Formation of focal brand expectations is a well-accepted part of the pre-purchase choice process. However, whether these same expectations are the standard for post-choice performance evaluation has been questioned. There is very little theoretical justification for consumers using focal brand expectations to judge performance after purchase. Customer satisfaction/dissatisfaction is more likely to be determined by how well a consumer perceives that focal brand performance fulfils needs, wants, or desires.
Importantly, there is no necessary relationship between prepurchase focal brand expectations and the performance required to meet those wants. Thus, consumers are very likely to use other kinds of performance standards in the post-purchase evaluation. Consumers are likely to rely on standards that reflect the performance a consumer believes a focal brand should provide to meet needs/wants. To distinguish these standards from the usual expectations concept, we call them "experience-based norms." These norms have two important characteristics: (1) they reflect desired performance in meeting needs/wants and (2) they are constrained by the performance consumers believe is possible as indicated by the performance of known brands. The second characteristic requires elaboration. Though consumers may imagine some abstract ideal performance that a brand should provide, they also have concrete experiences with various real brands and their performance. Because consumers are more likely to think in concrete rather than abstract terms, experience with real brands should set limits on the performance a consumer believes the focal brand should provide. Consumers may derive a norm from experience with known brands in at least two different ways. First, the norm might be the typical performance of a particular brand - e.g., a consumer's most preferred brand, a popular brand, or last-purchased brand.
Importantly, this brand may not be the focal brand. For example, when evaluating the dining experience in a new restaurant, a consumer may apply a norm that is the typical performance of another, favourite restaurant. Interestingly, focal brand expectations may correspond to this norm, but only if the focal brand is also the brand from which the standard is derived, such as when a consumer dines in his or her favourite restaurant. In all other cases, the norm is necessarily different from expectations because the norm is derived from experience with a different brand. A second possibility is that the norm might be an average performance a consumer believes is typical of a group of similar brands — a product-based norm. This kind of norm may be reasonable when no one brand stands out in the consumer's mind and the consumer has experience with many brands. In general, the experience-based norms concept is significant because it suggests that past research may have attached unwarranted importance to focal brand expectations as the standard of performance influencing feelings of satisfaction.
Q. Which of the following statements, if true, would contradict the second characteristic of “experience-based norms”?
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Satya Veer answered  •  1 hour ago
Solution: The second characteristic states that “experience-based norms” are limited by the performance that consumers believe is possible as indicated by performance of brands known to them. However, if well-known brands outdo each other through their performance, then consumers are not likely to have limited standards for evaluating performance. Therefore, their “experience-based norms” will not be constrained. This points towards option 3 as being the correct answer.
The second characteristic pertains to a standard of performance evaluation for any given brand. Therefore, whether a focal brand is real or not is immaterial to it. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 does not address the point about consumer belief being constrained. Therefore it cannot contradict the second characteristic.
Lowered standards of performance evaluation among consumers do not necessarily contradict the second characteristic. Eliminate option 4.
Option 5 is aligned with the second characteristic and does not contradict it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Group Question
A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The nature and definition of matter have been subject to much debate, as have other key concepts in science and philosophy. Is there a single kind of matter which everything is made of (hyle), or multiple kinds? Is matter a continuous substance capable of expressing multiple forms (hylomorphism), or a number of discrete, unchanging constituents (atomism)? Does it have intrinsic properties (substance theory), or is it lacking them (prima materia)? Without question science has made unexpected discoveries about matter. Some paraphrase departures from traditional or common- sense concepts of matter as “disproving the existence of matter”. However, most physical scientists take the view that the concept of matter has merely changed, rather than being eliminated. One challenge to the traditional concept of matter as tangible “stuff’ is the rise of field physics in the 19th century. However the conclusion that materialism is false may be premature. Relativity shows that matter and energy (including the spatially distributed energy of fields) are interchangeable. This enables the ontological view that energy is prima materia and matter is one of its forms. On the other hand, quantum field theory models fields as exchanges of particles- photons for electromagnetic fields and so on. On this view it could be said that fields are “really matter.”
All known solid, liquid, and gaseous substances are composed of protons, neutrons and electrons. All three are fermions or spin-half particles, whereas the particles that mediate fields in quantum field theory are bosons. Thus matter can be said to divide into a more tangible fermionic kind and a less tangible bosonic kind. However it is now generally believed that less than 5% of the physical composition of the universe is made up of such “matter”, and the majority of the universe is composed of Dark Matter and Dark Energy- with no agreement amongst scientists about what these are made of. This obviously refutes the traditional materialism that held that the only things that exist are things composed of the kind of matter with which we are broadly familiar (“traditional matter”) - which was anyway under great strain as noted above from Relativity and quantum field theory. But if the definition of “matter” is extended to “anything whose existence can be inferred from the observed behaviour of traditional matter” then there is no reason in principle why entities whose existence materialists normally deny should not be considered as “matter.” Some philosophers feel that these dichotomies necessitate a switch from materialism to physicalism. Others use materialism and physicalism interchangeably. 
Q. From the passage, we can conclude that:   
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Padam Singh answered  •  1 hour ago
Solution: From two extracts in the passage, we can observe that traditional materialism is refuted by relativity and the quantum theory: 1. “..traditional materialism that held that the only things that exist are things composed of the kind of matter with which we are broadly familiar (“traditional matter”) - which was anyway under great strain as noted above from Relativity and quantum field theory.” 2. “One challenge to the traditional concept of matter as tangible “stuff’ is the rise of field physics in the 19th century.” Field physics includes relativity and the quantum theory as explained in the third paragraph. Therefore, option 1 can be concluded from the paragraph.
Since the passage states that there is “no agreement amongst scientists about what these are made of,” Dark Matter and Dark Energy can be described as an “ambiguous” field. Therefore, option 2 can be concluded from the paragraph. The passage states that matter and energy are “interchangeable.” Therefore, option 3 can be concluded from the paragraph.
Since options 1,2 and 3 can all be concluded from the passage, the correct answer is option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

A triangular garden has corners named A, B and C such that ​B is a right angle. Side AB is of length 6 m and side AC is of length 12 m. Now a person P moves inside the plot such that APB is always a right angle. What is the length of the path covered by P inside the garden?
  • a)
    4 m
  • b)
    6.28 m
  • c)
    9.28 m
  • d)
    9.42 m
  • e)
    6.6 m
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dharamchand answered  •  1 hour ago
∠Since APB is always a right angle, it must an angle inscribed in a semi-circle with diameter AB. Also, since the length of the hypotenuse of the garden is 12 m and one of the sides is 6 m, the triangle must be a 30-60-90 triangle. Thus, we have 

Arc DB is the path traces by P.
In ΔAED, m∠A = 60° and AE = DE = 3
⇒ m∠D = 60°
⇒ m∠DEB = (60 + 60)° = 120°
As shown in the figure, the length of the path = 120 / 360 x 2 x π x 3 = 6.28m
Hence, option 2.

The fluctuation of currencies of various countries, viz the US Dollar (USD), the British Pound (GBP) and the Euro against the Indian Rupee is shown below. The data is for the period of 1st January to 10th January of a particular year.
Q. Ram entered United States with Rs. 10,000 on 2nd January. He spent $15.30 at the airport. He then left on the same day to reach London. He spent £12 at London airport. He then reached France on 3rd January and spent €30 at the airport. His expenses thereafter were taken care of by his employer. If he reached India on 5th January, how much money in terms of Rupees was left with him?
Assume that he converted all the money that he had to the local currency as soon as he reached another country.
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Paramjit Singh answered  •  1 hour ago
Solution: On 2nd January the conversion rate between the Rupee and the USD is 45.6. 
As he spent $15.30 he would have $204 with him. He then converted his money into pounds in London, thus getting
As he spent £12 there he was left with £111.54 He then reached France on the next day, where he converted his money to Euros.
As he spent €30 on the airport, he was left with €125.87 He came back to India on 5th January when the conversion rate between the Euro and the Indian Rupee was Rs. 54.6. He was left with 125.87 x 54.6 « Rs. 6872.5 Hence, option 4.

Each of the questions below contains a paragraph followed by alternative  summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the paragraph.

After the invasion of Persia by the Mongol Empire, a regional Turko- Perso-Mongol dynasty formed. Just as the eastern Mongol dynasties inter-married with locals and adopted the local religion of Buddhism and the Chinese culture, this group adopted the local religion of Islam and the Persian culture. The first Mughal King, Babur, established the Mughal dynasty in the Indian Subcontinent. Upon invading this region, the Mughals starting with Emperor Akbar inter-married with the local Hindu tribes and Persian settlers creating a dynasty of combined Turko-Persian, Mongolian and Hindu Rajput backgrounds. King Babur and his descendants did this to create peace among the different religions in the region. In accordance to Islamic values, Babur focused on setting a good example for the Mughal Dynasty by emphasizing religious tolerance. 
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Mange Ram answered  •  1 hour ago
Solution: Option 1 is the only option that correctly summarizes facts from the passage without stating elaborate examples or unnecessary information. Option 2 is incorrect because it assumes that the practice of inter-religion marrying was borrowed from the Mongols. This is not mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 is incorrect because it states the example of Akbar’s marriages without hitting the focal point of the passage that is the motive behind such actions.
Option 4 is too extreme and hence incorrect. Words like ‘flourished’ are ideas from outside the passage and should not be a part of this summary. Option 5 incorrectly assumes that the motive behind the Mughal invasion was their need to spread their own religion and learn from the people of the acquired lands.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

A survey conducted in a library shows that 3746 persons like to read thriller novels, 2829 persons like classical novels and 4225 like romantic novels. The number of persons who like both thriller and classical novels but not romantic novels is 30% of the number of persons who like only thriller novels. Number of persons who like both classical and romantic novels but not thriller novels is 50% of the number of persons who like only classical novels. The number of persons who like both thriller and romantic novels but not classical novels is 60% of the number of persons who like only romantic novels. If 108 persons like to read all the three types of novels, then find the total number of persons on whom the survey was done in the library. (All the persons surveyed like at least one of the three types of the novels)
  • a)
  • b)
  • c)
  • d)
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Harpal Singh answered  •  1 hour ago

►Let x, y and z be the number of persons who like to read only thriller, only romantic and only classical novels, respectively.
 x + 0.3x + 0.6y + 108 = 3746. i.e., 13x + 6y = 36380       .......(1)
 z + 0.3x + 0.5z + 108 = 2829. i.e., 3x + 15z = 27210       .........(2)
y + 0.6y + 0.5z + 108 = 4225. i.e., 16y + 5z = 41170        .........(3)  
(3) × 3 –(2) gives 16y – x = 32100                               ..........(4)
(4)× 13 + (1) gives y = 2120, x = 1820 and z = 1450
►Thus the total number of persons who were surveyed in the library
⇒ x + y + z + 0.3x + 0.6y + 0.5z + 108 = 1820 + 1450 + 2120 + 546 + 725 + 1272 + 108 = 8041

Answer the question based on the passage given below.
Just as agriculture appeared in six or seven parts of the world simultaneously, suggesting an evolutionary determinism, so the same is true, a few thousand years later, of cities. Large urban settlements, with communal buildings, monuments and shared infrastructure, started popping up seven thousand years ago in several fertile river valleys.

Q. Which of the following most questions the author’s belief that the appearance of cities is evolutionarily determined?
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Bansilal answered  •  12 hours ago
Solution: Option 1 says nothing for or against the author’s evolutionary determinism theory, so it cannot be the answer.
Option 3 is the author’s evolutionary determinism theory expressed in different words.
The issue isn’t exactly where the cities popped up, but the reason for the popping, so option 4 is irrelevant.
Option 5 denies the cause-effect relation the author seems to be trying to draw, but gives no reasons for the denial, so it is not a very strong argument.
Only option 2 questions the cause-effect relation by suggesting an alternative reason for the simultaneous appearance of cities around the world.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.  
  • a)
    Knives : forks : chef
  • b)
    Scalpel : retractors : surgery
  • c)
    Screws : nails : carpenter
  • d)
    Rod : book : teacher
  • e)
    Brush : palette : painte
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Paramjeet answered  •  12 hours ago
Solution: The relationship among the words is that of association. For example, scalpel and retractors are associated with surgery, and similarly the others too, except option 4 - there is no association between the ‘rod’ and the ‘teacher’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option that follows:
Watching a rocket as it slowly starts to _________ itself out of Earth’s deep gravity well and then streak up into the blue, you suddenly grasp on a _________ level the energies involved in space exploration.
  • a)
    alleviate, subliminal
  • b)
    thrust, perfunctory
  • c)
    release, confounding
  • d)
    detach, profound
  • e)
    heave, visceral
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?

Madan Lal answered  •  12 hours ago
Solution: The statement describes the experience of watching a rocket launch.
The word for the first blank must ascribe to the action of a rocket lifting itself out of the Earth’s gravity well. To “alleviate” means ‘to make easier to endure; lessen; mitigate’. It cannot fit into the first blank. Eliminate option 1. The words provided in the other options can more or less fit the first blank. Hence, in-order to select the correct answer, we must examine the words provided for the second blank. “Perfunctory” means ‘performed merely as a routine duty; hasty and superficial’. Given the positive tone of the statement and the fact that the author has heightened the experience of watching a rocket launch, it seems like an unlikely fit for the second blank. Eliminate option 2.
Similarly, “confounding” meaning ‘to throw into confusion or disorder’ also has a negative connotation. Eliminate option 3. “Detach” may not be the most appropriate term to use for the first blank. Moreover, the author has referred to a sudden feeling for the second blank. Something that is profound is likely to be gradual and deliberated over. “Visceral” meaning ‘characterized by or proceeding from instinct rather than intellect’ makes for a better fit for the second blank. One may be viscerally overwhelmed by looking at a rocket launch. Eliminate option 4.
Option 5 provides the best choices for the blanks.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Madhu asked   •  10 minutes ago

DIRECTIONS for the question : The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
Social movement organizations often struggle to mobilize supporters from allied movements in their efforts to achieve critical mass. Organizations with hybrid identities—those whose organizational identities span the boundaries of two or more social movements, issues, or identities—are vital to mobilizing these constituencies. Studies of the post-9/11 U.S. antiwar movement show that individuals with past involvement in non-anti-war movements are more likely to join hybrid organizations than are individuals without involvement in non-anti-war movements. In addition, they show that organizations with hybrid identities occupy relatively more central positions in inter-organizational contact networks within the antiwar movement and thus recruit significantly more participants in demonstrations than do nonhybrid organizations.
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The newly formed country of CHINDIA is divided into 8 regions - North, South, East, West, North-East, North-West, South-East and South-West. These regions are further classified into states/territories.
Line P divides each region into two sides. The side containing the origin (0, 0) represents the under-developed states, and the other represents the developed states of a particular region. Also, the literacy rate (on a scale of 10) and the net industrial output (in billion dollars) have been shown for each state/territory along the ordinate and the abscissa respectively.
Q. Which of the following could be the correct order of regions placed in descending order of the average literacy rates of their underdeveloped states?
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Jai Bhagwan answered  •  12 hours ago
Solution: For the underdeveloped states, the average literacy rates for various regions are: North = (1 + 1 + 2 + 4)/4 = 2 .South = (1 + 3 + 4 + 3)/4 = 2.75 East = (2 + 3 + 5 + 9)/4 = 4.75 West = (5 + 3 + 2)/3 = 3.33 North-East = (1 + 3 + 6 + 8)/4 = 4.5 South-East = (3+ 4 + 4 + 1 + 1 + 2)/6 = 2.5 South-West = (1 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 4)/6 = 2.67 North-West = (7 + 7 + 8 + 1 )/4 = 5.75 Hence, option 3.

Table 1 shows the percentage breakup of various areas of the Services sector of a country X from 2006 to 2011.
Table 2 shows the details of the constituents of the GDP of country X (in Rs. crore) 
Table 3 shows certain ‘development measures’ of the economy of country X 
*GDP per capita = GDP of the country / population of the country. *Literacy Rate is defined as the literate population of the country as a percentage of the total population of that country.
Q. Consider the statements given below: 
1. The value of exports in 2011 is greater than the value of imports in 2011.
2. The value of 'Others’ in 2011 is more than the value of ‘Tourism’ in 2007.
3. The contribution of ‘IT/ITeS’ in the GDP has been more than that of ‘Miscellaneous’ in the GDP for each year in the given period.
Which of these statements is necessarily true?
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Gurmail Singh answered  •  12 hours ago
Solution: Consider Statement 1: Only the growth rate for imports and exports is given. Since the base value of imports or exports is not known, their value in 2011 cannot be compared.
Thus, statement 1 may or may not be true.
Consider Statement 2: ‘Others’ in 2011 = 4.18% of 167943 
‘Tourism’ in 2007 = 3.58% of 167468 Since 167943 > 167468 and 4.18 > 3.58, ‘Others’ in 2011 > ‘Tourism’ in 2007 Thus, statement 2 is necessarily true.
Consider Statement 3: To compare ‘IT/ITES’ and ‘Miscellaneous’, first check 2010.
This is because the IT/ITeS Sector’s least percentage contribution coincides with the least total value of Services in 2010.
IT/ITES in 2010 = 17.98% of 154863 « 27844
This is less than the value of the miscellaneous sector in 2010 i.e. 28163
So, statement 3 is not necessarily true.
Thus, only statement 2 is necessarily true.
Hence, option 5.

Group Question
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Eifler India's category head, Latika, went into premature labour, 45 days before her due date. Adding to the pain of having her baby in the ICU, parts of her extended family brazenly blamed her for neglecting her pregnancy. While that truth stared everyone in the face, Latika called Netra her senior-most manager in the Home Hygiene section and asked her to hold fort for her at work. She did not want to ask one of her male colleagues as they had a history of not obliging their female colleagues.
The next day was a serious day for Home Hygiene. A two-day Product Concept Development Clinic that Latika had organized, was now going to be handled by Netra. It was a two-day iterative process where the presence of the category manager was critical to evaluate and provide inputs for product design modification. Latika, who would have done this, had not expected to go into premature labour, and Netra now stepping in for her was a load off everyone's chest because the success of this venture was critical to the company. However, Netra’s father developed complications while undergoing a knee replacement surgery and she also needed somebody to fill in for her. Purva, the head of HR of Eifler India decided to approach male managers given that both the female managers Latika and Netra were indisposed. However, they refused claiming that they were already overworked.
Q. What action should Purva take against the male managers?
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Gurmail Singh answered  •  12 hours ago
Solution: Option 1 is defeatist in nature and inconsiderate of Purva. Eliminate option 1.
Offering bonuses would indirectly encourage the insensitivity of the male colleagues. Eliminate option 3.
There is no time to hire new managers and train them in time to take charge of the event. Eliminate option 4.
The situation is very critical and filing a complaint will not yield any immediate results. Purva needs to salvage the situation. Eliminate option 5.
Option 2 is the only feasible course of action.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

If 8A and 9B are factors of 100! then which of the following is the highest possible value of HCF (A, B)?
  • a)
  • b)
  • c)
  • d)
  • e)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Yash Pal answered  •  12 hours ago
Solution: If 8A (or 23A) and 9B (or 32B) are factors of 100!, then each of these two numbers must completely divide 100!. The highest powers of 2 and 3 that divide 100! Completely are given below: 
Value of HCF (A, B) will be maximum when we choose values of A and B as 24 and 24. Thus the maximum value of HCF (A, B) is 24. Hence, option 4.

Asha Rani asked   •  10 minutes ago

DIRECTIONS for the question : Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph and write the key for most appropriate option.
Production and legitimation of scientific knowledge can be approached from a number of perspectives. To study knowledge production from the sociology of professions perspective would mean a focus on the institutionalization of a body of knowledge. The professions approach informed earlier research on managerial occupation, business schools and management knowledge. It however tends to reify institutional power structures in its understanding of the links between knowledge and authority. Knowledge production is restricted in the perspective to the selected members of the professional community, most notably to the university faculties and professional colleges. Power is understood as a negative mechanism, which prevents the non-professional actors from offering their ideas and information as legitimate knowledge.
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Group Question
Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Study the given chart carefully and answer the questions.
Additional Information: The total number of graduates produced when compared to the previous year increased every alternate year starting from 2002 (i.e. 2004, 2006 ...) and decreased in the remaining years.
The total number of graduates placed when compared to the previous years decreased every year from 2002.
Q. What can be the maximum possible number of years from 2003 to 2013 in which the total number of Engineers produced increased over the previous year?
    Correct answer is '6'. Can you explain this answer?

    Dharam Pal answered  •  12 hours ago
    It is given that the total number of graduates placed when compared to the previous years decreased every year from 2002. And further we also have the details of the Engineers placed for each of these years.
    From this we can conclude the following:
    1. The number of Engineers placed would definitely decrease if the share of the number of engineers placed when compared to total graduates placed decreases.
    2. The number of Engineers placed may or may not decrease or increase or remain same, if the share of the Engineers placed increases when compared to the total graduates placed.
    The same theory will also be applicable to the number of Engineers produced also but in alternate years.
    The maximum possible number of years in which the number of engineers produced increased will be 2004, 2006, 2008, 2010, 2012 and 2013, i.e. a total of 6 years.
    Answer: 6

    Sheela Devi asked   •  10 minutes ago

    The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
    Physics is a pure science that seeks to understand the behavior of matter without regard to whether it will afford any practical benefit. Engineering is the correlative applied science in which physical theories are put to some specific use, such as building a bridge or a nuclear reactor. Engineers obviously rely heavily on the discoveries of physicists, but an engineer’s knowledge of the world is not the same as the physicist’s knowledge. In fact, an engineer’s know-how will often depend on physical theories that, from the point of view of pure physics, are false. There are some reasons for this. First, theories that are false in the purest and strictest sense are still sometimes very good approximations to the true ones, and often have the added virtue of being much easier to work with. Second, sometimes the true theories apply only under highly idealized conditions which can only be created under controlled experimental situations. The engineer finds that in the real world, theories rejected by physicists yield more accurate predictions than the ones that they accept.
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    What is the minimum fare that Jyotsna Sharma pays, if she has to travel 18 km boarding all the four types of trains?
    • a)
      Rs. 52.25
    • b)
      Rs. 45.25
    • c)
      Rs. 56.50
    • d)
      Rs. 53.25
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Man Singh answered  •  12 hours ago
    She will pay the minimum fare if she pays for a 4 km ticket for Ekta at Rs. 12, a 4 km ticket for Musorie at Rs. 10, a 4 km ticket for Passenger Train at Rs. 18 and a 7 km ticket for Passenger Express at Rs. 16.5 making a total fare of Rs. (12 + 16.5 + 10 + 18) = Rs. 56.5.

    DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
    We are beginning to witness a paradox at the heart of capitalism, one that has propelled it to greatness but is now threatening its future: The inherent dynamism of competitive markets is bringing costs so far down that many goods and services are becoming nearly free, abundant, and no longer subject to market forces. While economists have always welcomed a reduction in marginal cost, they never anticipated the possibility of a technological revolution that might bring those costs to near zero.
    Industry watchers acknowledge the creeping reality of a zero-marginal-cost economy, but argue that free products and services will entice a sufficient number of consumers to purchase higher-end goods and specialized services, ensuring large enough profit margins to allow the capitalist market to continue to grow. But the number of people willing to pay for additional premium goods and services is limited.
    The unresolved question is, how will this economy of the future function when millions of people can make and share goods and services nearly free? The answer lies in the civil society, which consists of non-profit organizations that attend to the things in life we make and share as a community. What makes this social commons more relevant today is that we are constructing an Internet of Things infrastructure that optimizes collaboration, universal access and inclusion, all of which are critical to the creation of social capital and the ushering in of a sharing economy.
    This zero marginal cost phenomenon is having the highest impact on the labor market, where workerless factories and offices, virtual retailing and automated logistics and transport networks are becoming more prevalent. Not surprisingly, the new employment opportunities lie in the collaborative commons in fields that tend to be nonprofit and strengthen social infrastructure. Many economists argue that the nonprofit sector is not a self-sufficient economic force but rather a parasite, dependent on government entitlements and private philanthropy. Quite the contrary. A recent study revealed that approximately 50 percent of the aggregate revenue of the nonprofit sectors of 34 countries comes from fees, while government support accounts for 36 percent of the revenues and private philanthropy for 14 percent.
    As for the capitalist system, it is likely to remain with us far into the future, albeit in a more streamlined role, primarily as an aggregator of network services and solutions, allowing it to thrive as a powerful niche player in the coming era. We are, however, entering a world partly beyond markets, where we are learning how to live together in an increasingly interdependent, collaborative, global commons.
    Q. As can be inferred from the passage, all of the following industries are threatening to move away from the ambit of market forces, except.
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    Mansa Ram answered  •  12 hours ago
    The first 3 options are industries which have zero marginal costs.
    Apparel industry does not have zero marginal cost.

    Rani Devi asked   •  8 hours ago

    Leena has been working for five years in her current job and normally enjoys it very much. It is a creative and competitive environment, and everyone is, for the most part, encouraging and supportive. After some recent restructuring, however, she is in a new team and is finding one of her colleagues, Ramya, very difficult. She is disruptive, controlling and creates a really bad atmosphere. For example, Ramya will react in a rude and bullying manner when she is under pressure, she hates it when someone else has a good idea and she undermines Leena in front of other colleagues. Unfortunately, she rarely does this in front of their boss. And Ramya fails to understand why her behaviour is such a trouble to the others. 
    Also, their boss is rather erratic, moody and very unapproachable. He is inflexible, arrogant and believes that he is always right. He refuses to take the opinions of the employees into account, thus, treating them as mere puppets. He always takes the credits and avoids blame. He does not give any feedback on the performance of his employees and does not encourage them to develop into competent individuals. Leena herself has been a victim of her boss' behaviour.
    Q. How should Leena deal with her boss?
    ... more

    Dharamchand asked   •  10 hours ago

    Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
    Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry sums are available for excavating and even less is available for publishing the results and preserving the sites once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects every day.
    Second, there is the problem of illegal excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being sold to the highest bidder.
    I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose that scientific archeological expeditions and governmental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and the publication of results. At the same time, they would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal activities.
    You might object that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient artifacts are part of our global cultural heritage, which should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply, everything that comes out of the ground has scientific value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scientific value. Practically, you are wrong.
    I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard, even precious royal seal impressions known as melekh handles have been found in abundance — more than 4,000 examples so far.
    The basement of museums is simply not large enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discovered in the future. There is not enough money even to catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found again and become as inaccessible as if they had never been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer, sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to sale, each could be photographed and the list of the purchasers could be maintained on the computer A purchaser could even be required to agree to return the piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes. It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging would stop if artifacts were sold in the open market. But the demand for the clandestine product would be substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot when another was available whose provenance was known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the professional archaeologist who excavated it?
    Q. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation is based on which of the following assumptions?
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