IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) - 2001 | GATE, ISRO & IES/ESE Previous Year Solved Papers - Mechanical Engineering PDF Download

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 1 of 14
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. A new facility has to be designed to do all 
the welding for 3 products: A, B and C. 
Per unit welding time for each product is 
20 s, 40 s and 50 s respectively. Daily 
demand forecast for product A is 450, for 
B is 360 and for C is 240. A welding line 
can operate efficiently for 220 minutes a 
day. Number of welding lines required is 
a. 5  
b. 4 
c. 3  
d. 2 
2. Consider the following statements: 
Control chart for variables provides the 
1. basic variability of the quality 
characteristic. 
2. consistency of performance. 
3. number of products falling outside the 
tolerance limits. 
Which of these statements are correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 3 
3. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I (OR- technique) 
A. Branch and Bound technique 
B. Expected value approach 
C. Smoothing and Levelling 
D. Exponential distribution 
List II (Model) 
1. PERT and CPM 
2. Integer programming 
3. Queuing theory 
4. Decision theory 
   A B C D 
a.   2 1 4 3 
b.   2 4 1 3 
c.   3 4 1 2 
d.   3 1 4 2 
4. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer : 
List I 
A. Decision making under complete 
certainty 
B. Decision making under risk 
C. Decision making under complete 
uncertainty 
D. Decision making based on expert 
opinion 
List II 
1. Delphi approach 
2. Maximax criterion 
3. Transportation model 
4. Decision tree 
   A B C D 
a.   3 4 1 2 
b.   4 3 2 1 
c.   3 4 2 1 
d.   4 3 1 2 
5. During manufacture of cement, the 
handling of limestone is done by 
a. belt conveyor 
b. bucket conveyor 
c. overhead crane 
d. fork-lift crane 
6. Consider the following statements 
regarding linear programming: 
1. Dual of a dual is the primal. 
2. When two minimum ratios of the right-
hand side to the coefficient in the key 
column are equal, degeneracy may 
take place. 
3. When an artificial variable leaves the 
basis, its column can be deleted from 
he subsequent Simplex tables. 
Select the correct answer from the codes 
given below: 
a. 1, 2 and 3  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3  
d. 1 and 3 
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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Page 2


 1 of 14
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. A new facility has to be designed to do all 
the welding for 3 products: A, B and C. 
Per unit welding time for each product is 
20 s, 40 s and 50 s respectively. Daily 
demand forecast for product A is 450, for 
B is 360 and for C is 240. A welding line 
can operate efficiently for 220 minutes a 
day. Number of welding lines required is 
a. 5  
b. 4 
c. 3  
d. 2 
2. Consider the following statements: 
Control chart for variables provides the 
1. basic variability of the quality 
characteristic. 
2. consistency of performance. 
3. number of products falling outside the 
tolerance limits. 
Which of these statements are correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 3 
3. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I (OR- technique) 
A. Branch and Bound technique 
B. Expected value approach 
C. Smoothing and Levelling 
D. Exponential distribution 
List II (Model) 
1. PERT and CPM 
2. Integer programming 
3. Queuing theory 
4. Decision theory 
   A B C D 
a.   2 1 4 3 
b.   2 4 1 3 
c.   3 4 1 2 
d.   3 1 4 2 
4. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer : 
List I 
A. Decision making under complete 
certainty 
B. Decision making under risk 
C. Decision making under complete 
uncertainty 
D. Decision making based on expert 
opinion 
List II 
1. Delphi approach 
2. Maximax criterion 
3. Transportation model 
4. Decision tree 
   A B C D 
a.   3 4 1 2 
b.   4 3 2 1 
c.   3 4 2 1 
d.   4 3 1 2 
5. During manufacture of cement, the 
handling of limestone is done by 
a. belt conveyor 
b. bucket conveyor 
c. overhead crane 
d. fork-lift crane 
6. Consider the following statements 
regarding linear programming: 
1. Dual of a dual is the primal. 
2. When two minimum ratios of the right-
hand side to the coefficient in the key 
column are equal, degeneracy may 
take place. 
3. When an artificial variable leaves the 
basis, its column can be deleted from 
he subsequent Simplex tables. 
Select the correct answer from the codes 
given below: 
a. 1, 2 and 3  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3  
d. 1 and 3 
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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7. Latest start time of an activity in CPM is 
the 
a. latest occurrence time of the successor 
event minus the duration of the activity 
b. earliest occurrence time for the 
predecessor event plus the duration of 
the activity 
c. latest occurrence time of the successor 
event 
d. earliest occurrence time for the 
predecessor event 
8.  
 
For the network shown in the given figure, 
the earliest expected completion time of 
the project is 
a. 26 days 
b. 27 days 
c. 30 days 
d. indeterminable 
9. Arrivals at a telephone booth are 
considered to be according to Poisson 
distribution, with an average time of 10 
minutes between one arrival and the next. 
The length of a phone call is assumed to be 
distributed exponentially with mean of 3 
minutes. The probability that a person 
arriving at the booth will have to wait, is 
a. 3/10 
b. 7/10 
c. 7/30 
d. 13/30 
10.  
 
For the given flowchart, if input X = 3, 
then the printed value of SUM is  
a. 12  
b. 39  
c. 120  
d. 363 
11. Which of the following hand-motion 
belongs to Therbligs’ in motion study ? 
1. Unavoidable delay  
2. a Pre-position 
3. Select  
4. Reach 
Select the correct answer using the codes 
given below : 
a. 1 and 4  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 1, 2 and 3  
d. 2, 3 and 4 
12. Which one of the following combinations 
is valid for product layout? 
a. General purpose machine and skilled 
labour 
b. General purpose machine and 
unskilled labour 
c. Special purpose machine and 
semiskilled labour 
d. Special purpose machine and skilled 
labour 
13. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I 
A. OC curve 
B. AOQL 
C. Binomial distribution 
D. Normal curve 
List II 
1. Acceptance sampling 
2. Dodge Romig table 
3. p-charts 
4. Control charts for variables 
   A B C D  
a.   1 2 3 4 
b.   1 3 2 4 
c.   4 2 3 1 
d.   4 3 2 1  
14. Dispatching function of production, 
planning & control is 
a. the dispatch of finished goods on order 
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 1 of 14
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. A new facility has to be designed to do all 
the welding for 3 products: A, B and C. 
Per unit welding time for each product is 
20 s, 40 s and 50 s respectively. Daily 
demand forecast for product A is 450, for 
B is 360 and for C is 240. A welding line 
can operate efficiently for 220 minutes a 
day. Number of welding lines required is 
a. 5  
b. 4 
c. 3  
d. 2 
2. Consider the following statements: 
Control chart for variables provides the 
1. basic variability of the quality 
characteristic. 
2. consistency of performance. 
3. number of products falling outside the 
tolerance limits. 
Which of these statements are correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 3 
3. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I (OR- technique) 
A. Branch and Bound technique 
B. Expected value approach 
C. Smoothing and Levelling 
D. Exponential distribution 
List II (Model) 
1. PERT and CPM 
2. Integer programming 
3. Queuing theory 
4. Decision theory 
   A B C D 
a.   2 1 4 3 
b.   2 4 1 3 
c.   3 4 1 2 
d.   3 1 4 2 
4. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer : 
List I 
A. Decision making under complete 
certainty 
B. Decision making under risk 
C. Decision making under complete 
uncertainty 
D. Decision making based on expert 
opinion 
List II 
1. Delphi approach 
2. Maximax criterion 
3. Transportation model 
4. Decision tree 
   A B C D 
a.   3 4 1 2 
b.   4 3 2 1 
c.   3 4 2 1 
d.   4 3 1 2 
5. During manufacture of cement, the 
handling of limestone is done by 
a. belt conveyor 
b. bucket conveyor 
c. overhead crane 
d. fork-lift crane 
6. Consider the following statements 
regarding linear programming: 
1. Dual of a dual is the primal. 
2. When two minimum ratios of the right-
hand side to the coefficient in the key 
column are equal, degeneracy may 
take place. 
3. When an artificial variable leaves the 
basis, its column can be deleted from 
he subsequent Simplex tables. 
Select the correct answer from the codes 
given below: 
a. 1, 2 and 3  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3  
d. 1 and 3 
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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7. Latest start time of an activity in CPM is 
the 
a. latest occurrence time of the successor 
event minus the duration of the activity 
b. earliest occurrence time for the 
predecessor event plus the duration of 
the activity 
c. latest occurrence time of the successor 
event 
d. earliest occurrence time for the 
predecessor event 
8.  
 
For the network shown in the given figure, 
the earliest expected completion time of 
the project is 
a. 26 days 
b. 27 days 
c. 30 days 
d. indeterminable 
9. Arrivals at a telephone booth are 
considered to be according to Poisson 
distribution, with an average time of 10 
minutes between one arrival and the next. 
The length of a phone call is assumed to be 
distributed exponentially with mean of 3 
minutes. The probability that a person 
arriving at the booth will have to wait, is 
a. 3/10 
b. 7/10 
c. 7/30 
d. 13/30 
10.  
 
For the given flowchart, if input X = 3, 
then the printed value of SUM is  
a. 12  
b. 39  
c. 120  
d. 363 
11. Which of the following hand-motion 
belongs to Therbligs’ in motion study ? 
1. Unavoidable delay  
2. a Pre-position 
3. Select  
4. Reach 
Select the correct answer using the codes 
given below : 
a. 1 and 4  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 1, 2 and 3  
d. 2, 3 and 4 
12. Which one of the following combinations 
is valid for product layout? 
a. General purpose machine and skilled 
labour 
b. General purpose machine and 
unskilled labour 
c. Special purpose machine and 
semiskilled labour 
d. Special purpose machine and skilled 
labour 
13. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I 
A. OC curve 
B. AOQL 
C. Binomial distribution 
D. Normal curve 
List II 
1. Acceptance sampling 
2. Dodge Romig table 
3. p-charts 
4. Control charts for variables 
   A B C D  
a.   1 2 3 4 
b.   1 3 2 4 
c.   4 2 3 1 
d.   4 3 2 1  
14. Dispatching function of production, 
planning & control is 
a. the dispatch of finished goods on order 
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b. the movement of in-process material 
from shop to shop 
c. authorising a production work order to 
be launched 
d. the dispatch of bills and invoice to the 
customers 
15. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I (Charts) 
A. Standard process Sheet 
B. Multiple activity chart 
C. Right and left hand operation chart 
D. SIMO chart 
List II (Operations/Informations) 
1. Operations involving assembly and 
inspection without machine 
2. Operations involving the combination 
of men and machines 
3. Work measurement 
4. Basic information for routing 
Therbligs 
   A B C D 
a.    4 3 1 2 
b.   1 2 4 5 
c.   1 3 4 2 
d.   4 2 1 5  
16. If ? is the rake angle of the cutting tool, ? 
is the shear angle and V is the cutting 
velocity, then the velocity of chip sliding 
along the shear plane is given by 
a. 
cos
cos( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
b. 
sin
cos( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
c. 
cos
sin( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
d. 
sin
sin( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
17. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer :  
List I (Cutting Tools) 
A. Trepanning tool 
B. Side milling cutter 
C. Hob cutter 
D. Abrasive sticks 
List II (Applications) 
1. For surface finishing by honing 
2. for machining gears 
3. For cutting keyways in shafts 
4. For drilling large diameter holes 
   A B C D 
a.   1 3 2 4 
b.   4 3 2 1 
c.   1 2 3 4 
d.   4 2 3 1  
18. Dry and compressed air is used as cutting 
fluid for machining 
a. steel  
b. aluminium 
c. cast iron 
d. brass 
19. For cutting of brass with single-point 
cutting tool on a lathe, tool should have  
a. Negative rake angle 
b. positive rake angle 
c. zero rake angle 
d. zero side relief angle 
20. Power consumption in metal cutting is 
mainly due to 
a. tangential component of the force 
b. longitudinal component of the force 
c. normal component of the force 
d. friction at the metal-toot interface 
21. In a shaper machine, the mechanism for 
tool feed is 
a. Geneva mechanism 
b. Whitworth mechanism 
c. Ratchet and Pawl mechanism 
d. Ward-Leonard system 
22. Match List I with List II and select The 
correct answer: 
List I (Components) 
A. Car body (metal) 
B. Clutch lining 
C. Gears 
D. Engine block 
List II (Manufacturing Processes) 
1. Machining 
2. Casting  
3. Sheetmetal pressing 
4. powder metallurgy 
   A B C D 
a.   3 4 2 1 
b.   4 3 1 2 
c.   4 3 2 1 
d.   3 4 1 2 
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 1 of 14
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. A new facility has to be designed to do all 
the welding for 3 products: A, B and C. 
Per unit welding time for each product is 
20 s, 40 s and 50 s respectively. Daily 
demand forecast for product A is 450, for 
B is 360 and for C is 240. A welding line 
can operate efficiently for 220 minutes a 
day. Number of welding lines required is 
a. 5  
b. 4 
c. 3  
d. 2 
2. Consider the following statements: 
Control chart for variables provides the 
1. basic variability of the quality 
characteristic. 
2. consistency of performance. 
3. number of products falling outside the 
tolerance limits. 
Which of these statements are correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 3 
3. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I (OR- technique) 
A. Branch and Bound technique 
B. Expected value approach 
C. Smoothing and Levelling 
D. Exponential distribution 
List II (Model) 
1. PERT and CPM 
2. Integer programming 
3. Queuing theory 
4. Decision theory 
   A B C D 
a.   2 1 4 3 
b.   2 4 1 3 
c.   3 4 1 2 
d.   3 1 4 2 
4. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer : 
List I 
A. Decision making under complete 
certainty 
B. Decision making under risk 
C. Decision making under complete 
uncertainty 
D. Decision making based on expert 
opinion 
List II 
1. Delphi approach 
2. Maximax criterion 
3. Transportation model 
4. Decision tree 
   A B C D 
a.   3 4 1 2 
b.   4 3 2 1 
c.   3 4 2 1 
d.   4 3 1 2 
5. During manufacture of cement, the 
handling of limestone is done by 
a. belt conveyor 
b. bucket conveyor 
c. overhead crane 
d. fork-lift crane 
6. Consider the following statements 
regarding linear programming: 
1. Dual of a dual is the primal. 
2. When two minimum ratios of the right-
hand side to the coefficient in the key 
column are equal, degeneracy may 
take place. 
3. When an artificial variable leaves the 
basis, its column can be deleted from 
he subsequent Simplex tables. 
Select the correct answer from the codes 
given below: 
a. 1, 2 and 3  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3  
d. 1 and 3 
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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7. Latest start time of an activity in CPM is 
the 
a. latest occurrence time of the successor 
event minus the duration of the activity 
b. earliest occurrence time for the 
predecessor event plus the duration of 
the activity 
c. latest occurrence time of the successor 
event 
d. earliest occurrence time for the 
predecessor event 
8.  
 
For the network shown in the given figure, 
the earliest expected completion time of 
the project is 
a. 26 days 
b. 27 days 
c. 30 days 
d. indeterminable 
9. Arrivals at a telephone booth are 
considered to be according to Poisson 
distribution, with an average time of 10 
minutes between one arrival and the next. 
The length of a phone call is assumed to be 
distributed exponentially with mean of 3 
minutes. The probability that a person 
arriving at the booth will have to wait, is 
a. 3/10 
b. 7/10 
c. 7/30 
d. 13/30 
10.  
 
For the given flowchart, if input X = 3, 
then the printed value of SUM is  
a. 12  
b. 39  
c. 120  
d. 363 
11. Which of the following hand-motion 
belongs to Therbligs’ in motion study ? 
1. Unavoidable delay  
2. a Pre-position 
3. Select  
4. Reach 
Select the correct answer using the codes 
given below : 
a. 1 and 4  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 1, 2 and 3  
d. 2, 3 and 4 
12. Which one of the following combinations 
is valid for product layout? 
a. General purpose machine and skilled 
labour 
b. General purpose machine and 
unskilled labour 
c. Special purpose machine and 
semiskilled labour 
d. Special purpose machine and skilled 
labour 
13. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I 
A. OC curve 
B. AOQL 
C. Binomial distribution 
D. Normal curve 
List II 
1. Acceptance sampling 
2. Dodge Romig table 
3. p-charts 
4. Control charts for variables 
   A B C D  
a.   1 2 3 4 
b.   1 3 2 4 
c.   4 2 3 1 
d.   4 3 2 1  
14. Dispatching function of production, 
planning & control is 
a. the dispatch of finished goods on order 
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b. the movement of in-process material 
from shop to shop 
c. authorising a production work order to 
be launched 
d. the dispatch of bills and invoice to the 
customers 
15. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I (Charts) 
A. Standard process Sheet 
B. Multiple activity chart 
C. Right and left hand operation chart 
D. SIMO chart 
List II (Operations/Informations) 
1. Operations involving assembly and 
inspection without machine 
2. Operations involving the combination 
of men and machines 
3. Work measurement 
4. Basic information for routing 
Therbligs 
   A B C D 
a.    4 3 1 2 
b.   1 2 4 5 
c.   1 3 4 2 
d.   4 2 1 5  
16. If ? is the rake angle of the cutting tool, ? 
is the shear angle and V is the cutting 
velocity, then the velocity of chip sliding 
along the shear plane is given by 
a. 
cos
cos( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
b. 
sin
cos( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
c. 
cos
sin( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
d. 
sin
sin( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
17. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer :  
List I (Cutting Tools) 
A. Trepanning tool 
B. Side milling cutter 
C. Hob cutter 
D. Abrasive sticks 
List II (Applications) 
1. For surface finishing by honing 
2. for machining gears 
3. For cutting keyways in shafts 
4. For drilling large diameter holes 
   A B C D 
a.   1 3 2 4 
b.   4 3 2 1 
c.   1 2 3 4 
d.   4 2 3 1  
18. Dry and compressed air is used as cutting 
fluid for machining 
a. steel  
b. aluminium 
c. cast iron 
d. brass 
19. For cutting of brass with single-point 
cutting tool on a lathe, tool should have  
a. Negative rake angle 
b. positive rake angle 
c. zero rake angle 
d. zero side relief angle 
20. Power consumption in metal cutting is 
mainly due to 
a. tangential component of the force 
b. longitudinal component of the force 
c. normal component of the force 
d. friction at the metal-toot interface 
21. In a shaper machine, the mechanism for 
tool feed is 
a. Geneva mechanism 
b. Whitworth mechanism 
c. Ratchet and Pawl mechanism 
d. Ward-Leonard system 
22. Match List I with List II and select The 
correct answer: 
List I (Components) 
A. Car body (metal) 
B. Clutch lining 
C. Gears 
D. Engine block 
List II (Manufacturing Processes) 
1. Machining 
2. Casting  
3. Sheetmetal pressing 
4. powder metallurgy 
   A B C D 
a.   3 4 2 1 
b.   4 3 1 2 
c.   4 3 2 1 
d.   3 4 1 2 
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23. The marking on a grinding wheel is ‘51 A 
36’ L 5 V 93’. The code ‘36’ represents 
the  
a. Structure 
b. Grade 
c. Gain size 
d. Manufacturer’s number 
24. In the forging operation, fullering is done 
to 
a. draw out the, material 
b. bend the material 
c. upset the material 
d. extrude the material 
25. The main purpose of chaplets is 
a. to ensure directional solidification 
b. to provide efficient venting 
c. for aligning the mold boxes 
d. to support the cores 
26. Scrab is a 
a. sand casting defect  
b. maching defect 
c. welding defect  
d. forging defect 
27. Specific cutting energy is more in grinding 
process compared to turning because 
a. grinding (cutting) speed is higher 
b. the wheel has multiple cutting edges 
(grains) 
c. ploughing force is significant due to 
small chip size 
d. grinding wheel undergoes continuous 
wear 
28. The maximum heat in resistance, welding 
is at the 
a. tip of the positive electrode  
b. tip of the negative electrode  
c. top surface of the plate at the time of 
electric contact with the electrode 
d. interface between the two plates being 
joined 
29. Arc blow is more common in 
a. a.c. welding 
b. d.c. welding with straight polarity 
c. d.c. welding with bare electrodes 
d. a.c. welding with bare electrodes 
30. Pinch effect in welding is the result of 
a. expansion of gases in the arc 
b. electromagnetic forces 
c. electric force 
d. surface tension of the molten metal 
31. In manual arc welding, the equipment 
should have drooping characteristics in 
order to maintain the 
a. voltage constant when arc length 
changes 
b. current constant when arc length 
changes 
c. temperature in the arc constant 
d. weld pool red-hot 
32. In arc welding, dc. reverse polarity is used 
to bear greater advantage in 
a. overhead welding 
b. flat welding of lap joints 
c. edge welding 
d. flat welding of butt joints 
33. Which of the following assumptions are 
correct for cold rolling ? 
1. The material is plastic. 
2. The arc of contact is circular with a 
radius greater than the radius of the 
roll. 
3. Coefficient of friction is contact over 
the arc of contact and acts in one 
direction throughout the arc of contact. 
Select the correct answer using the codes 
given below: 
a. 1 and 2  
b. 1 and 3 
c. 2 and 3  
d. 1, 2 and 3 
34. A strip is to be rolled from a thickness of 
30 mm to 15 mm using a two-high mill 
having rolls of diameter 300 mm. The 
coefficient of friction for unaided bite 
should nearly be 
a. 0.35  
b. 0.5 
c. 0.25  
d. 0.07 
35. Which of the following statements are the 
salient features of hydrostatic extrusion? 
1. It is suitable for soft and ductile 
material. 
2. It is suitable for high-strength super-
alloys 
3. The billet is inserted into the extrusion 
chamber and pressure is applied by a 
ram to extrude the ballet through the 
die. 
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 1 of 14
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. A new facility has to be designed to do all 
the welding for 3 products: A, B and C. 
Per unit welding time for each product is 
20 s, 40 s and 50 s respectively. Daily 
demand forecast for product A is 450, for 
B is 360 and for C is 240. A welding line 
can operate efficiently for 220 minutes a 
day. Number of welding lines required is 
a. 5  
b. 4 
c. 3  
d. 2 
2. Consider the following statements: 
Control chart for variables provides the 
1. basic variability of the quality 
characteristic. 
2. consistency of performance. 
3. number of products falling outside the 
tolerance limits. 
Which of these statements are correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 3 
3. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I (OR- technique) 
A. Branch and Bound technique 
B. Expected value approach 
C. Smoothing and Levelling 
D. Exponential distribution 
List II (Model) 
1. PERT and CPM 
2. Integer programming 
3. Queuing theory 
4. Decision theory 
   A B C D 
a.   2 1 4 3 
b.   2 4 1 3 
c.   3 4 1 2 
d.   3 1 4 2 
4. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer : 
List I 
A. Decision making under complete 
certainty 
B. Decision making under risk 
C. Decision making under complete 
uncertainty 
D. Decision making based on expert 
opinion 
List II 
1. Delphi approach 
2. Maximax criterion 
3. Transportation model 
4. Decision tree 
   A B C D 
a.   3 4 1 2 
b.   4 3 2 1 
c.   3 4 2 1 
d.   4 3 1 2 
5. During manufacture of cement, the 
handling of limestone is done by 
a. belt conveyor 
b. bucket conveyor 
c. overhead crane 
d. fork-lift crane 
6. Consider the following statements 
regarding linear programming: 
1. Dual of a dual is the primal. 
2. When two minimum ratios of the right-
hand side to the coefficient in the key 
column are equal, degeneracy may 
take place. 
3. When an artificial variable leaves the 
basis, its column can be deleted from 
he subsequent Simplex tables. 
Select the correct answer from the codes 
given below: 
a. 1, 2 and 3  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 2 and 3  
d. 1 and 3 
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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7. Latest start time of an activity in CPM is 
the 
a. latest occurrence time of the successor 
event minus the duration of the activity 
b. earliest occurrence time for the 
predecessor event plus the duration of 
the activity 
c. latest occurrence time of the successor 
event 
d. earliest occurrence time for the 
predecessor event 
8.  
 
For the network shown in the given figure, 
the earliest expected completion time of 
the project is 
a. 26 days 
b. 27 days 
c. 30 days 
d. indeterminable 
9. Arrivals at a telephone booth are 
considered to be according to Poisson 
distribution, with an average time of 10 
minutes between one arrival and the next. 
The length of a phone call is assumed to be 
distributed exponentially with mean of 3 
minutes. The probability that a person 
arriving at the booth will have to wait, is 
a. 3/10 
b. 7/10 
c. 7/30 
d. 13/30 
10.  
 
For the given flowchart, if input X = 3, 
then the printed value of SUM is  
a. 12  
b. 39  
c. 120  
d. 363 
11. Which of the following hand-motion 
belongs to Therbligs’ in motion study ? 
1. Unavoidable delay  
2. a Pre-position 
3. Select  
4. Reach 
Select the correct answer using the codes 
given below : 
a. 1 and 4  
b. 1 and 2 
c. 1, 2 and 3  
d. 2, 3 and 4 
12. Which one of the following combinations 
is valid for product layout? 
a. General purpose machine and skilled 
labour 
b. General purpose machine and 
unskilled labour 
c. Special purpose machine and 
semiskilled labour 
d. Special purpose machine and skilled 
labour 
13. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I 
A. OC curve 
B. AOQL 
C. Binomial distribution 
D. Normal curve 
List II 
1. Acceptance sampling 
2. Dodge Romig table 
3. p-charts 
4. Control charts for variables 
   A B C D  
a.   1 2 3 4 
b.   1 3 2 4 
c.   4 2 3 1 
d.   4 3 2 1  
14. Dispatching function of production, 
planning & control is 
a. the dispatch of finished goods on order 
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b. the movement of in-process material 
from shop to shop 
c. authorising a production work order to 
be launched 
d. the dispatch of bills and invoice to the 
customers 
15. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer: 
List I (Charts) 
A. Standard process Sheet 
B. Multiple activity chart 
C. Right and left hand operation chart 
D. SIMO chart 
List II (Operations/Informations) 
1. Operations involving assembly and 
inspection without machine 
2. Operations involving the combination 
of men and machines 
3. Work measurement 
4. Basic information for routing 
Therbligs 
   A B C D 
a.    4 3 1 2 
b.   1 2 4 5 
c.   1 3 4 2 
d.   4 2 1 5  
16. If ? is the rake angle of the cutting tool, ? 
is the shear angle and V is the cutting 
velocity, then the velocity of chip sliding 
along the shear plane is given by 
a. 
cos
cos( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
b. 
sin
cos( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
c. 
cos
sin( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
d. 
sin
sin( )
V ?
? ? ?
 
17. Match List I with List II and select the 
correct answer :  
List I (Cutting Tools) 
A. Trepanning tool 
B. Side milling cutter 
C. Hob cutter 
D. Abrasive sticks 
List II (Applications) 
1. For surface finishing by honing 
2. for machining gears 
3. For cutting keyways in shafts 
4. For drilling large diameter holes 
   A B C D 
a.   1 3 2 4 
b.   4 3 2 1 
c.   1 2 3 4 
d.   4 2 3 1  
18. Dry and compressed air is used as cutting 
fluid for machining 
a. steel  
b. aluminium 
c. cast iron 
d. brass 
19. For cutting of brass with single-point 
cutting tool on a lathe, tool should have  
a. Negative rake angle 
b. positive rake angle 
c. zero rake angle 
d. zero side relief angle 
20. Power consumption in metal cutting is 
mainly due to 
a. tangential component of the force 
b. longitudinal component of the force 
c. normal component of the force 
d. friction at the metal-toot interface 
21. In a shaper machine, the mechanism for 
tool feed is 
a. Geneva mechanism 
b. Whitworth mechanism 
c. Ratchet and Pawl mechanism 
d. Ward-Leonard system 
22. Match List I with List II and select The 
correct answer: 
List I (Components) 
A. Car body (metal) 
B. Clutch lining 
C. Gears 
D. Engine block 
List II (Manufacturing Processes) 
1. Machining 
2. Casting  
3. Sheetmetal pressing 
4. powder metallurgy 
   A B C D 
a.   3 4 2 1 
b.   4 3 1 2 
c.   4 3 2 1 
d.   3 4 1 2 
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23. The marking on a grinding wheel is ‘51 A 
36’ L 5 V 93’. The code ‘36’ represents 
the  
a. Structure 
b. Grade 
c. Gain size 
d. Manufacturer’s number 
24. In the forging operation, fullering is done 
to 
a. draw out the, material 
b. bend the material 
c. upset the material 
d. extrude the material 
25. The main purpose of chaplets is 
a. to ensure directional solidification 
b. to provide efficient venting 
c. for aligning the mold boxes 
d. to support the cores 
26. Scrab is a 
a. sand casting defect  
b. maching defect 
c. welding defect  
d. forging defect 
27. Specific cutting energy is more in grinding 
process compared to turning because 
a. grinding (cutting) speed is higher 
b. the wheel has multiple cutting edges 
(grains) 
c. ploughing force is significant due to 
small chip size 
d. grinding wheel undergoes continuous 
wear 
28. The maximum heat in resistance, welding 
is at the 
a. tip of the positive electrode  
b. tip of the negative electrode  
c. top surface of the plate at the time of 
electric contact with the electrode 
d. interface between the two plates being 
joined 
29. Arc blow is more common in 
a. a.c. welding 
b. d.c. welding with straight polarity 
c. d.c. welding with bare electrodes 
d. a.c. welding with bare electrodes 
30. Pinch effect in welding is the result of 
a. expansion of gases in the arc 
b. electromagnetic forces 
c. electric force 
d. surface tension of the molten metal 
31. In manual arc welding, the equipment 
should have drooping characteristics in 
order to maintain the 
a. voltage constant when arc length 
changes 
b. current constant when arc length 
changes 
c. temperature in the arc constant 
d. weld pool red-hot 
32. In arc welding, dc. reverse polarity is used 
to bear greater advantage in 
a. overhead welding 
b. flat welding of lap joints 
c. edge welding 
d. flat welding of butt joints 
33. Which of the following assumptions are 
correct for cold rolling ? 
1. The material is plastic. 
2. The arc of contact is circular with a 
radius greater than the radius of the 
roll. 
3. Coefficient of friction is contact over 
the arc of contact and acts in one 
direction throughout the arc of contact. 
Select the correct answer using the codes 
given below: 
a. 1 and 2  
b. 1 and 3 
c. 2 and 3  
d. 1, 2 and 3 
34. A strip is to be rolled from a thickness of 
30 mm to 15 mm using a two-high mill 
having rolls of diameter 300 mm. The 
coefficient of friction for unaided bite 
should nearly be 
a. 0.35  
b. 0.5 
c. 0.25  
d. 0.07 
35. Which of the following statements are the 
salient features of hydrostatic extrusion? 
1. It is suitable for soft and ductile 
material. 
2. It is suitable for high-strength super-
alloys 
3. The billet is inserted into the extrusion 
chamber and pressure is applied by a 
ram to extrude the ballet through the 
die. 
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4. The billet is inserted into the extrusion 
chamber where it is surrounded by 
suitable liquid. The billet is extruded 
through the die by aping pressure to 
the liquid. 
Select the correct answer using tie codes 
given below: 
a. 1 and 3 
b. 1 and 4 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 2 and 4 
36. The spindle speed range in a general-
purpose lathe is divided info steps which 
approximately follow 
a. arithmetic progression 
b. geometric progression 
c. harmonic progression 
d. logarithmic progression 
37. The Indexing of the turret in a single 
spindle automatic lathe as done using 
a. Geneva mechanism 
b. Ratchet and Pawl mechanism 
c. Rack and pinion mechanism 
d. Whitworth mechanism 
38. Martensite is a super-saturated solution of 
carbon in  
a. alpha iron 
b. beta iron 
c. gamma iron 
d. delta iron  
39. Which one of the following sets of 
elements are quick-acting clamping 
elements for fixtures?  
a. Wedge and Cam 
b. Cam and Toggle 
c. Toggle and Wedge 
d. Wedge, Cam and toggle 
40. The correct sequence of creep deformation 
in a creep curve in order of their 
elongation is  
a. steady state, transient, accelerated 
b. transient, steady state, accelerated 
c. transient, accelerated, steady state 
d. accelerated, steady state, transient 
41. Oxyacetylene reducing flame is used while 
carrying out the welding on 
a. mild steel 
b. high carbon steel  
c. grey cast iron 
d. alloy steels 
42. For the same internal diameter, wall 
thickness, material and internal pressure, 
the ratio of maximum stress, induced in a 
thin cylindrical and in a thin spherical 
pressure vessel will be 
a. 2  
b. 1/2 
c. 4 
d. 1/4 
43. Nodular grey cast iron is obtained from the 
grey cast iron by adding a small amount of  
a. Manganese 
b. Phosphorus 
c. Magnesium  
d. Chromium 
44. Wire diameter, mean coil diameter and 
number of turns of a closely-coiled steel 
spring are d, D and N respectively and 
stiffness of the spring is K. A second 
spring is made of same steel but with wire 
diameter, mean coil diameter and number 
of turns 2d, 2D and 2N respectively. The 
stiffness of the new spring is  
a. K 
b. 2K 
c. 4K 
d. 8K 
45. Which one of the following pairs of axis 
lengths (a, b, c) and interaxial angles 
( ?, ?, ?) represents the tetragonal crystal 
system ? 
a. a = b = c ; ? = ? = ? = 90
o
 
b. a = b ? c ; ? = ? = ? = 90
o
 
c. a ? b ? c ; ? = ? = ? = 90
o
 
d. a = b = c ; ? = ? = ? ? 90
o
 
46. Consider the following quenching media : 
1. Oil 
2. Water 
3. Water + NaOH 
4. Brine 
The correct sequence of these media in 
order of increasing hardness of steel 
undergoing heat treatment is 
a. 1, 3, 2, 4  
b. 2, 1, 3, 4 
c. 1, 2, 3, 4  
d. 4, 3, 2, 1 
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FAQs on IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) - 2001 - GATE, ISRO & IES/ESE Previous Year Solved Papers - Mechanical Engineering

1. What is the eligibility criteria for appearing in the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam?
Ans. To appear in the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam, candidates must have a Bachelor's degree in Engineering (Mechanical) from a recognized university or equivalent qualification. They must also be between 21 to 30 years of age.
2. How can I apply for the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam?
Ans. Candidates can apply for the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam through the online application process. The application form will be available on the official website of the conducting authority. Candidates need to fill in the required details, upload the necessary documents, and pay the application fee to complete the application process.
3. What is the exam pattern for the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam?
Ans. The IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam consists of two stages - the Preliminary Examination and the Main Examination. The Preliminary Examination is objective type and consists of two papers, each carrying 200 marks. The Main Examination is a conventional type and consists of two papers, each carrying 300 marks.
4. Is there any negative marking in the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam?
Ans. Yes, there is a provision of negative marking in the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam. For every incorrect answer, one-third (0.33) marks will be deducted from the total score. However, no marks will be deducted for unattempted questions.
5. What are the recommended books for the preparation of the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam?
Ans. Some of the recommended books for the preparation of the IES/ESE Paper (Mechanical) exam are "Mechanical Engineering (Conventional and Objective Type)" by R.S. Khurmi and J.K. Gupta, "IES Mechanical Engineering Guide" by GKP, and "Objective Mechanical Engineering" by P.K. Mishra. These books cover the syllabus comprehensively and provide practice questions for better preparation.
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