All India UPSC Group

Which of the following states hosted the first National Sky Running Championship?
  • a)
    Uttarakhand
  • b)
    Madhya Pradesh
  • c)
    Himachal Pradesh
  • d)
    Rajasthan
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jrkrrjdnnfdmrndne Kjjnnn answered  •  39 minutes ago
The correct answer is indeed option 'A', Uttarakhand.

Skyrunning is a sport that involves running in the mountains, often at high elevations with steep ascents and descents. The National Skyrunning Championship is an event organized to promote and showcase this challenging form of mountain running in India.

Uttarakhand, known for its majestic Himalayan mountain ranges, diverse landscapes, and numerous trekking trails, hosted the first National Skyrunning Championship. The state provides an ideal setting for skyrunning events due to its mountainous terrain, including high-altitude peaks and rugged trails, which offer runners the opportunity to test their endurance and skills in demanding conditions.

Therefore, Uttarakhand's geographical features and scenic beauty make it a fitting location for hosting skyrunning championships, attracting participants and enthusiasts from across the country to experience the thrill and adventure of mountain running.

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें
1. हेनरी विवियन डेरोजियो यंग बंगाल आंदोलन के नेता थे
2. दीर्घकालिक प्रभाव में विफलता
3. उन्होंने महिलाओं के अधिकारों और शिक्षा का समर्थन किया
4. उनके पास जनता के साथ किसी भी वास्तविक लिंक का अभाव था
इनमें से कौन सा कथन सही है / सही है?
  • a)
    केवल 1 और 3
  • b)
    केवल 1, 3 और 4
  • c)
    केवल 1, 2 और 3
  • d)
    ऊपर के सभी
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered  •  2 hours ago
  • 1820 के दशक के अंत और 1830 की शुरुआत में, बंगाल के युवाओं में एक कट्टरपंथी, बौद्धिक रुझान उभरा, जिसे मैं 'यंग बंगाल मूवमेंट' के रूप में जाना जाता था।
  • एक युवा एंग्लो-इंडियन, हेनरी विवियन फिरोजियो (1809-31), जिन्होंने 1826 से 1831 तक हिंदू कॉलेज में पढ़ाया था, इस प्रगतिशील प्रवृत्ति के नेता और प्रेरणा थे।
  • महान फ्रांसीसी क्रांति से प्रेरणा लेते हुए, Derozio ने अपने विद्यार्थियों को स्वतंत्र रूप से और तर्कसंगत रूप से सोचने, सभी अधिकार, प्रेम स्वतंत्रता, समानता और स्वतंत्रता पर सवाल उठाने और पतनशील रीति-रिवाजों और परंपराओं का विरोध करने के लिए प्रेरित किया।
  • Derozians ने भी महिलाओं के अधिकारों और शिक्षा का समर्थन किया। इसके अलावा, Derozio शायद आधुनिक भारत के पहले राष्ट्रवादी कवि थे। हालाँकि, दिरोज़ियन दीर्घकालिक प्रभाव डालने में विफल रहे।
  • 1831 में उनके कट्टरपंथी होने के कारण फिरोजियो को हिंदू कॉलेज से हटा दिया गया था। उनकी सीमित सफलता का मुख्य कारण उस समय की प्रचलित सामाजिक परिस्थितियाँ थीं, जो कट्टरपंथी विचारों को अपनाने के लिए परिपक्व नहीं थीं।
  • इसके अलावा, किसी अन्य सामाजिक समूह या वर्ग का कोई समर्थन नहीं था। द्रोजियों के पास जनता के साथ किसी भी वास्तविक लिंक का अभाव था; उदाहरण के लिए, वे किसानों के कारण को लेने में विफल रहे। वास्तव में, उनका कट्टरपंथ चरित्र में किताबी था।

Arrange the following electoral reforms in India in chronological order.
1. Supply of electoral rolls free of cost
2. Provision made to facilitate the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in elections
3. Restrictions imposed on exit polls
4. Provision made to facilitate voting through postal ballot
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    1-2-3-4
  • b)
    2-1-4-3
  • c)
    2-4-1-3
  • d)
    1-2-4-3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered  •  2 hours ago
  • Electronic Voting Machines: In 1989, a provision was made to facilitate the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in elections. The EVMs were used for the first time in 1998 on an experimental basis in selected constituencies in the elections to the Assemblies of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Delhi. The EVMs were used for the first time in the general elections (entir... more
  • Voting through Postal Ballot: In 1999, a provision was made for voting by certain classes of persons through postal ballot. x Free Supply of Electoral Rolls: According to a 2003 provision, the Government should supply, free of cost, copies of the electoral rolls and other prescribed material to the candidates of recognized political parties for the Lok Sabha and Assembly elections. 
  • Restrictions Imposed on Exit Polls: According to a 2009 provision, conducting exit polls and publishing results of existing polls would be prohibited during the election to Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

He was sent by the Persian ruler as an emissary to Vijayanagar. He wrote his travels in the Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul- Bahrain, or The Rise of Two Auspicious Constellations and the Confluence of Two Oceans. Which of the following travellers has been described by the passage given above?
  • a)
    Ibn Battuta
  • b)
    Abdur Razzak
  • c)
    Ferishta
  • d)
    Al-Biruni
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered  •  2 hours ago
  • Abdur Razzak, like Nicolo di Conti, visited the city during the reign of Deva Raya II, but about twenty years later than Conti. He was entrusted with an embassy from Persia, and set out on his mission on January 13, A.D. 1442.
    • Abdur Razzaq was a reluctant traveller, who left Herat only at the order of his monarch, and who swore in his travelogue that he would never make a voyage... more
    • In 1441, Shah Rukh of Persia sent Kamal-ud-din Abdur Razzaq as an emissary to Vijayanagar. Abdur Razzaq wrote his travels in the Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul-Bahrain, or The Rise of Two Auspicious Constellations and the Confluence of Two Oceans, which was translated into French— and then, in 1855, the translation was translated into English by R.H. Major. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
    • His views about the Vijaynagar Empire are given below:
      • Abdur Razzaq who had travelled widely in and outside India, and was an ambassador at the court of Deva Raya II (1423-46), says: “This latter prince has in his dominions three hundred ports, each of which is equal to Calicut, and his territories comprise a space of three months journey.”
      • “The country is for the most part well cultivated, very fertile. The troops amount in number to eleven lakhs.”
      • He mentioned about the fortification of the city. He wrote that ''the city of Bijanagar is such that eye has not seen nor ear heard of any place resembling it upon the whole earth. It is so built that it has seven fortified walls, one within the other.”
  • The wealth of the Vijayanagar city and its kings are attested by another Persian historian, Ferishta, the author of Tarikh-i Ferishta, “The princes of the Bahmani maintained their superiority by valour only; for in power, wealth and extent of the country, the Rayas of Bijarnagar (Vijayanagar) greatly exceeded them.” Ferishta had joined the service of King Ibrahim Adil II of Bijapur in 1589.
  • Al-Biruni was born in 973 AD, in Khwarizm in present-day Uzbekistan. In 1017, when Sultan Mahmud invaded Khwarizm, he took several scholars and poets back to his capital, Ghazni; Al-Biruni was one of them. He arrived in Ghazni as a hostage, but gradually developed a liking for the city, where he spent the rest of his life until his death at the age of 70.
    • Al-Biruni spent years in the company of Brahmana priests and scholars, learning Sanskrit, and studying religious and philosophical texts. While his itinerary is not clear, it is likely that he travelled widely in the Punjab and parts of northern India.
    • Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind, written in Arabic, is a voluminous text, divided into 80 chapters on subjects such as religion and philosophy, festivals, astronomy, alchemy, manners and customs, social life, weights and measures, iconography, laws and metrology. Generally (though not always), Al-Biruni adopted a distinctive structure in each chapter, beginning with a question, following this up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with a comparison with other cultures.
    • He was familiar with translations and adaptations of Sanskrit, Pali and Prakrit texts into Arabic – these ranged from fables to works on astronomy and medicine.

With reference to the Temple Entry Movement, consider the following statements:
1. The Vaikom Satayagraha was led by Sree Narayan Guru and T.K. Madhavan.
2. Mahatama Gandhi supported this Movement.
3. Subramaniam Tirumambu led similar movement in Kerala during 1931.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered  •  2 hours ago
  • Significant work in the direction of temple entry, i.e., throwing open the Hindu temples for all castes, had already been done by the reformers and intellectuals, like Sree Narayana Guru and N. Kumaran Asan. T.K. Madhavan, a prominent social reformer and editor of Deshabhimani, took up the issue of temple entry with the Travancore administration. Nothing transpired. In the meanwhile, Vaik... more
  • The Satyagraha was reinforced by the Jathas from Punjab and Madurai. Gandhi undertook a tour of Kerala in support of the Movement. In 1931, when the Civil Disobedience Movement was suspended, the Temple Entry Movement was organized in Kerala. Inspired by K. Kelappan, poet Subramaniyam Tirumambu (the ‘singing sword of Kerala’) led a group of 16 volunteers to Guruvayur. Leaders like P. Krishna Pillai and A.K. Gopalan were among the Satyagrahis. Finally, on November 12, 1936, the Maharaja of Travancore issued a Proclamation throwing open all the government- controlled temples to all Hindus. A similar step was taken by the C. Rajagopalachari administration in Madras in 1938.

Consider the following statements:
1. Aurangzeb banned the tradition of playing of musical instruments in his court.
2. The largest number of books on classical Indian music in Persian were written during Aurangzeb’s reign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered  •  2 hours ago
  • A branch of cultural life in which the Hindus and the Muslims co-operated was music. Akbar patronised Tansen of Gwaliyar, who is accredited with composing many new melodies (Ragas). Jahangir and Shah Jahan, as well as many Mughal nobles followed this example. There are many stories about the burial of music by the orthodox Aurangzeb. Recent research shows that Aurangzeb banished singing f... more
  • In fact, Aurangzeb himself was an accomplished Veena player. Music in all forms continued to be patronised by Aurangzeb’s queens in the Haram, and by the princes and the nobles. That is why the largest number of books on classical Indian music in Persian were written during Aurangzeb’s reign. But, some of the most important developments in the field of music took place later on in the 18th century during the reign of Muhammad Shah (1719—48), who was a great patron of music and musicians.

Morodharo, a fortified settlement dating back to the Harappan era, is located in:
  • a)
    Punjab
  • b)
    Haryana
  • c)
    Maharashtra
  • d)
    Gujarat
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered  •  2 hours ago
Archaeologists recently discovered a Harappan-era fortified settlement named Morodharo.
About Morodharo:
  • It is a fortified settlement dating back to the Harappan-era.
  • Location: Kutch District, Gujarat
  • Features:
  • The settlement looks mature (2,600-1,900BCE) to late (1,900-1,300 BCE) Harappan.
  • The fortification measures 102 m east to the west and 58 m north to the south.
  • The thickness of the wall is an average of 3.3 m.
  • It has a 10x10 m platform on the south-west side and a well on the north-east.
  • Burial cairns, which are mounds of stones to demarcate a boundary, are also found here.
  • Harappan pottery with perforated jar sherds, reserved slipware, and terracotta cakes were unearthed. All these items have a striking resemblance to those found in Dholavira.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Anoxic Marine Basins:
1. They form when there is a strong layering of the water column created in a cup-like formation on the ocean floor.
2. They are one of the world’s most productive ecosystems with a wide range of species diversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered  •  2 hours ago
According to scientists, anoxic marine basins may be among the most viable places to conduct large-scale carbon sequestration in the deep ocean.
About Anoxic Marine Basins:
  • An anoxic basin is a body of water without oxygen.
  • Permanent anoxic basins form when there is a strong layering of the water column created in a cup-like formation on the ocean floor.
  • The layering is caused by density differences due to salt concentration or temperature.
  • Once stratification occurs, circulation with the rest of the ocean is minimized, and microorganisms consume the oxygen in the water. 
  • In most anoxic basins, the water is extremely stagnant and can have mixing times of many thousand years.
  • They range from a few hundred meters to several kilometers across and from 10 meters to 500 meters deeper than the surrounding seafloor.
  • They can’t support animal life, and are populated primarily by microbes and some very specialized fungi with different metabolisms than creatures in oxygen-rich environments.
  • Some of them rely on molecules such as nitrate for respiration, and some get their carbon from gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4) instead of eating other organisms or particles of organic matter.
  • Many anoxic basins also contain toxic chemicals, which are produced by geothermal activity or by microbes living in the basins.
  • Some also contain salt domes, big mounds of hardened salt. 
  • In some anoxic basins, methane and other gases collect in reservoirs beneath the seafloor.
  • The gases can percolate upward, pushing up domes of sediment on the seafloor that are called mud volcanoes.
  • The gases can burst through the soft sediments, creating "mini-eruptionsof wispy columns of sediment-filled water.
... more

Consider the following statements regarding Quasar:
1. It is an extremely active and luminous type of Active Galactic Nucleus (AGN).
2. All quasars are AGNs, but not all AGNs are quasars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered  •  2 hours ago
An international team of astronomers said the recently discovered quasar named J0529-4351 was the brightest and fastest-growing quasar discovered so far and had a supermassive black hole about 17 billion times the mass of the Sun. 
About Quasar:
  • A quasar is an extremely active and luminous type of active galactic nucleus (AGN). 
  • An AGN is nothing more than a supermassive black hole that is active and feeding at the center of a galaxy. 
  • All quasars are AGNs, but not all AGNs are quasars.
  • Quasars are thought to form in regions of the universe where the large-scale density of matter is much higher than average.
  • They are among the most luminous, powerful, and vibrant objects known in the universe.
  • How are they formed?
  • An active galaxy is one in which the central supermassive black hole is consuming large amounts of matter.
  • The infall of matter into the black hole is so great that all the material can't enter the black hole at the same time, so it forms a queue as a spiraling accretion disk. 
  • The matter—in the form of huge cloudsfalls into the disk, with the inner parts of the cloud closer to the black hole orbiting faster than the outer parts (just like planets closer to the sun orbit faster than those farther away). 
  • This creates a shear force that twists the clouds, causing them to bump into their neighbors as they move around the black hole at velocities ranging from 10% of the speed of light up to over 80%.
  • This friction from fast-moving gas clouds generates heat, and the disk becomes so hot—millions of degrees—that it shines brightly
  • Some of the material in the disk is also funneled away from the black hole in a highly luminous, magnetically collimated jet.
  • The hot accretion disk and the jet combine to make the nucleus of the active galaxy shine so brightly that it can be seen far across the universe.
  • The brightest quasars can outshine all of the stars in the galaxies in which they reside, which makes them visible even at distances of billions of light-years.
  • Most quasars have been found billions of light-years away.
... more

What is the primary purpose of Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)?
  • a)
    To empower the police to arrest suspects
  • b)
    To appoint legal representatives for defendants
  • c)
    To establish guidelines for witness testimony in court
  • d)
    To ensure the availability of relevant evidence and materials during legal proceedings
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered  •  2 hours ago
Recently, the Supreme Court observed that the courts cannot issue processes under Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C) to compel the production of things/documents based on the application made by the accused at the stage of framing of charges.
About Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
  • Section 91 of the CrPC empowers the court to issue a summons or a written order to produce a document or other material that is necessary for the purpose of any investigation, inquiry, trial, or other legal proceedings.
  • Under this section, if the court considers that the production of any document or material is necessary or desirable for the administration of justice, it can issue a summons or written order to any person in possession of that document or material, directing them to produce it in court.
  • Purpose: To ensure the availability of relevant evidence and materials during legal proceedings. This helps facilitate a fair and just resolution of the case by ensuring that the necessary evidence is presented before the court.
  • Production of documents under Section 91: The document or material can be produced either in its original form or in the form of certified copiesas specified in the summons or written order. 
  • Compliance with the Section 91 order: The person receiving the summons must comply with it and produce the document or thing as required. 
  • Section 91 does not cover the production of the following items:
  • Those listed under Sections 123 and 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), or the Bankers Books Evidence Act, 1891 (13 of 1891), or
  • letter, postcard, telegram, or other document, or any parcel or thing in the custody of the postal or telegraph authority.
  • The court must be informed of the name of the person in whose possession or power the document is, or else the application for summons will not be entertained.
  • The term ‘person’ mentioned in the Section does not include an accused person in trial.
  • The police officers and courts are required to adhere to specific protocols and precautions while issuing and carrying out summonses under Section 91 CrPC.
  • For instance, they must abide by Sections 123 and 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, (1872), which protects the confidentiality and privilege of specific documents.
  • Additionally, they must offer the person called a fair amount of time and a chance to comply with the request.
... more

Consider the following statements regarding Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH):
1. It is launched by the World Health Organization (WHO).
2. Its membership is open to all institutions engaged in digital health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered  •  2 hours ago
Achieving one of the three priority areas agreed upon during India’s G20 presidency in 2023, the World Health Organization (WHO) recently launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) virtually.
About Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH):
  • It is a WHO managed network aiming to amplify and align resources toward country-led digital health transformation through strengthened collaboration and knowledge exchange.
  • It is a platform for sharing knowledge and digital products among countries.
  • The initiative aims to achieve the following objectives through collaborative efforts:
  • Assess and prioritize the country’s needs for sustainable digital health transformation.
  • Increase the alignment of country-level digital health resources and unfunded priorities.
  • Support the accelerated achievement of the strategic objectives of the Global Strategy on Digital Health 2020-2025.
  • Build capacity and converge efforts to encourage local development, maintenance, and adaptation of digital health technologies to continuously changing needs.
  • The initiative will be a network of networks with four main components:
  • country needs tracker
  • country resource portal (a map of resources available in a country)
  • transformation toolbox that will share quality-assured digital tools
  • knowledge exchange.
  • GIDH will support countries in three ways: by listening to their needs, by aligning resources to avoid fragmentation and overlap, and by providing quality assured products.
  • Membership: Membership is open to all institutions engaged in digital health.
... more

Consider the following statements regarding Shompen Tribe, recently seen in the news:
1. It resides on the Lakshadweep group of islands.
2. It is one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered  •  2 hours ago
India's president recently made a whistle stop tour of an island earmarked for multi-billion-dollar development that experts warn could wipe out the indigenous Shompen tribe, which calls it home.
About Shompen Tribe:
  • The Shompen are one of the most isolated tribes on Earth.
  • They reside in the dense tropical rain forest of the Great Nicobar Island of Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands.
  • They are one of the least studied Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
  • Though according to the Census (2011), the estimated population of Shompen is 229, the exact population of Shompen is unknown till today.
  • Most of them are uncontactedrefusing all interactions with outsiders.
  • They live in small groups, whose territories are identified by the rivers that criss-cross the rainforest.
  • They are semi-nomadic hunter-gatherers, and their main sources of livelihood are hunting, gathering, fishing, and a little bit of horticultural activities in a rudimentary form.
  • Primarily, they used to hunt wild pig, python, monitor Lizard, crocodile, see turtle etc.
  • They collect a wide variety of forest plants, but their staple food is the pandanus fruit, which they call larop. 
  • Shompen speak their own language, which has many dialects. Members of one band do not understand the dialect of the other. 
  • They are of short to medium stature, have a round or nearly broad head shapenarrow nose, a broad facial profile, and distinctly exhibit Mongoloid features such as light brown to yellow brown skin and oblique eye features.
  • Shompen have nuclear families comprising husband, wife, and their unmarried children.
  • A Shompen family is controlled by the eldest male member, who controls all activities of the women and kids.
  • Monogamy is the general rule, although polygamy is allowed too.
... more

Consider the following statements regarding the Raisina Dialogue:
1. It is an annual conference on geopolitics and geo-economics issues.
2. It is organized by the Observer Research Foundation in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered  •  2 hours ago
The ninth edition of the Raisina Dialogue will be held from February 21 to 23rd in New Delhi.
  • It is an annual conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, which aims to address the most challenging issues faced by the world.
  • It is held annually since 2016 in New Delhi.
  • The conference is attended by people from political, business, media, and civil society backgrounds.
  • The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, who are joined by thought leaders from the private sector, media and academia.
  • It is organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India.
  • The theme of the 2024 edition is “Chaturanga: Conflict, Contest, Cooperate, Create,”
  • During the three-day conference, the participants will engage with each other over six “thematic pillars”. These include:
  • Tech Frontiers: Regulations & Realities
  • Peace with the Planet: Invest & Innovate
  • War & Peace: Armouries & Asymmetries
  • Decolonising Multilateralism: Institutions & Inclusion
  • The Post 2030 Agenda: People & Progress
  • Defending Democracy: Society & Sovereignty,
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific:
1. It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations.
2. It headquarter is located in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered  •  2 hours ago
According to a new report by United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP), at the current pace of growth, the region will not attain the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) until 2062 or will be 32 years behind schedule.
  • It is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • It was established in 1947.
  • Mandate: To promote economic and social development in the Asian and Pacific region by fostering cooperation between its members and associate members.
  • The Commission promotes cooperation among its 53 member States and 9 associate members in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges.
  • It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations.
  • It carries out work in the areas like Macroeconomic Policy, Poverty Reduction and Financing for Development, Trade, Investment and Innovation, Transport, Environment and Development, Information and Communications Technology and Disaster Risk Reduction and Social Development etc.
  • Head quarters: Bangkok, Thailand
... more

Consider the following statements regarding the India, Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Fund:
1. It is used to support demand-driven, transformational projects in developing countries.
2. The World Bank serves as the Secretariat of the IBSA Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered  •  2 hours ago
Recently, India has contributed USD 1 million to a fund established by India, Brazil and South Africa. 
  • It was established in 2004 and became operational in 2006.
  • The IBSA countries - India, Brazil and South Africa - each contribute one million dollars annually to the Fund in a spirit of partnership and support for Southern-led, demand-driven, transformational projects in developing countries.
  • The purpose of the fund is to identify replicable and scalable projects that can be disseminated to developing countries on a demand-driven basis.
  • IBSA Fund-supported projects help partner countries in the Global South to achieve their national priorities, as well as all other internationally agreed development goals.
  • Objectives: It includes promoting food security, and addressing HIV/AIDS, to extending access to safe drinking water all to contribute to the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals.
  • The IBSA Fund has allocated USD 50.6 million to date, supporting 45 projects across 37 countries of the global South.
  • The UN Office for South-South Cooperation (UNOSSC) serves as the Fund Manager and Secretariat of the IBSA Fund.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Kapilavastu Relic, recently seen in the news, is associated with:av
  • a)
    Shankaracharya
  • b)
    Ashoka
  • c)
    Mahavir
  • d)
    Buddha
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered  •  2 hours ago
Four bone fragments of Lord Buddha, also known as Kapilvastu Relics, presently kept in the National Museum will be taken to Thailand after about 30 years. 
  • The relics were excavated from Piprahwa in the Siddharthnagar District of Uttar Pradesh, an erstwhile part of the ancient city of Kapilavastu.
  • A British colonial engineer and an estate manager William Claxton Peppé discovered an inscribed casket in 1898 at the stupa site in Piprahwa.
  • The inscription on the casket’s lid which refers to the relics of Buddha and his community, the Sakya.
  • History
  • At the age of 80, according to Buddhist beliefs, Buddha attained salvation in Uttar Pradesh’s Kushinagar district.
  • The Mallas of Kushinagar cremated his body with ceremonies befitting a universal king.
  • His relics from the funeral pyre were collected and divided into eight shares to be distributed among the Ajathsatrus of Magadha, the Licchavis of Vaishali, the Sakyas of Kapilavastu, Mallas of Kushinagar, Bullies of Allakappa, the Mallas of Pava, the Koliyas of Ramagrama and a Brahmana of Vethadipa.
  • The purpose was erecting stupas over the sacred relics.
  • Two more stupas came up — one over the urn in which the relics had been collected and the other over the embers.
  • Thus, stupas erected over the bodily relics of Buddha (Saririkastupas) are the earliest surviving Buddhist shrines.
  • It is stated that Ashoka (circa 272–232 BCE) being an ardent follower of Buddhism, opened -up seven of these eight stupas, and collected major portion of the relics for enshrinement within innumerable (84000 stupas) built by him in an effort to popularize Buddhism and spread dharma.
... more

The Bhakra Nangal Dam is built across the River
  • a)
    Jhelum
  • b)
    Chenab
  • c)
    Ravi
  • d)
    Sutlej
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Ahuja answered  •  2 hours ago


Location of Bhakra Nangal Dam

The Bhakra Nangal Dam is located in the northern state of Himachal Pradesh in India. It is built across the Sutlej River.

Significance of Bhakra Nangal Dam

- The Bhakra Nangal Dam is one of the largest dams in India and a key multipurpose project that serves various purposes such as irrigation, hydroelectric p
... more

Provides door-to-door connectivity
  • a)
    Airways
  • b)
    Roadways
  • c)
    Railways
  • d)
    Waterways
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Ahuja answered  •  2 hours ago


Roadways

Roadways provide door-to-door connectivity, making them the most suitable mode of transport for this purpose. Here's why:

- Flexibility: Roadways offer the flexibility to reach even the most remote locations, ensuring door-to-door connectivity.
- Network: The extensive road network covers a wide range of areas, enabling vehicles
... more

Who wrote ‘Pariksha Guru?’
  • a)
    Srinivas Das
  • b)
    Viresalingam
  • c)
    Munshi Premchand
  • d)
    Devki Nandan Khatri
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Ahuja answered  •  2 hours ago


Srinivas Das - The Author of 'Pariksha Guru'

Introduction:
Srinivas Das is the author of the famous novel 'Pariksha Guru.' The novel is considered a classic in Indian literature and has been influential in shaping the narrative of social issues and educational reforms.

About 'Pariksha Guru':
- 'Pariksha Guru' is a novel that revolve
... more

The 86th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002 inserted which of the following articles in the Constitution of India?
  • a)
    21-A
  • b)
    39-A
  • c)
    20-A
  • d)
    56-C
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Kulkarni answered  •  2 hours ago

Explanation:

86th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002:
- The 86th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002 was passed to insert Article 21-A in the Constitution of India.

Article 21-A:
- Article 21-A states that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State
... more

With reference to the Red-headed vulture, consider the following statements:
  1. It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
  2. It is only found in the Himalayan Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Datta answered  •  10 hours ago

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The Red-headed vulture, also known as the Indian black vulture, is a critically endangered species according to the IUCN Red List. Here's a breakdown of the statements provided:

- Statement 1: It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
This statement is correct. The Re
... more

राष्ट्रीय हरित हाइड्रोजन मिशन के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये :
  1. इस मिशन का उद्देश्य भारत को ग्रीन हाइड्रोजन और इसके डेरिवेटिव के उत्पादन, उपयोग और निर्यात के लिए एक वैश्विक केंद्र बनाना है।
  2. नवीन और नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा मंत्रालय इस मिशन के लिए दिशानिर्देश तैयार करेगा।
ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है/हैं?
... more

Dhruba Datta answered  •  10 hours ago


Explanation:

Given Options:
- a) 1
- b) 2
- c) 1 2
- d) 1 2

Correct Answer:
The correct answer is option 'c' which is 1 2.

Explanation:
- In the given question, the options are presented with numbers separated by spaces.
- To determine the correct option, we need to identify which numbers
... more

The contribution of Agriculture sector of Bihar has been increased (in 2018-2019) by
  • a)
    0.4%
  • b)
    0.6%
  • c)
    1.0%
  • d)
    2.0%
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Datta answered  •  10 hours ago


Explanation:

Contribution of Agriculture sector in Bihar

- In 2018-2019, the contribution of the Agriculture sector in Bihar increased by 0.6%.
- This increase is a positive sign for the state's economy as the agriculture sector plays a crucial role in Bihar's overall development.
- The growth in the agriculture sector indicates an improvem
... more

What was Gangabai protested about
  • a)
    She wanted to open a office
  • b)
    She wanted to open a hospital
  • c)
    She wanted to open a school
  • d)
    The garbage was not removed
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Datta answered  •  10 hours ago


Reason for Gangabai's Protest

Gangabai protested because the garbage was not removed from her locality. This issue caused inconvenience and health hazards for the residents, prompting Gangabai to take a stand and demand action.

Impact of Garbage Accumulation

- Accumulation of garbage can lead to the spread of diseases and attract pests lik
... more

Article ___ of the Constitution states that untouchability has been abolished
  • a)
    16
  • b)
    17
  • c)
    15
  • d)
    18
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Datta answered  •  10 hours ago


Article 17 of the Constitution states that untouchability has been abolished

Untouchability has been a social evil in India for centuries, where certain groups of people were considered impure and were discriminated against. The Constitution of India recognizes this injustice and explicitly addresses the issue in Article 17.

Abolition of Untouchability... more

The States are like pearls and the Centre is the thread which turns them into a necklace; if the read snaps, the pearls are scattered.
Q. Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement?
  • a)
    A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong.
  • b)
    A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity.
  • c)
    A strong Centre is a hindrance to State autonomy.
  • d)
    State autonomy is a prerequisite for a federation.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Datta answered  •  10 hours ago

Explanation:

Strong Centre as a Binding Force:
- The statement implies that the Centre plays a crucial role in holding the States together, just like a thread keeps pearls in place.
- A strong Centre ensures national integrity and unity by providing a sense of cohesion and coordination among the States.

Relevance of a Strong Centre:
-
... more

Megasthenes, a Greek ethnographer, is known for:
  • a)
    Mapping the Indian subcontinent
  • b)
    His book "The Geography of India"
  • c)
    Serving as an ambassador for the Roman Empire
  • d)
    Writing "Indika," describing ancient Indian society
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranjal Chatterjee answered  •  14 hours ago
Indica, which provided valuable information about ancient India and its peoplec)Establishing diplomatic relations between India and Macedoniad)Accurately documenting the customs and traditions of Indian society

The weightage of 5 tests in a class and the marks scored by Ritu in those tests are as follows. What is the weighted average of the percentages she obtained in the five tests?
  • a)
    73.7%
  • b)
    87%
  • c)
    67%
  • d)
    99%
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered  •  15 hours ago
According to the concept,
(12/20 × 15% + 16/20 × 12% + 40/50 × 30% + 80/100 × 10% + 14/20 × 33%)
⇒ (0.09 + 0.096 + 0.24 + 0.08 + 0.231) 
⇒ 0.737 or 73.7%
∴ The weighted average of the percentages she obtained in the five tests is 73.7%

With reference to the Deccan states, consider the following statements:
1. The title of ‘Abla Baba’ was used for Sultan Ali Adil Shah of Bijapur.
2. Sultan Quli Qutb Shah of Golconda composed a book called Kitab-i-Nauras.
3. The construction of Char Minar was done by Sultan Ibrahim Adil Shah of Bidar.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered  •  17 hours ago
  • The Deccani states had a number of cultural contributions to their credit. Ali Adil Shah (d. 1580) of Bijapur, loved to hold discussions with the Hindu and the Muslim saints, and was called a Sufi. He invited the Catholic missionaries to his court, even before Akbar had done so. He had an excellent library to which he appointed the well- known Sanskrit scholar, Waman Pandit. Patronage of ... more
  • He was deeply interested in music and composed a book called Kitab-i- Nauras, in which songs were set to various musical modes or Ragas. He built a new capital, Nauraspur, in which a large number of musicians were invited to settle. In his songs, he freely invoked the goddess of music and learning, Saraswati. Due to his broad approach, he came to be called ‘Jagat Guru’. He accorded patronage to all, including the Hindu saints and temples.
  • This included grants to Pandharpur, the centre of the worship of Vithoba, which became the centre of the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra. The broad, tolerant policy followed by Ibrahim Adil Shah II was continued under his successors. Golconda was the intellectual resort of literary men. Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, a contemporary of Akbar, was very fond of literature and architecture.
  • The Sultan was not only a great patron of art and literature, but was a poet of no mean order. He wrote in Dakhini Urdu, Persian and Telugu, and has left an extensive Diwan or collection. He was the first to introduce a secular note in poetry. Apart from the praise of God and the Prophet, he wrote about nature, love and the social life of his day.
  • The growth of Urdu in its Dakhini form was a significant development during the period. In the field of architecture, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah constructed many buildings, the most famous of which is the Char Minar. Completed in 1591– 92, it stood at the centre of the new city of Hyderabad, founded by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah. It has 4 lofty arches, facing the 4 directions. Its chief beauty is the 4 minarets, which are four- storeyed and are 48 metre high. The double screen of arches has fine carvings.

With reference to cultural development during CE 1200-1500, consider the following statements:
1. Fatawa-i-Alamgiri, or the Digest of Laws, was prepared in the reign of Akbar.
2. Zia Nakhshabi translated Rajatarangini and Mahabharata into Persian language.
3. The Indian classical work ‘Ragadarpan’ was translated into Persian during the reign of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered  •  17 hours ago
  • Although the greatest amount of literature and scientific works produced by the Muslims was in Arabic, which was the language of the Prophet and was used as the language of literature and science from Spain to Baghdad. The Turks who came to India were deeply influenced by the Persian language, which had become the literary and administrative language of Central Asia from the 10th century ... more
  • The most well-known of these were prepared in the reign of Firuz Tughlaq. But, Arabic digests continued to be prepared, the most famous of these being the Fatawa-i-Alamgiri, or the Digest of Laws, prepared by a group of jurists in the reign of Aurangzeb. Zia Nakhshabi (d. 1350) was the first to translate into Persian Sanskrit stories which were related by a parrot to a woman whose husband had gone on a journey.
  • This book Tuti Nama (Book of the Parrot), written in the time of Muhammad Tughlaq, proved very popular and was translated from Persian into Turkish and into many European languages as well. He also translated the old Indian treatise on sexology, the Kok Shastra, into Persian. Later, in the time of Firuz Shah, Sanskrit books on medicine and music were translated into Persian. Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin of Kashmir had the famous historical work Rajatarangini and the Mahabharata translated into Persian. At his instance, Sanskrit works on medicine and music were also translated into Persian.
  • Recent research shows that some works on mathematics, astronomy and medicine were translated into Sanskrit during the period. Khusrau, who was given the title of Nayak or the master of both the theory and practice of music, introduced many Perso-Arabic airs (Ragas), such as Aiman, Ghora, Sanam, etc. He is accredited with having invented the Sitar, though we have no evidence of it. The Tabla, which is also attributed to him seems, however, to have developed during the late 17th or early 18th century. The process of integration in the field of music continued under Firuz Shah Tughlaq, who used to listen to music every Friday after Namaz. The Indian classical work, Ragadarpan, was translated into Persian during this reign. Musical gatherings spread from the abodes of the Sufis to the palaces of the nobles.
  • Sultan Husain Sharqi, the ruler of Jaunpur, was a great patron of music. The Sufi saint, Pir Bodhan, is supposed to have been the second great musician of the age. Another regional kingdom, where music was highly cultivated, was the kingdom of Gwaliyar. Raja Man Singh of Gwaliyar was a great music lover. The work, Man Kautuhal, in which all the new musical modes introduced by the Muslims were included, was prepared under his aegis.

With reference to Buddhism, consider the following statements:
1. The monks, who were admitted to the Sangha, became the teachers of Dhamma.
2. Theris were the persons who provided alms to the monks.
3. Discussions and voting were the methods, used to take decisions in the Sangha.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered  •  17 hours ago
  • Soon there grew a body of disciples of the Buddha and he founded a Sangha, an organisation of monks who too became the teachers of Dhamma. These monks lived simply, possessing only the essential requisites for survival, such as a bowl to receive food once a day from the laity. As they lived on alms, they were known as the Bhikkhus. Initially, only men were allowed into the Sangha, but lat... more
  • The Buddha’s foster mother, Mahapajapati Gotami, was the first woman to be ordained as a Bhikkhuni. Many women, who entered the Sangha, became the teachers of Dhamma and went on to become Theris, or respected women who had attained liberation. The Buddha’s followers came from many social groups. They included kings, wealthy men and Gahapatis, and also humbler folk: workers, slaves and craftspeople. Once within the Sangha, all were regarded as equal, having shed their earlier social identities on becoming Bhikkhus and Bhikkhunis. The internal functioning of the Sangha was based on the traditions of Ganas and Sanghas, where consensus was arrived at through discussions. If that failed, decisions were taken by a vote on the subject.

With reference to the land grants (during 600 BCE-600 CE), consider the following statements:
1. Inscriptions recording land grants were erected mostly on stone.
2. There are no evidences of women having independent access to resources, such as land.
3. An Agrahara, revenue exempted land, was granted to a Samanta.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered  •  17 hours ago
  • From the early centuries of the Common Era, we find the grants of land being made, many of which were recorded in inscriptions. Some of these inscriptions were on stone, but most were on copper plates, which were probably given as a record of the transaction to those who received the land. The records that have survived are generally about the grants to the religious institutions, or to t... more
  • Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of one of the most important rulers in the early Indian history, Chandragupta II (c. 375-415 CE). She was married into another important ruling family, that of the Vakatakas, who were powerful in the Deccan. According to the Sanskrit legal texts, women were not supposed to have independent access to resources, such as land. However, the inscription indicates that Prabhavati had access to land, which she then granted. This may have been because she was a queen (one of the few known from the early Indian history) and her situation was, therefore, exceptional. It is also possible that the provisions of legal texts were not uniformly implemented.
  • The impact of land grants is a subject of heated debate among the historians. Some feel that land grants were part of a strategy adopted by the ruling lineages to extend agriculture to new areas. Others suggest that land grants were indicative of weakening political power, as the kings were losing control over their Samantas, they tried to win allies by making grants of land. They also feel that the kings tried to project themselves as supermen, because they were losing control, they wanted to present at least a façade of power. An Agrahara was a land granted to a Brahmana, who was usually exempted from paying land revenue and other dues to the king, and was often given the right to collect these dues from the local people.

Consider the following statements:
1. Secularism is opposed to all forms of institutionalized religious domination and it challenges not merely inter- religious, but also intra-religious domination.
2. On a positive note, secularism promotes freedom within religions and equality between, as well as within, religions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct about secularism?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered  •  17 hours ago
Inter-religious domination refers to how the members of one religion dominate the members of a different religion. Examples include:
1. Members of a particular religious community are targeted and victimized by the members of another community.
2. The political system may favour a particular religion and deny various rights and privileges to the members of other religions. Intra-religious domination refers to how certain members of a religion dominate other members of the same religion.
1. Every religion fragments into sects which lead to frequent sectarian violence. An example is the centuries of fighting between the Catholics and the Protestants within Christianity, or the Shias and the Sunnis within Islam.
2. The exploitation of certain members of a religion by other members of the same religion. An example is the caste system in Hinduism in which the members of the upper caste exploited the members of the lower caste. As secularism is opposed to all forms of institutionalized religious domination, it challenges not merely inter-religious, but also intra-religious domination. Secularism is a normative doctrine which seeks to realize a secular society, i.e., one devoid of either inter-religious or intra-religious domination. Put positively, it promotes freedom within religions and equality between, as well as within, religions.

‘Freedom’ and ‘Liberty’ exist when there is
1. Absence of constraints.
2. Lack of external control or coercion.
3. Opportunity for self-development.
4. Respect for due process of law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1, 2 and 4 only
  • b)
    2, 3 and 4 only
  • c)
    1, 2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered  •  17 hours ago
Understanding Freedom and the Importance of Free Society:
  • Absence of Constraints - A simple answer to the question ‘what is freedom’ is the absence of constraints. Freedom is said to exist when external constraints on the individual are absent.
  • Lack of External Control - In terms of this definition, an individual could be considered free if he/she is not subject to external controls or coercion and is able to make independent decisions and act in an autonomous way. Freedom is Multi-dimensional - Absence of constraints is only one dimension of freedom. Freedom is also about expanding the ability of the people to freely express themselves and develop their potential.
  • Positive Aspect - Freedom in this sense is the condition in which the people can develop their creativity and capabilities. Need for both the aspect of freedom is important - namely the absence of external constraints, as well as the existence of conditions in which the people can develop their talent is essential. A free society would be one which enables all its members to develop their potential with the minimum of social constraints. The Fundamental Right to Freedom includes:
    • Article 19 - Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
    • Article 20 - Protection in respect of conviction for offences. Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty – according to the procedure established by law. In Maneka Gandhi Judgment, the Supreme Court has held that the procedure established by law also means due process of law. The Court ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’.
    • Article 21A - Right to education - The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years.
    • Article 22 - Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
... more

Which of the following statements about NITI Aayog is/are correct?
1. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Delta Rankings under the Aspirational Districts Programme and Good Governance Index are released by NITI Aayog.
3. Project SATH-E on education and e- Amrit, a web portal on electric vehicles, was launched by NITI Aayog.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    2 only
  • b)
    3 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered  •  17 hours ago
The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Prime Minister. The Good Governance Index is prepared by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. The Parameters include:
(1) Agriculture and Allied Sectors,
(2) Commerce and Industries,
(3) Human Resource Development,
(4) Public Health,
(5) Public Infrastructure and Utilities,
(6) Economic Governance,
(7) Social Welfare and Development,
(8) Judicial and Public Security,
(9) Environment, and
(10) Citizen- Centric Governance.
The meetings of the Governing Council have been held under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the Prime Minister of India; the Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislature; the Lt. Governors of other UTs; Ex-Officio Members; Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog; Full-Time Members, NITI Aayog; and Special Invitees. It is a premier body tasked with evolving a shared vision of national priorities and strategies, with the active involvement of the States, in shaping the development narrative. The Governing Council, which embodies the objectives of cooperative federalism, presents a platform to discuss inter-sectoral, inter- departmental and federal issues to accelerate the implementation of the national development agenda.
... more

Which of the following were the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1858?
1. The Act abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of the Government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
2. It changed the designation of the Viceroy of India to that of the Governor- General of India, who became the direct representative of the British Crown in India.
3. It ended the system of double Government by abolishing the Board of Control and the Court of Directors, which was established under the Charter Act of 1793.
4. The Secretary of State for India was vested with complete authority and control over the Indian administration, assisted by a Council of 15 members, known as the Council of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 4 only
  • d)
    1 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered  •  17 hours ago
The salient features of the Government of India Act of 1858 are as follows:
  • It provided that India, henceforth, was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty.
  • It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of the Viceroy of India. He (Viceroy) was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning, thus, became the first Viceroy of India.
  • It ended the system of double Government by abolishing the Board of Control and the Court of Directors, which was established by the Pitt’s India Act of 1784.
  • It created a new office, the Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over the Indian administration.
  • The Secretary of State was a member of the British Cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament.
  • It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the Secretary of State for India. The Council was an advisory body. The Secretary of State was made the Chairman of the Council.
  • It constituted the Secretary of State-in- Council as a body corporate, capable of suing and being sued in India and in England.

With reference to the Loss and Damage Fund, consider the following statements:
1.This fund recognizes and aims to compensate for the real losses incurred by communities, countries, and ecosystems due to the impacts of climate change.
2.After intense negotiations at the UNFCCC Conference of Parties (COP 26), representatives of the UNFCCC’s member states agreed to set up the Loss and Damage fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered  •  17 hours ago
Loss and Damage Fund:
  • The 'Loss and Damage' (L&D) fund is a financial mechanism designed to address the irreversible consequences of climate change that cannot be avoided or mitigated through adaptation efforts. This fund recognizes and aims to compensate for the real losses incurred by communities, countries, and ecosystems due to the impacts of climate change. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • After intense negotiations at COP 27, representatives of the UNFCCC’s member states agreed to set up the L&D fund. Additionally, a Transitional Committee (TC) was established to figure out how the new funding mechanisms under the fund would operate. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The TC was tasked with preparing recommendations for countries to consider, deliberate on, and potentially adopt by COP 28.

Regarding the Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) consider the following statements:
1. NBFCs are restricted from accepting demand deposits from the public.
2. NBFCs form an important part of the payment and settlement system.
3. NBFCs primarily finance their operations through a mix of market borrowing and bank loans.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered  •  17 hours ago
Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs):
  • An NBFC, registered under the Companies Act, 1956, engages in various financial activities such as loans, investments in securities, leasing, insurance. It excludes institutions whose primary business falls under agriculture, industry, goods trading, services, or immovable property trading. NBFCs are restricted from accepting demand deposits from the public, unlike banks, which commonly accept these types of deposits that can be withdrawn on demand without prior notice. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Unlike banks, NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system. They are unable to issue cheques drawn on themselves, a standard practice offered by banks. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • NBFCs primarily finance their operations through a mix of market borrowing and bank loans. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements with regard to the Finance Commission mentioned under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution:
1. It is mandatory for the Parliament to set up a finance commission at the expiry of every fifth year.
2. It should consist of a chairman and not more than three other members.
3. Qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered  •  17 hours ago
  • Article 280 of the Constitution of India: The President shall, within two years from the commencement of this Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. Hence statements 1 an... more
  • Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • It shall be the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to
    • the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or maybe, divided between them under this Chapter and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
    • the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
  • The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.
  • The Commission can determine its procedure and in the performance of its functions can have all the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Consider the following statements:
1. Tax elasticity refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in the GDP of an economy.
2. Tax buoyancy refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered  •  17 hours ago
  • Tax buoyancy explains this relationship between the changes in the government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP. It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP. When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate. The numerical estimate of tax buoyancy is very useful to understand the revenue performance of the economy. Hen... more
  • A similar looking concept is tax elasticity. Tax elasticity refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rates. Tax elasticity is the degree to which the increase in the tax rate causes a change in the tax base. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Tax elasticity is thought of as being more prevalent at higher rates. This means that when tax rates are first increased, the tax base isn’t negatively affected. However, once the rates go higher, the negative impact on the tax rate becomes more apparent.

‘Nai Chetna-Pahal Badlav Ki’ campaign is a:
  • a)
    new scheme to increase women's employment in the armed forces by the Ministry of Defence.
  • b)
    new scheme to provide collateral-free finance to self-help groups by the Ministry of Finance.
  • c)
    new community-led national campaign by the Ministry of Rural Development, against gender-based discrimination.
  • d)
    new educational initiative by the Ministry of Education to increase literacy rates in older women.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered  •  17 hours ago
  • Union Minister for Rural Development and Panchayati Raj quoting figures from the National Crime Records Bureau's (NCRB) 'Crime in India 2021' report expressed serious concern that India registered 31,677 cases of rape in 2021 - an average 86 daily - while nearly 49 cases of crime against women were lodged every single hour. The number of rape cases in 2020 was 28,046, while it... more
  • Minister was speaking after the Launch of “A Community-led National Campaign Against Gender- Based Discrimination” of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission in New Delhi. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
  • The month-long campaign titled, “Nai Chetna-Pahal Badlav Ki” with the theme of ‘Elimination of Gender-Based Violence’ will be conducted as a 'Jan Andolan' (people's movement) in all the States/UTs of the country from 25th November to 23rd of December, 2022.
  • This will be an annual campaign focussing on specific gender issues each year. The focus area of the campaign this year is Gender-Based Violence. This campaign will be implemented by all states in collaboration with CSO partners, and actively executed by all levels including the State, District, and Block engaging the Community Institutions along with the extended community.
  • The Campaign will also bring together all line departments and stakeholders to create a concerted effort in acknowledging, identifying and addressing issues of violence. Over the years this campaign will incorporate an intersectional approach deepening the understanding of gender and generating relevance and ownership in all departments and verticals with a multisectoral approach. As part of the campaign, there will be knowledge workshops, leadership training, and seminars on sexual violence and redressal mechanisms.

Consider the following statements with respect to Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan:
1. It aims to strengthen Panchayati Raj Institutions with an emphasis on Aspirational Districts.
2. It is a central sector scheme.
3. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1, 2 and 3
  • d)
    1 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered  •  17 hours ago
  • The government on 24/04/2018 on the occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day launched the restructured Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Its primary aim is strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) with the main thrust on convergence with Mission Ant... more
  • The scheme has been approved with a total budget outlay of Rs. 7255.50 crores out of which the State share will be Rs. 2755.50 crores and the Central share will be Rs. 4500.00 crores. The scheme extends to all States and UTs including non-Part IX areas where Panchayats do not exist.
  • The scheme consists of Central and State Components.
  • The Central component comprises
    • National level activities viz. National Plan for Technical Assistance (NPTA) including NPMU, collaboration with academic institutions/ institutions of excellence including NIRD&PR, Hyderabad for various activities of CB&T for PRIs
    • Mission Mode Project (MMP) on e-Panchayat and
    • Incentivization of Panchayats.
  • The State component relates to activities to be undertaken by State Governments for CB&T and other activities for strengthening of Panchayats viz Capacity Building &Training, training infrastructure and HR support for training, Strengthening of Gram Sabhas in PESA areas, Distance Learning Facility via SATCOM, Support for Innovations, Technical support to PRIs, Financial Data and Analysis Cell, Panchayat Buildings, e-enablement of Panchayats, Project-based funding for economic development and income enhancement, IEC and PMU. x The sharing pattern for the State component is in the ratio of 60:40 except for NE and Hilly States where Central and State sharing is in the ratio of 90:10. For all UTs, the Central share is 100%. x The scheme comes under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the aerosols:
1. Compared to Green House Gases (GHGs), aerosols are short-lived and persist in the atmosphere only for a few weeks.
2. Aerosols serve as cloud condensation nuclei resulting in high incidence of rainfall.
3. Aerosols in the lower atmosphere can modify the size of cloud particles affecting Earth's energy budget.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered  •  17 hours ago
  • Aerosols are minute particles suspended in the atmosphere. They are short-lived, unlike greenhouse gases that persist and accumulate in the atmosphere for longer period. Aerosols are non-uniform in shape and size so equivalent aerodynamic diameter determined by comparing them with perfect spheres having same settling velocity. Aerosols come from volcanoes, dust storms, fires, vegetation, ... more
  • Aerosols interact both directly and indirectly with the Earth's radiation budget and climate.
    • Different aerosols scatter or absorb sunlight to varying degrees, depending on their physical properties. Although most aerosols reflect sunlight, some also absorb it.
    • As an indirect effect, aerosols in the lower atmosphere can modify the size of cloud particles, changing how the clouds reflect and absorb sunlight, thereby affecting the Earth's energy budget. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • A good monsoon is produced by the difference in temperature between land and sea. But, the dust clouds (formed by aerosols) shield the earth from the sun’s rays, depressing land and sea temperatures and reducing the variation between the two. Because of this, the Indian monsoon is getting weakened by aerosol accumulation.
  • Contrary to convectional rainfall, in orographic rainfall when moist air gets obstructed, the air raises and gets adiabatically cooled leading to condensation, cloud formation and rain. With the presence of high Aerosols they serve as cloud condensation Nuclei resulting in high incidence of cloud formation and rainfall. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
    • As Indo-Gangetic Plain, one of the world’s most polluted areas, is upwind of the Himalayan foothills and the presence of Aerosols in high concentration are leading to high incidence of rainfall in foothills of Himalayas.

With reference to the World Local Production Forum (WLPF), consider the following statements:
1. The WLPF is a platform initiated by the World Health Organization (WHO) with the goal of increasing access to medicines and health technologies.
2. The Local Production and Assistance (LPA) Unit serves as the WLPF Secretariat.
3. This forum provides Member States and the global community with a regular platform to shape strategies for eco-friendly production of quality-assured health products.
How many of the above statements are not correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered  •  17 hours ago
  • The World Local Production Forum (WLPF) is a platform initiated by the World Health Organization (WHO) with the goal of increasing access to medicines and health technologies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It provides a global platform to discuss key challenges in promoting local production and technology transfer. The Local Production and Assistance (LPA) Unit serves as the WLP... more
  • It promotes sustainable local production capacity to improve access to quality, safe and effective health products and technologies. This forum provides Member States and the global community with a regular platform to shape strategies for sustainable local production (and not eco-friendly production) of quality-assured health products. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • Here sustainable production is basically trying to maintain the supply of medicines and health technology. Eco-friendly technologies are those technologies which basically protect the environment from emission of gasses and liquids or solid wastes which has not been considered in WLPF.

With reference to the representation in Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. Currently, the Rajya Sabha has 250 members.
2. All union territories of India are represented in the Rajya Sabha.
3. Among the union territories, Jammu and Kashmir has the highest number of Rajya Sabha seats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered  •  17 hours ago
  • Composition of Rajya Sabha 
    • The Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength of 250 members, of which 238 are representatives of states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the president for their excellence in the field of literature, science, art, and social service.
    • The Rajya Sabha currently has 245 members. Hence, statement 1 is not correct... more
    • The states are represented by 229 members, the union territories are represented by 4 members, and the president appoints 12 members.
    • The vice-President of India is also the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. He or she presides over Rajya Sabha meetings.
    • In his absence, the meeting of the House is presided over by the Deputy Chairman, who is elected by its members from among themselves.
    • The Deputy Chairman can be removed by a majority of all Rajya Sabha members at the time.
  • Representation of States
    • The Rajya Sabha's representatives are elected by the members of state legislative assemblies
    • The election is held using a single transferable vote in accordance with the proportional representation system.
    • The Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to the states based on population. As a result, the number of representatives varies by state. x Representation of Union Territories
    • The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of a special electoral college.
    • This election is also held in accordance with the proportional representation system through the use of a single transferable vote.
    • Only three of the eight union territories (Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu, and Kashmir) have representation in Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • In total eight members are elected from the Union territories (3 from Delhi, 1 from Puducherry, and 4 from Jammu & Kashmir). 
    • Other Union territories are not represented in Rajya Sabha.
    • Maximum representation is from Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • The other five union territories' population is too small to have a representative in the Rajya Sabha.

Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered  •  17 hours ago
  • Jain Tirthankaras: In Jainism, Tirthankaras are called the Jina or the conquerors of all instincts. There are 24 Tirthankaras.
    • The term, ‘Tirthankara’ is a combination of ‘Teertha and ‘Samsara’. Teertha is a pilgrimage site and samsara is the worldly life. The one who has conquered the samsara and understood the true nature of the self to attain Kevala Jnana is a Tirthankara.
    • Definition of a Tirthankar: A Tirthankar is referred to as ‘teaching god’ or ‘Ford Maker’ in Jainism.
    • The names of 24 Tirthankaras are inspired by the dreams their respective mothers had before their birth or related circumstances surrounding their births.
    • Kalpasutra is a religious text of Jains that mentions the life histories of 24 Tirthankaras. (It is apparently compiled by Digambara sect Jain Muni Bhadrabahu 150 years after Mahavir’s Nirvana.) 9 Kalpasutra mentions the first Tirthankara to be Rishabhnath.
... more

Consider the following statements:
1. The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the President of India.
2. The administrative head of the Central Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary.
3. The Cabinet Secretary is the Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered  •  17 hours ago
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary, who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The business allocated to the Cabinet Secretariat under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, includes
(i) Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees; and
(ii) Rules of Business.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Delimitation Commission?
1. The Delimitation Commission has been created by the Constitution for readjustment of the seats in the Parliament after every census.
2. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 froze the allocation of the seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and the division of each state into territorial constituencies till the year 2025.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered  •  17 hours ago
  • After every census, a readjustment is to be made in (a) the allocation of the seats in the Lok Sabha to the states; and (b) the division of each state into territorial constituencies.
  • The Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which it is to be made. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Delimitation Commission Acts in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002... more
  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 froze the allocation of the seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and the division of each state into territorial constituencies till the year 2000 at the 1971 level. This ban on readjustment was extended for another 25 years (i.e., upto year 2026) by the 84th Amendment Act of 2001, with the same objective of encouraging population limiting measures.
  • The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 also empowered the government to undertake readjustment and rationalisation of the territorial constituencies in the states on the basis of the population figures of 1991 census. Later, the 87th Amendment Act of 2003 provided for the delimitation of the constituencies on the basis of 2001 census and not 1991 census. However, this can be done without altering the number of the seats allotted to each state in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about “subordinate legislation”?
1. The executive is empowered to make the required changes in the original law to meet the ground reality.
2. The recommendations of the Committee on Subordinate Legislations shall be implemented by the Ministries concerned.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered  •  17 hours ago
Subordinate Legislation is the legislation made by an authority subordinate to the legislature. Most of the enactments provide for the powers for making rules, regulations, bye- laws or other statutory instruments, which are exercised by the specified subordinate authorities. Such legislation is to be made within the framework of the powers so delegated by the legislature and is, therefore, known as ‘Delegated or Subordinate Legislation’. Amongst the mechanisms evolved by the legislature to exercise control over the delegated legislation, the most important is the constitution of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation. It is this Committee of the legislature which examines if the powers conferred by the Constitution or delegated under an Act passed by the legislature have been duly exercised and are within the conferment or delegation, and not beyond. It has to see that the delegated legislation does not transgress into the areas not prescribed for it, and also that it does not venture to intrude into the sphere which is the sole concern of the legislature itself.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Municipal Bodies in India?
1. The Chairpersons of the Municipal Bodies are directly elected by the people of the Municipal Area.
2. There shall be constituted a Wards Committee, consisting of one or more Wards, within the territorial area of all the Municipal Bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered  •  17 hours ago
All the members of a Municipality shall be elected directly by the people of the Municipal Area. The State Legislature may provide the manner of election of the Chairperson of a Municipality. The State Legislature may provide for - The representation of the persons having special knowledge or experience in Municipal Administration, without the right to vote in the meetings of the Municipality. The members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly representing the constituencies that comprise wholly or partly the Municipal Area. The members of the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Council registered as electors within the Municipal Area. The Chairpersons of the Committees (other than the Wards Committees). There shall be constituted a Wards Committee, consisting of one or more Wards, within the territorial area of a Municipality, having a population of 3 lakhs or more.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Tribunals under the Indian Constitution?
1. The original Constitution provided for the provisions related to the Tribunals under Article 323.
2. All the Tribunals under Article 323 can be created only by the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered  •  17 hours ago
The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to the Tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This Part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles—Article 323 A, dealing with the Administrative Tribunals; and Article 323 B, dealing with the Tribunals for other matters. Articles 323 A and 323 B differ in the following 3 aspects:
1. While Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of the Tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of the Tribunals for certain other matters.
2. While the Tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by the Parliament, the Tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by the Parliament and the State Legislatures, with respect to the matters falling within their legislative competence.
3. Under Article 323 A, only one Tribunal for the Centre and one for each state, or two or more states may be established. There is no question of hierarchy of the Tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of the Tribunals may be created.

The Malwa Plateau is drained by which of the following rivers?
1. Mahi River
2. Chambal River
3. Betwa River
4. Gandak River
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1, 2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 4 only
  • d)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered  •  17 hours ago
The Malwa Plateau ranges in elevation from about 1,650 feet to 2,000 feet (500 metres to 600 metres). Erosion has carved the ancient lava flows into the isolated mesas found throughout the Plateau, together with an occasional sandstone hill. The western part of the region is drained by the Mahi River, the middle section by the Chambal River and the eastern part by the Betwa River, and the headwaters of the Dhasan and the Ken rivers. Other rivers include the Parbati, the Sipra, the Gambhir and the Choti Kali Sindh, their valleys flanked by terraced slopes. Vegetation is of the savanna type, with scattered teak and sal (Shorea robusta) forests.

The term ‘Kolkhoz’ is related to which of the following?
  • a)
    Steel industry
  • b)
    Agriculture
  • c)
    Port
  • d)
    Climate change
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered  •  17 hours ago
Collective farming or the model of ‘Kolkhoz’ was introduced in erstwhile Soviet Union to improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural production for self- sufficiency.
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