Test: UPSC Prelims (Past Year Questions) Polity 2015-20 - 2


30 Questions MCQ Test Indian Polity for UPSC CSE | Test: UPSC Prelims (Past Year Questions) Polity 2015-20 - 2


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QUESTION: 1

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then (2018)

Solution: Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State

(1) If the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, the President may be Proclamation

QUESTION: 2

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation? (2018)

Solution: Committee of Subordinate Legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, and by-laws delegated by the parliament or conferred by the constitution to the executive are being properly exercised by it. In both houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953.

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements:

1. As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018)

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct because under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE), Act 2009, the National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE), has laid down the minimum educational & professional qualifications for a person to be eligible for an appointment as a teacher for classes I-VIII, which are applicable to all schools imparting elementary education, including the schools under the State Governments and to qualify under a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following events

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.

2. India’s then-largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.

3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.

4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? (2018)

Solution: Statement 1: First democratically elected communist party government formed in a state in India in 1957. The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats.

Statement 2: Imperial bank was renamed as state bank of India in 1955.

Statement 3: Air India was nationalized in 1953. The government of India passed the Air Corporations Act and purchased a majority stake in the carrier from Tata Sons. Statement 4: Goa became an independent India on 18 December 1961. Indian troops crossed the border into Goa and “liberated” it.

QUESTION: 5

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

Solution: Privacy is a constitutionally protected right that emerges primarily from the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution. Elements of privacy also arise in varying contexts from the other facets of freedom and dignity recognized and guaranteed by the fundamental rights contained in Part III.

QUESTION: 6

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct? (2018)

Solution: A110. Definition of Money Bill (1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely Options~ (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India; (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such Fund; (d) the appropriation of money out of the consolidated Fund of India (not Contingency Fund of India). So, C is incorrect.

QUESTION: 7

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.

2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018)

Solution: S1: Value of vote of MLA is based on population criterion and population of each state has a different value hence, statement 1 is correct

S2: The value of vote of each MP is same whether it is Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is a little unclear on whether it refers to an individual MP or MPs as a whole. But, then the term “The value of THE VOTE (and not VOTES)” makes it clear that the examiner is not asking you for the total number of votes. So, “MPs of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha” are to be understood as a single group here, and not as a plural entity. Thus, S2 will be wrong.

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements:

1. Speaker of the legislative assembly shall vacate his/her office of he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly

2. Whenever the legislative assembly is dissolved the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018)

Solution: Usually, the speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following cases

1. If he ceases to be a member of the assembly

2. If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and;

3. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law of the land and liberty? (2018)

Solution: The statements in this question are a little vague and prone to various interpretations based on the context.

Option B is a popular choice because it was a statement made by John Locke. He, in the Second Treatise of Civil Government, wrote: “where there is no law, there is no freedom” In 1689, he also wrote that “the end of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.” No law would give LICENSE (Unregulated liberty). Therefore, B is correct.

But, then such statements are not to be considered objective realities. If there are no laws, there can be either complete liberty, because nothing restricts the actions of citizens, or NO liberty because then lawlessness can heavily curtail liberty. It really depends. It is an extreme statement to say that when there are no laws, there is no liberty (Can we say there is no liberty in a Jungle?) There can be liberty despite the absence of laws.

Option D: This can also be justified, but this would not be the most appropriate answer here

1. The fundamental philosophy of rule of law in a liberal society is that laws should be just, reasonable, and based on the principles of fairness and equity. If laws are changed too often, one would find their actions restricted because what was a completely lawful action, such as smoking, may suddenly become illegal because it hurts the health of a common citizen.

2. And then on the next day, the government can legalize smoking and thus infringe on the liberty of those who cannot bear public smoking.

3. When laws are changed too often, and when there is no fundamental principle on which laws are based, it can lead to dictatorship and arbitrariness, which defeats the very purpose of the rule of law based on reason.

4. But, laws can also be changed too often based on the exigencies and contingencies and this may not violate someone’s liberty. However, if there was no option B, this would have been the most appropriate answer.

Option A is incorrect because if there are more laws, it may lead to more liberty as well as laws themselves might be enabling more liberty.

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the governor of a state in any court during his term of office

2. Emoluments and allowances of the governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct: (2018)

Solution: Article 361. Protection of President and Governors No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office, Article 158: Conditions of Governor Office The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office

QUESTION: 11

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before the law

3. People’s responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (2018)

Solution: Rule of Law includes

1. Absence of arbitrary power

2. Equality before the law

3. Primacy of individual rights

Statement 3 is wrong because it should be that the government is responsible to the people and not vice versa.

QUESTION: 12

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.

2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017)

Solution: Statement 1: It is introduced by any member who is not a Minister. A bill introduced by a Minister is called a public bill.

Statement 2: Around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence.

QUESTION: 13

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (2017)

Solution: Article 18 of the constitution justifies this. Under Right to equality, A18 abolishes titular privileges (except military or academic) granted to citizens of India.

QUESTION: 14

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of Stat Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (2017)

Solution: The 42nd Amendment added new Directive Principles, viz Article 39A, Article 43A, and Article 48A. Article 43A deals with ‘Participation of workers in the management of industries’.

QUESTION: 15

Which one of the following statements is correct? (2017)

Solution: Option C: The philosophy of rights is grounded in preventing the exploitation of the citizen by the state. So, essentially it is the claim of an individual against the state.

Option B: This is wrong because rights are not privileges, they are the bare minimum for the formation of a democratic state. Also, the constitution abolishes the concept of special privileges.

QUESTION: 16

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in (2017)

Solution: Option B: Decentralization and grassroots empowerment are the core guiding principles of local self-government as under the 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments. For example:. Gram Panchayats can sanction sanitation and welfare projects on their own.

Option A: Local bodies are not federal entities as is the position of states in India.

Option C: This isn’t administrative delegation because local self-government bodies are political entities that are elected directly (or indirectly) by people and managed by their representatives.

Option D: Since it involves election and indirect decision making by people’s representatives, there can be no direct democracy (where all decisions are made directly by the people).

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

1. legislative function.

2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2017)

Solution: It is the fundamental rights that constitute limitations upon state action (whether legislative or executive). The directive principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to achieve certain ends by their actions. It guides them, not restricts them.

QUESTION: 18

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (2017)

Solution: Statement 1: While FDs can be enforced by legislative processes (for e.g. Environment Protection Act that helps enforce the individual duty of environment protection), the constitution explicitly does not enforce them via legal provisions or does not explicitly mention in Part IVA that there are legislative processes to enforce them. However, since the Parliament has enforced the most fundamental duties already via a legislative process, we will consider this statement 1 as correct.

Statement 2: ‘legal duties’, for all practical purposes can be considered as ‘law of the land’. FDs are in sync with legal duties because what is illegal cannot be a fundamental duty, and what is a fundamental duty has also been made a legal duty (e.g. respecting women). Also, it is an Indian citizen’s fundamental duty to abide by the constitutional laws (legal duties); this brings the correlation. Statement 2 is thus correct.

QUESTION: 19

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (2017)

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity (2017)

Solution: This is another ambiguously framed question.

Option A: Democracy allows you to vote (by exercising your intellect), gives you the liberty and freedom of expression (so that your intellectual potential is fulfilled), and ensures adherence to moral values (character) such as justice and equality. So, A seems appropriate.

Option B: There is no ground for this statement.

Option C: Since it specifies a “superior individual”, it attaches a sense of privilege to selected people, which is against democratic values. It also does not clarify what dynamism and vision mean.

Option D: No ground.

QUESTION: 21

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that (2017)

Solution: Straightforward question based on the core Parliamentary democracy principles.

QUESTION: 22

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties? (2017)

Solution: Rights and duties have an organic relationship. One cannot enjoy a right if others do not obey their duties.

QUESTION: 23

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? (2017)

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour

3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (2017)

Solution: Statement 1: Matters of urgent importance can be raised in the Adjournment motion.

Statement 2 and 3: MPs hold the executive accountable by asking questions, and supplementary questions.

QUESTION: 25

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by (2017)

Solution:
QUESTION: 26

Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.

2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017)

Solution: Statement 1: We follow the First past the post system, where the majority of votes is sufficient to get elected, even if it is less than 50% of the total votes polled.

Statement 2: Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the house. This is a convention (not constitutional provision) that usually Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

QUESTION: 27

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (2017)

Solution: There is a dispute whether the answer should be C or D. Case for Option C: Logically the answer seems to be C because Article 326 of the constitution grants adult suffrage which implies the right to vote. Moreover, a democratic constitution loses its essence if it does not provide for a right to vote as a constitutional right. It is true that the Representation of People’s Act also provides for a Right to Vote, but they may be considered qualifications (conditions) on the Right to Vote already granted by the constitution in A326.

An analogy can be the Child Labour Act or the Bonded labor prohibition Act where these fundamental rights are separately enforced by law. So, the case for Option C looks strong.

Option D: But, the Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the constitution and its view will prevail notwithstanding all arguments. The Supreme Court observed in PUCL vs. Union of India (2015), “No doubt, the right to vote is a statutory right but it is equally vital to recollect that this statutory right is the essence of democracy. Without this, democracy will fail to thrive. Therefore, even if the right to vote is statutory, the significance attached with the right is massive.” Therefore, the answer to this question is D, not C.

QUESTION: 28

Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017)

Solution: Why: The recent controversy surrounding Samajwadi Party split/merger in UP elections where ECI recognized the party led by Akhilesh Yadav as the one representing SP. Justification: Statement 1: Presently it is a three-member body, one CEC, and two other ECs. Statement 2: ECI decides this schedule. Statement 3: Splits, mergers, and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties. This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties. The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.

QUESTION: 29

In India, Judicial Review implies (2017)

Solution: Judicial Review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitution and to declare any such law or order of the legislature and executive void, if it finds them in conflict with the Constitution of India.

QUESTION: 30

Which of the following is not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (2017)

Solution: Statement 2: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.

Statement 1: The President can either suspend or dissolve the Legislative assembly, so 1 is not necessarily the consequence of proclamation.