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CLAT Previous Year Question Paper - 2026

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 Page 1


 
 
 
   
? 
UG 2026 
 
 
 
 
  
1. Name of the Candidate : 
2. Admit Card Number  : 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Duration of the Test : 2 hours (120 minutes) * Maximum Marks : 120      
1.   This Question Booklet (QB) contains 120        
(One hundred and Twenty) Multiple Choice 
Questions across 40 (Forty) pages including 
2 (Two) blank pages for rough work. No  
additional sheet(s) of paper will be supplied 
for rough work. 
2.   You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 
(OMR) Response Sheet supplied along with 
this QB. You must READ the detailed  
instructions provided with the OMR Response 
Sheet on the reverse side of this packet 
BEFORE you start the test.  
3.   No clarification can be sought on the QB 
from anyone. In case of any discrepancy  
such as printing error or missing pages, in 
the QB, request the Invigilator to replace  
the QB and OMR Response Sheet. Do not 
use the previous OMR Response sheet with 
the fresh QB. 
 
 
 
 
 
4.   You should write the QB Number, and the  
OMR Response Sheet Number, and sign in 
the space/column provided in the  
Attendance Sheet. 
5.   The QB for the Under Graduate  
Programme is for 120 marks. Every Right  
Answer secures 1 mark. Every Wrong  
Answer results in the deduction of  
0.25 mark. There shall be no deductions for 
Unanswered Questions. 
6.   You may retain the QB and the Candidate’s 
copy of the OMR Response Sheet after the 
end of the test. 
7.   The use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of  
Electronic Devices such as mobile phones, 
headphones, digital watches, etc., is/are 
strictly prohibited in the test premises.  
Impersonation or any other unlawful  
practice will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, appropriate action under the 
law. 
QUESTION BOOKLET NO.
DO NOT OPEN TILL 2 P.M. 
* Except for PWD Candidates who are eligible for extra time as per the law. 
Page 2


 
 
 
   
? 
UG 2026 
 
 
 
 
  
1. Name of the Candidate : 
2. Admit Card Number  : 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Duration of the Test : 2 hours (120 minutes) * Maximum Marks : 120      
1.   This Question Booklet (QB) contains 120        
(One hundred and Twenty) Multiple Choice 
Questions across 40 (Forty) pages including 
2 (Two) blank pages for rough work. No  
additional sheet(s) of paper will be supplied 
for rough work. 
2.   You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 
(OMR) Response Sheet supplied along with 
this QB. You must READ the detailed  
instructions provided with the OMR Response 
Sheet on the reverse side of this packet 
BEFORE you start the test.  
3.   No clarification can be sought on the QB 
from anyone. In case of any discrepancy  
such as printing error or missing pages, in 
the QB, request the Invigilator to replace  
the QB and OMR Response Sheet. Do not 
use the previous OMR Response sheet with 
the fresh QB. 
 
 
 
 
 
4.   You should write the QB Number, and the  
OMR Response Sheet Number, and sign in 
the space/column provided in the  
Attendance Sheet. 
5.   The QB for the Under Graduate  
Programme is for 120 marks. Every Right  
Answer secures 1 mark. Every Wrong  
Answer results in the deduction of  
0.25 mark. There shall be no deductions for 
Unanswered Questions. 
6.   You may retain the QB and the Candidate’s 
copy of the OMR Response Sheet after the 
end of the test. 
7.   The use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of  
Electronic Devices such as mobile phones, 
headphones, digital watches, etc., is/are 
strictly prohibited in the test premises.  
Impersonation or any other unlawful  
practice will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, appropriate action under the 
law. 
QUESTION BOOKLET NO.
DO NOT OPEN TILL 2 P.M. 
* Except for PWD Candidates who are eligible for extra time as per the law. 
 
 
   
UG 2026 ? 2
 
 
 
 
 
CONTENTS 
 
Subject Q.Nos. Page No. 
 Section I – English Language 
1 – 24 3 – 9 
 Section II – Current Affairs including 
 General Knowledge 
25 – 52 10 – 17 
 Section III – Legal Reasoning 
53 – 82  18 – 28 
 Section IV – Logical Reasoning 
83 – 108 29 – 35 
 Section V – Quantitative Aptitude 
109 – 120 36 – 38 
Page 3


 
 
 
   
? 
UG 2026 
 
 
 
 
  
1. Name of the Candidate : 
2. Admit Card Number  : 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Duration of the Test : 2 hours (120 minutes) * Maximum Marks : 120      
1.   This Question Booklet (QB) contains 120        
(One hundred and Twenty) Multiple Choice 
Questions across 40 (Forty) pages including 
2 (Two) blank pages for rough work. No  
additional sheet(s) of paper will be supplied 
for rough work. 
2.   You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 
(OMR) Response Sheet supplied along with 
this QB. You must READ the detailed  
instructions provided with the OMR Response 
Sheet on the reverse side of this packet 
BEFORE you start the test.  
3.   No clarification can be sought on the QB 
from anyone. In case of any discrepancy  
such as printing error or missing pages, in 
the QB, request the Invigilator to replace  
the QB and OMR Response Sheet. Do not 
use the previous OMR Response sheet with 
the fresh QB. 
 
 
 
 
 
4.   You should write the QB Number, and the  
OMR Response Sheet Number, and sign in 
the space/column provided in the  
Attendance Sheet. 
5.   The QB for the Under Graduate  
Programme is for 120 marks. Every Right  
Answer secures 1 mark. Every Wrong  
Answer results in the deduction of  
0.25 mark. There shall be no deductions for 
Unanswered Questions. 
6.   You may retain the QB and the Candidate’s 
copy of the OMR Response Sheet after the 
end of the test. 
7.   The use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of  
Electronic Devices such as mobile phones, 
headphones, digital watches, etc., is/are 
strictly prohibited in the test premises.  
Impersonation or any other unlawful  
practice will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, appropriate action under the 
law. 
QUESTION BOOKLET NO.
DO NOT OPEN TILL 2 P.M. 
* Except for PWD Candidates who are eligible for extra time as per the law. 
 
 
   
UG 2026 ? 2
 
 
 
 
 
CONTENTS 
 
Subject Q.Nos. Page No. 
 Section I – English Language 
1 – 24 3 – 9 
 Section II – Current Affairs including 
 General Knowledge 
25 – 52 10 – 17 
 Section III – Legal Reasoning 
53 – 82  18 – 28 
 Section IV – Logical Reasoning 
83 – 108 29 – 35 
 Section V – Quantitative Aptitude 
109 – 120 36 – 38 
 
 
 
 
   
UG 2026 ?    3
SECTION I 
I. The adoption of the Non-Cooperation Movement by the Congress gave it a new energy 
and from January 1921 it began to register considerable success all over the country. 
Gandhiji undertook a nation-wide tour during which he addressed hundreds of meetings 
and met a large number of political workers. In the first month, thousands of students 
left their educational institutions and joined more than 800 national schools and colleges 
that had sprung up all over the country. Gandhiji had promised Swaraj within a year, if 
his programme was adopted. 
 The Non-Cooperation Movement demonstrated that it commanded the support and 
sympathy of vast sections of the Indian people. Its reach among many sections of Indian 
peasants, workers, artisans etc, had been demonstrated. The spatial spread of the 
movement was also nation-wide. Some areas were more active than others, but there 
were few that showed no signs of activity at all. 
 The capacity of the ‘poor dumb millions’ of India to take part in modern nationalist 
politics was also demonstrated. This was the first time that nationalists from the towns, 
students from schools and colleges or even the educated and politically aware in the 
villages had made a serious attempt to bring the ideology and the movement into their 
midst. 
 The tremendous participation of different communities in the movement, and the 
maintenance of communal unity, despite the Malabar developments, was in itself no 
mean achievement. There is hardly any doubt that it was minority participation that 
gave the movement its truly mass character in many areas. And it was, indeed, 
unfortunate that this most positive feature of the movement was not to be repeated in 
later years once communalism began to take its toll. [324 words] 
 [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from India’s Struggle for Independence1857-1947, by 
Bipin Chandra and Others, Penguin Books, 1989.] 
1. From the passage it is evident that: 
 (A) The idea of Swaraj seemed futile 
(B) The non-cooperation movement was a complete success 
(C) The non-cooperation movement gained the sympathy of majority of the Indians 
(D) The Indian National Congress represented microscopic minority 
2. The term “poor dumb millions” refer to- 
(A) The vast number of common people who are impoverished 
(B) Large number of common people who are hearing impaired 
(C) Large number of people who are vulnerable 
(D) The vast number of people who are impoverished and uneducated 
Page 4


 
 
 
   
? 
UG 2026 
 
 
 
 
  
1. Name of the Candidate : 
2. Admit Card Number  : 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Duration of the Test : 2 hours (120 minutes) * Maximum Marks : 120      
1.   This Question Booklet (QB) contains 120        
(One hundred and Twenty) Multiple Choice 
Questions across 40 (Forty) pages including 
2 (Two) blank pages for rough work. No  
additional sheet(s) of paper will be supplied 
for rough work. 
2.   You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 
(OMR) Response Sheet supplied along with 
this QB. You must READ the detailed  
instructions provided with the OMR Response 
Sheet on the reverse side of this packet 
BEFORE you start the test.  
3.   No clarification can be sought on the QB 
from anyone. In case of any discrepancy  
such as printing error or missing pages, in 
the QB, request the Invigilator to replace  
the QB and OMR Response Sheet. Do not 
use the previous OMR Response sheet with 
the fresh QB. 
 
 
 
 
 
4.   You should write the QB Number, and the  
OMR Response Sheet Number, and sign in 
the space/column provided in the  
Attendance Sheet. 
5.   The QB for the Under Graduate  
Programme is for 120 marks. Every Right  
Answer secures 1 mark. Every Wrong  
Answer results in the deduction of  
0.25 mark. There shall be no deductions for 
Unanswered Questions. 
6.   You may retain the QB and the Candidate’s 
copy of the OMR Response Sheet after the 
end of the test. 
7.   The use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of  
Electronic Devices such as mobile phones, 
headphones, digital watches, etc., is/are 
strictly prohibited in the test premises.  
Impersonation or any other unlawful  
practice will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, appropriate action under the 
law. 
QUESTION BOOKLET NO.
DO NOT OPEN TILL 2 P.M. 
* Except for PWD Candidates who are eligible for extra time as per the law. 
 
 
   
UG 2026 ? 2
 
 
 
 
 
CONTENTS 
 
Subject Q.Nos. Page No. 
 Section I – English Language 
1 – 24 3 – 9 
 Section II – Current Affairs including 
 General Knowledge 
25 – 52 10 – 17 
 Section III – Legal Reasoning 
53 – 82  18 – 28 
 Section IV – Logical Reasoning 
83 – 108 29 – 35 
 Section V – Quantitative Aptitude 
109 – 120 36 – 38 
 
 
 
 
   
UG 2026 ?    3
SECTION I 
I. The adoption of the Non-Cooperation Movement by the Congress gave it a new energy 
and from January 1921 it began to register considerable success all over the country. 
Gandhiji undertook a nation-wide tour during which he addressed hundreds of meetings 
and met a large number of political workers. In the first month, thousands of students 
left their educational institutions and joined more than 800 national schools and colleges 
that had sprung up all over the country. Gandhiji had promised Swaraj within a year, if 
his programme was adopted. 
 The Non-Cooperation Movement demonstrated that it commanded the support and 
sympathy of vast sections of the Indian people. Its reach among many sections of Indian 
peasants, workers, artisans etc, had been demonstrated. The spatial spread of the 
movement was also nation-wide. Some areas were more active than others, but there 
were few that showed no signs of activity at all. 
 The capacity of the ‘poor dumb millions’ of India to take part in modern nationalist 
politics was also demonstrated. This was the first time that nationalists from the towns, 
students from schools and colleges or even the educated and politically aware in the 
villages had made a serious attempt to bring the ideology and the movement into their 
midst. 
 The tremendous participation of different communities in the movement, and the 
maintenance of communal unity, despite the Malabar developments, was in itself no 
mean achievement. There is hardly any doubt that it was minority participation that 
gave the movement its truly mass character in many areas. And it was, indeed, 
unfortunate that this most positive feature of the movement was not to be repeated in 
later years once communalism began to take its toll. [324 words] 
 [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from India’s Struggle for Independence1857-1947, by 
Bipin Chandra and Others, Penguin Books, 1989.] 
1. From the passage it is evident that: 
 (A) The idea of Swaraj seemed futile 
(B) The non-cooperation movement was a complete success 
(C) The non-cooperation movement gained the sympathy of majority of the Indians 
(D) The Indian National Congress represented microscopic minority 
2. The term “poor dumb millions” refer to- 
(A) The vast number of common people who are impoverished 
(B) Large number of common people who are hearing impaired 
(C) Large number of people who are vulnerable 
(D) The vast number of people who are impoverished and uneducated 
 
 
 
 
UG 2026  ?   4
3. Which of the statements is true? 
(A) The Swaraj movement happened before the non co-operation movement 
(B) The non co-operation movement failed due to sudden withdrawal 
(C) There was a fine show of communal unity in the movement 
(D) The rich and the educated kept themselves away from the non co-operation 
movement 
4. The main idea of the passage is- 
(A) The Non co-operation movement did not give impetus to the future movements 
(B) The movement made the Indians realize their potential to fight against the mighty 
British 
(C) The British became fearful and worried of Gandhiji’s leadership and co-operation of 
Indians 
(D) That the most positive feature of the movement was that it was repeated in later 
years 
5. The word “Communalism”  in the above passage refers to-  
(A) Religious identity (B) Caste identity 
(C) Regional identity (D) Secularism 
II.  There were humans long before there was history. The archaic humans loved, played, 
formed close friendships and competed for status and power, but so did chimpanzees, 
baboons and elephants. There was nothing special about them. 
Nobody, least of all humans themselves, had any inkling that their descendants would 
one day walk on the moon, split the atom, fathom the genetic code and write history 
books. The most important thing to know about prehistoric humans is that they were 
incognisant animals with no more impact on their environment than gorillas, fireflies or 
jellyfish. 
Biologists classify organisms into species. Animals are said to belong to the same species 
if they tend to mate with each other, giving birth to fertile offspring. Horses and donkeys 
have a recent common ancestor and share many physical traits. They will mate if 
induced to do so - but their offspring, called mules, are sterile. Mutations in donkey DNA 
can therefore never cross over to horses, or vice versa. The two types of animals are 
consequently considered two distinct species, moving along separate evolutionary paths. 
By contrast, a bulldog and a spaniel may look very different, but they are members of the 
same species, sharing the same DNA pool. [203 words] 
(Extracted from Sapiens: A Brief History of Humankind by Yuval Noah Harari) 
6. Which of the following can be inferred as the most significant characteristic of 
prehistoric humans, as per the passage? 
(A) Their conscious effort to alter and shape their environment for survival 
(B) Their complex social organization and clear hierarchical structures that set them 
apart from other species 
(C) Their evolutionary divergence was marked by warfare and the pursuit of 
dominance over rival species 
(D) Their inability to distinguish themselves from other species in terms of 
environmental impact 
Page 5


 
 
 
   
? 
UG 2026 
 
 
 
 
  
1. Name of the Candidate : 
2. Admit Card Number  : 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
Duration of the Test : 2 hours (120 minutes) * Maximum Marks : 120      
1.   This Question Booklet (QB) contains 120        
(One hundred and Twenty) Multiple Choice 
Questions across 40 (Forty) pages including 
2 (Two) blank pages for rough work. No  
additional sheet(s) of paper will be supplied 
for rough work. 
2.   You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 
(OMR) Response Sheet supplied along with 
this QB. You must READ the detailed  
instructions provided with the OMR Response 
Sheet on the reverse side of this packet 
BEFORE you start the test.  
3.   No clarification can be sought on the QB 
from anyone. In case of any discrepancy  
such as printing error or missing pages, in 
the QB, request the Invigilator to replace  
the QB and OMR Response Sheet. Do not 
use the previous OMR Response sheet with 
the fresh QB. 
 
 
 
 
 
4.   You should write the QB Number, and the  
OMR Response Sheet Number, and sign in 
the space/column provided in the  
Attendance Sheet. 
5.   The QB for the Under Graduate  
Programme is for 120 marks. Every Right  
Answer secures 1 mark. Every Wrong  
Answer results in the deduction of  
0.25 mark. There shall be no deductions for 
Unanswered Questions. 
6.   You may retain the QB and the Candidate’s 
copy of the OMR Response Sheet after the 
end of the test. 
7.   The use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of  
Electronic Devices such as mobile phones, 
headphones, digital watches, etc., is/are 
strictly prohibited in the test premises.  
Impersonation or any other unlawful  
practice will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, appropriate action under the 
law. 
QUESTION BOOKLET NO.
DO NOT OPEN TILL 2 P.M. 
* Except for PWD Candidates who are eligible for extra time as per the law. 
 
 
   
UG 2026 ? 2
 
 
 
 
 
CONTENTS 
 
Subject Q.Nos. Page No. 
 Section I – English Language 
1 – 24 3 – 9 
 Section II – Current Affairs including 
 General Knowledge 
25 – 52 10 – 17 
 Section III – Legal Reasoning 
53 – 82  18 – 28 
 Section IV – Logical Reasoning 
83 – 108 29 – 35 
 Section V – Quantitative Aptitude 
109 – 120 36 – 38 
 
 
 
 
   
UG 2026 ?    3
SECTION I 
I. The adoption of the Non-Cooperation Movement by the Congress gave it a new energy 
and from January 1921 it began to register considerable success all over the country. 
Gandhiji undertook a nation-wide tour during which he addressed hundreds of meetings 
and met a large number of political workers. In the first month, thousands of students 
left their educational institutions and joined more than 800 national schools and colleges 
that had sprung up all over the country. Gandhiji had promised Swaraj within a year, if 
his programme was adopted. 
 The Non-Cooperation Movement demonstrated that it commanded the support and 
sympathy of vast sections of the Indian people. Its reach among many sections of Indian 
peasants, workers, artisans etc, had been demonstrated. The spatial spread of the 
movement was also nation-wide. Some areas were more active than others, but there 
were few that showed no signs of activity at all. 
 The capacity of the ‘poor dumb millions’ of India to take part in modern nationalist 
politics was also demonstrated. This was the first time that nationalists from the towns, 
students from schools and colleges or even the educated and politically aware in the 
villages had made a serious attempt to bring the ideology and the movement into their 
midst. 
 The tremendous participation of different communities in the movement, and the 
maintenance of communal unity, despite the Malabar developments, was in itself no 
mean achievement. There is hardly any doubt that it was minority participation that 
gave the movement its truly mass character in many areas. And it was, indeed, 
unfortunate that this most positive feature of the movement was not to be repeated in 
later years once communalism began to take its toll. [324 words] 
 [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from India’s Struggle for Independence1857-1947, by 
Bipin Chandra and Others, Penguin Books, 1989.] 
1. From the passage it is evident that: 
 (A) The idea of Swaraj seemed futile 
(B) The non-cooperation movement was a complete success 
(C) The non-cooperation movement gained the sympathy of majority of the Indians 
(D) The Indian National Congress represented microscopic minority 
2. The term “poor dumb millions” refer to- 
(A) The vast number of common people who are impoverished 
(B) Large number of common people who are hearing impaired 
(C) Large number of people who are vulnerable 
(D) The vast number of people who are impoverished and uneducated 
 
 
 
 
UG 2026  ?   4
3. Which of the statements is true? 
(A) The Swaraj movement happened before the non co-operation movement 
(B) The non co-operation movement failed due to sudden withdrawal 
(C) There was a fine show of communal unity in the movement 
(D) The rich and the educated kept themselves away from the non co-operation 
movement 
4. The main idea of the passage is- 
(A) The Non co-operation movement did not give impetus to the future movements 
(B) The movement made the Indians realize their potential to fight against the mighty 
British 
(C) The British became fearful and worried of Gandhiji’s leadership and co-operation of 
Indians 
(D) That the most positive feature of the movement was that it was repeated in later 
years 
5. The word “Communalism”  in the above passage refers to-  
(A) Religious identity (B) Caste identity 
(C) Regional identity (D) Secularism 
II.  There were humans long before there was history. The archaic humans loved, played, 
formed close friendships and competed for status and power, but so did chimpanzees, 
baboons and elephants. There was nothing special about them. 
Nobody, least of all humans themselves, had any inkling that their descendants would 
one day walk on the moon, split the atom, fathom the genetic code and write history 
books. The most important thing to know about prehistoric humans is that they were 
incognisant animals with no more impact on their environment than gorillas, fireflies or 
jellyfish. 
Biologists classify organisms into species. Animals are said to belong to the same species 
if they tend to mate with each other, giving birth to fertile offspring. Horses and donkeys 
have a recent common ancestor and share many physical traits. They will mate if 
induced to do so - but their offspring, called mules, are sterile. Mutations in donkey DNA 
can therefore never cross over to horses, or vice versa. The two types of animals are 
consequently considered two distinct species, moving along separate evolutionary paths. 
By contrast, a bulldog and a spaniel may look very different, but they are members of the 
same species, sharing the same DNA pool. [203 words] 
(Extracted from Sapiens: A Brief History of Humankind by Yuval Noah Harari) 
6. Which of the following can be inferred as the most significant characteristic of 
prehistoric humans, as per the passage? 
(A) Their conscious effort to alter and shape their environment for survival 
(B) Their complex social organization and clear hierarchical structures that set them 
apart from other species 
(C) Their evolutionary divergence was marked by warfare and the pursuit of 
dominance over rival species 
(D) Their inability to distinguish themselves from other species in terms of 
environmental impact 
 
 
 
 
   
UG 2026 ?    5
7. In the context of the passage, the term ‘incognisant’ most likely means: 
(A) Lacking intelligence 
(B) Unaware of their future potential 
(C) Incapable of social interaction 
(D) Disinterested in the environment 
8. Which of the following best explains why humans did not initially stand out among other 
organisms? 
(A) They had fewer offspring than other species 
(B) Their behaviours were not unique compared to other animals 
(C) They did not yet evolve the ability to use tools 
(D) They lacked the genetic capacity to develop language 
9. According to the passage, what determines whether two animals belong to the same 
species? 
(A) Their ability to produce fertile offspring 
(B) Their physical appearance and size 
(C) Their shared evolutionary ancestor 
(D) Their capacity to adapt to the environment 
10. The passage explains the concept of species classification by  
(A) Highlighting the behavioural differences between species like horses, donkeys, 
bulldogs and spaniels 
(B) Focusing on the DNA pool they share 
(C) Contrasting horses and bulldogs with donkeys and spaniels to explain reproductive 
compatibility 
(D) Discussing the environmental impact of different species like horses and donkeys, 
and bulldogs and spaniels 
Read More

FAQs on CLAT Previous Year Question Paper - 2026

1. What is the CLAT exam?
Ans. The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) is an entrance examination for admission to undergraduate and postgraduate law programmes in various National Law Universities across the country. It assesses candidates on various subjects, including English, General Knowledge, Legal Aptitude, Logical Reasoning, and Mathematics.
2. What subjects are included in the CLAT syllabus?
Ans. The CLAT syllabus includes five key subjects: English Language, General Knowledge and Current Affairs, Legal Reasoning, Logical Reasoning, and Quantitative Techniques. Each subject tests different skills, such as comprehension, analytical ability, and legal knowledge.
3. How is the CLAT exam structured?
Ans. The CLAT exam is structured as a multiple-choice question (MCQ) format, comprising a set number of questions that candidates must answer within a specified time frame. Each correct answer awards marks, while incorrect answers may result in negative marking.
4. What is the significance of the Legal Aptitude section in CLAT?
Ans. The Legal Aptitude section is significant as it evaluates a candidate's understanding of legal principles and their ability to apply them to factual situations. This section is crucial for assessing a candidate's suitability for a career in law, as it tests their analytical skills and knowledge of legal reasoning.
5. How can candidates prepare effectively for the CLAT exam?
Ans. Candidates can prepare effectively for the CLAT exam by developing a structured study plan, focusing on each subject area, practising previous years' question papers, and taking mock tests to improve time management and accuracy. Additionally, staying updated with current affairs and enhancing reading comprehension skills are essential for success in the exam.
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