National Level Solved Paper (SAT) - 2018-19 | NTSE for Class 10 PDF Download

 Page 1


 
 
  
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13 – 15  
SAT 
Answer Keys 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
 
 1. 3 2. 3 3. 4 4. 3 
 5. 4 6. 2 7. 3 8. 1 
 9. 3 10. 1 11. 2 12. 3 
 13. 4 14. 3 15. 2 16. 1 
 17. 3 18. 3 19. 2 20. 1 
 21. 4 22. 4 23. 4 24. 3 
 25. 1 26. 3 27. 1 28. 1 
 29. 3 30. 1 31. 4 32. 2 
 33. 2 34. 2 35. 4 36. 3 
 37. 1 38. 4 39. 3 40. 1 
 41. 2 42. 4 43.  1 44. 1 
 45. 1 46. 1 47. 3 48. 3 
 49. 3 50. 4 51. 2 52. 1 
 53. 2 54. 2 55. 3 56. 3 
 57. 3 58. 2 59. 2  60. 1 
 61. 3 62. 3 63. 2 64. 1 
 65. 2 66. 4 67. 2 68. 4 
 69. 1 70. 2 71. 1 72. 3 
 73. 2 74. 4 75. 1 76. 3 
 77. 3 78. 2 79. 1 80. 2 
 81. 4 82. 3 83. 4 84. 3 
 85. 3 86. 4 87. 3 88. 3  
 89. 2 90. 3 91. 1 92. 1  
 93. 4 94. 3 95. 3 96. 3  
 97. 3 98. 3 99. 1 100. 2 
 
 
 
Page 2


 
 
  
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13 – 15  
SAT 
Answer Keys 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
 
 1. 3 2. 3 3. 4 4. 3 
 5. 4 6. 2 7. 3 8. 1 
 9. 3 10. 1 11. 2 12. 3 
 13. 4 14. 3 15. 2 16. 1 
 17. 3 18. 3 19. 2 20. 1 
 21. 4 22. 4 23. 4 24. 3 
 25. 1 26. 3 27. 1 28. 1 
 29. 3 30. 1 31. 4 32. 2 
 33. 2 34. 2 35. 4 36. 3 
 37. 1 38. 4 39. 3 40. 1 
 41. 2 42. 4 43.  1 44. 1 
 45. 1 46. 1 47. 3 48. 3 
 49. 3 50. 4 51. 2 52. 1 
 53. 2 54. 2 55. 3 56. 3 
 57. 3 58. 2 59. 2  60. 1 
 61. 3 62. 3 63. 2 64. 1 
 65. 2 66. 4 67. 2 68. 4 
 69. 1 70. 2 71. 1 72. 3 
 73. 2 74. 4 75. 1 76. 3 
 77. 3 78. 2 79. 1 80. 2 
 81. 4 82. 3 83. 4 84. 3 
 85. 3 86. 4 87. 3 88. 3  
 89. 2 90. 3 91. 1 92. 1  
 93. 4 94. 3 95. 3 96. 3  
 97. 3 98. 3 99. 1 100. 2 
 
 
 
 
 
 
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13-15 
SAT 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
Hints & Solutions 
 
 
1. A set of guidelines called a model code of conduct is enforced during Parliamentary 
elections in India to avert corrupt practices. This is applied to ______________ 
 1. Political parties only 2. Political parties and voters 
 3. Political parties and candidates 4. Candidates contesting elections only 
1. 3 
 
2. A country has the ultimate rights and power to make decisions on internal and external 
matters. Also it is not dictated by any external power on its decisions relating to its relation 
with other country.  
 Which feature is reflected in these statements? 
 1. Republic 2. Socialism 
 3. Sovereignty 4. Authoritarian 
2. 3 
 
3. Anti-defection law is an important feature of Indian party system. The final authority to  
decide on the disqualification of a member of the Parliament with respect to anti-defection 
lies with the ________. 
 1. President 
 2. Prime Minister 
 3. Chief Justice the Supreme Court of India  
 4. Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 
3. 4 
 
4. Which of the following statements exemplify the independence of judiciary in India? 
 I.  Judiciary is not under the control of executive and legislature. 
 II.  There is less scope for interference in the working of judiciary by the political executive. 
 III.  A judge of higher judiciary can be removed only through a resolution which requires 2/3
rd
 
majority of both the houses of parliament.  
 Choose the correct option. 
 1. I and II 2. I and III 
 3. I, II and III 4. II and III 
4. 3 
 
5. Rajya Sabha is also called the upper house elders houses and permanent house. Which of 
the statement/s given below is/are true about it? 
 I.  Rajya Sabha has more power related to financial matters. 
 II.  Rajya Sabha members continue to be in office till the next general election. 
 III.  Resolution for removing the Vice-President and the President originates in Rajya Sabha. 
 IV.  Number of seats allotted to a state in the Rajya Sabha is directly proportionate to its 
population. 
 1. I, II and III 2. III and IV 
 3. I and IV 4. IV only 
5. 4 
 
6. In the context of Indian elections, the parties which fail to gain majority in the Parliament play 
the role of opposition. Consider the following statements and choose which statement/s 
is/are is NOT true. 
Page 3


 
 
  
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13 – 15  
SAT 
Answer Keys 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
 
 1. 3 2. 3 3. 4 4. 3 
 5. 4 6. 2 7. 3 8. 1 
 9. 3 10. 1 11. 2 12. 3 
 13. 4 14. 3 15. 2 16. 1 
 17. 3 18. 3 19. 2 20. 1 
 21. 4 22. 4 23. 4 24. 3 
 25. 1 26. 3 27. 1 28. 1 
 29. 3 30. 1 31. 4 32. 2 
 33. 2 34. 2 35. 4 36. 3 
 37. 1 38. 4 39. 3 40. 1 
 41. 2 42. 4 43.  1 44. 1 
 45. 1 46. 1 47. 3 48. 3 
 49. 3 50. 4 51. 2 52. 1 
 53. 2 54. 2 55. 3 56. 3 
 57. 3 58. 2 59. 2  60. 1 
 61. 3 62. 3 63. 2 64. 1 
 65. 2 66. 4 67. 2 68. 4 
 69. 1 70. 2 71. 1 72. 3 
 73. 2 74. 4 75. 1 76. 3 
 77. 3 78. 2 79. 1 80. 2 
 81. 4 82. 3 83. 4 84. 3 
 85. 3 86. 4 87. 3 88. 3  
 89. 2 90. 3 91. 1 92. 1  
 93. 4 94. 3 95. 3 96. 3  
 97. 3 98. 3 99. 1 100. 2 
 
 
 
 
 
 
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13-15 
SAT 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
Hints & Solutions 
 
 
1. A set of guidelines called a model code of conduct is enforced during Parliamentary 
elections in India to avert corrupt practices. This is applied to ______________ 
 1. Political parties only 2. Political parties and voters 
 3. Political parties and candidates 4. Candidates contesting elections only 
1. 3 
 
2. A country has the ultimate rights and power to make decisions on internal and external 
matters. Also it is not dictated by any external power on its decisions relating to its relation 
with other country.  
 Which feature is reflected in these statements? 
 1. Republic 2. Socialism 
 3. Sovereignty 4. Authoritarian 
2. 3 
 
3. Anti-defection law is an important feature of Indian party system. The final authority to  
decide on the disqualification of a member of the Parliament with respect to anti-defection 
lies with the ________. 
 1. President 
 2. Prime Minister 
 3. Chief Justice the Supreme Court of India  
 4. Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 
3. 4 
 
4. Which of the following statements exemplify the independence of judiciary in India? 
 I.  Judiciary is not under the control of executive and legislature. 
 II.  There is less scope for interference in the working of judiciary by the political executive. 
 III.  A judge of higher judiciary can be removed only through a resolution which requires 2/3
rd
 
majority of both the houses of parliament.  
 Choose the correct option. 
 1. I and II 2. I and III 
 3. I, II and III 4. II and III 
4. 3 
 
5. Rajya Sabha is also called the upper house elders houses and permanent house. Which of 
the statement/s given below is/are true about it? 
 I.  Rajya Sabha has more power related to financial matters. 
 II.  Rajya Sabha members continue to be in office till the next general election. 
 III.  Resolution for removing the Vice-President and the President originates in Rajya Sabha. 
 IV.  Number of seats allotted to a state in the Rajya Sabha is directly proportionate to its 
population. 
 1. I, II and III 2. III and IV 
 3. I and IV 4. IV only 
5. 4 
 
6. In the context of Indian elections, the parties which fail to gain majority in the Parliament play 
the role of opposition. Consider the following statements and choose which statement/s 
is/are is NOT true. 
 
 
 I.  Opposition parties in India play an important role in building public opinion. 
 II.  Opposition parties are not constitutionally recognized. 
 III.  Opposition immediately assumes power of government, if the majority party loses its 
vote of confidence in the Parliament. 
 IV.  Opposition parties keep a close check on the activities of the government. 
 1. I and II only 2. II and III only 
 3. III only 4. IV only 
6. 2 
 
7. Consider the following statements: 
 Statement I: All countries that are democratic have written constitution. 
 Statement II: All countries that have written constitution are not necessarily democratic.  
 Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? 
 1. I only 2. II only 
 3. both I and II 4. Neither I nor II 
7. 3 
 
8. China exports a toy to India at Rs 150, whereas the same toy is manufactured and available 
in India for Rs 250. When China continues to export this toy to India, this trade practice is 
known as ________. 
 1. dumping 2. export proportion 
 3. import substitution 4. export subsidisation 
8. 1 
 
9. Shruti and Gautami were discussing about India’s GDP and Kerala’s SDP. Some of the 
observations made were: 
 I.  Kerala’s per capita SDP is India’s GDP divide by Kerala’s population in a particular year. 
 II.  Since Kerala has best literacy rate and excellent quality of life indices, it must have the 
highest SDP. 
 III.  In a federal structure if we know all the SDPs we can have a fair idea of how big India’s 
GDP will be in that year. 
 IV.  Kerala’s per capita SDP in a particular year is the value of all final goods and services 
produced by the Kerala state in that year divided by Kerala’s population in that year. 
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
 1. I and III 2. II and III 
 3. III and IV 4. I, III and IV 
9. 3 
 
10. Shehnaaz joined a coaching institute for a professional course. At the time of joining the 
course, she paid a lump sum fee for the entire course of two years. However, she did not 
find the quality of teaching satisfactory and decided to quit after one year. When she asked 
for a refund of the fee for one year, she was refused. Which of the following right/s of 
Shehnaaz was/were violated? 
 I.  Right to choose II. Right to represent 
 III.  Right to be informed IV. Right to seek redressal 
 1. only I 2. I and IV 
 3. III and IV 4. only IV 
10. 1 
 
11. Which of the following reflects situation where a person is employed but do not contribute in 
adding to the total product? 
 I.  Open unemployment II.  Disguised unemployment 
 III.  Seasonal unemployment IV. Frictional unemployment   
1. I and II 2. only II 
 3. III and IV 4. only IV 
11. 2 
 
Page 4


 
 
  
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13 – 15  
SAT 
Answer Keys 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
 
 1. 3 2. 3 3. 4 4. 3 
 5. 4 6. 2 7. 3 8. 1 
 9. 3 10. 1 11. 2 12. 3 
 13. 4 14. 3 15. 2 16. 1 
 17. 3 18. 3 19. 2 20. 1 
 21. 4 22. 4 23. 4 24. 3 
 25. 1 26. 3 27. 1 28. 1 
 29. 3 30. 1 31. 4 32. 2 
 33. 2 34. 2 35. 4 36. 3 
 37. 1 38. 4 39. 3 40. 1 
 41. 2 42. 4 43.  1 44. 1 
 45. 1 46. 1 47. 3 48. 3 
 49. 3 50. 4 51. 2 52. 1 
 53. 2 54. 2 55. 3 56. 3 
 57. 3 58. 2 59. 2  60. 1 
 61. 3 62. 3 63. 2 64. 1 
 65. 2 66. 4 67. 2 68. 4 
 69. 1 70. 2 71. 1 72. 3 
 73. 2 74. 4 75. 1 76. 3 
 77. 3 78. 2 79. 1 80. 2 
 81. 4 82. 3 83. 4 84. 3 
 85. 3 86. 4 87. 3 88. 3  
 89. 2 90. 3 91. 1 92. 1  
 93. 4 94. 3 95. 3 96. 3  
 97. 3 98. 3 99. 1 100. 2 
 
 
 
 
 
 
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13-15 
SAT 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
Hints & Solutions 
 
 
1. A set of guidelines called a model code of conduct is enforced during Parliamentary 
elections in India to avert corrupt practices. This is applied to ______________ 
 1. Political parties only 2. Political parties and voters 
 3. Political parties and candidates 4. Candidates contesting elections only 
1. 3 
 
2. A country has the ultimate rights and power to make decisions on internal and external 
matters. Also it is not dictated by any external power on its decisions relating to its relation 
with other country.  
 Which feature is reflected in these statements? 
 1. Republic 2. Socialism 
 3. Sovereignty 4. Authoritarian 
2. 3 
 
3. Anti-defection law is an important feature of Indian party system. The final authority to  
decide on the disqualification of a member of the Parliament with respect to anti-defection 
lies with the ________. 
 1. President 
 2. Prime Minister 
 3. Chief Justice the Supreme Court of India  
 4. Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 
3. 4 
 
4. Which of the following statements exemplify the independence of judiciary in India? 
 I.  Judiciary is not under the control of executive and legislature. 
 II.  There is less scope for interference in the working of judiciary by the political executive. 
 III.  A judge of higher judiciary can be removed only through a resolution which requires 2/3
rd
 
majority of both the houses of parliament.  
 Choose the correct option. 
 1. I and II 2. I and III 
 3. I, II and III 4. II and III 
4. 3 
 
5. Rajya Sabha is also called the upper house elders houses and permanent house. Which of 
the statement/s given below is/are true about it? 
 I.  Rajya Sabha has more power related to financial matters. 
 II.  Rajya Sabha members continue to be in office till the next general election. 
 III.  Resolution for removing the Vice-President and the President originates in Rajya Sabha. 
 IV.  Number of seats allotted to a state in the Rajya Sabha is directly proportionate to its 
population. 
 1. I, II and III 2. III and IV 
 3. I and IV 4. IV only 
5. 4 
 
6. In the context of Indian elections, the parties which fail to gain majority in the Parliament play 
the role of opposition. Consider the following statements and choose which statement/s 
is/are is NOT true. 
 
 
 I.  Opposition parties in India play an important role in building public opinion. 
 II.  Opposition parties are not constitutionally recognized. 
 III.  Opposition immediately assumes power of government, if the majority party loses its 
vote of confidence in the Parliament. 
 IV.  Opposition parties keep a close check on the activities of the government. 
 1. I and II only 2. II and III only 
 3. III only 4. IV only 
6. 2 
 
7. Consider the following statements: 
 Statement I: All countries that are democratic have written constitution. 
 Statement II: All countries that have written constitution are not necessarily democratic.  
 Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? 
 1. I only 2. II only 
 3. both I and II 4. Neither I nor II 
7. 3 
 
8. China exports a toy to India at Rs 150, whereas the same toy is manufactured and available 
in India for Rs 250. When China continues to export this toy to India, this trade practice is 
known as ________. 
 1. dumping 2. export proportion 
 3. import substitution 4. export subsidisation 
8. 1 
 
9. Shruti and Gautami were discussing about India’s GDP and Kerala’s SDP. Some of the 
observations made were: 
 I.  Kerala’s per capita SDP is India’s GDP divide by Kerala’s population in a particular year. 
 II.  Since Kerala has best literacy rate and excellent quality of life indices, it must have the 
highest SDP. 
 III.  In a federal structure if we know all the SDPs we can have a fair idea of how big India’s 
GDP will be in that year. 
 IV.  Kerala’s per capita SDP in a particular year is the value of all final goods and services 
produced by the Kerala state in that year divided by Kerala’s population in that year. 
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
 1. I and III 2. II and III 
 3. III and IV 4. I, III and IV 
9. 3 
 
10. Shehnaaz joined a coaching institute for a professional course. At the time of joining the 
course, she paid a lump sum fee for the entire course of two years. However, she did not 
find the quality of teaching satisfactory and decided to quit after one year. When she asked 
for a refund of the fee for one year, she was refused. Which of the following right/s of 
Shehnaaz was/were violated? 
 I.  Right to choose II. Right to represent 
 III.  Right to be informed IV. Right to seek redressal 
 1. only I 2. I and IV 
 3. III and IV 4. only IV 
10. 1 
 
11. Which of the following reflects situation where a person is employed but do not contribute in 
adding to the total product? 
 I.  Open unemployment II.  Disguised unemployment 
 III.  Seasonal unemployment IV. Frictional unemployment   
1. I and II 2. only II 
 3. III and IV 4. only IV 
11. 2 
 
 
 
12. There are 100 households in the village of Awangkhul, of which the loan taken by 20 
households are from the State Bank of India, another 20 households from their friends and 
relatives, 5 households from Indian Bank, 10 households from a Regional Rural Bank, 15 
households from businessmen, 10 households from village headmen and 20 households 
from cooperative societies. Which of the following inference(s) is/are correct? 
 I.  Formal sources of credit are lower than the others. 
 II.  Institutional sources of credit are higher than others. 
 III.  Non-institutional sources of credit are higher than others. 
 IV.  Informal sources of credit are slightly higher than others. 
 1. only I 2. I and II 
 3. only II 4. III and IV 
12. 3 
 
13. Which of the following statements are true about food security? 
 I.  Landless people always have food insecurity. 
 II.  Those who do not have enough nutritious food are food insecure. 
 III.  Those who have enough food but not the requisite nutrition are food secure. 
 IV.  Those who do not have enough purchasing power to buy sufficient food are food 
insecure. 
 1. I and III 2. I and IV 
 3. II and III 4. II and IV 
13. 4 
 
14. Siddhik issues a cheque of Rs 19,000 in favour of Hanush. What happens when the cheque 
is received and processed in Hanush’s bank? 
 I.  There is no change in their bank accounts. 
 II.  Both their bank balances increase by Rs 19,000. 
 III.  Siddhik’s bank balance decreases by Rs 19,000 and Hanush’s bank balance increases 
by the same amount. 
 IV.  There is no change in Siddhik’s bank balance although Hanush’s bank balance sees an 
increase. 
 Based on the above statements which option is correct? 
 1. only I 2. I and III 
 3. only III 4. III and IV 
14. 3 
 
15. The daily wage of a person in rural area is Rs 180. Arrange the following households in 
descending order of vulnerability to poverty. 
Name of the 
Households 
Person – days of 
employment 
Size of the 
Household 
Working members of 
the family 
Ruldoo 14 4 2 
Mulkha 15 7 2 
Fakira 10 5 4 
Preeto 12 6 3 
 1. Preeto > Mulkha > Fakira > Ruldoo 2. Mulkha > Preeto > Rulddo > Fakira 
 3. Mulkha > Ruldoo > Preeto > Fakira 4. Ruldoo > Fakira > Mulkha > Preeto 
15. 2 
 
16. The following graph shows the distribution of mean monthly temperature and average rainfall 
of a particular city during the year. 
Page 5


 
 
  
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13 – 15  
SAT 
Answer Keys 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
 
 1. 3 2. 3 3. 4 4. 3 
 5. 4 6. 2 7. 3 8. 1 
 9. 3 10. 1 11. 2 12. 3 
 13. 4 14. 3 15. 2 16. 1 
 17. 3 18. 3 19. 2 20. 1 
 21. 4 22. 4 23. 4 24. 3 
 25. 1 26. 3 27. 1 28. 1 
 29. 3 30. 1 31. 4 32. 2 
 33. 2 34. 2 35. 4 36. 3 
 37. 1 38. 4 39. 3 40. 1 
 41. 2 42. 4 43.  1 44. 1 
 45. 1 46. 1 47. 3 48. 3 
 49. 3 50. 4 51. 2 52. 1 
 53. 2 54. 2 55. 3 56. 3 
 57. 3 58. 2 59. 2  60. 1 
 61. 3 62. 3 63. 2 64. 1 
 65. 2 66. 4 67. 2 68. 4 
 69. 1 70. 2 71. 1 72. 3 
 73. 2 74. 4 75. 1 76. 3 
 77. 3 78. 2 79. 1 80. 2 
 81. 4 82. 3 83. 4 84. 3 
 85. 3 86. 4 87. 3 88. 3  
 89. 2 90. 3 91. 1 92. 1  
 93. 4 94. 3 95. 3 96. 3  
 97. 3 98. 3 99. 1 100. 2 
 
 
 
 
 
 
NTSE STAGE II 
CODE: 13-15 
SAT 
Held on: June 16, 2019 
Hints & Solutions 
 
 
1. A set of guidelines called a model code of conduct is enforced during Parliamentary 
elections in India to avert corrupt practices. This is applied to ______________ 
 1. Political parties only 2. Political parties and voters 
 3. Political parties and candidates 4. Candidates contesting elections only 
1. 3 
 
2. A country has the ultimate rights and power to make decisions on internal and external 
matters. Also it is not dictated by any external power on its decisions relating to its relation 
with other country.  
 Which feature is reflected in these statements? 
 1. Republic 2. Socialism 
 3. Sovereignty 4. Authoritarian 
2. 3 
 
3. Anti-defection law is an important feature of Indian party system. The final authority to  
decide on the disqualification of a member of the Parliament with respect to anti-defection 
lies with the ________. 
 1. President 
 2. Prime Minister 
 3. Chief Justice the Supreme Court of India  
 4. Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 
3. 4 
 
4. Which of the following statements exemplify the independence of judiciary in India? 
 I.  Judiciary is not under the control of executive and legislature. 
 II.  There is less scope for interference in the working of judiciary by the political executive. 
 III.  A judge of higher judiciary can be removed only through a resolution which requires 2/3
rd
 
majority of both the houses of parliament.  
 Choose the correct option. 
 1. I and II 2. I and III 
 3. I, II and III 4. II and III 
4. 3 
 
5. Rajya Sabha is also called the upper house elders houses and permanent house. Which of 
the statement/s given below is/are true about it? 
 I.  Rajya Sabha has more power related to financial matters. 
 II.  Rajya Sabha members continue to be in office till the next general election. 
 III.  Resolution for removing the Vice-President and the President originates in Rajya Sabha. 
 IV.  Number of seats allotted to a state in the Rajya Sabha is directly proportionate to its 
population. 
 1. I, II and III 2. III and IV 
 3. I and IV 4. IV only 
5. 4 
 
6. In the context of Indian elections, the parties which fail to gain majority in the Parliament play 
the role of opposition. Consider the following statements and choose which statement/s 
is/are is NOT true. 
 
 
 I.  Opposition parties in India play an important role in building public opinion. 
 II.  Opposition parties are not constitutionally recognized. 
 III.  Opposition immediately assumes power of government, if the majority party loses its 
vote of confidence in the Parliament. 
 IV.  Opposition parties keep a close check on the activities of the government. 
 1. I and II only 2. II and III only 
 3. III only 4. IV only 
6. 2 
 
7. Consider the following statements: 
 Statement I: All countries that are democratic have written constitution. 
 Statement II: All countries that have written constitution are not necessarily democratic.  
 Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? 
 1. I only 2. II only 
 3. both I and II 4. Neither I nor II 
7. 3 
 
8. China exports a toy to India at Rs 150, whereas the same toy is manufactured and available 
in India for Rs 250. When China continues to export this toy to India, this trade practice is 
known as ________. 
 1. dumping 2. export proportion 
 3. import substitution 4. export subsidisation 
8. 1 
 
9. Shruti and Gautami were discussing about India’s GDP and Kerala’s SDP. Some of the 
observations made were: 
 I.  Kerala’s per capita SDP is India’s GDP divide by Kerala’s population in a particular year. 
 II.  Since Kerala has best literacy rate and excellent quality of life indices, it must have the 
highest SDP. 
 III.  In a federal structure if we know all the SDPs we can have a fair idea of how big India’s 
GDP will be in that year. 
 IV.  Kerala’s per capita SDP in a particular year is the value of all final goods and services 
produced by the Kerala state in that year divided by Kerala’s population in that year. 
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
 1. I and III 2. II and III 
 3. III and IV 4. I, III and IV 
9. 3 
 
10. Shehnaaz joined a coaching institute for a professional course. At the time of joining the 
course, she paid a lump sum fee for the entire course of two years. However, she did not 
find the quality of teaching satisfactory and decided to quit after one year. When she asked 
for a refund of the fee for one year, she was refused. Which of the following right/s of 
Shehnaaz was/were violated? 
 I.  Right to choose II. Right to represent 
 III.  Right to be informed IV. Right to seek redressal 
 1. only I 2. I and IV 
 3. III and IV 4. only IV 
10. 1 
 
11. Which of the following reflects situation where a person is employed but do not contribute in 
adding to the total product? 
 I.  Open unemployment II.  Disguised unemployment 
 III.  Seasonal unemployment IV. Frictional unemployment   
1. I and II 2. only II 
 3. III and IV 4. only IV 
11. 2 
 
 
 
12. There are 100 households in the village of Awangkhul, of which the loan taken by 20 
households are from the State Bank of India, another 20 households from their friends and 
relatives, 5 households from Indian Bank, 10 households from a Regional Rural Bank, 15 
households from businessmen, 10 households from village headmen and 20 households 
from cooperative societies. Which of the following inference(s) is/are correct? 
 I.  Formal sources of credit are lower than the others. 
 II.  Institutional sources of credit are higher than others. 
 III.  Non-institutional sources of credit are higher than others. 
 IV.  Informal sources of credit are slightly higher than others. 
 1. only I 2. I and II 
 3. only II 4. III and IV 
12. 3 
 
13. Which of the following statements are true about food security? 
 I.  Landless people always have food insecurity. 
 II.  Those who do not have enough nutritious food are food insecure. 
 III.  Those who have enough food but not the requisite nutrition are food secure. 
 IV.  Those who do not have enough purchasing power to buy sufficient food are food 
insecure. 
 1. I and III 2. I and IV 
 3. II and III 4. II and IV 
13. 4 
 
14. Siddhik issues a cheque of Rs 19,000 in favour of Hanush. What happens when the cheque 
is received and processed in Hanush’s bank? 
 I.  There is no change in their bank accounts. 
 II.  Both their bank balances increase by Rs 19,000. 
 III.  Siddhik’s bank balance decreases by Rs 19,000 and Hanush’s bank balance increases 
by the same amount. 
 IV.  There is no change in Siddhik’s bank balance although Hanush’s bank balance sees an 
increase. 
 Based on the above statements which option is correct? 
 1. only I 2. I and III 
 3. only III 4. III and IV 
14. 3 
 
15. The daily wage of a person in rural area is Rs 180. Arrange the following households in 
descending order of vulnerability to poverty. 
Name of the 
Households 
Person – days of 
employment 
Size of the 
Household 
Working members of 
the family 
Ruldoo 14 4 2 
Mulkha 15 7 2 
Fakira 10 5 4 
Preeto 12 6 3 
 1. Preeto > Mulkha > Fakira > Ruldoo 2. Mulkha > Preeto > Rulddo > Fakira 
 3. Mulkha > Ruldoo > Preeto > Fakira 4. Ruldoo > Fakira > Mulkha > Preeto 
15. 2 
 
16. The following graph shows the distribution of mean monthly temperature and average rainfall 
of a particular city during the year. 
 
 
 
Which one of the following cities shows the climatic conditions presented in the above 
graph? 
 1. Nagpur 2. Chennai 
 3. Jodhpur 4. Bengaluru 
16. 1 
 
17. The average mean monthly temperatures of four stations are given in the following table. 
The temperature is influenced by the movements of land and sea breezes. 
 
MONTHS 
Temperature in Degree Celsius 
Stations JAN FEB MAR APR MAY JUN JUL AUG SEP OCT NOV DEC 
A 14.4 16.7 29.3 30.0 33.3 33.3 30.0 29.4 28.9 25.6 19.4 15.6 
B 16.8 19.2 26.6 29.8 33.3 33.9 31.3 29.0 20.1 27.0 20.1 14.9 
C 24.5 25.7 27.7 30.4 33.0 32.5 31.0 30.2 29.8 28.0 25.9 24.7 
C 21.5 23.9 28.3 32.7 35.5 32.0 27.7 27.3 27.9 26.7 23.1 20.7 
Which one of these stations experiences maximum moderating influence of the land and sea 
breezes? 
 1. A 2. B 
 3. C 4. D 
17. 3 
 
18. Observe the data given in the following table. 
City Female Literacy Rate 
(%) 
Male Literacy Rate 
(%) 
Sex-Ratio 
A 66.77 85.38 960 
B 71.16 82.67 980 
C 73.78 77.17 989 
D 59.26 79.24 972 
Based on the above table, identify the city which has the extent of equality between male 
and female better than the rest in terms of the given parameters? 
 1. A 2. B 
 3. C 4. D 
18. 3 
 
19. Ruhani observes sequential change in relation to altitudinal zones and natural vegetation 
types dominated by oak-chestnut; pine-deodar and silver fir-birch. 
 1. Alpine to Temperate to Subtropical 2. Subtropical to Temperate to Alpine 
 3. Subtropical to Alpine to Temperate 4. Temperate to Alpine to Subtropical 
19. 2 
 
20. Observe the map given below.