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 Page 1


ALLEN
1
CODE - X
46. Which one of the following statements is correct,
with reference to enzymes ?
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Ans. (1)
47. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not
cause the release of :
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor(2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH (4) Renin
Ans. (1)
48. Which cells of "Crypts of Lieberkuhn" secrete
antibacterial lysozyme ?
(1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells
(3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
Ans. (1)
49. Which of the following are not polymeric ?
(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
Ans. (3)
50. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
into ?
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac
(3) Embryo (4) Ovule
Ans. (2)
51. Myelin sheath is produced by :
(1) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
(2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(4) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes
Ans. (4)
52. Attractants and rewards are required for :
(1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
Ans. (1)
53. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present
on :
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane
(2) Tips of axons
(3) Post-synaptic membrane
(4) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
Ans. (3)
54. Coconut fruit is a :
(1) Berry (2) Nut
(3) Capsule (4) Drupe
Ans. (4)
NEET–2017 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTIONS
(HELD ON SUNDAY 07
th
 MAY , 2017)
55. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature ?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
transport
(1) only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) only (d)
Ans. (4)
56. Capacitation occurs in :
(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Female reproductive tract
(4) Rete testis
Ans. (3)
57. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions ?
(1) Eubacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria (4) Archaebacteria
Ans. (4)
58. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
when :
(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value  of 'r' approaches zero
Ans. (1)
59. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher
milk output represents :
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the
character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one
yielding higher output and the other lower
output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character
in the population
Ans. (1)
60. Select the mismatch :
(1) Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza
(2) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
(3) Rhizobium - Alfalfa
(4) Frankia - Alnus
Ans. (1)
Page 2


ALLEN
1
CODE - X
46. Which one of the following statements is correct,
with reference to enzymes ?
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Ans. (1)
47. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not
cause the release of :
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor(2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH (4) Renin
Ans. (1)
48. Which cells of "Crypts of Lieberkuhn" secrete
antibacterial lysozyme ?
(1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells
(3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
Ans. (1)
49. Which of the following are not polymeric ?
(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
Ans. (3)
50. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
into ?
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac
(3) Embryo (4) Ovule
Ans. (2)
51. Myelin sheath is produced by :
(1) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
(2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(4) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes
Ans. (4)
52. Attractants and rewards are required for :
(1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
Ans. (1)
53. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present
on :
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane
(2) Tips of axons
(3) Post-synaptic membrane
(4) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
Ans. (3)
54. Coconut fruit is a :
(1) Berry (2) Nut
(3) Capsule (4) Drupe
Ans. (4)
NEET–2017 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTIONS
(HELD ON SUNDAY 07
th
 MAY , 2017)
55. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature ?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
transport
(1) only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) only (d)
Ans. (4)
56. Capacitation occurs in :
(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Female reproductive tract
(4) Rete testis
Ans. (3)
57. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions ?
(1) Eubacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria (4) Archaebacteria
Ans. (4)
58. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
when :
(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value  of 'r' approaches zero
Ans. (1)
59. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher
milk output represents :
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the
character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one
yielding higher output and the other lower
output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character
in the population
Ans. (1)
60. Select the mismatch :
(1) Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza
(2) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
(3) Rhizobium - Alfalfa
(4) Frankia - Alnus
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
2
NEET-2017
61. Good vision depends on adequate intake of
carotene rich food :
Select the best option from the following
statements :
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the
membrane discs of the inner segment
(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
photopigments
Options :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
Ans. (1)
62. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
can be visualised after staining with :
(1) Acetocarmine (2) Aniline blue
(3) Ethidium bromide (4) Bromophenol blue
Ans. (3)
63. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver
from :
(1) Stomach (2) Kidneys
(3) Intestine (4) Heart
Ans. (3)
64. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :
(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary xylem
(3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm
Ans. (2)
65. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select
the correct statement :
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
molecules
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative
problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
Ans. (2)
66. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are I
A
I
B
 
and
I
A 
i
.
Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
Ans. (2)
67. Which of the following facilitates opening of
stomatal aperture ?
(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
cell wall of guard cells
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils
in the cell wall of guard cells
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
Ans. (2)
68. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of :
(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem
(3) Leaf (4) Stipules
Ans. (2)
69. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
conservation of threatened animals and plants ?
(1) Biodiversity hot spots
(2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Himalayan region
(4) Wildlife safari parks
Ans. (4)
70. Root hairs develop from the region of :
(1) Elongation (2) root cap
(3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation
Ans. (4)
71. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-
disjunction is :
(1) Klinefelter's Syndrome(2) Turner's Syndrome
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia (4) Down's Syndrome
Ans. (4)
72. The water potential of pure water is :
(1) Less than zero
(2) More than zero but less than one
(3) More than one
(4) Zero
Ans. (4)
73. Which of the following options gives the correct
sequence of events during mitosis ?
(1) Condensation ® nuclear membrane
disassembly ® arrangement at equator ®
centromere division ® segregation ® telophase
(2) Condensation ® crossing over ® nuclear
membrane disassembly ® segregation ®
telophase
(3) Condensation ® arrangement at equator ®
centromere division ® segregation ® telophase
(4) Condensation ® nuclear membrane disassembly
® crossing over ® segregation ® telophase
Ans. (1)
Page 3


ALLEN
1
CODE - X
46. Which one of the following statements is correct,
with reference to enzymes ?
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Ans. (1)
47. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not
cause the release of :
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor(2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH (4) Renin
Ans. (1)
48. Which cells of "Crypts of Lieberkuhn" secrete
antibacterial lysozyme ?
(1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells
(3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
Ans. (1)
49. Which of the following are not polymeric ?
(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
Ans. (3)
50. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
into ?
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac
(3) Embryo (4) Ovule
Ans. (2)
51. Myelin sheath is produced by :
(1) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
(2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(4) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes
Ans. (4)
52. Attractants and rewards are required for :
(1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
Ans. (1)
53. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present
on :
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane
(2) Tips of axons
(3) Post-synaptic membrane
(4) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
Ans. (3)
54. Coconut fruit is a :
(1) Berry (2) Nut
(3) Capsule (4) Drupe
Ans. (4)
NEET–2017 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTIONS
(HELD ON SUNDAY 07
th
 MAY , 2017)
55. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature ?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
transport
(1) only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) only (d)
Ans. (4)
56. Capacitation occurs in :
(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Female reproductive tract
(4) Rete testis
Ans. (3)
57. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions ?
(1) Eubacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria (4) Archaebacteria
Ans. (4)
58. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
when :
(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value  of 'r' approaches zero
Ans. (1)
59. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher
milk output represents :
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the
character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one
yielding higher output and the other lower
output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character
in the population
Ans. (1)
60. Select the mismatch :
(1) Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza
(2) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
(3) Rhizobium - Alfalfa
(4) Frankia - Alnus
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
2
NEET-2017
61. Good vision depends on adequate intake of
carotene rich food :
Select the best option from the following
statements :
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the
membrane discs of the inner segment
(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
photopigments
Options :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
Ans. (1)
62. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
can be visualised after staining with :
(1) Acetocarmine (2) Aniline blue
(3) Ethidium bromide (4) Bromophenol blue
Ans. (3)
63. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver
from :
(1) Stomach (2) Kidneys
(3) Intestine (4) Heart
Ans. (3)
64. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :
(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary xylem
(3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm
Ans. (2)
65. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select
the correct statement :
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
molecules
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative
problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
Ans. (2)
66. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are I
A
I
B
 
and
I
A 
i
.
Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
Ans. (2)
67. Which of the following facilitates opening of
stomatal aperture ?
(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
cell wall of guard cells
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils
in the cell wall of guard cells
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
Ans. (2)
68. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of :
(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem
(3) Leaf (4) Stipules
Ans. (2)
69. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
conservation of threatened animals and plants ?
(1) Biodiversity hot spots
(2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Himalayan region
(4) Wildlife safari parks
Ans. (4)
70. Root hairs develop from the region of :
(1) Elongation (2) root cap
(3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation
Ans. (4)
71. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-
disjunction is :
(1) Klinefelter's Syndrome(2) Turner's Syndrome
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia (4) Down's Syndrome
Ans. (4)
72. The water potential of pure water is :
(1) Less than zero
(2) More than zero but less than one
(3) More than one
(4) Zero
Ans. (4)
73. Which of the following options gives the correct
sequence of events during mitosis ?
(1) Condensation ® nuclear membrane
disassembly ® arrangement at equator ®
centromere division ® segregation ® telophase
(2) Condensation ® crossing over ® nuclear
membrane disassembly ® segregation ®
telophase
(3) Condensation ® arrangement at equator ®
centromere division ® segregation ® telophase
(4) Condensation ® nuclear membrane disassembly
® crossing over ® segregation ® telophase
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
3
CODE - X
74. The process of separation and purification of
expressed protein before marketing is called :
(1) Downstream processing
(2) Bioprocessing
(3) Postproduction processing
(4) Upstream processing
Ans. (1)
75. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body
is :
(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) corpus luteum
(3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland
Ans. (2)
76. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?
(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma
Ans. (2)
77. An example of colonial alga is :
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
Ans. (1)
78. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases
(Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II)
and select the correct option :
Column-I Column-II
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) iv ii iii i
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii iii iv i
Ans. (4)
79. The function of copper ions in copper releasing
IUD's is :
(1) They inhibit gametogenesis
(2) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) They inhibt ovulation
(4) The suppress sperm motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms
Ans. (4)
80. Which of the following in sewage treatment
removes suspended solids ?
(1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
Ans. (2)
81. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
share with Chordates is :
(1) Ventral tubular nerve cord
(2) Pharynx with gill slits
(3) Pharynx without gill slits
(4) Absence of notochord
Ans. (2)
82. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material
came from the experiments of :
(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Hargobind Khorana
(4) Griffith
Ans. (1)
83. Among the following characters, which one was
not considered by Mendel in his experiments on
pea ?
(1) Trichomes ? Glandular or non-glandular
(2) Seed ? Green or Yellow
(3) Pod ? Inflated or Constricted
(4) Stem - Tall or Dwarf
Ans. (1)
84. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores
and show vivipary belong to :
(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes
(3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes
Ans. (1)
85. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type
of :
(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint
(3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
Ans. (2)
86. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following statements
is not correct ?
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO
2
 concentration up
to 0.05% can enhance CO
2
 fixation rate
(2)C
3
 plants respond to higher temperatures with
enhanced photosynthesis while C
4
 plants have
much lower temperature optimum
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
grown in CO
2
 - enriched atmosphere for higher
yield
(4) Light saturation for CO
2
 fixation occurs at 10%
of full sunlight
Ans. (2)
87. DNA fragments are:
(1) Negatively charged
(2) Neutral
(3) Either positively or negatively charged
depending on their size
(4) Positively charged
Ans. (1)
Page 4


ALLEN
1
CODE - X
46. Which one of the following statements is correct,
with reference to enzymes ?
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Ans. (1)
47. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not
cause the release of :
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor(2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH (4) Renin
Ans. (1)
48. Which cells of "Crypts of Lieberkuhn" secrete
antibacterial lysozyme ?
(1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells
(3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
Ans. (1)
49. Which of the following are not polymeric ?
(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
Ans. (3)
50. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
into ?
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac
(3) Embryo (4) Ovule
Ans. (2)
51. Myelin sheath is produced by :
(1) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
(2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(4) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes
Ans. (4)
52. Attractants and rewards are required for :
(1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
Ans. (1)
53. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present
on :
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane
(2) Tips of axons
(3) Post-synaptic membrane
(4) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
Ans. (3)
54. Coconut fruit is a :
(1) Berry (2) Nut
(3) Capsule (4) Drupe
Ans. (4)
NEET–2017 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTIONS
(HELD ON SUNDAY 07
th
 MAY , 2017)
55. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature ?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
transport
(1) only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) only (d)
Ans. (4)
56. Capacitation occurs in :
(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Female reproductive tract
(4) Rete testis
Ans. (3)
57. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions ?
(1) Eubacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria (4) Archaebacteria
Ans. (4)
58. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
when :
(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value  of 'r' approaches zero
Ans. (1)
59. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher
milk output represents :
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the
character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one
yielding higher output and the other lower
output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character
in the population
Ans. (1)
60. Select the mismatch :
(1) Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza
(2) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
(3) Rhizobium - Alfalfa
(4) Frankia - Alnus
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
2
NEET-2017
61. Good vision depends on adequate intake of
carotene rich food :
Select the best option from the following
statements :
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the
membrane discs of the inner segment
(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
photopigments
Options :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
Ans. (1)
62. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
can be visualised after staining with :
(1) Acetocarmine (2) Aniline blue
(3) Ethidium bromide (4) Bromophenol blue
Ans. (3)
63. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver
from :
(1) Stomach (2) Kidneys
(3) Intestine (4) Heart
Ans. (3)
64. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :
(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary xylem
(3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm
Ans. (2)
65. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select
the correct statement :
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
molecules
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative
problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
Ans. (2)
66. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are I
A
I
B
 
and
I
A 
i
.
Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
Ans. (2)
67. Which of the following facilitates opening of
stomatal aperture ?
(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
cell wall of guard cells
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils
in the cell wall of guard cells
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
Ans. (2)
68. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of :
(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem
(3) Leaf (4) Stipules
Ans. (2)
69. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
conservation of threatened animals and plants ?
(1) Biodiversity hot spots
(2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Himalayan region
(4) Wildlife safari parks
Ans. (4)
70. Root hairs develop from the region of :
(1) Elongation (2) root cap
(3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation
Ans. (4)
71. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-
disjunction is :
(1) Klinefelter's Syndrome(2) Turner's Syndrome
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia (4) Down's Syndrome
Ans. (4)
72. The water potential of pure water is :
(1) Less than zero
(2) More than zero but less than one
(3) More than one
(4) Zero
Ans. (4)
73. Which of the following options gives the correct
sequence of events during mitosis ?
(1) Condensation ® nuclear membrane
disassembly ® arrangement at equator ®
centromere division ® segregation ® telophase
(2) Condensation ® crossing over ® nuclear
membrane disassembly ® segregation ®
telophase
(3) Condensation ® arrangement at equator ®
centromere division ® segregation ® telophase
(4) Condensation ® nuclear membrane disassembly
® crossing over ® segregation ® telophase
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
3
CODE - X
74. The process of separation and purification of
expressed protein before marketing is called :
(1) Downstream processing
(2) Bioprocessing
(3) Postproduction processing
(4) Upstream processing
Ans. (1)
75. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body
is :
(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) corpus luteum
(3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland
Ans. (2)
76. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?
(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma
Ans. (2)
77. An example of colonial alga is :
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
Ans. (1)
78. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases
(Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II)
and select the correct option :
Column-I Column-II
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) iv ii iii i
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii iii iv i
Ans. (4)
79. The function of copper ions in copper releasing
IUD's is :
(1) They inhibit gametogenesis
(2) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) They inhibt ovulation
(4) The suppress sperm motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms
Ans. (4)
80. Which of the following in sewage treatment
removes suspended solids ?
(1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
Ans. (2)
81. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
share with Chordates is :
(1) Ventral tubular nerve cord
(2) Pharynx with gill slits
(3) Pharynx without gill slits
(4) Absence of notochord
Ans. (2)
82. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material
came from the experiments of :
(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Hargobind Khorana
(4) Griffith
Ans. (1)
83. Among the following characters, which one was
not considered by Mendel in his experiments on
pea ?
(1) Trichomes ? Glandular or non-glandular
(2) Seed ? Green or Yellow
(3) Pod ? Inflated or Constricted
(4) Stem - Tall or Dwarf
Ans. (1)
84. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores
and show vivipary belong to :
(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes
(3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes
Ans. (1)
85. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type
of :
(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint
(3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
Ans. (2)
86. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following statements
is not correct ?
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO
2
 concentration up
to 0.05% can enhance CO
2
 fixation rate
(2)C
3
 plants respond to higher temperatures with
enhanced photosynthesis while C
4
 plants have
much lower temperature optimum
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
grown in CO
2
 - enriched atmosphere for higher
yield
(4) Light saturation for CO
2
 fixation occurs at 10%
of full sunlight
Ans. (2)
87. DNA fragments are:
(1) Negatively charged
(2) Neutral
(3) Either positively or negatively charged
depending on their size
(4) Positively charged
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
4
NEET-2017
88. Which of the following components provides sticky
character to the bacterial cell ?
(1) Nuclear membrane
(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Glycocalyx
(4) Cell wall
Ans. (3)
89. Which of the following options best represents the
enzyme composition of pancreatic juice ?
(1) amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(2) peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
(3) lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
(4) amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
Ans. (3)
90. Which among these is the correct combination of
aquatic mammals ?
(1) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(2) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
(3) Trygon, Whales, Seals
(4) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
Ans. (2)
91. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented
by the application of:
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinins
Ans. (2)
92. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
in male frogs:
(1) Testes ® Vasa efferentia ® Kidney ® Seminal
Vesicle ® Urinogenital duct ® Cloaca
(2) Testes ® Vasa efferentia ® Bidder's canal ®
Ureter ® Cloaca
(3) Testes ® Vasa efferentia ® Kidney ® Bidder's
canal ® Urinogenital duct ® Cloaca
(4) Testes ® Bidder's canal ® Kidney ® Vasa
efferentia ® Urinogenital duct ® Cloaca
Ans. (3)
93. In case of a couple where the male is having a very
low sperm count, which technique will be suitable
for fertilisation ?
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(2) Artificial Insemination
(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(4) Intrauterine transfer
Ans. (2)
94. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass ?
(1) Grassland ecosystem
(2) Pond ecosystem
(3) Lake ecosystem
(4) Forest ecosystem
Ans. (4)
95. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli.
They do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
because of:
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(2) Tidal Volume
(3) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(4) Residual Volume
Ans. (4)
96. Presence of plants arranged into well defined
vertical layers depending on their height can be seen
best in:
(1) Tropical Rain Forest (2) Grassland
(3) Temperate Forest (4) Tropical Savannah
Ans. (1)
97. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water.
(2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
permeable to water.
(3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
permeable to electrolytes.
(4) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water.
Ans. (4)
98. Alexander V on Humbolt described for the first time:
(1) Laws of limiting factor
(2) Species area relationships
(3) Population Growth equation
(4) Ecological Biodiversity
Ans. (2)
99. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of;
(1) Fucus (2) Funaria
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Marchantia
Ans. (3)
100. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for
a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the
RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
altered ?
(1) 11 (2) 33 (3) 333 (4) 1
Ans. (2)
Page 5


ALLEN
1
CODE - X
46. Which one of the following statements is correct,
with reference to enzymes ?
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Ans. (1)
47. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not
cause the release of :
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor(2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH (4) Renin
Ans. (1)
48. Which cells of "Crypts of Lieberkuhn" secrete
antibacterial lysozyme ?
(1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells
(3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
Ans. (1)
49. Which of the following are not polymeric ?
(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
Ans. (3)
50. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
into ?
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac
(3) Embryo (4) Ovule
Ans. (2)
51. Myelin sheath is produced by :
(1) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
(2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(4) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes
Ans. (4)
52. Attractants and rewards are required for :
(1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
Ans. (1)
53. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present
on :
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane
(2) Tips of axons
(3) Post-synaptic membrane
(4) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
Ans. (3)
54. Coconut fruit is a :
(1) Berry (2) Nut
(3) Capsule (4) Drupe
Ans. (4)
NEET–2017 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTIONS
(HELD ON SUNDAY 07
th
 MAY , 2017)
55. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature ?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
transport
(1) only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) only (d)
Ans. (4)
56. Capacitation occurs in :
(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Female reproductive tract
(4) Rete testis
Ans. (3)
57. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions ?
(1) Eubacteria (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria (4) Archaebacteria
Ans. (4)
58. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
when :
(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value  of 'r' approaches zero
Ans. (1)
59. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher
milk output represents :
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the
character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one
yielding higher output and the other lower
output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character
in the population
Ans. (1)
60. Select the mismatch :
(1) Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza
(2) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
(3) Rhizobium - Alfalfa
(4) Frankia - Alnus
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
2
NEET-2017
61. Good vision depends on adequate intake of
carotene rich food :
Select the best option from the following
statements :
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the
membrane discs of the inner segment
(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
photopigments
Options :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
Ans. (1)
62. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
can be visualised after staining with :
(1) Acetocarmine (2) Aniline blue
(3) Ethidium bromide (4) Bromophenol blue
Ans. (3)
63. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver
from :
(1) Stomach (2) Kidneys
(3) Intestine (4) Heart
Ans. (3)
64. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :
(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary xylem
(3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm
Ans. (2)
65. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select
the correct statement :
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
molecules
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative
problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
Ans. (2)
66. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are I
A
I
B
 
and
I
A 
i
.
Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
Ans. (2)
67. Which of the following facilitates opening of
stomatal aperture ?
(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
cell wall of guard cells
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils
in the cell wall of guard cells
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
Ans. (2)
68. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of :
(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem
(3) Leaf (4) Stipules
Ans. (2)
69. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
conservation of threatened animals and plants ?
(1) Biodiversity hot spots
(2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Himalayan region
(4) Wildlife safari parks
Ans. (4)
70. Root hairs develop from the region of :
(1) Elongation (2) root cap
(3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation
Ans. (4)
71. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-
disjunction is :
(1) Klinefelter's Syndrome(2) Turner's Syndrome
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia (4) Down's Syndrome
Ans. (4)
72. The water potential of pure water is :
(1) Less than zero
(2) More than zero but less than one
(3) More than one
(4) Zero
Ans. (4)
73. Which of the following options gives the correct
sequence of events during mitosis ?
(1) Condensation ® nuclear membrane
disassembly ® arrangement at equator ®
centromere division ® segregation ® telophase
(2) Condensation ® crossing over ® nuclear
membrane disassembly ® segregation ®
telophase
(3) Condensation ® arrangement at equator ®
centromere division ® segregation ® telophase
(4) Condensation ® nuclear membrane disassembly
® crossing over ® segregation ® telophase
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
3
CODE - X
74. The process of separation and purification of
expressed protein before marketing is called :
(1) Downstream processing
(2) Bioprocessing
(3) Postproduction processing
(4) Upstream processing
Ans. (1)
75. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body
is :
(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) corpus luteum
(3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland
Ans. (2)
76. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?
(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma
Ans. (2)
77. An example of colonial alga is :
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
Ans. (1)
78. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases
(Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II)
and select the correct option :
Column-I Column-II
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) iv ii iii i
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii iii iv i
Ans. (4)
79. The function of copper ions in copper releasing
IUD's is :
(1) They inhibit gametogenesis
(2) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) They inhibt ovulation
(4) The suppress sperm motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms
Ans. (4)
80. Which of the following in sewage treatment
removes suspended solids ?
(1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
Ans. (2)
81. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
share with Chordates is :
(1) Ventral tubular nerve cord
(2) Pharynx with gill slits
(3) Pharynx without gill slits
(4) Absence of notochord
Ans. (2)
82. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material
came from the experiments of :
(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Hargobind Khorana
(4) Griffith
Ans. (1)
83. Among the following characters, which one was
not considered by Mendel in his experiments on
pea ?
(1) Trichomes ? Glandular or non-glandular
(2) Seed ? Green or Yellow
(3) Pod ? Inflated or Constricted
(4) Stem - Tall or Dwarf
Ans. (1)
84. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores
and show vivipary belong to :
(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes
(3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes
Ans. (1)
85. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type
of :
(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint
(3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
Ans. (2)
86. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following statements
is not correct ?
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO
2
 concentration up
to 0.05% can enhance CO
2
 fixation rate
(2)C
3
 plants respond to higher temperatures with
enhanced photosynthesis while C
4
 plants have
much lower temperature optimum
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
grown in CO
2
 - enriched atmosphere for higher
yield
(4) Light saturation for CO
2
 fixation occurs at 10%
of full sunlight
Ans. (2)
87. DNA fragments are:
(1) Negatively charged
(2) Neutral
(3) Either positively or negatively charged
depending on their size
(4) Positively charged
Ans. (1)
ALLEN
4
NEET-2017
88. Which of the following components provides sticky
character to the bacterial cell ?
(1) Nuclear membrane
(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Glycocalyx
(4) Cell wall
Ans. (3)
89. Which of the following options best represents the
enzyme composition of pancreatic juice ?
(1) amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(2) peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
(3) lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
(4) amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
Ans. (3)
90. Which among these is the correct combination of
aquatic mammals ?
(1) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(2) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
(3) Trygon, Whales, Seals
(4) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
Ans. (2)
91. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented
by the application of:
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinins
Ans. (2)
92. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
in male frogs:
(1) Testes ® Vasa efferentia ® Kidney ® Seminal
Vesicle ® Urinogenital duct ® Cloaca
(2) Testes ® Vasa efferentia ® Bidder's canal ®
Ureter ® Cloaca
(3) Testes ® Vasa efferentia ® Kidney ® Bidder's
canal ® Urinogenital duct ® Cloaca
(4) Testes ® Bidder's canal ® Kidney ® Vasa
efferentia ® Urinogenital duct ® Cloaca
Ans. (3)
93. In case of a couple where the male is having a very
low sperm count, which technique will be suitable
for fertilisation ?
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(2) Artificial Insemination
(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(4) Intrauterine transfer
Ans. (2)
94. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass ?
(1) Grassland ecosystem
(2) Pond ecosystem
(3) Lake ecosystem
(4) Forest ecosystem
Ans. (4)
95. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli.
They do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
because of:
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(2) Tidal Volume
(3) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(4) Residual Volume
Ans. (4)
96. Presence of plants arranged into well defined
vertical layers depending on their height can be seen
best in:
(1) Tropical Rain Forest (2) Grassland
(3) Temperate Forest (4) Tropical Savannah
Ans. (1)
97. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water.
(2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
permeable to water.
(3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
permeable to electrolytes.
(4) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water.
Ans. (4)
98. Alexander V on Humbolt described for the first time:
(1) Laws of limiting factor
(2) Species area relationships
(3) Population Growth equation
(4) Ecological Biodiversity
Ans. (2)
99. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of;
(1) Fucus (2) Funaria
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Marchantia
Ans. (3)
100. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for
a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the
RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
altered ?
(1) 11 (2) 33 (3) 333 (4) 1
Ans. (2)
ALLEN
5
CODE - X
101. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and
are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated
by:
(1) Bee (2) Wind
(3) Bat (4) Water
Ans. (2)
102. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to
non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type
of immune-response is responsible for such
rejections ?
(1) Cell - mediated immune response
(2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Autoimmune response
Ans. (1)
103. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:
(1) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(2) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(3) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
(4) Haplontic, Diplontic
Ans. (2)
104. A gene whose expression helps to identify
transformed cell is known as :
(1) Vector (2) Plasmid
(3) Structural gene (4) Selectable marker
Ans. (4)
105. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both :
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(4) Autogamy and xenogamy
Ans. (1)
106. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle ?
(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD
+
 is
reduced to FADH
2
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
(3) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield
citric acid
(4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD
+
is reduced to NADH+ H
+
Ans. (3)
107. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO
2
acceptor in:
(1) C
4
 plants
(2) C
2
 plants
(3) C
3
 and C
4
 plants
(4) C
3
 plants
Ans. (1)
108. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are
used to elongate:
(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork.
(2) The leading strand away from replication fork.
(3) The lagging strand away from the replication
fork.
(4) The leading strand towards replication fork.
Ans. (3)
109. Which of the following RNAs should be most
abundant in animal cell ?
(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA
(3) mi-RNA (4) r-RNA
Ans. (4)
110. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
reproduction, acts on:
(1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and FSH.
(2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
(3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and relaxin.
(4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and oxytocin.
Ans. (1)
111. What is the criterion for DN A fragments movement
on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?
(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it
moves
(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther
end
(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it
moves
Ans. (1)
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FAQs on Practice Test: NEET (with Answers), Medical

1. What is the NEET exam?
Ans. The NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) is a medical entrance exam conducted in India for students who wish to pursue undergraduate medical courses (MBBS/BDS) in government or private medical colleges.
2. How can I apply for the NEET exam?
Ans. To apply for the NEET exam, you need to visit the official website of the National Testing Agency (NTA) and fill out the online application form. The application process typically involves providing personal details, educational qualifications, uploading necessary documents, and paying the application fee.
3. What is the syllabus for the NEET exam?
Ans. The NEET exam syllabus includes subjects such as Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany and Zoology). The topics covered in these subjects are based on the curriculum of classes 11 and 12 of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).
4. How is the NEET exam conducted?
Ans. The NEET exam is conducted in an offline mode (pen and paper-based) for a duration of 3 hours. It consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) where candidates have to select the correct answer from the given options. The exam is conducted in various test centers across the country.
5. What is the eligibility criteria for the NEET exam?
Ans. The eligibility criteria for the NEET exam include: - Candidates must be Indian nationals or Overseas Citizens of India (OCI). - They should be at least 17 years of age at the time of admission or by December 31 of the year of admission. - Candidates must have completed their 10+2 or equivalent examination with Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology, and English as core subjects. - They should have scored the minimum qualifying percentage in their respective qualifying examination.
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