Neha Makhija asked   •  2 hours ago

Very early in our education we are made familiar with the distinction between verse and prose. The conviction gradually forces itself on us that when we mean what we say we write prose, and that verse is an ingenious but fundamentally perverse way of distorting ordinary prose statements. The conviction does not come to us from school so much as from our accumulated experience of observing prose and verse in action, and embedded in it is the assumption that prose is the language of ordinary speech. But this is not the case. In the history of literature we notice that developed techniques of verse normally precede, sometimes by centuries, developed techniques of prose.
Prose is the expression or imitation of directed thinking or controlled description in words, and its unit is the sentence. It does not follow that all prose is descriptive or thoughtful, much less logical, but only that prose imitates, in its rhythm and structure, the verbal expression of a rational mind. Prose, therefore, is not ordinary speech, but ordinary speech on its best behavior, aware of an audience and with its relation to that audience prepared beforehand. It is the habitual language of fully articulate people who have mastered its difficult idiom. Nonetheless, when they speak, even they will avoid stilted speech or “talking like a book”; their speech rhythm shows the influence of something that is not prose. If we are lost in a strange town and ask someone for directions, even the most articulate person will not respond in prose. We get instead a speech rhythm that is prolix and repetitive, and in which the verbal unit is no more a prose sentence than it is a poetic stanza.
Ordinary speech is concerned mainly with putting into words what is loosely called the stream of consciousness: the daydreaming, remembering, worrying, associating, brooding, and mooning that continually flow through the mind and which we often speak of as thought. This ordinary speech is mainly concerned with self-expression. Whether from immaturity, preoccupation, or the absence of a hearer, it is imperfectly aware of an audience. Full awareness of an audience makes speech rhetorical, and rhetoric means a conventionalized rhythm. The irregular rhythm of ordinary speech may be conventionalized in two ways. One way is to impose a pattern of recurrence on it; the other is to impose the logical and semantic pattern of the sentence. We have verse when the arrangement of words is dominated by recurrent rhythm and sound, prose when it is dominated by the syntactical relation of subject and predicate. Of the two, verse is much the simpler and more primitive type, which accounts for its being historically earlier than prose.
Q. The reasoning employed in which one of the following situations is most analogous to the author’s reasoning in explaining the fact that prose developed later than verse?
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Vishnu asked   •  5 hours ago

Instructions: The passage given below is followed by a question. Choose the most appropriate answer.
In the past, credit for telling the tale of Aladdin has often gone to Antoine Galland, the first European translator of Arabian Nights [which] started as a series of translations of an incomplete manuscript of a medieval Arabic story collection. But, though those tales were of medieval origin, Aladdin may be a more recent invention. Scholars have not found a manuscript of the story that predates the version published in 1712 by Galland, who wrote in his diary that he first heard the tale from a Syrian storyteller from Aleppo named Hanna Diyab.
Despite the fantastical elements of the story, scholars now think the main character may actually be based on a real person’s real experiences. Though Galland never credited Diyab in his published translations of the Arabian Nights stories, Diyab wrote something of his own: a travelogue penned in the mid-18th century. In it, he recalls telling Galland the story of Aladdin [and] describes his own hard-knocks upbringing and the way he marvelled at the extravagance of Versailles. The descriptions he uses were very similar to the descriptions of the lavish palace that ended up in Galland’s version of the Aladdin story. [Therefore, author Paulo Lemos] Horta believes that “Aladdin might be the young Arab Maronite from Aleppo, marvelling at the jewels and riches of Versailles.”
For 300 years, scholars thought that the rags-to-riches story of Aladdin might have been inspired by the plots of French fairy tales that came out around the same time, or that the story was invented in that 18th century period as a byproduct of French Orientalism, a fascination with stereotypical exotic Middle Eastern luxuries that were prevalent then. The idea that Diyab might have based it on his own life — the experiences of a Middle Eastern man encountering the French, not vice-versa — flips the script. [According to Horta,] “Diyab was ideally placed to embody the overlapping world of East and West, blending the storytelling traditions of his homeland with his youthful observations of the wonder of 18th-century France.”
To the scholars who study the tale, its narrative drama isn’t the only reason storytellers keep finding a reason to return to Aladdin. It reflects not only “a history of the French and the Middle East, but also [a story about] Middle Easterners coming to Paris and that speaks to our world today,” as Horta puts it. “The day Diyab told the story of Aladdin to Galland, there were riots due to food shortages during the winter and spring of 1708 to 1709, and Diyab was sensitive to those people in a way that Galland is not. When you read this diary, you see this solidarity among the Arabs who were in Paris at the time. There is little in the writings of Galland that would suggest that he was capable of developing a character like Aladdin with sympathy, but Diyab’s memoir reveals a narrator adept at capturing the distinctive psychology of a young protagonist, as well as recognizing the kinds of injustices and opportunities that can transform the path of any youthful adventurer.”
Q. Which of the following, if true, would invalidate the inversion that the phrase “flips the script” refers to?
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