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CAREER POINT 
MOCK TEST PAPER for AIPMT 
Physics, Chemistry & Biology 
 
 
 
Time : 3 Hours  Maximum Marks : 720 
 
 
 
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 
 
GENERAL : 
1. This paper contains 180 Qs. in all. All questions are compulsory. 
2. There is Negative Marking.  
3. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work. 
4. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately. 
SEAL 
5. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator. 
6. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and  Electronic Gadgets in any 
form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 
MARKING SCHEME : 
1.  This paper contains, Single correct option, Sub option, Column Matching type and Diagram based question.  
2.  Only one option is correct out of four given options. For each incorrect response, one-mark would be deducted. 
3.      In Physics  :   Q.  1   -   45    carry    4    marks  each, 
  In Chemistry  :  Q.  46    -   90    carry    4   marks  each, 
  In Biology  :  Q.  91    -   180    carry    4   marks  each, 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Page 2


CAREER POINT 
MOCK TEST PAPER for AIPMT 
Physics, Chemistry & Biology 
 
 
 
Time : 3 Hours  Maximum Marks : 720 
 
 
 
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 
 
GENERAL : 
1. This paper contains 180 Qs. in all. All questions are compulsory. 
2. There is Negative Marking.  
3. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work. 
4. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately. 
SEAL 
5. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator. 
6. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and  Electronic Gadgets in any 
form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 
MARKING SCHEME : 
1.  This paper contains, Single correct option, Sub option, Column Matching type and Diagram based question.  
2.  Only one option is correct out of four given options. For each incorrect response, one-mark would be deducted. 
3.      In Physics  :   Q.  1   -   45    carry    4    marks  each, 
  In Chemistry  :  Q.  46    -   90    carry    4   marks  each, 
  In Biology  :  Q.  91    -   180    carry    4   marks  each, 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
PHYSICS 
 
CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200 | www.careerpoint.ac.in                               2 
 
Q.1 An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and 
then X is calculated from 
3
2 2 / 1
c
b a
X = . If the 
percentage error in a, b and c are ± 1%, ±3%, 
and ±2%, respectively, then the percentage 
error in X can be   
 (1) 12.5% (2) 7% (3) 1% (4) 4% 
   
Q.2 A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the 
bullet is given by :  
F = 600 – 2 × 10
5
t 
 Where F is in newton and t in second. The 
force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it 
leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse 
imparted to the bullet ? 
 (1) 9 N-s  (2) zero 
 (3) 0.9 N-s  (4) 1.8 N-s 
 
Q.3 A disc of radius 0.1 m rolls without sliding on 
a horizontal surface with a velocity of 6 m/s. 
It then ascends a smooth continuous track as 
shown in figure. The height upto which it will 
ascend is- (g = 10 m/s
2
) 
  
6 m/s 
 
  
 (1) 2.4 m (2) 0.9 m (3) 2.7 m (4) 1.8 m 
 
Q.4 Water from a stream is falling on the blades 
of a turbine at the rate of 100 kg/sec. If the 
height of the stream is 100 m, then the power 
delivered to the turbine is  -  
 (1) 100 kW  (2) 100 W 
 (3) 10 kW  (4) 1 kW  
    
Q.5  A uniform chain has a mass m and length l. It 
is held on a frictionless table with one-sixth 
of its length hanging over the edge. The work 
done in just pulling the hanging part back on the 
table is - 
 (1) 
72
mgl
 (2) 
36
mgl
 (3) 
12
mgl
 (4) 
6
mgl
 
 
Q.6 A bomb of 12 kg mass explodes into two 
pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity 
of 8 kg mass is 6 m s
–1
. The kinetic energy of 
the other mass is - 
 (1) 48 J (2) 32 J  (3) 24 J (4) 288 J   
 
Q.7 A particle of mass m moving with velocity v 
strikes a stationary particle of  mass 2 m and 
sticks to it. The speed of the system will be - 
 (1) v/2 (2) 2v (3) v/3 (4) 3v 
 
Q.8 An isolated particle of mass m is moving in 
the horizontal plane (x – y), along the x-axis, 
at a certain height above the ground. It 
suddenly explodes into two fragments of 
masses m/4 and 3 m/4.  An instant later, the 
smaller fragment is at y = +15 cm. The larger 
fragment at this instant is at -      
   
 (1) y = –5 cm (2) y = + 20 cm 
 (3) y = + 5 cm (4) y = –20 cm 
 
Q.9  What is the moment of inertia of a solid 
sphere of density ? and radius R about its 
diameter ? 
 (1) 
176
105
R
5
?   (2) 
176
105
R
2
? 
 (3) 
105
176
R
5
?  (4) 
105
176
R
2
?  
   
Q.10  A uniform rod of length l and mass m is 
suspended from one of its ends and it makes n 
revolutions per second. What is its rotational 
energy ?  
 (1) 
3
1
p
2
n
2
ml
2
   (2)
3
2
p
2
n
2
ml
2 
 (3) 
2
3
p
2
n
2
ml
2
  (4) 3p
2
n
2
ml
2
  
 
Q.11 The KE required to make a body move to 
infinity from the earth's surface is -  
 (1) infinite  (2) 2 mgR  
  (3) 1/2 mgR (4) mgR 
Page 3


CAREER POINT 
MOCK TEST PAPER for AIPMT 
Physics, Chemistry & Biology 
 
 
 
Time : 3 Hours  Maximum Marks : 720 
 
 
 
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 
 
GENERAL : 
1. This paper contains 180 Qs. in all. All questions are compulsory. 
2. There is Negative Marking.  
3. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work. 
4. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately. 
SEAL 
5. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator. 
6. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and  Electronic Gadgets in any 
form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 
MARKING SCHEME : 
1.  This paper contains, Single correct option, Sub option, Column Matching type and Diagram based question.  
2.  Only one option is correct out of four given options. For each incorrect response, one-mark would be deducted. 
3.      In Physics  :   Q.  1   -   45    carry    4    marks  each, 
  In Chemistry  :  Q.  46    -   90    carry    4   marks  each, 
  In Biology  :  Q.  91    -   180    carry    4   marks  each, 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
PHYSICS 
 
CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200 | www.careerpoint.ac.in                               2 
 
Q.1 An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and 
then X is calculated from 
3
2 2 / 1
c
b a
X = . If the 
percentage error in a, b and c are ± 1%, ±3%, 
and ±2%, respectively, then the percentage 
error in X can be   
 (1) 12.5% (2) 7% (3) 1% (4) 4% 
   
Q.2 A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the 
bullet is given by :  
F = 600 – 2 × 10
5
t 
 Where F is in newton and t in second. The 
force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it 
leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse 
imparted to the bullet ? 
 (1) 9 N-s  (2) zero 
 (3) 0.9 N-s  (4) 1.8 N-s 
 
Q.3 A disc of radius 0.1 m rolls without sliding on 
a horizontal surface with a velocity of 6 m/s. 
It then ascends a smooth continuous track as 
shown in figure. The height upto which it will 
ascend is- (g = 10 m/s
2
) 
  
6 m/s 
 
  
 (1) 2.4 m (2) 0.9 m (3) 2.7 m (4) 1.8 m 
 
Q.4 Water from a stream is falling on the blades 
of a turbine at the rate of 100 kg/sec. If the 
height of the stream is 100 m, then the power 
delivered to the turbine is  -  
 (1) 100 kW  (2) 100 W 
 (3) 10 kW  (4) 1 kW  
    
Q.5  A uniform chain has a mass m and length l. It 
is held on a frictionless table with one-sixth 
of its length hanging over the edge. The work 
done in just pulling the hanging part back on the 
table is - 
 (1) 
72
mgl
 (2) 
36
mgl
 (3) 
12
mgl
 (4) 
6
mgl
 
 
Q.6 A bomb of 12 kg mass explodes into two 
pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity 
of 8 kg mass is 6 m s
–1
. The kinetic energy of 
the other mass is - 
 (1) 48 J (2) 32 J  (3) 24 J (4) 288 J   
 
Q.7 A particle of mass m moving with velocity v 
strikes a stationary particle of  mass 2 m and 
sticks to it. The speed of the system will be - 
 (1) v/2 (2) 2v (3) v/3 (4) 3v 
 
Q.8 An isolated particle of mass m is moving in 
the horizontal plane (x – y), along the x-axis, 
at a certain height above the ground. It 
suddenly explodes into two fragments of 
masses m/4 and 3 m/4.  An instant later, the 
smaller fragment is at y = +15 cm. The larger 
fragment at this instant is at -      
   
 (1) y = –5 cm (2) y = + 20 cm 
 (3) y = + 5 cm (4) y = –20 cm 
 
Q.9  What is the moment of inertia of a solid 
sphere of density ? and radius R about its 
diameter ? 
 (1) 
176
105
R
5
?   (2) 
176
105
R
2
? 
 (3) 
105
176
R
5
?  (4) 
105
176
R
2
?  
   
Q.10  A uniform rod of length l and mass m is 
suspended from one of its ends and it makes n 
revolutions per second. What is its rotational 
energy ?  
 (1) 
3
1
p
2
n
2
ml
2
   (2)
3
2
p
2
n
2
ml
2 
 (3) 
2
3
p
2
n
2
ml
2
  (4) 3p
2
n
2
ml
2
  
 
Q.11 The KE required to make a body move to 
infinity from the earth's surface is -  
 (1) infinite  (2) 2 mgR  
  (3) 1/2 mgR (4) mgR 
 
 
 
 
 
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200           3 
Q.12 A disc is performing pure rolling on a smooth 
stationary surface with constant angular 
velocity as shown in figure. At any instant, 
for the lower most point of the disc -  
 
R 
V 
V/R 
 
 (1) Velocity is v, acceleration is zero 
 (2) Velocity is zero, acceleration is zero 
 (3) Velocity is v, acceleration is 
R
v
2
 
 (4) Velocity is zero, acceleration is nonzero 
 
Q.13 The correct graph representing the variation 
of total energy(E), kinetic energy(K) & 
potential energy (U) of a satellite with its 
distance from the centre of earth is -   
 (1) 
 
E 
Energy 
U 
r 
 (2) 
 
E
K
r
U
Energy 
 
K 
 
 (3) 
 
K
r
U 
E
Energy 
   (4) 
 
K
r
U
E
Energy 
  
 
Q.14 Two wires are made of the same material and 
have the same volume. However wire 1 has  
cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-
sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 
increases by ?x on applying force F, how 
much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the 
same amount ? 
  (1) 4F   (2) 6F  
 (3) 9F  (4) F 
 
Q.15 A student takes 50 gm wax (specific heat =  
0.6 kcal/kg ºC) and heats it till it boils. The 
graph between temperature and time is as 
follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute 
and boiling point are respectively - 
 
1
100
150
250
Temperature (ºC) 
200
0
50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 
Time (Minu te) 
 
 (1) 500 cal, 50ºC  (2) 1000 cal, 100ºC  
 (3) 1500 cal, 200ºC   (4) 2000 cal, 200ºC
 
  
Q.16 The adiabatic and isothermal volume 
elasticities B
f
 and B
?
 are related as : 
  (1) ? =
?
f
B
B
  (2) ? =
f
?
B
B
 
  (3) B
f
 – B
?
 = ? (4) B
?
 – B
f
 = ? 
 
Q.17 The second law of thermodynamics implies -  
  (1)  whole of heat can be converted into 
mechanical energy 
 (2)  no heat engine can be 100% efficient 
  (3)  every heat engine has an efficiency of 
100%  
 (4)  a refrigerator can reduce the temperature 
to absolute zero 
 
Q.18 Consider an equimolar mixture of 
monoatomic gas and diatomic gas. The heat 
required to increase the temperature of n 
moles of gas from T to 2T, at constant 
pressure, is -  
 (1) (3/2) nRT (2)  3nRT 
 (3) 5nRT  (4)  2nRT 
 
Q.19 Two simple pendulums of lengths 1 meter 
and 16 meteres respectively are both given 
small displacements in the same direction at 
the same instant. They will again be in phase 
after the shorter pendulum has completed n 
oscillations where n is -  
 (1) 
4
1
 (2) 1
3
1
  (3) 5 (4) 4 
Page 4


CAREER POINT 
MOCK TEST PAPER for AIPMT 
Physics, Chemistry & Biology 
 
 
 
Time : 3 Hours  Maximum Marks : 720 
 
 
 
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 
 
GENERAL : 
1. This paper contains 180 Qs. in all. All questions are compulsory. 
2. There is Negative Marking.  
3. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work. 
4. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately. 
SEAL 
5. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator. 
6. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and  Electronic Gadgets in any 
form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 
MARKING SCHEME : 
1.  This paper contains, Single correct option, Sub option, Column Matching type and Diagram based question.  
2.  Only one option is correct out of four given options. For each incorrect response, one-mark would be deducted. 
3.      In Physics  :   Q.  1   -   45    carry    4    marks  each, 
  In Chemistry  :  Q.  46    -   90    carry    4   marks  each, 
  In Biology  :  Q.  91    -   180    carry    4   marks  each, 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
PHYSICS 
 
CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200 | www.careerpoint.ac.in                               2 
 
Q.1 An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and 
then X is calculated from 
3
2 2 / 1
c
b a
X = . If the 
percentage error in a, b and c are ± 1%, ±3%, 
and ±2%, respectively, then the percentage 
error in X can be   
 (1) 12.5% (2) 7% (3) 1% (4) 4% 
   
Q.2 A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the 
bullet is given by :  
F = 600 – 2 × 10
5
t 
 Where F is in newton and t in second. The 
force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it 
leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse 
imparted to the bullet ? 
 (1) 9 N-s  (2) zero 
 (3) 0.9 N-s  (4) 1.8 N-s 
 
Q.3 A disc of radius 0.1 m rolls without sliding on 
a horizontal surface with a velocity of 6 m/s. 
It then ascends a smooth continuous track as 
shown in figure. The height upto which it will 
ascend is- (g = 10 m/s
2
) 
  
6 m/s 
 
  
 (1) 2.4 m (2) 0.9 m (3) 2.7 m (4) 1.8 m 
 
Q.4 Water from a stream is falling on the blades 
of a turbine at the rate of 100 kg/sec. If the 
height of the stream is 100 m, then the power 
delivered to the turbine is  -  
 (1) 100 kW  (2) 100 W 
 (3) 10 kW  (4) 1 kW  
    
Q.5  A uniform chain has a mass m and length l. It 
is held on a frictionless table with one-sixth 
of its length hanging over the edge. The work 
done in just pulling the hanging part back on the 
table is - 
 (1) 
72
mgl
 (2) 
36
mgl
 (3) 
12
mgl
 (4) 
6
mgl
 
 
Q.6 A bomb of 12 kg mass explodes into two 
pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity 
of 8 kg mass is 6 m s
–1
. The kinetic energy of 
the other mass is - 
 (1) 48 J (2) 32 J  (3) 24 J (4) 288 J   
 
Q.7 A particle of mass m moving with velocity v 
strikes a stationary particle of  mass 2 m and 
sticks to it. The speed of the system will be - 
 (1) v/2 (2) 2v (3) v/3 (4) 3v 
 
Q.8 An isolated particle of mass m is moving in 
the horizontal plane (x – y), along the x-axis, 
at a certain height above the ground. It 
suddenly explodes into two fragments of 
masses m/4 and 3 m/4.  An instant later, the 
smaller fragment is at y = +15 cm. The larger 
fragment at this instant is at -      
   
 (1) y = –5 cm (2) y = + 20 cm 
 (3) y = + 5 cm (4) y = –20 cm 
 
Q.9  What is the moment of inertia of a solid 
sphere of density ? and radius R about its 
diameter ? 
 (1) 
176
105
R
5
?   (2) 
176
105
R
2
? 
 (3) 
105
176
R
5
?  (4) 
105
176
R
2
?  
   
Q.10  A uniform rod of length l and mass m is 
suspended from one of its ends and it makes n 
revolutions per second. What is its rotational 
energy ?  
 (1) 
3
1
p
2
n
2
ml
2
   (2)
3
2
p
2
n
2
ml
2 
 (3) 
2
3
p
2
n
2
ml
2
  (4) 3p
2
n
2
ml
2
  
 
Q.11 The KE required to make a body move to 
infinity from the earth's surface is -  
 (1) infinite  (2) 2 mgR  
  (3) 1/2 mgR (4) mgR 
 
 
 
 
 
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200           3 
Q.12 A disc is performing pure rolling on a smooth 
stationary surface with constant angular 
velocity as shown in figure. At any instant, 
for the lower most point of the disc -  
 
R 
V 
V/R 
 
 (1) Velocity is v, acceleration is zero 
 (2) Velocity is zero, acceleration is zero 
 (3) Velocity is v, acceleration is 
R
v
2
 
 (4) Velocity is zero, acceleration is nonzero 
 
Q.13 The correct graph representing the variation 
of total energy(E), kinetic energy(K) & 
potential energy (U) of a satellite with its 
distance from the centre of earth is -   
 (1) 
 
E 
Energy 
U 
r 
 (2) 
 
E
K
r
U
Energy 
 
K 
 
 (3) 
 
K
r
U 
E
Energy 
   (4) 
 
K
r
U
E
Energy 
  
 
Q.14 Two wires are made of the same material and 
have the same volume. However wire 1 has  
cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-
sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 
increases by ?x on applying force F, how 
much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the 
same amount ? 
  (1) 4F   (2) 6F  
 (3) 9F  (4) F 
 
Q.15 A student takes 50 gm wax (specific heat =  
0.6 kcal/kg ºC) and heats it till it boils. The 
graph between temperature and time is as 
follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute 
and boiling point are respectively - 
 
1
100
150
250
Temperature (ºC) 
200
0
50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 
Time (Minu te) 
 
 (1) 500 cal, 50ºC  (2) 1000 cal, 100ºC  
 (3) 1500 cal, 200ºC   (4) 2000 cal, 200ºC
 
  
Q.16 The adiabatic and isothermal volume 
elasticities B
f
 and B
?
 are related as : 
  (1) ? =
?
f
B
B
  (2) ? =
f
?
B
B
 
  (3) B
f
 – B
?
 = ? (4) B
?
 – B
f
 = ? 
 
Q.17 The second law of thermodynamics implies -  
  (1)  whole of heat can be converted into 
mechanical energy 
 (2)  no heat engine can be 100% efficient 
  (3)  every heat engine has an efficiency of 
100%  
 (4)  a refrigerator can reduce the temperature 
to absolute zero 
 
Q.18 Consider an equimolar mixture of 
monoatomic gas and diatomic gas. The heat 
required to increase the temperature of n 
moles of gas from T to 2T, at constant 
pressure, is -  
 (1) (3/2) nRT (2)  3nRT 
 (3) 5nRT  (4)  2nRT 
 
Q.19 Two simple pendulums of lengths 1 meter 
and 16 meteres respectively are both given 
small displacements in the same direction at 
the same instant. They will again be in phase 
after the shorter pendulum has completed n 
oscillations where n is -  
 (1) 
4
1
 (2) 1
3
1
  (3) 5 (4) 4 
 
 
 
 
 
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200           4 
Q.20 The equation of a stationary wave is  
y = 0.8 cos ?
?
?
?
?
? p
20
x
sin200pt, where x is in cm 
and t is in sec. The separation between 
consecutive nodes will be - 
 (1) 20 cm  (2) 10 cm 
 (3) 40 cm  (4) 30 cm 
 
Q.21 A string of length 0.4 m and mass 10
–2
 kg is 
tightly clamped at its ends. The tension in the 
string is 1.6 N. Identical wave pulses are 
produced at one end at equal intervals of time, 
?t. The minimum value of ?t which allows 
constructive interference between successive 
pulses is - 
 (1) 0.05 s  (2) 0.10 s 
 (3) 0.20 s  (4) 0.40 s 
 
Q.22 The property of medium necessary for wave 
propagation is its - 
 (1) Inertia  (2) Elasticity 
 (3) Low resistance (4) All of above 
 
Q.23 The arc AB with the centre C and the 
infinitely long wire having linear charge 
density ? are lying in the same plane. The 
minimum amount of work to be done to move 
a point charge q
0
 from point A to B through a 
circular path AB of radius a is equal to - 
 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
B
A C 
a
2a 
 
 (1) ?
?
?
?
?
?
pe 3
2
log
2
q
0
2
0
 (2) ?
?
?
?
?
?
pe
?
2
3
log
2
q
0
0
  
 (3) ?
?
?
?
?
?
pe
?
3
2
log
2
q
0
0
 (4) q
0
?/ 2 pe
0
   
 
Q.24 How many 1 µF capacitors must be 
connected in parallel to store a charge of 1 C 
with a potential difference of 500 V across 
the capacitors ? 
  (1) 1000  (2) 200 
  (3) 20  (4) 2000 
Q.25 Two electric bulbs 40 W, 200 V and 100 W, 
200 V are connected in series. Then the 
maximum voltage that can be applied across 
the combination, without fusing either bulb 
(in V) is - 
 (1) 280 (2) 400  (3) 300 (4) 200 
 
Q.26 R
AB
 is -  
 
R 
A
B
R
R R
R R
R R R
R R R
 
 (1) R (2) R
2
3
  (3) 2R (4) 
2
R
 
 
Q.27 Shown in the figure given below is a meter-
bridge set up with null deflection in the 
galvanometer. The value of l is -  
 
G 
3R
l cm 100 – l
R 
 
 (1) 75 cm  (2) 25 cm  
  (3) 50 cm  (4) 5 cm  
 
Q.28 A rectangular loop carrying a current i is 
situated near a long straight wire such that the 
wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop 
and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady 
current I is established in the wire as shown 
in the figure, the loop will -   
A B
D C
i 
i 
i i
I
 
 (1) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire  
 (2) move away from the wire   
 (3) move towards the wire  
 (4) remain stationary  
Page 5


CAREER POINT 
MOCK TEST PAPER for AIPMT 
Physics, Chemistry & Biology 
 
 
 
Time : 3 Hours  Maximum Marks : 720 
 
 
 
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 
 
GENERAL : 
1. This paper contains 180 Qs. in all. All questions are compulsory. 
2. There is Negative Marking.  
3. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work. 
4. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately. 
SEAL 
5. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator. 
6. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and  Electronic Gadgets in any 
form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 
MARKING SCHEME : 
1.  This paper contains, Single correct option, Sub option, Column Matching type and Diagram based question.  
2.  Only one option is correct out of four given options. For each incorrect response, one-mark would be deducted. 
3.      In Physics  :   Q.  1   -   45    carry    4    marks  each, 
  In Chemistry  :  Q.  46    -   90    carry    4   marks  each, 
  In Biology  :  Q.  91    -   180    carry    4   marks  each, 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
PHYSICS 
 
CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200 | www.careerpoint.ac.in                               2 
 
Q.1 An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and 
then X is calculated from 
3
2 2 / 1
c
b a
X = . If the 
percentage error in a, b and c are ± 1%, ±3%, 
and ±2%, respectively, then the percentage 
error in X can be   
 (1) 12.5% (2) 7% (3) 1% (4) 4% 
   
Q.2 A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the 
bullet is given by :  
F = 600 – 2 × 10
5
t 
 Where F is in newton and t in second. The 
force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it 
leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse 
imparted to the bullet ? 
 (1) 9 N-s  (2) zero 
 (3) 0.9 N-s  (4) 1.8 N-s 
 
Q.3 A disc of radius 0.1 m rolls without sliding on 
a horizontal surface with a velocity of 6 m/s. 
It then ascends a smooth continuous track as 
shown in figure. The height upto which it will 
ascend is- (g = 10 m/s
2
) 
  
6 m/s 
 
  
 (1) 2.4 m (2) 0.9 m (3) 2.7 m (4) 1.8 m 
 
Q.4 Water from a stream is falling on the blades 
of a turbine at the rate of 100 kg/sec. If the 
height of the stream is 100 m, then the power 
delivered to the turbine is  -  
 (1) 100 kW  (2) 100 W 
 (3) 10 kW  (4) 1 kW  
    
Q.5  A uniform chain has a mass m and length l. It 
is held on a frictionless table with one-sixth 
of its length hanging over the edge. The work 
done in just pulling the hanging part back on the 
table is - 
 (1) 
72
mgl
 (2) 
36
mgl
 (3) 
12
mgl
 (4) 
6
mgl
 
 
Q.6 A bomb of 12 kg mass explodes into two 
pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity 
of 8 kg mass is 6 m s
–1
. The kinetic energy of 
the other mass is - 
 (1) 48 J (2) 32 J  (3) 24 J (4) 288 J   
 
Q.7 A particle of mass m moving with velocity v 
strikes a stationary particle of  mass 2 m and 
sticks to it. The speed of the system will be - 
 (1) v/2 (2) 2v (3) v/3 (4) 3v 
 
Q.8 An isolated particle of mass m is moving in 
the horizontal plane (x – y), along the x-axis, 
at a certain height above the ground. It 
suddenly explodes into two fragments of 
masses m/4 and 3 m/4.  An instant later, the 
smaller fragment is at y = +15 cm. The larger 
fragment at this instant is at -      
   
 (1) y = –5 cm (2) y = + 20 cm 
 (3) y = + 5 cm (4) y = –20 cm 
 
Q.9  What is the moment of inertia of a solid 
sphere of density ? and radius R about its 
diameter ? 
 (1) 
176
105
R
5
?   (2) 
176
105
R
2
? 
 (3) 
105
176
R
5
?  (4) 
105
176
R
2
?  
   
Q.10  A uniform rod of length l and mass m is 
suspended from one of its ends and it makes n 
revolutions per second. What is its rotational 
energy ?  
 (1) 
3
1
p
2
n
2
ml
2
   (2)
3
2
p
2
n
2
ml
2 
 (3) 
2
3
p
2
n
2
ml
2
  (4) 3p
2
n
2
ml
2
  
 
Q.11 The KE required to make a body move to 
infinity from the earth's surface is -  
 (1) infinite  (2) 2 mgR  
  (3) 1/2 mgR (4) mgR 
 
 
 
 
 
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200           3 
Q.12 A disc is performing pure rolling on a smooth 
stationary surface with constant angular 
velocity as shown in figure. At any instant, 
for the lower most point of the disc -  
 
R 
V 
V/R 
 
 (1) Velocity is v, acceleration is zero 
 (2) Velocity is zero, acceleration is zero 
 (3) Velocity is v, acceleration is 
R
v
2
 
 (4) Velocity is zero, acceleration is nonzero 
 
Q.13 The correct graph representing the variation 
of total energy(E), kinetic energy(K) & 
potential energy (U) of a satellite with its 
distance from the centre of earth is -   
 (1) 
 
E 
Energy 
U 
r 
 (2) 
 
E
K
r
U
Energy 
 
K 
 
 (3) 
 
K
r
U 
E
Energy 
   (4) 
 
K
r
U
E
Energy 
  
 
Q.14 Two wires are made of the same material and 
have the same volume. However wire 1 has  
cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-
sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 
increases by ?x on applying force F, how 
much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the 
same amount ? 
  (1) 4F   (2) 6F  
 (3) 9F  (4) F 
 
Q.15 A student takes 50 gm wax (specific heat =  
0.6 kcal/kg ºC) and heats it till it boils. The 
graph between temperature and time is as 
follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute 
and boiling point are respectively - 
 
1
100
150
250
Temperature (ºC) 
200
0
50
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 
Time (Minu te) 
 
 (1) 500 cal, 50ºC  (2) 1000 cal, 100ºC  
 (3) 1500 cal, 200ºC   (4) 2000 cal, 200ºC
 
  
Q.16 The adiabatic and isothermal volume 
elasticities B
f
 and B
?
 are related as : 
  (1) ? =
?
f
B
B
  (2) ? =
f
?
B
B
 
  (3) B
f
 – B
?
 = ? (4) B
?
 – B
f
 = ? 
 
Q.17 The second law of thermodynamics implies -  
  (1)  whole of heat can be converted into 
mechanical energy 
 (2)  no heat engine can be 100% efficient 
  (3)  every heat engine has an efficiency of 
100%  
 (4)  a refrigerator can reduce the temperature 
to absolute zero 
 
Q.18 Consider an equimolar mixture of 
monoatomic gas and diatomic gas. The heat 
required to increase the temperature of n 
moles of gas from T to 2T, at constant 
pressure, is -  
 (1) (3/2) nRT (2)  3nRT 
 (3) 5nRT  (4)  2nRT 
 
Q.19 Two simple pendulums of lengths 1 meter 
and 16 meteres respectively are both given 
small displacements in the same direction at 
the same instant. They will again be in phase 
after the shorter pendulum has completed n 
oscillations where n is -  
 (1) 
4
1
 (2) 1
3
1
  (3) 5 (4) 4 
 
 
 
 
 
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200           4 
Q.20 The equation of a stationary wave is  
y = 0.8 cos ?
?
?
?
?
? p
20
x
sin200pt, where x is in cm 
and t is in sec. The separation between 
consecutive nodes will be - 
 (1) 20 cm  (2) 10 cm 
 (3) 40 cm  (4) 30 cm 
 
Q.21 A string of length 0.4 m and mass 10
–2
 kg is 
tightly clamped at its ends. The tension in the 
string is 1.6 N. Identical wave pulses are 
produced at one end at equal intervals of time, 
?t. The minimum value of ?t which allows 
constructive interference between successive 
pulses is - 
 (1) 0.05 s  (2) 0.10 s 
 (3) 0.20 s  (4) 0.40 s 
 
Q.22 The property of medium necessary for wave 
propagation is its - 
 (1) Inertia  (2) Elasticity 
 (3) Low resistance (4) All of above 
 
Q.23 The arc AB with the centre C and the 
infinitely long wire having linear charge 
density ? are lying in the same plane. The 
minimum amount of work to be done to move 
a point charge q
0
 from point A to B through a 
circular path AB of radius a is equal to - 
 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
B
A C 
a
2a 
 
 (1) ?
?
?
?
?
?
pe 3
2
log
2
q
0
2
0
 (2) ?
?
?
?
?
?
pe
?
2
3
log
2
q
0
0
  
 (3) ?
?
?
?
?
?
pe
?
3
2
log
2
q
0
0
 (4) q
0
?/ 2 pe
0
   
 
Q.24 How many 1 µF capacitors must be 
connected in parallel to store a charge of 1 C 
with a potential difference of 500 V across 
the capacitors ? 
  (1) 1000  (2) 200 
  (3) 20  (4) 2000 
Q.25 Two electric bulbs 40 W, 200 V and 100 W, 
200 V are connected in series. Then the 
maximum voltage that can be applied across 
the combination, without fusing either bulb 
(in V) is - 
 (1) 280 (2) 400  (3) 300 (4) 200 
 
Q.26 R
AB
 is -  
 
R 
A
B
R
R R
R R
R R R
R R R
 
 (1) R (2) R
2
3
  (3) 2R (4) 
2
R
 
 
Q.27 Shown in the figure given below is a meter-
bridge set up with null deflection in the 
galvanometer. The value of l is -  
 
G 
3R
l cm 100 – l
R 
 
 (1) 75 cm  (2) 25 cm  
  (3) 50 cm  (4) 5 cm  
 
Q.28 A rectangular loop carrying a current i is 
situated near a long straight wire such that the 
wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop 
and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady 
current I is established in the wire as shown 
in the figure, the loop will -   
A B
D C
i 
i 
i i
I
 
 (1) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire  
 (2) move away from the wire   
 (3) move towards the wire  
 (4) remain stationary  
 
 
 
 
 
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200           5 
Q.29 The distance between rails is 2 m, which is 
along south-north direction. Vertical 
component of the earth magnetic field is 1.25 
× 10
–4
 tesla. If the speed of the train is 4 m/s, 
then induced emf across the axle is -  
 (1) 10
–4
 V    (2) 10
–2
 V  
  
 (3) 10
–1
 V   (4) 10
–3
 V   
  
Q.30 A single, continuous loop of conducting wire 
is mounted on a glider, which travels on a 
frictionless air track with an initial velocity v. 
When the front edge of the loop enters the 
magnetic field B pointing into the page as 
shown  
 
v
 
loop of wire
 
×
 
×
 
×
 
×
 
×
 
×
 
B
(glider on frictionless air track)
  
 (1)  there is a clockwise current in the loop 
and the glider slows down 
 (2)  there is a counterclockwise current in the 
loop and the glider slows down 
 (3)  there is a clockwise current in the loop 
and the glider speed up 
 (4)  there is a counterclockwise current in the 
loop and the glider speeds up 
 
Q.31 An object is approaching a fixed plane mirror 
with velocity 5 m/s making an angle of 45º 
with the normal.  The speed of image with 
respect to mirror is- 
 (1) 5 m/s  (2) 
2
5
 m/s 
 (3) 2 5 m/s (4) 10 m/s 
 
Q.32 Two coherent point sources s
1
 and s
2
 
vibrating in phase emit light of wavelength ?. 
The separation between the sources is 2?. The 
smallest distance from s
2
 on a line passing 
through s
2
 and perpendicular to s
1
s
2
, where a 
minimum of intensity occurs is - 
 (1) 
12
7?
  (2) 
4
15?
 (3) 
2
?
 (4) 
4
3?
 
Q.33 Consider the circuit below. A resistor R, 
inductor L, and capacitor C are connected in 
parallel across an alternating voltage source. 
Which statement(s) is (are) correct ? 
 
~
V
P
 sin (?t) R L C
 
 I. The addition of instantaneous current 
through each element give the 
instantaneous current provided by the 
driving source. 
 II. The addition of instantaneous voltages 
across each element give the instantaneous 
voltage of the driving source. 
 III. The voltage across C is 90° out of phase 
with the voltage across R. 
 IV. The voltage across C is 180° out of phase 
with the voltage across L. 
 V. All energy is dissipated by the resistor. 
 (1) Only I and V are correct 
 (2) Only II and V are correct  
 (3) Only I, IV and V are correct 
 (4) Only II, IV and V are correct 
 
Q.34 A compound microscope has magnifying 
power as 32 and magnifying power of eye-
piece is 4, then the magnifying power of 
objective is -  
 (1) 8  (2) 10  
 (3) 6   (4) 12 
  
Q.35 In a double-slit experiment, instead of taking 
slits of equal width, one slit is made twice as 
wide as the other. Then in the interference 
pattern - 
 (1) the intensities of both the maxima and the 
minima increase 
 (2)  the intensity of the maxima increases and 
the minima has zero intensity  
 (3)  the intensity of the maxima decrease and 
that of the minima increase 
 (4)  the intensity of the maxima decrease and 
the minima has zero intensity  
 
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FAQs on Mock Test PCB for NEET/AIPMT

1. What is the importance of taking a mock test for NEET/AIPMT?
Ans. Taking a mock test for NEET/AIPMT is essential as it helps in familiarizing oneself with the exam pattern and time management skills. It provides an opportunity to assess one's knowledge and identify areas of improvement before the actual exam. Additionally, mock tests help in building confidence and reducing exam anxiety.
2. How can I access mock tests for NEET/AIPMT?
Ans. There are several online platforms and coaching institutes that offer mock tests for NEET/AIPMT. These tests can be accessed through their respective websites or mobile applications. Additionally, many books and study materials also include mock tests. It is important to choose reliable and credible sources for accessing mock tests.
3. Are the mock tests for NEET/AIPMT similar to the actual exam?
Ans. Mock tests for NEET/AIPMT are designed to simulate the actual exam as closely as possible. They include questions from various topics and follow the same exam pattern. However, it is important to note that the difficulty level of the mock tests may vary from the actual exam. Nevertheless, practicing mock tests can provide a good understanding of the exam format and help in better preparation.
4. How many mock tests should I attempt before NEET/AIPMT?
Ans. The number of mock tests an individual should attempt before NEET/AIPMT may vary depending on their preparation level and comfort. However, it is generally recommended to attempt a minimum of 10-15 mock tests to gain sufficient practice and assess one's readiness for the exam. It is important to analyze the performance in each mock test and work on improving weak areas accordingly.
5. Can I rely solely on mock tests for NEET/AIPMT preparation?
Ans. While mock tests are immensely helpful in NEET/AIPMT preparation, they should not be the sole source of study material. Mock tests should be used as a tool to assess one's preparation and identify areas of improvement. It is important to complement mock tests with regular study, revision of concepts, and solving previous year question papers. A well-rounded preparation approach incorporating various resources will yield better results.
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