Test: UPSC Prelims (Past Year Questions) Polity 2015-20 - 3


20 Questions MCQ Test Indian Polity for UPSC CSE | Test: UPSC Prelims (Past Year Questions) Polity 2015-20 - 3


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QUESTION: 1

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Abolition of untouchability

3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (2017)

Solution: Abolition of untouchability comes under Right to Equality. Protection of the interests of minorities comes under Cultural and Educational Rights.

QUESTION: 2

Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (2017)

Solution:
QUESTION: 3

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (2017)

Solution: The phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.

2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2016)

Solution: Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the President of India. Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.

QUESTION: 5

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.

2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (2016)

Solution: Statement 1: It tries both Civil and Criminal cases. So, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: Gram Nyalayas Act, 2008 states:

“27. (1) For the purposes of section 26, the District Court shall, in consultation with the Appointment District Magistrate, prepare a panel consisting of the names of social workers at the village level having integrity for appointment as Conciliators who possess such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the High Court.” 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 6

With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.

2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.

3. It monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2016)

Solution: Statement 1: With a view to strengthening and institutionalizing the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development, the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was set up by the Government as the apex level forum in December 2010 (much before NITI AAyog was even setup). So, 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: The Chairman of the Council is the Finance Minister and its members include the heads of financial sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDA & FMC) Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, and Chief Economic Adviser. So, 2 is correct.

Statement 3: Without prejudice to the autonomy of regulators, the Council monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates, and addresses inter-regulatory coordination and financial sector development issues. So, 3 is correct. It also focuses on financial literacy and financial inclusion.

QUESTION: 7

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the (2016)

Solution: If Rajya Sabha approves a resolution with the special majority and declares that a subject is of national interest, the Parliament can make a law on the particular subject in the state list (7th Schedule).

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements:

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.

2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2016)

Solution: Statement 1: It is 21 years, so 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution (i.e., before the expiry of the full period of five years) shall continue only for the remainder of the period. But if the remainder of the period is less than six months it shall not be necessary to hold elections.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.

2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (2016)

Solution: Prorogation does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House.

It is the pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. So, 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).

A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.

A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.

A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse So, 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 10

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to (2015)

Solution: Option C is incorrect because it excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, social and political institutions are not tampered with. Instead, the act known as PESA, 1996 extends the Panchayati raj system to the tribal areas.

QUESTION: 11

With reference to the Union Government considers the following statements.

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament

2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of the Parliament of India.

3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need Authorization from the Parliament of India

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? (2015)

Solution: The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund. Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.

Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs). The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs. The Finance Secretary coordinates the overall Budget-making process

QUESTION: 12

Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India? (2015)

Solution: Supreme Court judges take the oath to “UPHOLD the constitution” and the laws. Hence, it is the Guardian of the constitution of India.

QUESTION: 13

Which one of the following was given classical language status recently? (2015)

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.

2. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2015)

Solution: The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions). The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.

QUESTION: 15

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the (2015)

Solution: It has been mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution (Fundamental Duties).

QUESTION: 16

The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1. People’s participation in development

2. Political accountability

3. Democratic decentralization

4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below (2015)

Solution: There is some dispute about the answers. Some claim the answer to be A, some C and some D. We accept that there is some subjectivity inherent in the options. However, the question can be solved on objective basis. Statement 4 is INCORRECT because financial mobilization was never the basis for the establishment of panchayati raj. Local financial mobilization (by way of octroi taxes etc. ) is the outcome of the establishment of the PRIs, not its objective. In fact, only few states have devolved financial powers to their PRIs. Statement 3 is also INAPPROPRIATE in the context of the question.

Reasons are:

• Political accountability can be ensured in any system which is democratic/rule-based, it need not necessarily be via a local body.

• Grass-roots democracy was established in India not to ensure any political accountability, but to ensure citizen’s participation in governance leading to democratic decentralization. So, the term “democratic decentralization” is an appropriate replacement for the term “political accountability”.

• Moreover, political accountability already existed in the villages by way of elections to State legislatures. What has happened after 1993 is that it has only become easier to hold the representatives accountable. It is always easier to approach someone next door (ward councilor) than next district (MP or MLA/MLC).

QUESTION: 17

The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its (2015)

Solution: In a welfare State, the functions of the State are not only the defence of the country or administration of justice or maintaining law and order but it extends to regulating and controlling the activities of the people in almost every sphere—educational, commercial, social, economic, political and even marital. DPSP thus promotes the ideal of a welfare state as it guides the state in making policies for the socio-economic well being of the people of India. Preamble, option A, will NOT be the answer because it simply lists the socio-economic objectives of Indian society. It does not tell us who will design or execute policies based on the objectives.

QUESTION: 18

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the (2015)

Solution: Option A points to a democratic system. It does not necessarily mean a Parliamentary Democratic system. For e.g. in USA the Congress is also elected, but it is a Presidential Democracy. Option D is correct because “Collective responsibility” of the council of ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75) lies at the heart of a Parliamentary democracy.

QUESTION: 19

With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent

2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants Select the correct answer using the code given below. (2015)

Solution: The commission has recommended states’ share in net proceeds of tax revenues be 42 per cent, a huge jump from the 32 per cent recommend by the 13th Finance Commission, the largest change ever in the percentage of devolution. As compared to total devolutions in 2014-15, total devolution of states in 2015-16 will increase by over 45 per cent. No sector specific grant recommendations were made. Please read the link below for detailed recommendations.

QUESTION: 20

Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country

2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the statements given below are correct? (2015)

Solution: Socio-economic democracy is spelt out because it provides for the idea of a welfare state. For e.g. consider Article 39 (b) and (c) which provide for minimizing inequalities in income and wealth; and ensuring that the wealth is not concentrated in the hands of few. While other article provide for the health of children, rights of working women etc. DPSP is not enforceable by courts. Only Fundamental rights can be enforced by the courts.