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जलीय पाåरिÖथितकì तंý को िवÖतार से समझाइए?

Nisha Desai answered  •  3 minutes ago
Explanation of Aquatic Biodiversity

Aquatic biodiversity refers to the variety of life that exists in water bodies, including oceans, rivers, lakes, ponds, wetlands, and other bodies of water. It includes all forms of life, from tiny plankton to large whales. Aquatic biodiversity is essential for the health of our planet and supports a wide range of ecosystem services, including ... more
Atul Yadav asked a question

Arrange the given Hills of India from South to North:
1. Mandav Hills
2. Rajmahal Hills
3. Gawilgarh Hills
4. Assia Hills
  • a)
    4, 3, 1, 2
  • b)
    1, 3, 2, 4
  • c)
    4, 2, 1, 3
  • d)
    2, 1, 4, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer this Question

A load bearing brick with a compressive strength of 10Mpa having the dimensions 19*9*9cm then the maximum load capacity of this brick is?

Debolina Yadav answered  •  12 minutes ago
Maximum Load Capacity of a Load Bearing Brick

Introduction
A load bearing brick is a type of brick that is designed to carry the weight of a building, and is typically used in the construction of walls. The compressive strength of a brick is an important factor in determining its load bearing capacity.

Compressive Strength... more
Rahul Rane asked a question

Identify this personality based on the clues given. He joined the English East India Company as a clerk and then later became the first Governor general of India in 1773 
  • a)
    Warren Hastings
  • b)
    William Bentick
  • c)
    Lord Cornwallis
  • d)
    Lord Irwin
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer this Question

Which of the following is not endothermic process?      
  • a)
    Fusion
  • b)
    Vapourisation      
  • c)
     Insoluble heavy impurities
  • d)
    Temperature
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Disha Roy answered  •  1 hour ago
Not Endothermic Process: Insoluble Heavy Impurities

Explanation:
An endothermic process is a process that absorbs energy from its surroundings, usually in the form of heat. This question asks us to identify which of the processes listed is not endothermic.

Fusion:
Fusion is the process of combining two lighter atomic nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a la... more

बहु-क्षेत्रीय तकनीकी और आर्थिक सहयोग के लिए बंगाल की खाड़ी पहल (BIMSTEC) के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:
  1. इसकी स्थापना बैंकाक घोषणा पर हस्ताक्षर करके की गई थी।
  2. इस संगठन के सभी सदस्य देश बंगाल की खाड़ी के साथ सीमा साझा करते हैं।
ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
... more

Debolina Yadav answered  •  1 hour ago
BIMSTEC:

BIMSTEC stands for Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation. It is a regional organization comprising seven countries - India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. The main objective of BIMSTEC is to promote economic cooperation and integration among member countries.

Importance of BIMSTEC:

1. S... more
Nikhil Dhull asked a question

History is about finding out how things were in the past and how things have ________
  • a)
    Changed
  • b)
    Started
  • c)
    Ended/completed
  • d)
    Evolved
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer this Question

What is jet stream and how to do effect indian monsoon?

Kaavya Ahuja answered  •  1 hour ago
Jet Stream and its Effect on Indian Monsoon

Jet stream is a narrow band of fast-moving air currents in the upper atmosphere, typically located at altitudes of 9-16 km. These air currents move from west to east and are caused by differences in temperature between the poles and the equator. In general, the jet stream acts as a barrier between cold air to the north and warm air to the sout... more

Q. Which were the earliest city discovered in India
a)Mohenjo-Daro
b)Lothal
c)Indus
d)Kalibangan
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaavya Tiwari answered  •  1 hour ago
Earliest City Discovered in India: Mohenjo-Daro

Mohenjo-Daro, located in the province of Sindh, Pakistan, is believed to be one of the earliest cities discovered in India. It was a part of the Indus Valley Civilization, which flourished from 2600 BCE to 1900 BCE. The city was discovered in 1922 by archaeologist R.D. Banerji, and later excavated by Sir John Marshall.
... more
Divyansh Datta asked a question

The demand curve for a Giffen good is
  • a)
    upward rising    
  • b)
    downward falling    
  • c)
    parallel to the quantity axis    
  • d)
    parallel to the price axis
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer this Question

The chosen set of dates by the Historians become more vital when the focus is on a
  • a)
    Particular set of events
  • b)
    Particular Location
  • c)
    Particular Battle
  • d)
    Particular King
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Patel answered  •  1 hour ago
Importance of Chosen Set of Dates by Historians

Introduction:
The study of history is incomplete without the knowledge of specific dates and events. The chosen set of dates by historians becomes more vital when the focus is on a particular set of events, location, battle, or king. In this context, this answer will highlight the importance of the chosen set of dates by historians.... more
Tomlin asked a question

Equilibrium price means        
  • a)
    price determined by demand and supply    
  • b)
    price determined by cost and profit    
  • c)
    price determined by cost and production    
  • d)
    price determined to maximise profit
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer this Question

 Records of the past are arranged in which order?
  • a)
    Mathematical
  • b)
    Chronological
  • c)
    Geometrical
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kuldeep Patel answered  •  1 hour ago
Chronological, chronos means time
Samapti Santra asked a question

Consider the following statements with reference to Extraocular vision:
Extraocular vision is the ability of night vision in certain land and marine species.
  • The vision is facilitated by the photoreceptor cells found on the bodies of the species.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 only
    • b)
      2 only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Answer this Question

    Demand of commodity mainly depends upon                    
    • a)
      purchasing will    
    • b)
      purchasing power    
    • c)
      tax policy    
    • d)
      advertisement
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Kaavya Ahuja answered  •  2 hours ago
    Explanation:


    The demand for a commodity refers to the quantity of that commodity that consumers are willing and able to buy at a given price and at a given time period. The demand of commodity mainly depends upon the purchasing power of the consumers. Here is an explanation of how purchasing power affects demand:

    Definition of Purchasing Power:

    ... more

    Which of the following provisions of the Constitution establish political democracy?
    • a)
      Fundamental Rights
    • b)
      Directive Principles of State Policy
    • c)
      Directive Principles of State Policy and Preamble
    • d)
      All of the above
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Gate Funda answered  •  2 hours ago
    • The Fundamental Rights lay down the foundation of political democracy, whereas the Directive Principles lay down the foundation of economic democracy.
    • The freedom of speech and expression, the freedom to form associations or unions, the freedom to assemble peacefully etc., all provide for the operationalisation of a democratic system and are the essential political pillars of a d... more
    • On other hand, the Directive Principles aim at the establishment of the socio-economic democratic system in India. Their aim is to put an end to all sorts of exploitation, and to establish and maintain economic equality in the Indian political system through appropriate legislation by the state.
    Meera Chopra asked a question

    The World Malala Day is designated by United Nations on which day of the year?
    • a)
      11 July
    • b)
      10 July
    • c)
      12 July
    • d)
      9 July
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Answer this Question

    Consider the following statements about the Zero Budget Natural Farming:
    1. It is a set of farming methods that involve zero credit for agriculture and no use of chemical fertilisers.
    2. It is a method of using minimum chemical agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices.
    3. It has attained wide success in southern India, especially the southern Indian state of Karnataka where it first evolved.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    • a)
      1 and 2 only
    • b)
      1 and 3 only
    • c)
      2 and 3 only
    • d)
      1, 2 and 3 
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    C K Academy answered  •  2 hours ago
    Zero Budget Natural Farming, as the name implies, is a method of farming where the cost of growing and harvesting plants is zero. It practices no-till, no chemical use in farming. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
    ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
    What is ZBNF?
    • Zero Budget Natural farming (ZBNF) is said to be “do nothing farming”.
    • It involves the application of nature’s principles in farming.
    • It practises no-till, no chemical use in farming.
    • Alongside, dispersal of clay seed balls to propagate plants is done.
    • The key aspects integral to it and which require locally available materials are:
      • i. seeds treated with cow dung and urine
      • ii. soil rejuvenated with cow dung, cow urine and other local materials to increase microbes
      • iii. cover crops, straw and other organic matter to retain soil moisture and build humus
      • iv. soil aeration for favourable soil conditions
    • These methods are combined with natural insect management methods when required.
    • The ZBNF is a technology of the future with a traditional idiom.

    In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
    • a)
      Biosphere Reserves
    • b)
      National Parks
    • c)
      Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
    • d)
      Wildlife Sanctuaries
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    C K Academy answered  •  2 hours ago
    • In 1970, the Indian Board for Wildlife drafted a national wildlife policy. This policy identified the cause for wildlife depletion and made specific recommendations for wildlife conservation in the country.
    • The major threats to wildlife species and habitats identified were: habitat changes, use of pesticides, lack of legislative support, commercial exploitation, introduction of exotics, poaching, biotic interference, use of crop protection guns and lack of organisation and guidelines for management.
    • The policy recommended that establishment of a central organisation to maintain territorial integrity of wildlife areas and suggested that 4% of total land area be managed as national parks by a central organisation. Following the 1970 policy on wildlife conservation, several major initiatives were taken during the decades of the 70s and early 80s. These included:
    a) The enactment of the Wildlife (protection) Act in 1972. This provides for three categories of protected areas: national parks, sanctuaries and closed areas. However levels of protection afforded in each category differ, as do the degrees of restriction on human activities.
    b)National parks are given highest level of protection, with no grazing and no private land holding or rights permitted within them.
    c)Sanctuaries are given a lesser level of protection, and certain activities may be permitted within them for better protection of wildlife or for any other good and sufficient reason. The state government may declare an area closed to hunting of wild animals for a specified period; other activities are permitted to continue.
    d) Establishment of the central and State Directorates of Wildlife Preservation,
    e)Initiation of major species conservation projects to Project Tiger, Elephant, Rhino, Asiatic Lion, Himalayan musk deer, turtles and crocodile, regulating the export and import of wildlife and their parts and derivatives;

    Statements:
    A. Some envelopes are packets.
    B. Some packets are boxes.
    C. All boxes are parcels.
    Conclusions:
    1. Some parcels are packets.
    2. Some parcels are boxes.
    • a)
      If only conclusion 1 follows.
    • b)
      If only conclusion 2 follows.
    • c)
      If neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.
    • d)
      If both conclusion 1 and 2 follow.
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    Master Training Institute answered  •  2 hours ago
    OR

    निम्नलिखित में से किसने भारतीय संविधान को तैयार करने में सबसे गहरा प्रभाव डाला?
    • a)
      ब्रिटिश संविधान
    • b)
      अमेरिकी संविधान
    • c)
      आयरिश संविधान
    • d)
      भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1935
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    Rohini Seth answered  •  2 hours ago
    भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1935 का संवैधानिक प्रावधान पर सबसे गहरा प्रभाव पड़ा।
    प्रांतीय स्वशासन
    ... more

    When the President's Rule is imposed in a state:
    1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state
    2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament
    3. He can take all other necessary steps excluding the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state
    Choose from the following options.
    • a)
      1 and 2 Only
    • b)
      2 and 3 Only
    • c)
      1 and 3 Only
    • d)
      All of them
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Rohini Seth answered  •  2 hours ago
    The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President's Rule is imposed in a state
    1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state.
    2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
    3. He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state.

    The following line graph shows the ratio of export to import of three companies A, B and C for the period 2005 to 2011.
    Q. If the import of Company A in year 2010 and the export of Company C in year 2011 are 64 lakh and 48 lakh respectively, what is the ratio of the export of A in 2010 to the import of Company C in 2011?
    • a)
      4: 3
    • b)
      3: 2 
    • c)
      1: 1
    • d)
      6: 5
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Manish Aggarwal answered  •  2 hours ago

    Export of Company A = 64 × 1.5 = 96 lakh

    With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:
    It aims to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
  • It was adopted under the aegis of United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
  • It is legally binding on the Parties.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 and 2 only
    • b)
      1 and 3 only
    • c)
      2 only
    • d)
      1, 2 and 3
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Manish Aggarwal answered  •  2 hours ago
    • Statement 1 is correct: CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
    • Statement 2 is not correct: CITES was drafted as a result of a resolut... more
    • Statement 3 is correct: CITES is an international agreement to which States and regional economic integration organizations adhere voluntarily. States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention ('joined' CITES) are known as Parties. Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.

    Who among the following built the “Hazara Rama Temple”, took the title of “Abhinava Bhoja” and wrote Sanskrit Drama “Jambvati Kalyanam”?
    • a)
      Deva Raya
    • b)
      Bukka1
    • c)
      Tirumala
    • d)
      Krishna Deva Raya
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    Manish Aggarwal answered  •  2 hours ago
    Krishna Deva Raya ruled from 1509-1529 AD. He was the third ruler of the Tuluva dynasty. He got the title of “Kanada Rajya Rama Ramana", “Andhra Bhoja'' and “Mooru Rayara Ganda”. Portugese traveller Domingo Paes and Nuniz visited Vijayanagara during his reign. He won Odisha and Vijayanagar emerged strongest during his reign. He built Vijay Mahal and Vithal Swami Temple. His patronised Ashtadiggaja... more

    Consider the following statements.
    1. Temple architecture reached its climax during the Gupta age
    2. Buddhist and Jain art also reached its peak during the Gupta age
    Which of these statements are correct?
    • a)
      1 Only
    • b)
      2 Only
    • c)
      Both of them
    • d)
      Neither of them
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Wizius Careers answered  •  2 hours ago
    Both statements are correct.
    The Gupta period (4th to 6th century AD) is often referred to as the Golden Age of India due to its significant achievements in art, literature, science, and philosophy.
    1. The Gupta period saw remarkable progress in temple architecture. The rock-cut caves of Ajanta, the Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves, and the Dasavatara temple at Deogarh are some examples of Gupta-era temple architecture.
    2. Buddhist and Jain art also flourished during the Gupta age. The Buddhist art of the Gupta period is characterized by its elegance and simplicity, seen in the Buddha images at Sarnath and Bodh Gaya. Jain art of the period is known for its intricate details, seen in the Jain temples at Deogarh and Mathura.
     
     
     

    On premature dissolution of panchayat after 2 years of its constitution :
    • a)
      It will be reconstituted to serve a full term of 5 years
    • b)
      No fresh elections shall take place for remainder of the term
    • c)
      It will be reconstituted to serve the remainder of the period
    • d)
      State legislative assembly shall decide the course of action
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    BT Educators answered  •  2 hours ago
    • 73rd Constitutional Amendment provides for a five-year term of office to the panchayat at every level. However, it can be dissolved before the completion of its term. Further, fresh elections to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed (a) before the expiry of its duration of five years; or (b) in case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the ... more
    • But, where the remainder of the period (for which the dissolved Panchayat would have conyinued) is less than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any election for constituting the new panchayat for such period. Moreover, a Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have connued had it not been so dissolved. In other words, a panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office only for the remainder of the period.

    Operating at their respective constant rates, Photocopying machine B takes 6 minutes more than photocopying machine A to copy x pages. When machines A and B are operated simultaneously, 7x pages can be copied in 20 minutes. In how many minutes can machine A operating alone copy 2x pages?
    • a)
      60/7
    • b)
      8
    • c)
      30/7
    • d)
      4
    • e)
      A unique answer cannot be determined
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Kajal Chopra answered  •  2 hours ago
    Given information:
    - Photocopying machine B takes 6 minutes more than photocopying machine A to copy x pages.
    - When machines A and B are operated simultaneously, 7x pages can be copied in 20 minutes.

    To find:
    - In how many minutes can machine A operating alone copy 2x pages?

    Solution:
    Let's say machine A takes t minutes to copy x pages.
    Then, machine    ... more

    No matter how ordinary or unimportant an incident may be its the reaction or the response that matters taking inspiration from the poets reaction write how inherent values can be picked and learnt dust of snow.
    ?

    Anoushka Reddy answered  •  3 hours ago
    Introduction:
    "Dust of Snow" is a poem written by Robert Frost in which he describes how a simple incident of a crow shaking off snow from a tree branch and it falling on the poet changes his mood. This poem teaches us about the importance of reacting positively to even the smallest of incidents in life.

    Picking up inherent values:
    The incident described in the    ... more

    Which one of the following is not included in the eightfold path of Buddhism?
    • a)
      Right speech
    • b)
      Right contemplation
    • c)
      Right desire
    • d)
      Right conduct
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Neha Sharma answered  •  4 hours ago
    C ) right desire

    ?

    Bhavana Sen answered  •  4 hours ago
    Assuming the related content in a question is important as it helps us understand the context and background of the topic. In this case, assuming the related content of CSAT 2021 Solved Paper, UPSC CSAT 2021 Solved Paper, CSAT Answer Key 2021, and CSAT Preparation helps us in the following ways:

    1. Understanding the exam format and syllabus
    By going through the CSAT 2021 Solved Pap    ... more

    Which of the following are functions to which the scope of the discretionary powers of the Governor is limited?
    1. The appointment of the Chief Minister
    2. The dismissal of the Ministry
    3. The dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
    4. Assent to Bills Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
    • a)
      1, 2 and 3
    • b)
      1, 2, 3 and 4
    • c)
      1, 3 and 4
    • d)
       2, 3 and 4
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    Bhavana Sen answered  •  4 hours ago
    Functions to which the scope of the discretionary powers of the Governor is limited

    The Governor is the constitutional head of a state and has certain discretionary powers. However, these powers are limited by the Constitution of India. Let us discuss the functions to which the scope of the discretionary powers of the Governor is limited:

    1. The appointment of the Chief Minis    ... more

    Consider the following statements about World Heritage Sites.
    1. World Heritage Sites means “Sites any of various areas or objects inscribed on the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) World Heritage List”.
    2. The sites are designated as having outstanding universal value under the Convention concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage.
    Which of these statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 only
    • b)
      2 only
    • c)
      Both of them
    • d)
      Neither of them
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Abhimanu's Ias Study answered  •  4 hours ago
    • World Heritage Sites means “Sites any of various areas or objects inscribed on the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) World Heritage List”.
    • The sites are designated as having outstanding universal value under the Convention concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage.
    This Convention, which was adopted by the UNESCO in 1972 (and enforced in 1975) provides a framework for international cooperation in preserving and protecting cultural treasures and natural areas throughout the world.

    UPSC preparation abhi start ki hai mujhe abhi basic understanding nhi hai ncert ki bilkul bhe detail me class wise or subject wise details chahiye ki kha se shuru karna hai konsi book cover krni hai?

    Sanjana Roy answered  •  5 hours ago
    NCERT Books for UPSC Preparation


    Introduction

    As a beginner, it is essential to have a strong foundation in the basics of all subjects that are included in the UPSC syllabus. The best way to start is by referring to the NCERT textbooks, which provide an in-depth understanding of the concepts.

    Choosing the Right Books

    NCERT books are available for all classes from 6 to 12, covering subjects like History, Geography, Economics, Political Science, Science, and Mathematics. For UPSC preparation, it is recommended to refer to the NCERT books of class 6 to 12. Here is a list of NCERT books that are essential for UPSC preparation:    ... more

    I a s full name?

    Bhavana Sen answered  •  5 hours ago
    Full Name: Explanation

    Introduction:
    A full name is a name that includes both the first name and the last name of an individual. It is a way of identifying a person and distinguishing them from others who may have the same first name.

    Components of a Full Name:
    A full name typically consists of two main components:
    1. First Name: This is the name given to an in    ... more

    ?

    Sanjana Roy answered  •  5 hours ago
    Yes, history is a compulsory subject in UPSC. It is included in the General Studies Paper 1 of the UPSC Civil Services Examination. History plays a crucial role in the preparation of the UPSC exam as it covers a wide range of topics that are relevant to the exam.

    UPSC GS: Topic-Wise Weightage (2019-2016)

    To understand the importance of history in the UPSC exam, let's take a l    ... more

    What was the purpose of dividing the Presidency of Bengal into four divisions by Cornwallis?
    • a)
      To improve administrative efficiency
    • b)
      To deal with criminal cases
    • c)
      To control the Indian soldiers
    • d)
      To spread British power
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    T.S Academy answered  •  5 hours ago
    Cornwallis divided the Presidency of Bengal into four divisions, in each of which a Court of Circuit presided over by civil servants was established. This was done to deal with criminal cases and improve the judicial system in British India.

    Which weapon replaced the cavalry requirements of the Company's army in the 1820s?
    • a)
      Musket
    • b)
      Matchlock
    • c)
      Cannon
    • d)
      Bayonet
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    T.S Academy answered  •  5 hours ago
    As warfare technology changed from the 1820s, the cavalry requirements of the Company's army declined. This is because the British empire was fighting in Burma, Afghanistan, and Egypt where soldiers were armed with muskets, a heavy gun used by infantry soldiers.

    Which Law Commission was appointed by the British Government to codify Indian laws?
    • a)
      Law Commission of 1833
    • b)
      Law Commission of 1853
    • c)
      Law Commission of 1861
    • d)
      Law Commission of 1865
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    K.L Institute answered  •  5 hours ago
    The British Government appointed the Law Commission of 1833, headed by Lord Macaulay, to codify Indian laws. This was an important step towards creating a uniform legal system in India under British rule.

    What was the main reason for excluding Indians from higher grades of services in British India?
    • a)
      Lack of education and skills
    • b)
      Racial discrimination
    • c)
      Fear of rebellion
    • d)
      Corruption
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    T.S Academy answered  •  5 hours ago
    The exclusion of Indians from higher grades of services was a deliberate policy of racial discrimination by the British. This policy was also applied to other branches of government, such as the army, police, judiciary, and engineering.

    In which year were High Courts established in Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay?
    • a)
      1786
    • b)
      1800
    • c)
      1820
    • d)
      1865
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    K.L Institute answered  •  5 hours ago
    High Courts were established in Calcutta, Madras, and Bombay in 1865 to replace the Sadar Courts of Diwani and Nizamat. This was a significant development in the judicial organization of British India.

    Who was responsible for creating the police system in India?
    • a)
      Lord Clive
    • b)
      Warren Hastings
    • c)
      Lord Cornwallis
    • d)
      Lord Wellesley
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    K.L Institute answered  •  5 hours ago
    Lord Cornwallis was responsible for creating the police system in India. He relieved the zamindars of their police functions and established a regular police force to maintain law and order. In this respect, he went back to, and modernized, the old Indian system of thanas.

    Which Charter Act decreed that all recruits to the Civil Service were to be selected through a competitive examination?
    • a)
      Charter Act of 1813
    • b)
      Charter Act of 1833
    • c)
      Charter Act of 1853
    • d)
      Charter Act of 1861
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    K.L Institute answered  •  5 hours ago
    The Charter Act of 1853 decreed that all recruits to the Civil Service were to be selected through a competitive examination. This was a significant change in the recruitment process and aimed to ensure that the best candidates were selected for the civil services.

    In which year did Lord Wellesley establish the College of Fort William?
    • a)
      1786
    • b)
      1800
    • c)
      1820
    • d)
      1853
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    K.L Institute answered  •  5 hours ago
    Lord Wellesley established the College of Fort William at Calcutta in 1800 for the education of young recruits to the Civil Service. The directors of the Company disapproved of his action and in 1806 replaced it with their own East Indian College at Haileybury in England.

    Who laid the foundations of the British administration in India?
    • a)
      Lord Clive
    • b)
      Warren Hastings
    • c)
      Lord Cornwallis
    • d)
      Lord Wellesley
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    K.L Institute answered  •  5 hours ago
    Lord Cornwallis is credited with laying the foundations of the British administration in India through the establishment of the Civil Service, the Army, and the Police. He came to India as Governor-General in 1786 and was determined to purify the administration by enforcing rules against private trade, accepting presents and bribes, and raising the salaries of the Company's servants.

    By 1857, how many medical colleges were there in India?
    • a)
      One
    • b)
      Two
    • c)
      Three
    • d)
      Four
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Academic Studio answered  •  5 hours ago
    By 1857, there were only three medical colleges in India, located in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras. This shows the neglect of scientific and technical education during the early British educational policy in India.

    Consider the following statements regarding the recently constituted High-Powered Committee on Wild Animals:
    1. It will cater to all wild animals in need of rehabilitation or rescue anywhere in India.
    2. Union Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change acts as the Chairman of the committee.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 only
    • b)
      2 only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Academic Studio answered  •  5 hours ago
    The Supreme Court has increased the jurisdiction and powers of a high-powered committee to conduct necessary checks and undertake fact-finding exercises concerning the import, transfer, procurement, rescue, and rehabilitation of wild animals, including those in captivity, across India.
    Why in News?
    • It was initially constituted to oversee the transfer of captive wild elephants from the northeastern States. The ambit of the committee was earlier restricted to Tripura and Gujarat.
    • It will now have a wider responsibility and will cater to all wild animals in need of rehabilitation or rescue anywhere in India
    ... more

    Consider the following statements regarding Fluorescence Microscopy:
    1. It views an object by studying how it re¬emits light that it has absorbed.
    2. It is used to image specific features of small specimens such as microbes.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 only
    • b)
      2 only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Academic Studio answered  •  5 hours ago
    Researchers at the Winona State University, Minnesota, have created a design for a ‘glowscope’, a device that could democratize access to fluorescence microscopy.
    About Fluorescence Microscopy:
    • A fluorescence microscope views an object by studying how it re¬emits light that it has absorbed, i.e., how it fluoresces. This is its basic principle.
    • How it works?
    • The object is illuminated with light of a specific wavelength.
    • Particles in the object absorb this light and re¬emit it at a higher wavelength (i.e., different color). These particles are called fluorophores.
    • The object is infused with fluorophores before being placed under the microscope.
    • When the fluorophores fluoresce, a fluorescent microscope can track them as they move inside the object, revealing the object’s internal shape and other characteristics.
    • Scientists have developed different fluorophores to identify and study different entities, from specific parts of the DNA to protein complexes.
    • Applications:
    • It is used to image specific features of small specimens such as microbes.
    • It is also used to visually enhance 3-D features at small scales.
    • It allows the use of multicolor staining, labeling of structures within cells, and the measurement of the physiological state of a cell.
    • It is the most popular method for studying the dynamic behavior exhibited in live-cell imaging.
    • Different molecules can now be stained with different colors, allowing multiple types of molecules to be tracked simultaneously.
    ... more

    With reference to Macquarie Island, consider the following statements:
    1. It is located to the southeast of Tasmania.
    2. It is designated as UNESCO’s World Heritage site.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 Only
    • b)
      2 Only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Academic Studio answered  •  5 hours ago
    Recently, the Federal government of Australia proposed the expansion of the marine park covering Macquarie Island’s Economic Exclusion Zone.
    • Macquarie Island is located around 1,500km southeast of Tasmania.
    • It is the exposed crest of the 1,600 km-long undersea Macquarie Ridge.
    • This is the only piece of land in the world formed entirely of oceanic crust.
    • Macquarie Ridge is one of only 3 such ridges that impede the Antarctic Circumpolar Circulation.
    • This results in distinct differences between the west and east sides of the ridge, which are used in different ways by different species.
    • Fauna: It is home to 4 species of penguins and 4 species of albatross, the island recorded 57 seabird species.  
    • This Island and its surrounding seas are already protected as a Tasmanian reserve.
    • The area is also designated as a World Heritage Area by UNESCO.
    Hence both statements are correct.

    With reference to the Shri Narayan Guru, consider the following statements:
    1. He was a social reformer who belonged to the state of Tamil Nadu.
    2. A hundred-verse spiritual poem Atmopadesa Śatakam was written by him in the Malayalam language.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 Only
    • b)
      2 Only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Academic Studio answered  •  5 hours ago
    The Prime Minister of India recently paid his respect to Sri Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal on his birth anniversary. 
    • Sri Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal was the pioneer of the social revolutionaries of south India and Kerala.
    • His teachings also affected many social changes in southern India which resulted in the emergence of a series of social and self-respect movements such as Upper cloth agitation, Temple entry movement and other movements including those of Narayana Guru, Chattampi Swamikal, Vallalar and Ayyankali.
    • Narayana Guru was a philosopher, spiritual leader and social reformer in India.
    • He was born into a family that belonged to the Ezhava caste.
    • He led a reform movement against injustice in the caste-ridden society of Kerala to promote spiritual enlightenment and social equality.
    • He published 45 works in Malayalam, Sanskrit and Tamil languages which include Atmopadesa Śatakam(Malayalam), a hundred-verse spiritual poem and Daiva Dasakam, a universal prayer in ten verses.
    Hence only statement 2 is correct.

    With reference to the Urban 20(U20) initiative, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a city diplomacy initiative launched in 2017 during the one Planet Summit in Paris.
    2. The 2023 event of U20 was chaired by the City of Bengaluru.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 Only
    • b)
      2 Only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered  •  5 hours ago
    National Youth Conclave’ is being organized by the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) Affairs on 13-14 March 2023 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
    • The event is organized under the aegis of India’s G20 presidency in 2023, aligning with the Urban20 and Youth20 engagement groups.
    • The National Youth Conclave, which brings together the country’s youth and government leadership, is an opportunity for cross-learning.
    • Urban20 is a city diplomacy initiative launched on December 12, 2017, at the One Planet Summit in Paris.
    • Urban-20 (U20) provides a platform for cities from G20 countries to facilitate discussions on various important issues of urban development including climate change, social inclusion, sustainable mobility, and affordable housing, and propose collective solutions.
    • C40 Cities (C40) and United Cities and Local Governments (UCLG) convene the U20 under the leadership of a Chair city that rotates annually, based in the G20 host country.
    • The U20 2023 Cycle was chaired by the City of Ahmedabad.
    • Ahmedabad will showcase its unique urban development and climate change initiatives and rich culture and heritage to the participants.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.

    Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha:
    1. Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
    2. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the President.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 only
    • b)
      2 only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered  •  5 hours ago
    Constitutional experts and opposition parties have termed the ‘non-election for the post of deputy speaker’ as unprecedented and unconstitutional.
    About Deputy Speaker:
    • Constitutional Provision w.r.t. Office of Deputy Speaker:
    • Article 93 of the Constitution says that the House of the People (Lok Sabha) shall choose two members of the House to be, respectively, Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
    • The article also says that when the office of Speaker/Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker.
    • Election of Deputy Speaker:
    • Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
    • He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
    • The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
    • Term of Office:
    • Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in the office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha. However, he may vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases –
    • if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
    • if he resigns by writing to the Speaker; and
    • if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.
    • Role/Power of Deputy Speaker:
    • The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant.
    • He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker.
    • Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House.
    • He also presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
    • The Deputy Speaker has one special privilege, that is, whenever he is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes its chairman.
    • When the Speaker presides over the House, the Deputy Speaker is like any other ordinary member of the House. He can speak in the House, participate in its proceedings, and vote on any question before the House.
    ... more

    Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC):
    1. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, which tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community.
    2. India is a founding member of the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 only
    • b)
      2 only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered  •  5 hours ago
    The New Yoke Times recently reported that the Pentagon — United States Ministry Of Defence — is blocking any evidence-sharing with the International Criminal Court (ICC) to punish Russia for the alleged atrocities in Ukraine.
    About International Criminal Court (ICC):
    • It is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
    • Background: It was created by the 1998 Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (its founding and governing document), and began functioning on 1 July 2002 when the Statute came into force.
    • Mandate: It investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression.
    • HQ: Hague, Netherlands.
    • Members: 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognize the ICC’s authority; the notable exceptions being the US, China, Russia, and India.
    • Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from the States Parties and by voluntary contributions from Governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
    • Composition:
    • Judges: The court has eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to nonrenewable nine-year terms.
    • The Presidency: Consists of three judges (the President and two Vice-Presidents) elected from among the judges. It represents the Court to the outside world and helps with the organization of the work of the judges.
    • Judicial Divisions: 18 judges in 3 divisions, the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division.
    • Office of the Prosecutor (OTP): OTP is responsible for receiving referrals and any substantiated information on crimes within the jurisdiction of the Court. OTP examines these referrals and information, conducts investigations, and conducts prosecutions before the Court.
    • Registry: The core function of the Registry is to provide administrative and operational support to the Chambers and the Office of the Prosecutor.
    • Jurisdiction of ICC:
    • Unlike the International Court of Justice, which hears disputes between states, the ICC handles prosecutions of individuals. 
    • The ICC is only competent to hear a case if:
    • the country where the offense was committed is a party to the Rome Statute; or
    • the perpetrator's country of origin is a party to the Rome Statute
    • The ICC may only exercise its jurisdiction if the national court is unable or unwilling to do so.
    • The ICC only has jurisdiction over offenses committed after the Statute’s entry into force on 1 July 2002.
    • Relation with UN:
    • While not a United Nations organization, the Court has a cooperation agreement with the United Nations.
    • When a situation is not within the Court’s jurisdiction, the United Nations Security Council can refer the situation to the ICC, granting it jurisdiction.
    ... more

    With reference to Lupus disease, consider the following statements:
    1. It is an autoimmune disease in which the body’s immune system starts attacking its own tissues.
    2. The SLEDAI disease activity index is used for the prognosis of this disease.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 Only
    • b)
      2 Only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered  •  5 hours ago
    Scientists at Trinity College Dublin’s School of Biochemistry and Immunology in the Trinity Biomedical Sciences Institute have made an important breakthrough in understanding what goes wrong in our bodies during the progression of inflammatory diseases.
    • Scientists have found that an enzyme called Fumarate Hydratase is repressed in macrophages, a frontline inflammatory cell type implicated in a range of diseases including Lupus, Arthritis, Sepsis and Covid-19.
    • Lupus is an autoimmune disease in which the body’s immune system starts attacking your own tissues and organs.
    • The condition primarily affects the kidney, but it also has an impact on the skin, blood vessels, connective tissue, heart, brain, and nearly every other organ.
    • It is treated by immunosuppression via drugs such as mycophenolate, azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and rituximab.
    • The SLEDAI disease activity index is used for the prognosis of this disease.
    Hence both statements are correct.

    With reference to the Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols mission, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a joint mission between NASA and the European Space Agency.
    2. The main objective of this mission is to investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most populated cities.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 Only
    • b)
      2 Only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered  •  5 hours ago
    Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announced on Wednesday that it is partnering with the Italian Space Agency ASI (Agenzia Spaziale Italiana) to build and launch the MAIA mission.
    • It is a joint mission between NASA and the Italian Space Agency ASI.
    • This will investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most populated cities.
    • It will consist of the PLATiNO-2 satellite, which will be provided by ASI, and a science instrument that will be built at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL).
    • The MAIA mission will collect and analyse data from the observatory, sensors on the ground and atmospheric models.
    • The JPL hosts a pointable spectropolarimetric camera which captures images from multiple angles in the ultraviolet, visible, near-infrared and shortwave infrared portions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
    • MAIA will focus on 11 primary target areas that include major urban centres across the world: Los Angeles, Atlanta, Boston, Rome, Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, Barcelona, Spain, Beijing, Johannesburg, New Delhi, Taipei, Taiwan; and Tel Aviv.
    Hence only statement 2 is correct.

    With reference to the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC), consider the following statements:
    1. It was established by signing the Bangkok Declaration.
    2. All member countries of this organization share a border with the Bay of Bengal.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 Only
    • b)
      2 Only
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Valor Academy answered  •  5 hours ago
    Recently, the Minister of State for External Affairs participated in the 19th The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Ministerial Meeting virtually from Bangkok.
    • It is a regional organization that was established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration.
    • Member countries: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal.
    • The Chairmanship of BIMSTEC rotates according to the alphabetical order of the English names of the Member States.
    • During the Third BIMSTEC Summit, the Secretariat was established in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
    • All member countries of this organization do not share a border with the Bay of Bengal.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.

    जंगली जानवरों पर हाल ही में गठित उच्चाधिकार प्राप्त समिति के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:
    1. यह भारत में कहीं भी पुनर्वास या बचाव की जरूरत वाले सभी जंगली जानवरों को कवर करेगा।
    2. केंद्रीय पर्यावरण, वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्री समिति के अध्यक्ष के रूप में कार्य करते हैं।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
    ... more

    Valor Academy answered  •  5 hours ago
    सुप्रीम कोर्ट ने भारत भर में कैद में रखे गए जंगली जानवरों सहित जंगली जानवरों के आयात, स्थानांतरण, खरीद, बचाव और पुनर्वास के संबंध में आवश्यक जांच करने और तथ्य खोजने के अभ्यास के लिए एक उच्चाधिकार प्राप्त समिति के अधिकार क्षेत्र और शक्तियों में वृद्धि की है।
    ... more

    फ्लोरेसेंस माइक्रोस्कोपी के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:
    1. यह किसी वस्तु को यह अध्ययन करके देखता है कि यह कैसे प्रकाश को पुन: उत्सर्जित करता है जिसे उसने अवशोषित किया है ।
    2. इसका उपयोग सूक्ष्म जीवों जैसे छोटे नमूनों की विशिष्ट विशेषताओं की छवि के लिए किया जाता है।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
    ... more

    Valor Academy answered  •  5 hours ago
    विनोना स्टेट यूनिवर्सिटी, मिनेसोटा के शोधकर्ताओं ने 'ग्लोस्कोप' के लिए एक डिज़ाइन तैयार किया है, एक ऐसा उपकरण जो प्रतिदीप्ति माइक्रोस्कोपी तक पहुंच का लोकतंत्रीकरण कर सकता है।
    ... more

    मैक्वेरी द्वीप के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:
    1. यह तस्मानिया के दक्षिण-पूर्व में स्थित है।
    2. इसे यूनेस्को की विश्व धरोहर स्थल के रूप में नामित किया गया है।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
    ... more

    Valor Academy answered  •  5 hours ago
    हाल ही में ऑस्ट्रेलिया की संघीय सरकार ने मैक्वेरी द्वीप के आर्थिक अपवर्जन क्षेत्र को शामिल करते हुए समुद्री पार्क के विस्तार का प्रस्ताव रखा।
    ... more

    श्री नारायण गुरु के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:
    1. वे तमिलनाडु राज्य के एक समाज सुधारक थे।
    2. उनके द्वारा मलयालम भाषा में एक सौ छंदों वाली आध्यात्मिक कविता आत्मोपदेशशतकम लिखी गई थी।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
    ... more

    Valor Academy answered  •  5 hours ago
    भारत के प्रधान मंत्री ने हाल ही में श्री अय्या वैकुंठ स्वामीकाल को उनकी जयंती पर सम्मान दिया।
    ... more

    अर्बन 20(U20) पहल के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:
    1. यह पेरिस में एक ग्रह शिखर सम्मेलन के दौरान 2017 में शुरू की गई एक शहर कूटनीति पहल है।
    2. U20 के 2023 आयोजन की अध्यक्षता बेंगलुरु शहर ने की थी।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
    ... more

    Eduskill Classes answered  •  5 hours ago
    नेशनल यूथ कॉन्क्लेव' का आयोजन नेशनल इंस्टीट्यूट ऑफ अर्बन अफेयर्स (NIUA) अफेयर्स द्वारा 13-14 मार्च 2023 को विज्ञान भवन, नई दिल्ली में किया जा रहा है।
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    लोकसभा के उपाध्यक्ष के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:
    1. उपाध्यक्ष का चुनाव लोकसभा स्वयं अपने सदस्यों में से करती है।
    2. डिप्टी स्पीकर के चुनाव की तिथि राष्ट्रपति द्वारा तय की जाती है।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
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    Eduskill Classes answered  •  5 hours ago
    संविधान के जानकारों और विपक्षी दलों ने 'डिप्टी स्पीकर पद के लिए चुनाव नहीं होने' को अभूतपूर्व और असंवैधानिक करार दिया है।
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    अंतर्राष्ट्रीय आपराधिक न्यायालय (आईसीसी) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:
    1. यह संयुक्त राष्ट्र का प्रमुख न्यायिक अंग है, जो अंतरराष्ट्रीय समुदाय के लिए चिंता के सबसे गंभीर अपराधों के आरोपित व्यक्तियों की ट्रायल करता है।
    2. भारत अंतर्राष्ट्रीय अपराध न्यायालय की रोम संविधि का संस्थापक सदस्य है।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
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    Eduskill Classes answered  •  5 hours ago
    द न्यू योक टाइम्स ने हाल ही में बताया कि पेंटागन - संयुक्त राज्य रक्षा मंत्रालय - यूक्रेन में कथित अत्याचारों के लिए रूस को दंडित करने के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय अपराध न्यायालय (आईसीसी) के साथ किसी भी साक्ष्य-साझाकरण को रोक रहा है।
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    ल्यूपस रोग के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:
    1. यह एक ऑटोइम्यून बीमारी है जिसमें शरीर की प्रतिरक्षा प्रणाली अपने ही ऊतकों पर हमला करना शुरू कर देती है ।
    2. इस बीमारी के निदान के लिए SLEDAI रोग गतिविधि सूचकांक का उपयोग किया जाता है।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
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    Eduskill Classes answered  •  5 hours ago
    ट्रिनिटी बायोमेडिकल साइंसेज इंस्टीट्यूट में ट्रिनिटी कॉलेज डबलिन स्कूल ऑफ बायोकैमिस्ट्री एंड इम्यूनोलॉजी के वैज्ञानिकों ने सूजन संबंधी बीमारियों की प्रगति के दौरान हमारे शरीर में क्या गलत हो रहा है, यह समझने में एक महत्वपूर्ण सफलता हासिल की है।
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    एयरोसोल्स मिशन के लिए मल्टी-एंगल इमेजर के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें :
    1. यह नासा और यूरोपीय अंतरिक्ष एजेंसी के बीच एक संयुक्त मिशन है।
    2. इस मिशन का मुख्य उद्देश्य दुनिया के सबसे अधिक आबादी वाले शहरों में वायु प्रदूषण के स्वास्थ्य प्रभावों की जांच करना है।
    ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?
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    Eduskill Classes answered  •  5 hours ago
    हाल ही में नासा(NASA) ने घोषणा की कि वह MAIA मिशन को बनाने और लॉन्च करने के लिए इटैलियन स्पेस एजेंसी (ASI- Agenzia Spaziale Italiana) के साथ साझेदारी कर रहा है।
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    फिलिप्स कर्व के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें
    (i) यह एक ग्राफिक वक्र है जो एक अर्थव्यवस्था में मुद्रास्फीति और बेरोजगारी के बीच संबंधों की वकालत करता है।
    (ii) वक्र बताता है कि उच्च मुद्रास्फीति, बेरोजगारी कम और मुद्रास्फीति कम, बेरोजगारी कम।
    इनमें से कौन सा कथन सही है / सही है?
    • a)
      केवल 1
    • b)
      केवल 2
    • c)
      दोनों 1 और 2
    • d)
      इनमें से कोई भी नहीं
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Abhimanu's Ias Study answered  •  5 hours ago
    • यह एक ग्राफिक वक्र है जो एक अर्थव्यवस्था में मुद्रास्फीति और बेरोजगारी के बीच संबंधों की वकालत करता है।
    • वक्र के अनुसार, मुद्रास्फीति और बेरोजगारी के बीच एक व्यापार बंद है, अर्थात, उनके बीच एक व्युत्क्रम संबंध है।
    • वक्र का सुझाव है कि मुद्रास्फीति कम, बेरोजगारी अधिक और मुद्रास्फीति अधिक, बेरोजगारी कम।
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