural use of land can be made possible by its adjustment to existing social conditions. Growing of trees is held natural use of land but if the defendant is found to grow trees of poisonous nature on his land, then it is non-natural use of the land. If the land has been used naturally yet a conflict has risen between the defendant and the plaintiff, owing to natural use of land, the court will not hold the defendant liable.

Mischief: To make the defendant liable under the doctrine of strict liability, the plaintiff needs to prove that the defendant made non-natural use of his land and escape of the dangerous thing caused mischief/damage to him. The resultant damage needs to be shown by the plaintiff after successfully proving that unnatural use of the land was done by the defendant.

Q. A worked as an employee in a company owned by B, while she was on duty within the premises of the company, something exploded due to which A suffered injuries. A filed a case with the company. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 81 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, the strict liability principle is an extremely important concept under the law of torts. Under the strict liability rule, the law makes people pay compensation for damages even if they are not at fault. In other words, people have to pay compensation to victims even if they took all the necessary precautions.Hence, in this case B is liable for strict liability.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 82

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Absolute Liability: If an industry or enterprise is engaged in some inherently dangerous activity from which it is deriving commercial gain and that activity is capable of causing catastrophic damage then the industry officials are absolutely liable to pay compensation to the aggrieved parties. The industry cannot plead that all safety measures were taken care of by them and that there was negligence on their part. They will not be allowed any exceptions neither can they take up any defence like that of 'Act of God' or 'Act of Stranger'.

Strict Liability: The Strict Liability principle is also called as 'No Fault Liability'. This is contradictory to the general principle of negligence in torts where a person can be held liable for commission of a tort only when the plaintiff can prove negligence on his part and the defendant himself is unable to disprove it. In the cases that I will now mention, the onus of being negligent can be ignored. In spite of all due care taken by the defendant, he will invariably be held for the consequences of the damages caused to any person outside of the boundary of the defendant's land by any hazardous thing that he maintained on the same stretch of land i.e. in spite of no intentional or unintentional fault of his, the defendant can be held liable hence, explaining the term 'No Fault Liability'. The earlier stated definition remains half done if the following terms are not emphasised upon:-

Dangerous Thing: According to the above mentioned rule, the liability of escape of a thing from a person's land will arise only when the thing or substance collected is a dangerous thing i.e. a thing which is likely to cause mischief or damage to other people in person or their property on its escape. In various torts cases filed worldwide,liability have held "large body of water, gas, electricity, vibrations, yew

Escape: The thing that has caused damage or mischief must 'escape' from the area under the occupation and control of the defendant.

Non-natural use of land: Water collected on land for domestic purposes does not amount to non-natural use of land but storing it in huge quantity like that in a reservoir amounts to non-natural use of the land (Rylands vs. Fletcher). This distinction between natural and non-natural use of land can be made possible by its adjustment to existing social conditions. Growing of trees is held natural use of land but if the defendant is found to grow trees of poisonous nature on his land, then it is non-natural use of the land. If the land has been used naturally yet a conflict has risen between the defendant and the plaintiff, owing to natural use of land, the court will not hold the defendant liable.

Mischief: To make the defendant liable under the doctrine of strict liability, the plaintiff needs to prove that the defendant made non-natural use of his land and escape of the dangerous thing caused mischief/damage to him. The resultant damage needs to be shown by the plaintiff after successfully proving that unnatural use of the land was done by the defendant.

Q. T took on rent a shop in the SC's premises after full knowledge of the fact that he had a theatre and rehearsal room attached to the same premises. The theatre had a water storage mechanism in case of an emergency. Unfortunately, the water container burst due to excessive frost, and the water leaked into the T's shop thereby damaging his goods. He sued S for payment of damages suffered by him.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 82 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, when the plaintiff has either expressly or impliedly consented to the presence of a source of danger and also there has been no negligence on the defendant's part, the defendant will not be held liable. It is basically the defence of "Volenti non fit injuria' taken by the defendant in the court. Hence, in this case S is not liable as the plaintiff had impliedly consented to the presence of the dangers of a water storage tank situated right next to his shop by taking the defendant's premises on rent.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 83

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Absolute Liability: If an industry or enterprise is engaged in some inherently dangerous activity from which it is deriving commercial gain and that activity is capable of causing catastrophic damage then the industry officials are absolutely liable to pay compensation to the aggrieved parties. The industry cannot plead that all safety measures were taken care of by them and that there was negligence on their part. They will not be allowed any exceptions neither can they take up any defence like that of 'Act of God' or 'Act of Stranger'.

Strict Liability: The Strict Liability principle is also called as 'No Fault Liability'. This is contradictory to the general principle of negligence in torts where a person can be held liable for commission of a tort only when the plaintiff can prove negligence on his part and the defendant himself is unable to disprove it. In the cases that I will now mention, the onus of being negligent can be ignored. In spite of all due care taken by the defendant, he will invariably be held for the consequences of the damages caused to any person outside of the boundary of the defendant's land by any hazardous thing that he maintained on the same stretch of land i.e. in spite of no intentional or unintentional fault of his, the defendant can be held liable hence, explaining the term 'No Fault Liability'. The earlier stated definition remains half done if the following terms are not emphasised upon:-

Dangerous Thing: According to the above mentioned rule, the liability of escape of a thing from a person's land will arise only when the thing or substance collected is a dangerous thing i.e. a thing which is likely to cause mischief or damage to other people in person or their property on its escape. In various torts cases filed worldwide,liability have held "large body of water, gas, electricity, vibrations, yew

Escape: The thing that has caused damage or mischief must 'escape' from the area under the occupation and control of the defendant.

Non-natural use of land: Water collected on land for domestic purposes does not amount to non-natural use of land but storing it in huge quantity like that in a reservoir amounts to non-natural use of the land (Rylands vs. Fletcher). This distinction between natural and non-natural use of land can be made possible by its adjustment to existing social conditions. Growing of trees is held natural use of land but if the defendant is found to grow trees of poisonous nature on his land, then it is non-natural use of the land. If the land has been used naturally yet a conflict has risen between the defendant and the plaintiff, owing to natural use of land, the court will not hold the defendant liable.

Mischief: To make the defendant liable under the doctrine of strict liability, the plaintiff needs to prove that the defendant made non-natural use of his land and escape of the dangerous thing caused mischief/damage to him. The resultant damage needs to be shown by the plaintiff after successfully proving that unnatural use of the land was done by the defendant.

Q. When the master is held liable for the wrongful act of his servant, the liability is called:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 83 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, vicarious liability is when you or your business are held financially responsible for the actions of another person or party. Most commonly, this is the legal framework at play when you are sued over mistakes made by your contractors, employees, or agents.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 84

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Absolute Liability: If an industry or enterprise is engaged in some inherently dangerous activity from which it is deriving commercial gain and that activity is capable of causing catastrophic damage then the industry officials are absolutely liable to pay compensation to the aggrieved parties. The industry cannot plead that all safety measures were taken care of by them and that there was negligence on their part. They will not be allowed any exceptions neither can they take up any defence like that of 'Act of God' or 'Act of Stranger'.

Strict Liability: The Strict Liability principle is also called as 'No Fault Liability'. This is contradictory to the general principle of negligence in torts where a person can be held liable for commission of a tort only when the plaintiff can prove negligence on his part and the defendant himself is unable to disprove it. In the cases that I will now mention, the onus of being negligent can be ignored. In spite of all due care taken by the defendant, he will invariably be held for the consequences of the damages caused to any person outside of the boundary of the defendant's land by any hazardous thing that he maintained on the same stretch of land i.e. in spite of no intentional or unintentional fault of his, the defendant can be held liable hence, explaining the term 'No Fault Liability'. The earlier stated definition remains half done if the following terms are not emphasised upon:-

Dangerous Thing: According to the above mentioned rule, the liability of escape of a thing from a person's land will arise only when the thing or substance collected is a dangerous thing i.e. a thing which is likely to cause mischief or damage to other people in person or their property on its escape. In various torts cases filed worldwide,liability have held "large body of water, gas, electricity, vibrations, yew

Escape: The thing that has caused damage or mischief must 'escape' from the area under the occupation and control of the defendant.

Non-natural use of land: Water collected on land for domestic purposes does not amount to non-natural use of land but storing it in huge quantity like that in a reservoir amounts to non-natural use of the land (Rylands vs. Fletcher). This distinction between natural and non-natural use of land can be made possible by its adjustment to existing social conditions. Growing of trees is held natural use of land but if the defendant is found to grow trees of poisonous nature on his land, then it is non-natural use of the land. If the land has been used naturally yet a conflict has risen between the defendant and the plaintiff, owing to natural use of land, the court will not hold the defendant liable.

Mischief: To make the defendant liable under the doctrine of strict liability, the plaintiff needs to prove that the defendant made non-natural use of his land and escape of the dangerous thing caused mischief/damage to him. The resultant damage needs to be shown by the plaintiff after successfully proving that unnatural use of the land was done by the defendant.

Q. There was spontaneous growth of thistle plants in the land owned by X. He did not check the growth of this undesired vegetation which was extending to the Y's land also only to cause him annoyance and damage. Y filed a suit against X.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 84 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, the principle of strict liability evolved in the case of Rylands v Fletcher. In the year 1868, the principle of strict liability states that any person who keeps hazardous substances on his premises will be held responsible if such substances escape the premises and causes any damage.Hence, the case in question is of strict liability.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 85

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Absolute Liability: If an industry or enterprise is engaged in some inherently dangerous activity from which it is deriving commercial gain and that activity is capable of causing catastrophic damage then the industry officials are absolutely liable to pay compensation to the aggrieved parties. The industry cannot plead that all safety measures were taken care of by them and that there was negligence on their part. They will not be allowed any exceptions neither can they take up any defence like that of 'Act of God' or 'Act of Stranger'.

Strict Liability: The Strict Liability principle is also called as 'No Fault Liability'. This is contradictory to the general principle of negligence in torts where a person can be held liable for commission of a tort only when the plaintiff can prove negligence on his part and the defendant himself is unable to disprove it. In the cases that I will now mention, the onus of being negligent can be ignored. In spite of all due care taken by the defendant, he will invariably be held for the consequences of the damages caused to any person outside of the boundary of the defendant's land by any hazardous thing that he maintained on the same stretch of land i.e. in spite of no intentional or unintentional fault of his, the defendant can be held liable hence, explaining the term 'No Fault Liability'. The earlier stated definition remains half done if the following terms are not emphasised upon:-

Dangerous Thing: According to the above mentioned rule, the liability of escape of a thing from a person's land will arise only when the thing or substance collected is a dangerous thing i.e. a thing which is likely to cause mischief or damage to other people in person or their property on its escape. In various torts cases filed worldwide, liability have held "large body of water, gas, electricity, vibrations, yew

Escape: The thing that has caused damage or mischief must 'escape' from the area under the occupation and control of the defendant.

Non-natural use of land: Water collected on land for domestic purposes does not amount to non-natural use of land but storing it in huge quantity like that in a reservoir amounts to non-natural use of the land (Rylands vs. Fletcher). This distinction between natural and non-natural use of land can be made possible by its adjustment to existing social conditions. Growing of trees is held natural use of land but if the defendant is found to grow trees of poisonous nature on his land, then it is non-natural use of the land. If the land has been used naturally yet a conflict has risen between the defendant and the plaintiff, owing to natural use of land, the court will not hold the defendant liable.

Mischief: To make the defendant liable under the doctrine of strict liability, the plaintiff needs to prove that the defendant made non-natural use of his land and escape of the dangerous thing caused mischief/damage to him. The resultant damage needs to be shown by the plaintiff after successfully proving that unnatural use of the land was done by the defendant.

Q. V had some artificial lakes that he had formed by damming up a natural stream for several years. However, an extraordinary rainfall that year was greater and more violent than any rainfall ever witnessed there broke the artificial embankments by the stream, and the rushing water carried away with it four bridges of the land of Z.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 85 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, an act of God is a defence used in cases of torts when an event over which the defendant has no control over occurs and the damage is caused by the forces of nature. In such cases, the defendant will not be liable in tort law for such inadvertent damage.Hence, V is not liable for the damage in this case.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 86

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Pesticide Management Bill, 2020, is a long-overdue law on this critical segment of agriculture, in the making since 2008, to replace the obsolete Insecticides Act, 1968. Globally, India is the fourth-largest producer of pesticides. As a first step, the proposed legislation covers all classes of pesticides, not just insecticides as the current law does.

Taking into account advances in modern pest management science and the ill effects of synthetic pesticides, the Pesticide Management Bill should bring India's pesticide sector in line with global norms, to some of which India has signed up. The food safety law already has limits on pesticide residue. It would be desirable for the government to subject the Bill to public comment.

The present law addresses manufacturing, sale, import, transport, use, and distribution of insecticides. The Bill will cover the life cycle of pesticides from manufacture to disposal and will include regulation of export, packaging, labelling, pricing, storage, and advertisement. Penalties on manufacturers for non-compliance with rules and regulations would be stiffer.

An important focus of the Bill is on labelling-manufacturers will be required by law to specify clear and specific information on material and chemical composition, and dosage of use. The labels must carry this information in the local language to ensure that farmers are properly informed. This is critical. There is a tendency of overuse of pesticides by farmers, often driven by ignorance.

The Bill should also have provision for technical assistance to farmers on pesticide use from agriculture extension services centers. This is vital for farm exports. Proposals for a pool for compensating farmers might sound good but would diffuse culpability, which must be rigorously established before seeking compensation. Empowering states to set locally relevant norms would be a good idea.

While the Bill is a major step forward, it needs to go beyond regulating chemical pesticides. It must take into account non-synthetic pesticides, including research and development.

Q. If a manufacturer is supplying pesticides to the farmers at a village in Tamil Nadu. What is the most important thing for the manufacturer to ensure according to the proposed Pesticide Management Bill, 2020?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 86 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage- "the labels must carry this information in the local language to ensure that farmers are properly informed."

According to the proposed Pesticide Management Bill, 2020, the most important thing for the manufacturer is to ensure that the labelling should be in Tamil.

So, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 87

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Pesticide Management Bill, 2020, is a long-overdue law on this critical segment of agriculture, in the making since 2008, to replace the obsolete Insecticides Act, 1968. Globally, India is the fourth-largest producer of pesticides. As a first step, the proposed legislation covers all classes of pesticides, not just insecticides as the current law does.

Taking into account advances in modern pest management science and the ill effects of synthetic pesticides, the Pesticide Management Bill should bring India's pesticide sector in line with global norms, to some of which India has signed up. The food safety law already has limits on pesticide residue. It would be desirable for the government to subject the Bill to public comment.

The present law addresses manufacturing, sale, import, transport, use, and distribution of insecticides. The Bill will cover the life cycle of pesticides from manufacture to disposal and will include regulation of export, packaging, labelling, pricing, storage, and advertisement. Penalties on manufacturers for non-compliance with rules and regulations would be stiffer.

An important focus of the Bill is on labelling-manufacturers will be required by law to specify clear and specific information on material and chemical composition, and dosage of use. The labels must carry this information in the local language to ensure that farmers are properly informed. This is critical. There is a tendency of overuse of pesticides by farmers, often driven by ignorance.

The Bill should also have provision for technical assistance to farmers on pesticide use from agriculture extension services centers. This is vital for farm exports. Proposals for a pool for compensating farmers might sound good but would diffuse culpability, which must be rigorously established before seeking compensation. Empowering states to set locally relevant norms would be a good idea.

While the Bill is a major step forward, it needs to go beyond regulating chemical pesticides. It must take into account non-synthetic pesticides, including research and development.

Q. Which law in India has sanctioned limits over use of pesticides?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 87 According to the given question, this is the most suitable answer.

The passage tells that the food safety law puts limits on pesticide residue.

So, among these options, the food law in India has sanctioned limits over the use of pesticides.

Thus, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 88

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Pesticide Management Bill, 2020, is a long-overdue law on this critical segment of agriculture, in the making since 2008, to replace the obsolete Insecticides Act, 1968. Globally, India is the fourth-largest producer of pesticides. As a first step, the proposed legislation covers all classes of pesticides, not just insecticides as the current law does.

Taking into account advances in modern pest management science and the ill effects of synthetic pesticides, the Pesticide Management Bill should bring India's pesticide sector in line with global norms, to some of which India has signed up. The food safety law already has limits on pesticide residue. It would be desirable for the government to subject the Bill to public comment.

The present law addresses manufacturing, sale, import, transport, use, and distribution of insecticides. The Bill will cover the life cycle of pesticides from manufacture to disposal and will include regulation of export, packaging, labelling, pricing, storage, and advertisement. Penalties on manufacturers for non-compliance with rules and regulations would be stiffer.

An important focus of the Bill is on labelling-manufacturers will be required by law to specify clear and specific information on material and chemical composition, and dosage of use. The labels must carry this information in the local language to ensure that farmers are properly informed. This is critical. There is a tendency of overuse of pesticides by farmers, often driven by ignorance.

The Bill should also have provision for technical assistance to farmers on pesticide use from agriculture extension services centers. This is vital for farm exports. Proposals for a pool for compensating farmers might sound good but would diffuse culpability, which must be rigorously established before seeking compensation. Empowering states to set locally relevant norms would be a good idea.

While the Bill is a major step forward, it needs to go beyond regulating chemical pesticides. It must take into account non-synthetic pesticides, including research and development.

Q. What is the suggestion not given by the author in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 88 According to the given question, this is the most suitable answer.

In the given passage, the author has suggested that the bill should address the issue of overuse of pesticides, regulate non-synthetic pesticides, and over the life cycle of the product.

It does not suggest to address manufacturers concerns.

So, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 89

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Pesticide Management Bill, 2020, is a long-overdue law on this critical segment of agriculture, in the making since 2008, to replace the obsolete Insecticides Act, 1968. Globally, India is the fourth-largest producer of pesticides. As a first step, the proposed legislation covers all classes of pesticides, not just insecticides as the current law does.

Taking into account advances in modern pest management science and the ill effects of synthetic pesticides, the Pesticide Management Bill should bring India's pesticide sector in line with global norms, to some of which India has signed up. The food safety law already has limits on pesticide residue. It would be desirable for the government to subject the Bill to public comment.

The present law addresses manufacturing, sale, import, transport, use, and distribution of insecticides. The Bill will cover the life cycle of pesticides from manufacture to disposal and will include regulation of export, packaging, labelling, pricing, storage, and advertisement. Penalties on manufacturers for non-compliance with rules and regulations would be stiffer.

An important focus of the Bill is on labelling-manufacturers will be required by law to specify clear and specific information on material and chemical composition, and dosage of use. The labels must carry this information in the local language to ensure that farmers are properly informed. This is critical. There is a tendency of overuse of pesticides by farmers, often driven by ignorance.

The Bill should also have provision for technical assistance to farmers on pesticide use from agriculture extension services centers. This is vital for farm exports. Proposals for a pool for compensating farmers might sound good but would diffuse culpability, which must be rigorously established before seeking compensation. Empowering states to set locally relevant norms would be a good idea.

While the Bill is a major step forward, it needs to go beyond regulating chemical pesticides. It must take into account non-synthetic pesticides, including research and development.

Q. The present act covers which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 89 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

Refer to these lines of the passage: "The present law addresses manufacturing, sale, import, transport, use, and distribution of insecticides."

So, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 90

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

The Pesticide Management Bill, 2020, is a long-overdue law on this critical segment of agriculture, in the making since 2008, to replace the obsolete Insecticides Act, 1968. Globally, India is the fourth-largest producer of pesticides. As a first step, the proposed legislation covers all classes of pesticides, not just insecticides as the current law does.

Taking into account advances in modern pest management science and the ill effects of synthetic pesticides, the Pesticide Management Bill should bring India's pesticide sector in line with global norms, to some of which India has signed up. The food safety law already has limits on pesticide residue. It would be desirable for the government to subject the Bill to public comment.

The present law addresses manufacturing, sale, import, transport, use, and distribution of insecticides. The Bill will cover the life cycle of pesticides from manufacture to disposal and will include regulation of export, packaging, labelling, pricing, storage, and advertisement. Penalties on manufacturers for non-compliance with rules and regulations would be stiffer.

An important focus of the Bill is on labelling-manufacturers will be required by law to specify clear and specific information on material and chemical composition, and dosage of use. The labels must carry this information in the local language to ensure that farmers are properly informed. This is critical. There is a tendency of overuse of pesticides by farmers, often driven by ignorance.

The Bill should also have provision for technical assistance to farmers on pesticide use from agriculture extension services centers. This is vital for farm exports. Proposals for a pool for compensating farmers might sound good but would diffuse culpability, which must be rigorously established before seeking compensation. Empowering states to set locally relevant norms would be a good idea.

While the Bill is a major step forward, it needs to go beyond regulating chemical pesticides. It must take into account non-synthetic pesticides, including research and development.

Q. Which one of the following is not covered by the proposed Pesticide Management Bill, 2020?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 90 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

The proposed Pesticide Management Bill, 2020 covers the life cycle of pesticides, specific information on material and chemical composition, and carry this information in the local language to ensure that farmers are properly informed.

Technical assistance to farmers is not covered in the proposed Pesticide Management Bill, 2020.

So, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 91

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A decision in a legal case recently enraged many, while leaving many others feeling helpless as the rights of a minor rape survivor were tragically crushed due to the legal limitations arising out of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. A brutally raped minor was forced to give birth to her rapist's child after a high court denied her request for an abortion. Examined first by a doctor at 19 weeks of pregnancy, the minor survivor was traumatized when her doctor refused to perform an abortion even though it was permitted under the law. By the time her petition was heard by a court of law, her pregnancy had crossed the 20-week limit beyond which abortion is prohibited under the MTP Act.

Hers was not the lone tragedy. Despite a plethora of judgments allowing termination of pregnancy in case of fetal abnormalities, the Supreme Court denied the right to abort a fetus detected with Down Syndrome at 22 weeks, to a family already blessed with and caring for a special needs child, on the grounds that the 20 -week mark specified in the MTP Act had been breached.

A 2015 study in the Indian Journal of Medical Ethics has observed that 10-13% of maternal deaths in India can be attributed to unsafe abortions. It roughly translates into at least six to seven women losing their life due to unsafe abortions every day. Many of those who survive such methods are compelled to live a life of pain compounded by infertility, sepsis, and other internal injuries. Studies have shown that the 20 week limit on abortion is based on outdated medical concepts from the 1970 s. Developments in medical science which include medical abortion pills and vacuum aspiration which allow for safer abortions in advanced stages of pregnancy have found no legal resonance in the MTP Act.

Though access to safe abortion has been established as a human right by numerous international frameworks and in 2003 the WHO developed technical and policy guidelines to help governments pass progressive abortion laws, there was legislative silence on the issue under the decade-long coalition that assumed power in 2004. This silence was preceded by serious efforts made by Atalji's NDA government to ensure safer abortions, by eliminating abortion by untrained persons and in unhygienic conditions, thus reducing maternal morbidity under the aegis of the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2002.

By contrast Cabinet's decision to approve the MTP (Amendment) Bill, 2020, will truly address the needs of gender justice through the prism of reproductive rights, providing a solution which women in our country have sought for decades. The bill allows abortion up to 24 weeks of gestational age for vulnerable categories of women and there is no limit of gestational age in case of pregnancies with substantial fetal abnormalities, diagnosed by a medical board. This will increase access of women to safe medico-legal services and will thus reduce maternal mortality and morbidity arising out of unsafe abortions.

The bill also seeks to strengthen provisions for protecting the dignity and privacy of women who seek the refuge of law when confronted with such a life altering decision. The current amendment not only allows greater autonomy to women, it will also ensure clarity amongst medical practitioners, who have in the past shuwn inhibition towards pregnancy termination procedures especially in cases of survivors of rape and incest - where survivors were subsequently forced to approach the courts for judicial sanction.

Q. What was the gestational limit of abortion in the old law?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 91 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

According to the passage, the bill allows abortion up to 20 weeks of gestational age.

Twenty-weeks is the limit, beyond which abortion is prohibited under the MTP Act.

So, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 92

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A decision in a legal case recently enraged many, while leaving many others feeling helpless as the rights of a minor rape survivor were tragically crushed due to the legal limitations arising out of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. A brutally raped minor was forced to give birth to her rapist's child after a high court denied her request for an abortion. Examined first by a doctor at 19 weeks of pregnancy, the minor survivor was traumatized when her doctor refused to perform an abortion even though it was permitted under the law. By the time her petition was heard by a court of law, her pregnancy had crossed the 20-week limit beyond which abortion is prohibited under the MTP Act.

Hers was not the lone tragedy. Despite a plethora of judgments allowing termination of pregnancy in case of fetal abnormalities, the Supreme Court denied the right to abort a fetus detected with Down Syndrome at 22 weeks, to a family already blessed with and caring for a special needs child, on the grounds that the 20 -week mark specified in the MTP Act had been breached.

A 2015 study in the Indian Journal of Medical Ethics has observed that 10-13% of maternal deaths in India can be attributed to unsafe abortions. It roughly translates into at least six to seven women losing their life due to unsafe abortions every day. Many of those who survive such methods are compelled to live a life of pain compounded by infertility, sepsis, and other internal injuries. Studies have shown that the 20 week limit on abortion is based on outdated medical concepts from the 1970 s. Developments in medical science which include medical abortion pills and vacuum aspiration which allow for safer abortions in advanced stages of pregnancy have found no legal resonance in the MTP Act.

Though access to safe abortion has been established as a human right by numerous international frameworks and in 2003 the WHO developed technical and policy guidelines to help governments pass progressive abortion laws, there was legislative silence on the issue under the decade-long coalition that assumed power in 2004. This silence was preceded by serious efforts made by Atalji's NDA government to ensure safer abortions, by eliminating abortion by untrained persons and in unhygienic conditions, thus reducing maternal morbidity under the aegis of the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2002.

By contrast Cabinet's decision to approve the MTP (Amendment) Bill, 2020, will truly address the needs of gender justice through the prism of reproductive rights, providing a solution which women in our country have sought for decades. The bill allows abortion up to 24 weeks of gestational age for vulnerable categories of women and there is no limit of gestational age in case of pregnancies with substantial fetal abnormalities, diagnosed by a medical board. This will increase access of women to safe medico-legal services and will thus reduce maternal mortality and morbidity arising out of unsafe abortions.

The bill also seeks to strengthen provisions for protecting the dignity and privacy of women who seek the refuge of law when confronted with such a life altering decision. The current amendment not only allows greater autonomy to women, it will also ensure clarity amongst medical practitioners, who have in the past shuwn inhibition towards pregnancy termination procedures especially in cases of survivors of rape and incest - where survivors were subsequently forced to approach the courts for judicial sanction.

Q. Right to access to safer abortion includes:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 92 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

Right to access to safer abortion includes choosing a hygienic hospital.

Refer to these lines from the passage: "Serious efforts made by Atalji's NDA government to ensure safer abortions, by eliminating abortion by untrained persons and in unhygienic conditions."

Thus, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 93

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A decision in a legal case recently enraged many, while leaving many others feeling helpless as the rights of a minor rape survivor were tragically crushed due to the legal limitations arising out of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. A brutally raped minor was forced to give birth to her rapist's child after a high court denied her request for an abortion. Examined first by a doctor at 19 weeks of pregnancy, the minor survivor was traumatized when her doctor refused to perform an abortion even though it was permitted under the law. By the time her petition was heard by a court of law, her pregnancy had crossed the 20-week limit beyond which abortion is prohibited under the MTP Act.

Hers was not the lone tragedy. Despite a plethora of judgments allowing termination of pregnancy in case of fetal abnormalities, the Supreme Court denied the right to abort a fetus detected with Down Syndrome at 22 weeks, to a family already blessed with and caring for a special needs child, on the grounds that the 20 -week mark specified in the MTP Act had been breached.

A 2015 study in the Indian Journal of Medical Ethics has observed that 10-13% of maternal deaths in India can be attributed to unsafe abortions. It roughly translates into at least six to seven women losing their life due to unsafe abortions every day. Many of those who survive such methods are compelled to live a life of pain compounded by infertility, sepsis, and other internal injuries. Studies have shown that the 20 week limit on abortion is based on outdated medical concepts from the 1970 s. Developments in medical science which include medical abortion pills and vacuum aspiration which allow for safer abortions in advanced stages of pregnancy have found no legal resonance in the MTP Act.

Though access to safe abortion has been established as a human right by numerous international frameworks and in 2003 the WHO developed technical and policy guidelines to help governments pass progressive abortion laws, there was legislative silence on the issue under the decade-long coalition that assumed power in 2004. This silence was preceded by serious efforts made by Atalji's NDA government to ensure safer abortions, by eliminating abortion by untrained persons and in unhygienic conditions, thus reducing maternal morbidity under the aegis of the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2002.

By contrast Cabinet's decision to approve the MTP (Amendment) Bill, 2020, will truly address the needs of gender justice through the prism of reproductive rights, providing a solution which women in our country have sought for decades. The bill allows abortion up to 24 weeks of gestational age for vulnerable categories of women and there is no limit of gestational age in case of pregnancies with substantial fetal abnormalities, diagnosed by a medical board. This will increase access of women to safe medico-legal services and will thus reduce maternal mortality and morbidity arising out of unsafe abortions.

The bill also seeks to strengthen provisions for protecting the dignity and privacy of women who seek the refuge of law when confronted with such a life altering decision. The current amendment not only allows greater autonomy to women, it will also ensure clarity amongst medical practitioners, who have in the past shuwn inhibition towards pregnancy termination procedures especially in cases of survivors of rape and incest - where survivors were subsequently forced to approach the courts for judicial sanction.

Q. If termination of pregnancy is safe for only up to 20 weeks, then why did the new bill increases this limit to 25 weeks?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 93 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

Studies have shown that the 20 week limit on abortion is based on outdated medical concepts.

Medical science has developed in the field of abortions. The new bill increases the limit to 25 weeks.

So, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 94

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A decision in a legal case recently enraged many, while leaving many others feeling helpless as the rights of a minor rape survivor were tragically crushed due to the legal limitations arising out of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. A brutally raped minor was forced to give birth to her rapist's child after a high court denied her request for an abortion. Examined first by a doctor at 19 weeks of pregnancy, the minor survivor was traumatized when her doctor refused to perform an abortion even though it was permitted under the law. By the time her petition was heard by a court of law, her pregnancy had crossed the 20-week limit beyond which abortion is prohibited under the MTP Act.

Hers was not the lone tragedy. Despite a plethora of judgments allowing termination of pregnancy in case of fetal abnormalities, the Supreme Court denied the right to abort a fetus detected with Down Syndrome at 22 weeks, to a family already blessed with and caring for a special needs child, on the grounds that the 20 -week mark specified in the MTP Act had been breached.

A 2015 study in the Indian Journal of Medical Ethics has observed that 10-13% of maternal deaths in India can be attributed to unsafe abortions. It roughly translates into at least six to seven women losing their life due to unsafe abortions every day. Many of those who survive such methods are compelled to live a life of pain compounded by infertility, sepsis, and other internal injuries. Studies have shown that the 20 week limit on abortion is based on outdated medical concepts from the 1970 s. Developments in medical science which include medical abortion pills and vacuum aspiration which allow for safer abortions in advanced stages of pregnancy have found no legal resonance in the MTP Act.

Though access to safe abortion has been established as a human right by numerous international frameworks and in 2003 the WHO developed technical and policy guidelines to help governments pass progressive abortion laws, there was legislative silence on the issue under the decade-long coalition that assumed power in 2004. This silence was preceded by serious efforts made by Atalji's NDA government to ensure safer abortions, by eliminating abortion by untrained persons and in unhygienic conditions, thus reducing maternal morbidity under the aegis of the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2002.

By contrast Cabinet's decision to approve the MTP (Amendment) Bill, 2020, will truly address the needs of gender justice through the prism of reproductive rights, providing a solution which women in our country have sought for decades. The bill allows abortion up to 24 weeks of gestational age for vulnerable categories of women and there is no limit of gestational age in case of pregnancies with substantial fetal abnormalities, diagnosed by a medical board. This will increase access of women to safe medico-legal services and will thus reduce maternal mortality and morbidity arising out of unsafe abortions.

The bill also seeks to strengthen provisions for protecting the dignity and privacy of women who seek the refuge of law when confronted with such a life altering decision. The current amendment not only allows greater autonomy to women, it will also ensure clarity amongst medical practitioners, who have in the past shuwn inhibition towards pregnancy termination procedures especially in cases of survivors of rape and incest - where survivors were subsequently forced to approach the courts for judicial sanction.

Q. A lady Sangeeta is pregnant with an abnormal fetus but the time of pregnancy has been 25 weeks. Can she opt for abortion under the new law?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 94 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

In this case, she can opt for abortion as the bill allows abortion up to 24 weeks of gestational age for vulnerable categories of women.

So, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 95

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

A decision in a legal case recently enraged many, while leaving many others feeling helpless as the rights of a minor rape survivor were tragically crushed due to the legal limitations arising out of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. A brutally raped minor was forced to give birth to her rapist's child after a high court denied her request for an abortion. Examined first by a doctor at 19 weeks of pregnancy, the minor survivor was traumatized when her doctor refused to perform an abortion even though it was permitted under the law. By the time her petition was heard by a court of law, her pregnancy had crossed the 20-week limit beyond which abortion is prohibited under the MTP Act.

Hers was not the lone tragedy. Despite a plethora of judgments allowing termination of pregnancy in case of fetal abnormalities, the Supreme Court denied the right to abort a fetus detected with Down Syndrome at 22 weeks, to a family already blessed with and caring for a special needs child, on the grounds that the 20 -week mark specified in the MTP Act had been breached.

A 2015 study in the Indian Journal of Medical Ethics has observed that 10-13% of maternal deaths in India can be attributed to unsafe abortions. It roughly translates into at least six to seven women losing their life due to unsafe abortions every day. Many of those who survive such methods are compelled to live a life of pain compounded by infertility, sepsis, and other internal injuries. Studies have shown that the 20 week limit on abortion is based on outdated medical concepts from the 1970 s. Developments in medical science which include medical abortion pills and vacuum aspiration which allow for safer abortions in advanced stages of pregnancy have found no legal resonance in the MTP Act.

Though access to safe abortion has been established as a human right by numerous international frameworks and in 2003 the WHO developed technical and policy guidelines to help governments pass progressive abortion laws, there was legislative silence on the issue under the decade-long coalition that assumed power in 2004. This silence was preceded by serious efforts made by Atalji's NDA government to ensure safer abortions, by eliminating abortion by untrained persons and in unhygienic conditions, thus reducing maternal morbidity under the aegis of the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2002.

By contrast Cabinet's decision to approve the MTP (Amendment) Bill, 2020, will truly address the needs of gender justice through the prism of reproductive rights, providing a solution which women in our country have sought for decades. The bill allows abortion up to 24 weeks of gestational age for vulnerable categories of women and there is no limit of gestational age in case of pregnancies with substantial fetal abnormalities, diagnosed by a medical board. This will increase access of women to safe medico-legal services and will thus reduce maternal mortality and morbidity arising out of unsafe abortions.

The bill also seeks to strengthen provisions for protecting the dignity and privacy of women who seek the refuge of law when confronted with such a life altering decision. The current amendment not only allows greater autonomy to women, it will also ensure clarity amongst medical practitioners, who have in the past shown inhibition towards pregnancy termination procedures especially in cases of survivors of rape and incest - where survivors were subsequently forced to approach the courts for judicial sanction.

Q. Under the new law, a rape survivor who is pregnant with the accused's child is allowed to terminate pregnancy up to:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 95 This is the most suitable answer to the given question.

The bill allows abortion up to 24 weeks of gestational age for a rape survivor who is pregnant with the accused's child.

So, this is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 96

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Sending a strong message down the line to lower courts, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court has ruled that anticipatory bail can be granted until the completion of trial. SC's verdict lamented that arbitrary and groundless arrests were still common and curtailing the discretionary power to grant anticipatory bail, which was kept wide deliberately and after due consideration, would be dangerous. Judiciary's discretion to grant bail flows out of the innocent until proven guilty dictum. And in the Indian context, anticipatory bail was found necessary because of incessant targeting of political rivals and the tendency of police to use its power of arrest even in cases that require no custodial interrogation.

While anticipatory bail is generally availed by the well-heeled, the principle applied in the above judgment must also extend to thousands of under trial prisoners (UTPs) languishing in jail with no resources to bail themselves out. According to NCRB prison statistics for 2018, UTPs account for 70% of the prison population, a 25%rise from 2010, which also mirrors how the problem of pendency of trials is actually worsening with the decades. Those who can afford good lawyers and furnish sureties manage to secure bail while the poor are left behind, irrespective of the gravity of offences.

Recognizing the burgeoning numbers of UTPs in jails, initiatives to free those not accused of heinous offences on personal bail (which is non-monetary) need to be stepped up. At the same time, the legal aid infrastructure that has been in the works for nearly three decades needs to be spruced up. An SC-appointed committee could find only one legal aid lawyer for every 161 prisoners after surveying data collected from 12 states. While the data is not conclusive, appointing more legal aid lawyers will definitely help. It is equally vital that advocates hired by every Legal Services Authority are proficient and dedicated to the cause they sign up for.

Judges, prosecutors, and police officers also have an important role to play. Fear of UTPs absconding, especially those with no one to vouch for their credentials, hinders a more liberal bail policy. But various officers of the state would do well to remember this memorable parting line in Justice Ravindra Bhat's anticipatory bail verdict: "In conclusion, it would be useful to remind oneself that the rights which the citizens cherish deeply, are fundamental-it is not the restrictions that are fundamental."

Q. Who is a UTP?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 96 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question. However, according to the context of the passage, Supreme court has ruled out the law of granting anticipatory bail to the prisoners until the completion of trials. With the growing number of undertrial prisoners in jails, initiatives have to be taken to free those accused not belonging to heinous offenses on personal bail need to be stepped up. The rest of the options do not match with the search.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 97

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Sending a strong message down the line to lower courts, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court has ruled that anticipatory bail can be granted until the completion of trial. SC's verdict lamented that arbitrary and groundless arrests were still common and curtailing the discretionary power to grant anticipatory bail, which was kept wide deliberately and after due consideration, would be dangerous. Judiciary's discretion to grant bail flows out of the innocent until proven guilty dictum. And in the Indian context, anticipatory bail was found necessary because of incessant targeting of political rivals and the tendency of police to use its power of arrest even in cases that require no custodial interrogation.

While anticipatory bail is generally availed by the well-heeled, the principle applied in the above judgment must also extend to thousands of under trial prisoners (UTPs) languishing in jail with no resources to bail themselves out. According to NCRB prison statistics for 2018, UTPs account for 70% of the prison population, a 25%rise from 2010, which also mirrors how the problem of pendency of trials is actually worsening with the decades. Those who can afford good lawyers and furnish sureties manage to secure bail while the poor are left behind, irrespective of the gravity of offences.

Recognizing the burgeoning numbers of UTPs in jails, initiatives to free those not accused of heinous offences on personal bail (which is non-monetary) need to be stepped up. At the same time, the legal aid infrastructure that has been in the works for nearly three decades needs to be spruced up. An SC-appointed committee could find only one legal aid lawyer for every 161 prisoners after surveying data collected from 12 states. While the data is not conclusive, appointing more legal aid lawyers will definitely help. It is equally vital that advocates hired by every Legal Services Authority are proficient and dedicated to the cause they sign up for.

Judges, prosecutors, and police officers also have an important role to play. Fear of UTPs absconding, especially those with no one to vouch for their credentials, hinders a more liberal bail policy. But various officers of the state would do well to remember this memorable parting line in Justice Ravindra Bhat's anticipatory bail verdict: "In conclusion, it would be useful to remind oneself that the rights which the citizens cherish deeply, are fundamental-it is not the restrictions that are fundamental."

Q. Granting of bail is based upon which principle?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 97 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

As per the first paragraph of the passage, Judiciary decision to grant bail depend until accused proven guilty dictum. In the Indian context, anticipatory bail is necessary because of ceaseless targeting of the tendency of police to use its power of arrest even minor into cases which require no custodial interrogation.

The rest of the options are not valid options.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 98

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Sending a strong message down the line to lower courts, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court has ruled that anticipatory bail can be granted until the completion of trial. SC's verdict lamented that arbitrary and groundless arrests were still common and curtailing the discretionary power to grant anticipatory bail, which was kept wide deliberately and after due consideration, would be dangerous. Judiciary's discretion to grant bail flows out of the innocent until proven guilty dictum. And in the Indian context, anticipatory bail was found necessary because of incessant targeting of political rivals and the tendency of police to use its power of arrest even in cases that require no custodial interrogation.

While anticipatory bail is generally availed by the well-heeled, the principle applied in the above judgment must also extend to thousands of under trial prisoners (UTPs) languishing in jail with no resources to bail themselves out. According to NCRB prison statistics for 2018, UTPs account for 70% of the prison population, a 25%rise from 2010, which also mirrors how the problem of pendency of trials is actually worsening with the decades. Those who can afford good lawyers and furnish sureties manage to secure bail while the poor are left behind, irrespective of the gravity of offences.

Recognizing the burgeoning numbers of UTPs in jails, initiatives to free those not accused of heinous offences on personal bail (which is non-monetary) need to be stepped up. At the same time, the legal aid infrastructure that has been in the works for nearly three decades needs to be spruced up. An SC-appointed committee could find only one legal aid lawyer for every 161 prisoners after surveying data collected from 12 states. While the data is not conclusive, appointing more legal aid lawyers will definitely help. It is equally vital that advocates hired by every Legal Services Authority are proficient and dedicated to the cause they sign up for.

Judges, prosecutors, and police officers also have an important role to play. Fear of UTPs absconding, especially those with no one to vouch for their credentials, hinders a more liberal bail policy. But various officers of the state would do well to remember this memorable parting line in Justice Ravindra Bhat's anticipatory bail verdict: "In conclusion, it would be useful to remind oneself that the rights which the citizens cherish deeply, are fundamental-it is not the restrictions that are fundamental."

Q. What are the suggestions given by the author in the passage in order to reform the state of UTPs?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 98 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, the author gave the following suggestions in order to reform the state of UTP's in the country. The legal aid infrastructure is taking the initiative to free all UTP's for minor offenses free of cost. It becomes easier for them who have no resource to bail themselves.

The rest of the options are invalid.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 99

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Sending a strong message down the line to lower courts, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court has ruled that anticipatory bail can be granted until the completion of trial. SC's verdict lamented that arbitrary and groundless arrests were still common and curtailing the discretionary power to grant anticipatory bail, which was kept wide deliberately and after due consideration, would be dangerous. Judiciary's discretion to grant bail flows out of the innocent until proven guilty dictum. And in the Indian context, anticipatory bail was found necessary because of incessant targeting of political rivals and the tendency of police to use its power of arrest even in cases that require no custodial interrogation.

While anticipatory bail is generally availed by the well-heeled, the principle applied in the above judgment must also extend to thousands of under trial prisoners (UTPs) languishing in jail with no resources to bail themselves out. According to NCRB prison statistics for 2018, UTPs account for 70% of the prison population, a 25%rise from 2010, which also mirrors how the problem of pendency of trials is actually worsening with the decades. Those who can afford good lawyers and furnish sureties manage to secure bail while the poor are left behind, irrespective of the gravity of offences.

Recognizing the burgeoning numbers of UTPs in jails, initiatives to free those not accused of heinous offences on personal bail (which is non-monetary) need to be stepped up. At the same time, the legal aid infrastructure that has been in the works for nearly three decades needs to be spruced up. An SC-appointed committee could find only one legal aid lawyer for every 161 prisoners after surveying data collected from 12 states. While the data is not conclusive, appointing more legal aid lawyers will definitely help. It is equally vital that advocates hired by every Legal Services Authority are proficient and dedicated to the cause they sign up for.

Judges, prosecutors, and police officers also have an important role to play. Fear of UTPs absconding, especially those with no one to vouch for their credentials, hinders a more liberal bail policy. But various officers of the state would do well to remember this memorable parting line in Justice Ravindra Bhat's anticipatory bail verdict: "In conclusion, it would be useful to remind oneself that the rights which the citizens cherish deeply, are fundamental-it is not the restrictions that are fundamental."

Q. What is anticipatory bail?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 99 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, Anticipated bail means bail that is granted in anticipation of arrest and is therefore effective at the very moment of arrest.

Anticipatory bail is normally availed by the well-heeled, criminals like UTP's where the judgment extends to thousands of undertrial prisoners (UTPs) lying in jail with no resources to bail themselves out.

The rest of the options are not valid.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 100

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

Sending a strong message down the line to lower courts, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court has ruled that anticipatory bail can be granted until the completion of trial. SC's verdict lamented that arbitrary and groundless arrests were still common and curtailing the discretionary power to grant anticipatory bail, which was kept wide deliberately and after due consideration, would be dangerous. Judiciary's discretion to grant bail flows out of the innocent until proven guilty dictum. And in the Indian context, anticipatory bail was found necessary because of incessant targeting of political rivals and the tendency of police to use its power of arrest even in cases that require no custodial interrogation.

While anticipatory bail is generally availed by the well-heeled, the principle applied in the above judgment must also extend to thousands of under trial prisoners (UTPs) languishing in jail with no resources to bail themselves out. According to NCRB prison statistics for 2018, UTPs account for 70% of the prison population, a 25%rise from 2010, which also mirrors how the problem of pendency of trials is actually worsening with the decades. Those who can afford good lawyers and furnish sureties manage to secure bail while the poor are left behind, irrespective of the gravity of offences.

Recognizing the burgeoning numbers of UTPs in jails, initiatives to free those not accused of heinous offences on personal bail (which is non-monetary) need to be stepped up. At the same time, the legal aid infrastructure that has been in the works for nearly three decades needs to be spruced up. An SC-appointed committee could find only one legal aid lawyer for every 161 prisoners after surveying data collected from 12 states. While the data is not conclusive, appointing more legal aid lawyers will definitely help. It is equally vital that advocates hired by every Legal Services Authority are proficient and dedicated to the cause they sign up for.

Judges, prosecutors, and police officers also have an important role to play. Fear of UTPs absconding, especially those with no one to vouch for their credentials, hinders a more liberal bail policy. But various officers of the state would do well to remember this memorable parting line in Justice Ravindra Bhat's anticipatory bail verdict: "In conclusion, it would be useful to remind oneself that the rights which the citizens cherish deeply, are fundamental-it is not the restrictions that are fundamental."

Q. Why did the supreme court widen the scope to grant anticipatory bail?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 100 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question. According to the context of the passage, the Supreme court has widened the scope of granting anticipatory bail to under-trial prisoners.

As per the verdict issued by SC the anticipatory bail is widened due to the popular arbitrary arrests cutting down the discretionary power to grant anticipatory bail. And in the Indian context, anticipatory bail was accepted because of the personal targeting of political rivals and the tendency of police to use its power of arrest even in cases even incase, of minor interrogations.

So, all the above-mentioned options hold valid for the given question.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 101

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

According to the Oxford Dictionary, a disability could be described as an impairment which can be Intellectual, limitations, cognitive, improvement, sensory, exercise or a mixture of all these. Incapacity impacts a person's activities and may happen at birth. Sometimes, it could happen in adulthood.

The Indian constitution little doubt covers all the Indian residents whether or not in good well being or disabled (mentally or bodily). The next is the elemental rights focused in direction of individuals dwelling with disabilities as enshrined within the Indian constitution:

1. The constitution ensures Indian residents, together with persons living with disabilities with the right of expression, religion, belief, justice, worship, equal alternative, and standing, in addition to liberty of thought.

2. The Indian constitution under Article 15(1) frowns at the discrimination of citizens (including persons living with disabilities) on the basis of place of birth, sex, race, caste, and faith.

3. Article 15(2) in the same vein frowns on the practice of subjecting the disabled to any type of restrictions or legal responsibility when accessing public restaurants, shops, places of public entertainment, hotels of when using tanks, wells, and roads.

4. The constitution guarantees persons living with disabilities the right to employment in any workplace without discrimination

5. Article 17 clearly states that no Indian (together with the disabled) shall be handled as untouchable.

6. Article 21 guarantees the right to liberty and lifetime of the disabled

7. Article 23 prohibits the practice of trafficking persons living with disabilities or forceful employment.

8. Article 24 clearly states that no business or factory should make use of persons living with disabilities under the age of 14 years. The Act also prohibits the employment of disabled youngsters in hazardous situations.

9. Article 25 clearly gives the disabled the right to faith. Persons living with disabilities can choose the place to worship.

10. The constitution also ensures that persons living with disabilities are not compelled to pay taxes in order to maintain any religious group.

11. The Indian constitution guarantees the right to decide on a language, culture, or script

12. Persons living with disabilities have the right to approach the Supreme Court to problem a breach of his/ her right under Article 32.

13. Persons living with disabilities have the right to vote and be voted for upon attainment of 18 years.

Q. A was a government employee and during his service, he became totally blind. The authorities failed to accommodate him in an alternative post and terminated his service. A filed a petition against the termination of his service.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 101 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question.

According to the context of the passage, it clearly indicates that the employee is responsible for the mishap that happened during the working hours and he himself opted for the work after going through the various guidelines. Here authorities can not be blamed because he fails to continue his services in any of the departments offered by the authority.

The rest of the options do not stand valid.

Hence, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 102

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

According to the Oxford Dictionary, a disability could be described as an impairment which can be Intellectual, limitations, cognitive, improvement, sensory, exercise or a mixture of all these. Incapacity impacts a person's activities and may happen at birth. Sometimes, it could happen in adulthood.

The Indian constitution little doubt covers all the Indian residents whether or not in good well being or disabled (mentally or bodily). The next is the elemental rights focused in direction of individuals dwelling with disabilities as enshrined within the Indian constitution:

1. The constitution ensures Indian residents, together with persons living with disabilities with the right of expression, religion, belief, justice, worship, equal alternative, and standing, in addition to liberty of thought.

2. The Indian constitution under Article 15(1) frowns at the discrimination of citizens (including persons living with disabilities) on the basis of place of birth, sex, race, caste, and faith.

3. Article 15(2) in the same vein frowns on the practice of subjecting the disabled to any type of restrictions or legal responsibility when accessing public restaurants, shops, places of public entertainment, hotels of when using tanks, wells, and roads.

4. The constitution guarantees persons living with disabilities the right to employment in any workplace without discrimination

5. Article 17 clearly states that no Indian (together with the disabled) shall be handled as untouchable.

6. Article 21 guarantees the right to liberty and lifetime of the disabled

7. Article 23 prohibits the practice of trafficking persons living with disabilities or forceful employment.

8. Article 24 clearly states that no business or factory should make use of persons living with disabilities under the age of 14 years. The Act also prohibits the employment of disabled youngsters in hazardous situations.

9. Article 25 clearly gives the disabled the right to faith. Persons living with disabilities can choose the place to worship.

10. The constitution also ensures that persons living with disabilities are not compelled to pay taxes in order to maintain any religious group.

11. The Indian constitution guarantees the right to decide on a language, culture, or script

12. Persons living with disabilities have the right to approach the Supreme Court to problem a breach of his/ her right under Article 32.

13. Persons living with disabilities have the right to vote and be voted for upon attainment of 18 years.

Q. Ban on smoking in public place is a violation of which of the following articles of the constitution?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 102 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question. According to the question 'ban on smoking in public places is a violation of article 21 of the constitution. According to this article, the Indian constitution guarantees the right to liberty and the lifetime of the disabled.

The rest of the options do not hold valid for this question.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 103

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

According to the Oxford Dictionary, a disability could be described as an impairment which can be Intellectual, limitations, cognitive, improvement, sensory, exercise or a mixture of all these. Incapacity impacts a person's activities and may happen at birth. Sometimes, it could happen in adulthood.

The Indian constitution little doubt covers all the Indian residents whether or not in good well being or disabled (mentally or bodily). The next is the elemental rights focused in direction of individuals dwelling with disabilities as enshrined within the Indian constitution:

1. The constitution ensures Indian residents, together with persons living with disabilities with the right of expression, religion, belief, justice, worship, equal alternative, and standing, in addition to liberty of thought.

2. The Indian constitution under Article 15(1) frowns at the discrimination of citizens (including persons living with disabilities) on the basis of place of birth, sex, race, caste, and faith.

3. Article 15(2) in the same vein frowns on the practice of subjecting the disabled to any type of restrictions or legal responsibility when accessing public restaurants, shops, places of public entertainment, hotels of when using tanks, wells, and roads.

4. The constitution guarantees persons living with disabilities the right to employment in any workplace without discrimination

5. Article 17 clearly states that no Indian (together with the disabled) shall be handled as untouchable.

6. Article 21 guarantees the right to liberty and lifetime of the disabled

7. Article 23 prohibits the practice of trafficking persons living with disabilities or forceful employment.

8. Article 24 clearly states that no business or factory should make use of persons living with disabilities under the age of 14 years. The Act also prohibits the employment of disabled youngsters in hazardous situations.

9. Article 25 clearly gives the disabled the right to faith. Persons living with disabilities can choose the place to worship.

10. The constitution also ensures that persons living with disabilities are not compelled to pay taxes in order to maintain any religious group.

11. The Indian constitution guarantees the right to decide on a language, culture, or script

12. Persons living with disabilities have the right to approach the Supreme Court to problem a breach of his/ her right under Article 32.

13. Persons living with disabilities have the right to vote and be voted for upon attainment of 18 years.

Q. Z who is disabled by dwarfism went to a restaurant to have food but could not enter into it as the stairs were too high for him. Fundamental right under which article is violated?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 103 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question. According to the question all the articles- 21, 17, and 15(2) are violated for the person who is disabled by dwarfism went to a restaurant to have food but could not enter into it as the stairs were too high for him. Article 21 guarantees the right to liberty to the disabled ones whereas article 17 refers that the disabled are not untouchable and article 15(2) subjects the restrictions to any kind of public places like restaurants, hotels, and theatres, which are punishable act, etc.

Therefore, this is the correct option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 104

Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.

According to the Oxford Dictionary, a disability could be described as an impairment which can be Intellectual, limitations, cognitive, improvement, sensory, exercise or a mixture of all these. Incapacity impacts a person's activities and may happen at birth. Sometimes, it could happen in adulthood.

The Indian constitution little doubt covers all the Indian residents whether or not in good well being or disabled (mentally or bodily). The next is the elemental rights focused in direction of individuals dwelling with disabilities as enshrined within the Indian constitution:

1. The constitution ensures Indian residents, together with persons living with disabilities with the right of expression, religion, belief, justice, worship, equal alternative, and standing, in addition to liberty of thought.

2. The Indian constitution under Article 15(1) frowns at the discrimination of citizens (including persons living with disabilities) on the basis of place of birth, sex, race, caste, and faith.

3. Article 15(2) in the same vein frowns on the practice of subjecting the disabled to any type of restrictions or legal responsibility when accessing public restaurants, shops, places of public entertainment, hotels of when using tanks, wells, and roads.

4. The constitution guarantees persons living with disabilities the right to employment in any workplace without discrimination

5. Article 17 clearly states that no Indian (together with the disabled) shall be handled as untouchable.

6. Article 21 guarantees the right to liberty and lifetime of the disabled

7. Article 23 prohibits the practice of trafficking persons living with disabilities or forceful employment.

8. Article 24 clearly states that no business or factory should make use of persons living with disabilities under the age of 14 years. The Act also prohibits the employment of disabled youngsters in hazardous situations.

9. Article 25 clearly gives the disabled the right to faith. Persons living with disabilities can choose the place to worship.

10. The constitution also ensures that persons living with disabilities are not compelled to pay taxes in order to maintain any religious group.

11. The Indian constitution guarantees the right to decide on a language, culture, or script

12. Persons living with disabilities have the right to approach the Supreme Court to problem a breach of his/ her right under Article 32.

13. Persons living with disabilities have the right to vote and be voted for upon attainment of 18 years.

Q. X who had a medical history applied for a job and after a medical test, he was rejected on the ground that the costs of his medical treatment would be very high which had to be borne by the bank as per the terms of employment. X filed a writ petition claiming that despite medical reports that indicate his fitness to perform his duties, he was denied being considered for employment.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 104 This is the most appropriate answer to the given question. According to the context of the passage, 'X had to be employed as the persons with a disability had right to be "accepted in the labor market and work environment that is open, inclusive and accessible to persons with disabilities.

As per the above passage, the Indian constitution guarantees the employment of any disabled person without discrimination. He has to absorbed by any suitable department which could keep his job safe.

Hence, this is the right option.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 105

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Until now, we heard of blockchain technology in reference to cryptocurrencies. A technology that enables the Bitcoins and Ethereums of the world. But perhaps a bigger story lies in the potential of blockchain technology to transform other key sectors. One such sector this technology could truly revolutionise is education.

The pandemic affected educational institutions worldwide. While we hope that campuses will again buzz with the physical presence of students and teachers, the widespread use of digital technology in education is here to stay. Through blended learning and flipped classrooms, students are no longer limited by teaching resources and learning possibilities available within the institutions' physical boundaries. The new world is there for the taking – where knowledge from across the country and indeed the world can be availed. With the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP-2020), India has set an ambitious agenda. The goal is to achieve a 100 per cent Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030 and double it in higher education, to reach 50 per cent by 2035. We need to invest in digital education and related technologies to achieve these ambitious targets and to provide education that is holistic and multidisciplinary.

There are several aspects to making a robust Digital Education Ecosystem (DEE) — content development, teaching, evaluations, grading, attendance recording, achievements, certificates, degrees and diplomas. Stakeholders such as educational institutions, prospective employers, mentors and certification agencies can be integrated into a DEE. With greater digitisation, there is an inherent need for more secure and fool-proof systems that can track students' academic activities as well as provide the required information to all stakeholders. The blockchain can emerge as a viable solution to manage such an integrated DEE.

[Extracted with edits and revisions, from Opinion, The Indian Express, dated Dec 30, 2021]

Q. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 105 The author mentions that the digital education is here to stay, so there should be a robust and secure Digital Education Ecosystem catering to various stakeholders. He advocates blockchain technology to serve this purpose. Option B presents the main idea by including the key details of the passage.

Option A focuses on cryptocurrencies, which is not the topic of discussion, hence incorrect.

Option C only defines the role of Digital Education Ecosystem and leaves out the role of blockchain technology. Hence, this is not the main idea.

Option D is also incorrect; it only conveys one of the benefits of blockchain technology.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 106

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Until now, we heard of blockchain technology in reference to cryptocurrencies. A technology that enables the Bitcoins and Ethereums of the world. But perhaps a bigger story lies in the potential of blockchain technology to transform other key sectors. One such sector this technology could truly revolutionise is education.

The pandemic affected educational institutions worldwide. While we hope that campuses will again buzz with the physical presence of students and teachers, the widespread use of digital technology in education is here to stay. Through blended learning and flipped classrooms, students are no longer limited by teaching resources and learning possibilities available within the institutions' physical boundaries. The new world is there for the taking – where knowledge from across the country and indeed the world can be availed. With the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP-2020), India has set an ambitious agenda. The goal is to achieve a 100 per cent Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030 and double it in higher education, to reach 50 per cent by 2035. We need to invest in digital education and related technologies to achieve these ambitious targets and to provide education that is holistic and multidisciplinary.

There are several aspects to making a robust Digital Education Ecosystem (DEE) — content development, teaching, evaluations, grading, attendance recording, achievements, certificates, degrees and diplomas. Stakeholders such as educational institutions, prospective employers, mentors and certification agencies can be integrated into a DEE. With greater digitisation, there is an inherent need for more secure and fool-proof systems that can track students' academic activities as well as provide the required information to all stakeholders. The blockchain can emerge as a viable solution to manage such an integrated DEE.

[Extracted with edits and revisions, from Opinion, The Indian Express, dated Dec 30, 2021]

Q. 'The blockchain can emerge as a viable solution to manage such an integrated DEE.' Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the given statement?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 106 The answer (option C) gets support from, 'With greater digitisation, there is an inherent need for more secure and fool-proof systems that can track students' academic activities as well as provide the required information to all stakeholders. The blockchain can emerge as a viable solution to manage such an integrated DEE.'

Option A only conveys that blockchain technology can be used in other avenues also; it does not strengthen the given statement.

Option B can be a benefit of the blockchain technology, but does not MOST strengthen the statement in context of security.

Option D again mentions only another benefit of the technology in context of cost but not in context of security.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 107

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Until now, we heard of blockchain technology in reference to cryptocurrencies. A technology that enables the Bitcoins and Ethereums of the world. But perhaps a bigger story lies in the potential of blockchain technology to transform other key sectors. One such sector this technology could truly revolutionise is education.

The pandemic affected educational institutions worldwide. While we hope that campuses will again buzz with the physical presence of students and teachers, the widespread use of digital technology in education is here to stay. Through blended learning and flipped classrooms, students are no longer limited by teaching resources and learning possibilities available within the institutions' physical boundaries. The new world is there for the taking – where knowledge from across the country and indeed the world can be availed. With the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP-2020), India has set an ambitious agenda. The goal is to achieve a 100 per cent Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030 and double it in higher education, to reach 50 per cent by 2035. We need to invest in digital education and related technologies to achieve these ambitious targets and to provide education that is holistic and multidisciplinary.

There are several aspects to making a robust Digital Education Ecosystem (DEE) — content development, teaching, evaluations, grading, attendance recording, achievements, certificates, degrees and diplomas. Stakeholders such as educational institutions, prospective employers, mentors and certification agencies can be integrated into a DEE. With greater digitisation, there is an inherent need for more secure and fool-proof systems that can track students' academic activities as well as provide the required information to all stakeholders. The blockchain can emerge as a viable solution to manage such an integrated DEE.

[Extracted with edits and revisions, from Opinion, The Indian Express, dated Dec 30, 2021]

Q. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author's view that blockchain technology should be used in education?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 107 The author's view in favour of blockchain technology is based on the assumption that this technology provides secure and fool-proof systems. So, if it is true that the blockchain technology made data security a concern for cryptocurrencies, then this technology cannot be assumed to be secure. Option D is the answer.

Option A does not weaken the author's view; the database in education system can be large enough.

Option B is weak itself; it does not clarify whether the technology used in cryptocurrencies is recognized or not.

Option C is also incorrect. It, in fact, strengthens the author's argument.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 108

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Until now, we heard of blockchain technology in reference to cryptocurrencies. A technology that enables the Bitcoins and Ethereums of the world. But perhaps a bigger story lies in the potential of blockchain technology to transform other key sectors. One such sector this technology could truly revolutionise is education.

The pandemic affected educational institutions worldwide. While we hope that campuses will again buzz with the physical presence of students and teachers, the widespread use of digital technology in education is here to stay. Through blended learning and flipped classrooms, students are no longer limited by teaching resources and learning possibilities available within the institutions' physical boundaries. The new world is there for the taking – where knowledge from across the country and indeed the world can be availed. With the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP-2020), India has set an ambitious agenda. The goal is to achieve a 100 per cent Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030 and double it in higher education, to reach 50 per cent by 2035. We need to invest in digital education and related technologies to achieve these ambitious targets and to provide education that is holistic and multidisciplinary.

There are several aspects to making a robust Digital Education Ecosystem (DEE) — content development, teaching, evaluations, grading, attendance recording, achievements, certificates, degrees and diplomas. Stakeholders such as educational institutions, prospective employers, mentors and certification agencies can be integrated into a DEE. With greater digitisation, there is an inherent need for more secure and fool-proof systems that can track students' academic activities as well as provide the required information to all stakeholders. The blockchain can emerge as a viable solution to manage such an integrated DEE.

[Extracted with edits and revisions, from Opinion, The Indian Express, dated Dec 30, 2021]

Q. Which of the following does the author imply while discussing the role of blockchain in the education sector?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 108 The answer can be inferred from, 'With greater digitisation, there is an inherent need for more secure and fool-proof systems that can track students' academic activities as well as provide the required information to all stakeholders.' and this is where blockchain technology will come to aid. Therefore, option A is the answer.

Option B is incorrect because the author nowhere in the passage states blockchain technology is 'flawless'.

Option C is too extreme and not implied in the text.

Option D is also weak; the author has not mentioned anything about blockchain technology increasing accessibility to education, although digitisation could.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 109

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Until now, we heard of blockchain technology in reference to cryptocurrencies. A technology that enables the Bitcoins and Ethereums of the world. But perhaps a bigger story lies in the potential of blockchain technology to transform other key sectors. One such sector this technology could truly revolutionise is education.

The pandemic affected educational institutions worldwide. While we hope that campuses will again buzz with the physical presence of students and teachers, the widespread use of digital technology in education is here to stay. Through blended learning and flipped classrooms, students are no longer limited by teaching resources and learning possibilities available within the institutions' physical boundaries. The new world is there for the taking – where knowledge from across the country and indeed the world can be availed. With the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP-2020), India has set an ambitious agenda. The goal is to achieve a 100 per cent Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030 and double it in higher education, to reach 50 per cent by 2035. We need to invest in digital education and related technologies to achieve these ambitious targets and to provide education that is holistic and multidisciplinary.

There are several aspects to making a robust Digital Education Ecosystem (DEE) — content development, teaching, evaluations, grading, attendance recording, achievements, certificates, degrees and diplomas. Stakeholders such as educational institutions, prospective employers, mentors and certification agencies can be integrated into a DEE. With greater digitisation, there is an inherent need for more secure and fool-proof systems that can track students' academic activities as well as provide the required information to all stakeholders. The blockchain can emerge as a viable solution to manage such an integrated DEE.

[Extracted with edits and revisions, from Opinion, The Indian Express, dated Dec 30, 2021]

Q. 'While we hope that campuses will again buzz with the physical presence of students and teachers, the widespread use of digital technology in education is here to stay.' What is the function of this statement in the passage as a whole?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 109 The answer can be derived from the second paragraph. The author's argument for the need of digital education is based on the statement that the use of digital technology in education is here to stay. Option B is the answer.

Other options state the author's argument incorrectly and are hence wrong.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 110

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

One of the clauses of the Punjab Government's ambitious smart school policy was making English compulsory as the medium of instruction. The step was intended to make school education more equitable for the poor by bridging the yawning socio-economic gap created by the mushrooming and much sought-after swanky 'English-medium' schools. However, in a step back, the state government has now decided to do away with this mandatory clause. It has given in to the pressure of teachers' unions which have been opposing the move, and saying that the pupils be taught in their mother tongue till Class V.

Rather, giving the government school students the option of choosing English or Punjabi/Hindi as a medium of instruction only complicates the situation. It is fraught with a set of perils that the Education Department is ill-equipped to handle. The paucity of teachers qualified to teach in the English medium makes it an uphill task.

Providing nearly 3,000 government schools with smart equipment worth crores of rupees — computers, WiFi, Internet, etc — is not enough to benefit the little ones in achieving the appropriate learning levels. Until complemented by investment in well-qualified staff, the underprivileged children cannot be expected to imbibe the lessons. It will only have the undesirable effect of promoting rote learning.

Q. Which of the following best represents the main point of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 110 Only option B can be inferred as the main idea of the passage as the whole passage addresses the question that whether it is right for the Government of Punjab to make English compulsory in schools in an effort to give a head to smart school policy.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 111

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

One of the clauses of the Punjab Government's ambitious smart school policy was making English compulsory as the medium of instruction. The step was intended to make school education more equitable for the poor by bridging the yawning socio-economic gap created by the mushrooming and much sought-after swanky 'English-medium' schools. However, in a step back, the state government has now decided to do away with this mandatory clause. It has given in to the pressure of teachers' unions which have been opposing the move, and saying that the pupils be taught in their mother tongue till Class V.

Rather, giving the government school students the option of choosing English or Punjabi/Hindi as a medium of instruction only complicates the situation. It is fraught with a set of perils that the Education Department is ill-equipped to handle. The paucity of teachers qualified to teach in the English medium makes it an uphill task.

Providing nearly 3,000 government schools with smart equipment worth crores of rupees — computers, WiFi, Internet, etc — is not enough to benefit the little ones in achieving the appropriate learning levels. Until complemented by investment in well-qualified staff, the underprivileged children cannot be expected to imbibe the lessons. It will only have the undesirable effect of promoting rote learning.

Q. Which of the following could possibly be the consequence of the government's decision of making English compulsory in public schools?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 111 The government's decision was not welcomed by teachers as stated in the lines 'It has given in to the pressure of teachers' unions which have been opposing the move'. This suggests when the government earlier tried to make it compulsory in the public schools, the teachers raised their voice in protest. Thus, the most probable consequence if a similar decision is taken is mentioned in option A.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 112

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

One of the clauses of the Punjab Government's ambitious smart school policy was making English compulsory as the medium of instruction. The step was intended to make school education more equitable for the poor by bridging the yawning socio-economic gap created by the mushrooming and much sought-after swanky 'English-medium' schools. However, in a step back, the state government has now decided to do away with this mandatory clause. It has given in to the pressure of teachers' unions which have been opposing the move, and saying that the pupils be taught in their mother tongue till Class V.

Rather, giving the government school students the option of choosing English or Punjabi/Hindi as a medium of instruction only complicates the situation. It is fraught with a set of perils that the Education Department is ill-equipped to handle. The paucity of teachers qualified to teach in the English medium makes it an uphill task.

Providing nearly 3,000 government schools with smart equipment worth crores of rupees — computers, WiFi, Internet, etc — is not enough to benefit the little ones in achieving the appropriate learning levels. Until complemented by investment in well-qualified staff, the underprivileged children cannot be expected to imbibe the lessons. It will only have the undesirable effect of promoting rote learning.

Q. Which of the following weakens the statement that teaching students in English medium is an uphill task?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 112 Teaching students in English-medium is an uphill task due to lack of teachers. However, if option 4 is considered true, it implies that teachers are available. Thus, the correct answer is option D.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 113

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

One of the clauses of the Punjab Government's ambitious smart school policy was making English compulsory as the medium of instruction. The step was intended to make school education more equitable for the poor by bridging the yawning socio-economic gap created by the mushrooming and much sought-after swanky 'English-medium' schools. However, in a step back, the state government has now decided to do away with this mandatory clause. It has given in to the pressure of teachers' unions which have been opposing the move, and saying that the pupils be taught in their mother tongue till Class V.

Rather, giving the government school students the option of choosing English or Punjabi/Hindi as a medium of instruction only complicates the situation. It is fraught with a set of perils that the Education Department is ill-equipped to handle. The paucity of teachers qualified to teach in the English medium makes it an uphill task.

Providing nearly 3,000 government schools with smart equipment worth crores of rupees — computers, WiFi, Internet, etc — is not enough to benefit the little ones in achieving the appropriate learning levels. Until complemented by investment in well-qualified staff, the underprivileged children cannot be expected to imbibe the lessons. It will only have the undesirable effect of promoting rote learning.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the text?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 113 Options A and B - There is no mention regarding the statements in the text.

Option D - Teaching English is not a complicated task, rather, making it compulsory in public schools is complicated due to lack of teachers.

Option C is the correct answer. It could be inferred from the lines 'Providing nearly 3,000 government schools with smart equipment worth crores of rupees - computers, WiFi, Internet, etc - is not enough'.

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 114

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

One of the clauses of the Punjab Government's ambitious smart school policy was making English compulsory as the medium of instruction. The step was intended to make school education more equitable for the poor by bridging the yawning socio-economic gap created by the mushrooming and much sought-after swanky 'English-medium' schools. However, in a step back, the state government has now decided to do away with this mandatory clause. It has given in to the pressure of teachers' unions which have been opposing the move, and saying that the pupils be taught in their mother tongue till Class V.

Rather, giving the government school students the option of choosing English or Punjabi/Hindi as a medium of instruction only complicates the situation. It is fraught with a set of perils that the Education Department is ill-equipped to handle. The paucity of teachers qualified to teach in the English medium makes it an uphill task.

Providing nearly 3,000 government schools with smart equipment worth crores of rupees — computers, WiFi, Internet, etc — is not enough to benefit the little ones in achieving the appropriate learning levels. Until complemented by investment in well-qualified staff, the underprivileged children cannot be expected to imbibe the lessons. It will only have the undesirable effect of promoting rote learning.

Q. Which of the following is similar to Punjab Government's plan of introducing English in public schools?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 114 The situation of Punjab Government is that it wants to make English compulsory in government schools; however, it does not have the staff for the same. This is illustrated by point 3 wherein a decision has been made by the municipal corporation; however, labour is not available to implement it.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 115

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In an ideal country in which the government provides safe and secure drinking water to all its citizens, there will be no need for the inefficient reverse osmosis (RO) water purification technology. Unfortunately, we are living in a country which is far from ideal as far as quality and quantity of drinking water supply are concerned. Consequently, concerned citizens install RO-based water purifiers, in spite of the high capital and maintenance costs, perhaps erring on the side of health and safety. But realising the wastage involved, ecosensitive citizens have started using waste water from RO for cleaning, washing and gardening, among other purposes. The government can educate people about the productive uses of waste water from RO. Besides, it can fund research and development of other affordable and efficient water-purifying technologies so that RO technology is not required. Above all, the government can ensure safe drinking water for every citizen. Under the prevailing situation, any proposal to bar domestic users from installing and utilising RO systems cannot be considered an ingredient in good water management policy.

Q. Which of the following situations is similar to the usage of RO purifiers for domestic purposes as mentioned in the passage?

Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 116

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In an ideal country in which the government provides safe and secure drinking water to all its citizens, there will be no need for the inefficient reverse osmosis (RO) water purification technology. Unfortunately, we are living in a country which is far from ideal as far as quality and quantity of drinking water supply are concerned. Consequently, concerned citizens install RO-based water purifiers, in spite of the high capital and maintenance costs, perhaps erring on the side of health and safety. But realising the wastage involved, ecosensitive citizens have started using waste water from RO for cleaning, washing and gardening, among other purposes. The government can educate people about the productive uses of waste water from RO. Besides, it can fund research and development of other affordable and efficient water-purifying technologies so that RO technology is not required. Above all, the government can ensure safe drinking water for every citizen. Under the prevailing situation, any proposal to bar domestic users from installing and utilising RO systems cannot be considered an ingredient in good water management policy.

Q. Which of the following best represents the main point of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 116 The author talks about the inefficiency of RO water purification technology and how the government should take alternative measures to save water rather than banning the use of domestic RO water purification equipment. Among the given options, option C is closest to the author's view.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 117

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In an ideal country in which the government provides safe and secure drinking water to all its citizens, there will be no need for the inefficient reverse osmosis (RO) water purification technology. Unfortunately, we are living in a country which is far from ideal as far as quality and quantity of drinking water supply are concerned. Consequently, concerned citizens install RO-based water purifiers, in spite of the high capital and maintenance costs, perhaps erring on the side of health and safety. But realising the wastage involved, ecosensitive citizens have started using waste water from RO for cleaning, washing and gardening, among other purposes. The government can educate people about the productive uses of waste water from RO. Besides, it can fund research and development of other affordable and efficient water-purifying technologies so that RO technology is not required. Above all, the government can ensure safe drinking water for every citizen. Under the prevailing situation, any proposal to bar domestic users from installing and utilising RO systems cannot be considered an ingredient in good water management policy.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author's argument in the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 117 The author states that it is not a good move to ban RO water purification systems because people install these systems because the government is not able to provide safe drinking water. If a report highlights the negative effect of the water that is purified through RO's, then the argument against banning of RO's will be weakened. One such statement is given in option A which states that the water from RO's is stripped of essential nutrients that are required by the human body. If these nutrients are not present it will not promote health, the reason for which the concerned citizens install RO's at their homes. Therefore the correct answer is A.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 118

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In an ideal country in which the government provides safe and secure drinking water to all its citizens, there will be no need for the inefficient reverse osmosis (RO) water purification technology. Unfortunately, we are living in a country which is far from ideal as far as quality and quantity of drinking water supply are concerned. Consequently, concerned citizens install RO-based water purifiers, in spite of the high capital and maintenance costs, perhaps erring on the side of health and safety. But realising the wastage involved, ecosensitive citizens have started using waste water from RO for cleaning, washing and gardening, among other purposes. The government can educate people about the productive uses of waste water from RO. Besides, it can fund research and development of other affordable and efficient water-purifying technologies so that RO technology is not required. Above all, the government can ensure safe drinking water for every citizen. Under the prevailing situation, any proposal to bar domestic users from installing and utilising RO systems cannot be considered an ingredient in good water management policy.

Q. On which of the following assumptions is the author's argument based?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 118 The author is making arguments against not allowing domestic users to install RO water purification systems at homes. The author assumes that the government is not using RO or any other water curative mechanism in an effort to provide safe and secure drinking water to the citizens. If there is a proposal to ban domestic RO water purification system, it assumes that the government has some other measures in mind to improve water quality. This is stated in option B.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 119

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In an ideal country in which the government provides safe and secure drinking water to all its citizens, there will be no need for the inefficient reverse osmosis (RO) water purification technology. Unfortunately, we are living in a country which is far from ideal as far as quality and quantity of drinking water supply are concerned. Consequently, concerned citizens install RO-based water purifiers, in spite of the high capital and maintenance costs, perhaps erring on the side of health and safety. But realising the wastage involved, ecosensitive citizens have started using waste water from RO for cleaning, washing and gardening, among other purposes. The government can educate people about the productive uses of waste water from RO. Besides, it can fund research and development of other affordable and efficient water-purifying technologies so that RO technology is not required. Above all, the government can ensure safe drinking water for every citizen. Under the prevailing situation, any proposal to bar domestic users from installing and utilising RO systems cannot be considered an ingredient in good water management policy.

Q. The author's statement that the government's move to ban domestic RO water purification is not a good strategy plays which of the following roles in the author's argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 119 The author statement makes up the conclusion of the argument. This conclusion wraps the entire argument in the sense that it argues that the government should look towards some other measures to conserve the water that it believes is wasted by using domestic RO water purification systems. The correct answer is, therefore, option B.
Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 120

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

Scholarship money is for students from the economically and socially weaker sections to nurture talent by enabling them to pursue studies, despite the odds. A state like Himachal Pradesh that has among the highest literacy rates in the country at over 90 per cent, and was the first to make elementary education accessible to every child, now faces a scam connected to the misappropriation of the money meant for students from the SC, ST and OBC categories. The state has numerous educational institutes of repute and it is, therefore, unfortunate that the CBI has arrested three persons in connection with a Rs. 250-crore scandal that started back in 2012 when the money for the students under 36 schemes was not paid and most of the amount was given to private institutions.

It is alarming that these anomalies have taken place despite there being the Himachal Pradesh Private Educational Institutions Regulatory Commission.

Himachal Pradesh gives priority to education, allocating as much as Rs. 7,858 crore in the budget, and has an admirable student-teacher ratio. It has plans for video-conferencing facility and filtered water in schools. While the effort has been to make it an education hub, systems should be put in place to prevent malpractices. Government money is considered fair game and it is the responsibility of the institutes and banks to work out a mechanism, so that only the genuinely needy get the benefit.

Q. Which of the following, if considered true, would strengthen the statement that the amount of 250-crores was not appropriately used?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2023 Mock Test- 8 - Question 120 Options A and D could not be the strengthening statements as there could be other reasons for it.

Option B mentions about UGC which has no reference in the text.

Option C seems the statement that further strengthens the reason for the scams.