BITSAT Past Year Paper- 2009 JEE Notes | EduRev

 Page 1


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Given that A BR +=
r rr
 and A A
2
 + B
2
 = R
2
. The angle
between A
r
 and B
r
 is
(a)0 (b) p/4 (c) p/2 (d) p
2. In the relation : 
Z
  
k
Pe
a
-
q
a
=
b
P is pressure, Z is distance, k is Boltzmann
constant and q is the temperature. The
dimensional formula of b will be
(a) [M
0
L
2
T
0
] (b) [M
1
L
2
T
1
]
(c) [M
1
L
0
T
–1
] (d) [M
0
L
2
T
–1
]
3. Which of the following is most accurate?
(a) A screw gauge of least count 0.001 mm.
(b) A screw gauge having pitch 1 mm and 50
divisions on circular scale.
(c) A vernier callipers of least count 0.01 mm.
(d) V ernier callipers having 20 divisions on the
sliding scale (vernier scale) coinciding 19
divisions on the main millimetre scale.
4. A projectile projected at an angle 30º from the
horizontal has a range R. If the angle of projection
at the same initial velocity be 60º, then the range
will be-
(a)R (b) R/2 (c) 2 R (d) R
2
5. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass M/2. If a
force 2Mg is applied at one end of the rope, the
force which the rope exerts on the block is –
(a) 2Mg/3 (b) 2Mg (c) 4Mg/3 (d) zero
6. A chain of mass M is placed on a smooth table
with 1/n of its length L hanging over the edge.
The work done in pulling the hanging portion of
the chain back to the surface of the table is
(a) MgL/n (b) MgL/2n
(c) MgL/n
2
(d) MgL/2n
2
7. A particle of mass 10 kg moving eastwards with a
speed 5 ms
–1
 collides with another particle of
the same mass moving north-wards with the same
speed 5 ms
–1
. The two particles coalesce on
collision. The new particle of mass 20 kg will move
in the north-east direction with velocity
(a) 10 ms
–1
(b) 5 ms
–1
(c)
1
(5 / 2)ms
-
(d) none of these
8. A uniform cube of side a and mass m rests on a
rough horizontal table. A horizontal force F is
applied normal to one of the faces at a point that
is directly above the centre of the face, at a height
3a/4 above the base. The minimum value of F for
which the cube begins to topple an edge is
(assume that cube does not slide)
(a)
mg
3
(b) 
mg
2
   
F
3a/4
(c)
2mg
3
(d) 
3mg
4
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
Page 2


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Given that A BR +=
r rr
 and A A
2
 + B
2
 = R
2
. The angle
between A
r
 and B
r
 is
(a)0 (b) p/4 (c) p/2 (d) p
2. In the relation : 
Z
  
k
Pe
a
-
q
a
=
b
P is pressure, Z is distance, k is Boltzmann
constant and q is the temperature. The
dimensional formula of b will be
(a) [M
0
L
2
T
0
] (b) [M
1
L
2
T
1
]
(c) [M
1
L
0
T
–1
] (d) [M
0
L
2
T
–1
]
3. Which of the following is most accurate?
(a) A screw gauge of least count 0.001 mm.
(b) A screw gauge having pitch 1 mm and 50
divisions on circular scale.
(c) A vernier callipers of least count 0.01 mm.
(d) V ernier callipers having 20 divisions on the
sliding scale (vernier scale) coinciding 19
divisions on the main millimetre scale.
4. A projectile projected at an angle 30º from the
horizontal has a range R. If the angle of projection
at the same initial velocity be 60º, then the range
will be-
(a)R (b) R/2 (c) 2 R (d) R
2
5. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass M/2. If a
force 2Mg is applied at one end of the rope, the
force which the rope exerts on the block is –
(a) 2Mg/3 (b) 2Mg (c) 4Mg/3 (d) zero
6. A chain of mass M is placed on a smooth table
with 1/n of its length L hanging over the edge.
The work done in pulling the hanging portion of
the chain back to the surface of the table is
(a) MgL/n (b) MgL/2n
(c) MgL/n
2
(d) MgL/2n
2
7. A particle of mass 10 kg moving eastwards with a
speed 5 ms
–1
 collides with another particle of
the same mass moving north-wards with the same
speed 5 ms
–1
. The two particles coalesce on
collision. The new particle of mass 20 kg will move
in the north-east direction with velocity
(a) 10 ms
–1
(b) 5 ms
–1
(c)
1
(5 / 2)ms
-
(d) none of these
8. A uniform cube of side a and mass m rests on a
rough horizontal table. A horizontal force F is
applied normal to one of the faces at a point that
is directly above the centre of the face, at a height
3a/4 above the base. The minimum value of F for
which the cube begins to topple an edge is
(assume that cube does not slide)
(a)
mg
3
(b) 
mg
2
   
F
3a/4
(c)
2mg
3
(d) 
3mg
4
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
9. The rotation of the earth having radius R about
its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at
latitude angle 60
0
 feels weightless. The duration
of the day in such case will be :
(a)
R
8
g
p (b) 
g
8
R
p (c) 
R
g
p
(d) 
g
4
R
p
10. A metallic rod breaks when strain produced is
0.2%. The Young’s modulus of the material of
the rod is 7 × 10
9
 N/m
2
. What should be its area
of cross-section to support a load of 10
4
 N ?
(a) 7.1 × 10
–8
 m
2
(b) 7.1 × 10
–6
 m
2
(c) 7.1 × 10
–4
 m
2
(d) 7.1 × 10
–2
 m
2
11. A liquid is flowing through a non-sectional tube
with its axis horizontally . If two points X and Y
on the axis of tube has a sectional area 2.0 cm
3
and 25 mm
2
 respectively then find the flow
velocity at Y when the flow velocity at X is 10m/s.
(a) 20 m/s (b) 40 m/s (c) 80 m/s (d) 60 m/s
12. A body of length 1m having cross-sectional area
0.75m
2
 has heat flow through it at the rate of
6000 Joule/sec. Then find the temperature
difference if K = 200 Jm
–1
K
–1
.
(a) 20°C (b) 40°C (c) 80°C (d) 100°C
13. Which of the following combinations of
properties would be most desirable for a cooking
pot?
(a) High specific heat and low conductivity .
(b) Low specific heat and high conductivity .
(c) High specific heat and high conductivity .
(d) Low specific heat and low conductivity .
14. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0
such that its velocity v changes with time t
according to the equation v = t
2
 – t where t is in
seconds and v is in m/s. Find the time interval for
which the particle retards.
(a)
1
2
 < t < 1 (b)
1
2
 > t > 1
(c)
1
4
 < t < 1 (d)
1
2
 < t < 
3
4
15. A sample of gas expands from volume V
1
 to V
2
.
The amount of work done by the gas is greatest
when the expansion is
(a) isothermal (b) isobaric
(c) adiabatic (d) equal in all cases
16. A cyclic process is
shown in the p-T
diagram. Which of the
curves show the same
process on a  P-V
diagram ?
p
O
C B
A
T
(a)
p
C B
A
V
(b)
V
p
C B
A
(c)
V
p
C
B
A
(d) p
C
B
A
V
17. Which one the following graphs represents the
behaviour of an ideal gas
(a)
V
PV
(b)
V
PV
(c)
V
PV
(d)
V
PV
18. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave
becomes very sharp when the
(a) restoring force is small
(b) applied periodic force is small
(c) quality factor is small
(d) damping force is small
19. A pendulum bob carries a +ve charge +q. A
positive charge +q is held at the point of support.
Then the time period of the bob is –
[where, L = length of pendulum, g
eff
 = effective
value of g]
(a) greater than 
eff
2 L/g p
(b) less than 
eff
2 L/g p
(c) equal to 
eff
2 L/g p
(d) equal to 
eff
2 2L/g p
Page 3


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Given that A BR +=
r rr
 and A A
2
 + B
2
 = R
2
. The angle
between A
r
 and B
r
 is
(a)0 (b) p/4 (c) p/2 (d) p
2. In the relation : 
Z
  
k
Pe
a
-
q
a
=
b
P is pressure, Z is distance, k is Boltzmann
constant and q is the temperature. The
dimensional formula of b will be
(a) [M
0
L
2
T
0
] (b) [M
1
L
2
T
1
]
(c) [M
1
L
0
T
–1
] (d) [M
0
L
2
T
–1
]
3. Which of the following is most accurate?
(a) A screw gauge of least count 0.001 mm.
(b) A screw gauge having pitch 1 mm and 50
divisions on circular scale.
(c) A vernier callipers of least count 0.01 mm.
(d) V ernier callipers having 20 divisions on the
sliding scale (vernier scale) coinciding 19
divisions on the main millimetre scale.
4. A projectile projected at an angle 30º from the
horizontal has a range R. If the angle of projection
at the same initial velocity be 60º, then the range
will be-
(a)R (b) R/2 (c) 2 R (d) R
2
5. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass M/2. If a
force 2Mg is applied at one end of the rope, the
force which the rope exerts on the block is –
(a) 2Mg/3 (b) 2Mg (c) 4Mg/3 (d) zero
6. A chain of mass M is placed on a smooth table
with 1/n of its length L hanging over the edge.
The work done in pulling the hanging portion of
the chain back to the surface of the table is
(a) MgL/n (b) MgL/2n
(c) MgL/n
2
(d) MgL/2n
2
7. A particle of mass 10 kg moving eastwards with a
speed 5 ms
–1
 collides with another particle of
the same mass moving north-wards with the same
speed 5 ms
–1
. The two particles coalesce on
collision. The new particle of mass 20 kg will move
in the north-east direction with velocity
(a) 10 ms
–1
(b) 5 ms
–1
(c)
1
(5 / 2)ms
-
(d) none of these
8. A uniform cube of side a and mass m rests on a
rough horizontal table. A horizontal force F is
applied normal to one of the faces at a point that
is directly above the centre of the face, at a height
3a/4 above the base. The minimum value of F for
which the cube begins to topple an edge is
(assume that cube does not slide)
(a)
mg
3
(b) 
mg
2
   
F
3a/4
(c)
2mg
3
(d) 
3mg
4
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
9. The rotation of the earth having radius R about
its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at
latitude angle 60
0
 feels weightless. The duration
of the day in such case will be :
(a)
R
8
g
p (b) 
g
8
R
p (c) 
R
g
p
(d) 
g
4
R
p
10. A metallic rod breaks when strain produced is
0.2%. The Young’s modulus of the material of
the rod is 7 × 10
9
 N/m
2
. What should be its area
of cross-section to support a load of 10
4
 N ?
(a) 7.1 × 10
–8
 m
2
(b) 7.1 × 10
–6
 m
2
(c) 7.1 × 10
–4
 m
2
(d) 7.1 × 10
–2
 m
2
11. A liquid is flowing through a non-sectional tube
with its axis horizontally . If two points X and Y
on the axis of tube has a sectional area 2.0 cm
3
and 25 mm
2
 respectively then find the flow
velocity at Y when the flow velocity at X is 10m/s.
(a) 20 m/s (b) 40 m/s (c) 80 m/s (d) 60 m/s
12. A body of length 1m having cross-sectional area
0.75m
2
 has heat flow through it at the rate of
6000 Joule/sec. Then find the temperature
difference if K = 200 Jm
–1
K
–1
.
(a) 20°C (b) 40°C (c) 80°C (d) 100°C
13. Which of the following combinations of
properties would be most desirable for a cooking
pot?
(a) High specific heat and low conductivity .
(b) Low specific heat and high conductivity .
(c) High specific heat and high conductivity .
(d) Low specific heat and low conductivity .
14. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0
such that its velocity v changes with time t
according to the equation v = t
2
 – t where t is in
seconds and v is in m/s. Find the time interval for
which the particle retards.
(a)
1
2
 < t < 1 (b)
1
2
 > t > 1
(c)
1
4
 < t < 1 (d)
1
2
 < t < 
3
4
15. A sample of gas expands from volume V
1
 to V
2
.
The amount of work done by the gas is greatest
when the expansion is
(a) isothermal (b) isobaric
(c) adiabatic (d) equal in all cases
16. A cyclic process is
shown in the p-T
diagram. Which of the
curves show the same
process on a  P-V
diagram ?
p
O
C B
A
T
(a)
p
C B
A
V
(b)
V
p
C B
A
(c)
V
p
C
B
A
(d) p
C
B
A
V
17. Which one the following graphs represents the
behaviour of an ideal gas
(a)
V
PV
(b)
V
PV
(c)
V
PV
(d)
V
PV
18. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave
becomes very sharp when the
(a) restoring force is small
(b) applied periodic force is small
(c) quality factor is small
(d) damping force is small
19. A pendulum bob carries a +ve charge +q. A
positive charge +q is held at the point of support.
Then the time period of the bob is –
[where, L = length of pendulum, g
eff
 = effective
value of g]
(a) greater than 
eff
2 L/g p
(b) less than 
eff
2 L/g p
(c) equal to 
eff
2 L/g p
(d) equal to 
eff
2 2L/g p
20. Two tuning forks A and  B sounded together
give 6 beats per second. With an air resonance
tube closed at one end, the two forks give reso-
nance when the two air columns are 24 cm and 25
cm respectively. Calculate the frequencies of
forks.
(a) 120 H z, 124 H z (b) 110 Hz, 114 Hz
(c) 150 Hz, 144 Hz (d) 170 Hz, 118 Hz
21. If an electron has an initial velocity in a direction
different from that of an electric field, the path of
the electron is
(a) a straight line (b) a circle
(c) an ellipse (d) a parabola
22. If on combining two charged bodies, the current
does not flow then
(a) charge is equal on both
(b) capacitance  is equal on both
(c) potential is equal on both
(d) resistance is equal on both
23. Calculate the area of the plates of a one farad
parallel plate capacitor if separation between
plates is 1 mm and plates are in vacuum
(a) 18 × 10
8
 m
2
(b) 0.3 × 10
8
 m
2
(c) 1.3 × 10
8
 m
2
(d) 1.13 × 10
8
 m
2
24. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of
emf E is balanced at a length l/3 from the posi-
tive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is
increased by l/2. At what distance will be the
same cell give a balance point.
(a)2l/3 (b) l/2 (c) l/6 (d) 4l/3
25. A conducting circular loop  of radius r carries a
constant current i. It is placed in a uniform
magnetic field 
0
B
r
 such that 
0
B
r
 is perpendicular
to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting
on the loop is
(a) ir B
0
(b) 2p ir B
0
(c) zero (d) p ir B
0
26. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal
resistance is 0.81ohm. To increase the range to
10 A the value of the required shunt is
(a) 0.03W (b) 0.3W (c) 0.9W (d) 0.09W
27. At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value
of horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
and angle of dip are, respectively
(a) ze ro , maximum
(b) maximum, minimum
(c) maximu m, maximu m
(d) minimum, minimum
28. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of
conservation of
(a) charge (b) mass
(c) energy (d) momentum
29. The instantaneous current from an a.c. source is
I = 6 sin 314 t. What is the rms value of the current?
(a) 3 2 amp (b) 2 2 amp
(c) 2 amp (d) 2 amp
30. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive
reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across
the coil, the current in the coil will be
(a) 4.0 A (b) 8.0 A (c) 7.2 A (d) 2.0 A
31. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value
of electric field strength is
(a) 3 V /m (b) 6 V /m (c) 9 V /m (d) 12 V /m
32. A plano-convex lens of focal length 30 cm has its
plane surface silvered. An object is placed 40 cm
from the lens on the convex side. The distance of
the image from the lens is
(a) 18 cm (b) 24 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 40 cm
33. When a mica sheet of thickness 7 microns and
m = 1.6 is placed in the path of one of interfering
beams in the biprism experiment then the central
fringe gets at the position of seventh bright fringe.
The wavelength of light used will be
(a) 4000 Å (b) 5000 Å
(c) 6000 Å (d) 7000 Å
34. In Y oung's double slit experiment, if the slit widths
are in the ratio 1 : 2, the ratio of the intensities at
minima and maxima will be
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 9
35. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wave-
length l, the fastest electron has speed v. If the
exciting wavelength is changed to 3l/4, the speed
of the fastest emitted electron will become
(a)
3
v
4
(b)
4
v
3
(c) less than 
4
v
3
(d) greater than 
4
v
3
36. Taking Rydberg’s constant R
H
 = 1.097 × 10
7
m,
first and second wavelength of Balmer series in
hydrogen spectrum is
(a) 2000 Å, 3000 Å (b) 1575 Å, 2960 Å
(c) 6529 Å, 4280 Å (d) 6552 Å, 4863 Å
Page 4


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Given that A BR +=
r rr
 and A A
2
 + B
2
 = R
2
. The angle
between A
r
 and B
r
 is
(a)0 (b) p/4 (c) p/2 (d) p
2. In the relation : 
Z
  
k
Pe
a
-
q
a
=
b
P is pressure, Z is distance, k is Boltzmann
constant and q is the temperature. The
dimensional formula of b will be
(a) [M
0
L
2
T
0
] (b) [M
1
L
2
T
1
]
(c) [M
1
L
0
T
–1
] (d) [M
0
L
2
T
–1
]
3. Which of the following is most accurate?
(a) A screw gauge of least count 0.001 mm.
(b) A screw gauge having pitch 1 mm and 50
divisions on circular scale.
(c) A vernier callipers of least count 0.01 mm.
(d) V ernier callipers having 20 divisions on the
sliding scale (vernier scale) coinciding 19
divisions on the main millimetre scale.
4. A projectile projected at an angle 30º from the
horizontal has a range R. If the angle of projection
at the same initial velocity be 60º, then the range
will be-
(a)R (b) R/2 (c) 2 R (d) R
2
5. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass M/2. If a
force 2Mg is applied at one end of the rope, the
force which the rope exerts on the block is –
(a) 2Mg/3 (b) 2Mg (c) 4Mg/3 (d) zero
6. A chain of mass M is placed on a smooth table
with 1/n of its length L hanging over the edge.
The work done in pulling the hanging portion of
the chain back to the surface of the table is
(a) MgL/n (b) MgL/2n
(c) MgL/n
2
(d) MgL/2n
2
7. A particle of mass 10 kg moving eastwards with a
speed 5 ms
–1
 collides with another particle of
the same mass moving north-wards with the same
speed 5 ms
–1
. The two particles coalesce on
collision. The new particle of mass 20 kg will move
in the north-east direction with velocity
(a) 10 ms
–1
(b) 5 ms
–1
(c)
1
(5 / 2)ms
-
(d) none of these
8. A uniform cube of side a and mass m rests on a
rough horizontal table. A horizontal force F is
applied normal to one of the faces at a point that
is directly above the centre of the face, at a height
3a/4 above the base. The minimum value of F for
which the cube begins to topple an edge is
(assume that cube does not slide)
(a)
mg
3
(b) 
mg
2
   
F
3a/4
(c)
2mg
3
(d) 
3mg
4
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
9. The rotation of the earth having radius R about
its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at
latitude angle 60
0
 feels weightless. The duration
of the day in such case will be :
(a)
R
8
g
p (b) 
g
8
R
p (c) 
R
g
p
(d) 
g
4
R
p
10. A metallic rod breaks when strain produced is
0.2%. The Young’s modulus of the material of
the rod is 7 × 10
9
 N/m
2
. What should be its area
of cross-section to support a load of 10
4
 N ?
(a) 7.1 × 10
–8
 m
2
(b) 7.1 × 10
–6
 m
2
(c) 7.1 × 10
–4
 m
2
(d) 7.1 × 10
–2
 m
2
11. A liquid is flowing through a non-sectional tube
with its axis horizontally . If two points X and Y
on the axis of tube has a sectional area 2.0 cm
3
and 25 mm
2
 respectively then find the flow
velocity at Y when the flow velocity at X is 10m/s.
(a) 20 m/s (b) 40 m/s (c) 80 m/s (d) 60 m/s
12. A body of length 1m having cross-sectional area
0.75m
2
 has heat flow through it at the rate of
6000 Joule/sec. Then find the temperature
difference if K = 200 Jm
–1
K
–1
.
(a) 20°C (b) 40°C (c) 80°C (d) 100°C
13. Which of the following combinations of
properties would be most desirable for a cooking
pot?
(a) High specific heat and low conductivity .
(b) Low specific heat and high conductivity .
(c) High specific heat and high conductivity .
(d) Low specific heat and low conductivity .
14. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0
such that its velocity v changes with time t
according to the equation v = t
2
 – t where t is in
seconds and v is in m/s. Find the time interval for
which the particle retards.
(a)
1
2
 < t < 1 (b)
1
2
 > t > 1
(c)
1
4
 < t < 1 (d)
1
2
 < t < 
3
4
15. A sample of gas expands from volume V
1
 to V
2
.
The amount of work done by the gas is greatest
when the expansion is
(a) isothermal (b) isobaric
(c) adiabatic (d) equal in all cases
16. A cyclic process is
shown in the p-T
diagram. Which of the
curves show the same
process on a  P-V
diagram ?
p
O
C B
A
T
(a)
p
C B
A
V
(b)
V
p
C B
A
(c)
V
p
C
B
A
(d) p
C
B
A
V
17. Which one the following graphs represents the
behaviour of an ideal gas
(a)
V
PV
(b)
V
PV
(c)
V
PV
(d)
V
PV
18. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave
becomes very sharp when the
(a) restoring force is small
(b) applied periodic force is small
(c) quality factor is small
(d) damping force is small
19. A pendulum bob carries a +ve charge +q. A
positive charge +q is held at the point of support.
Then the time period of the bob is –
[where, L = length of pendulum, g
eff
 = effective
value of g]
(a) greater than 
eff
2 L/g p
(b) less than 
eff
2 L/g p
(c) equal to 
eff
2 L/g p
(d) equal to 
eff
2 2L/g p
20. Two tuning forks A and  B sounded together
give 6 beats per second. With an air resonance
tube closed at one end, the two forks give reso-
nance when the two air columns are 24 cm and 25
cm respectively. Calculate the frequencies of
forks.
(a) 120 H z, 124 H z (b) 110 Hz, 114 Hz
(c) 150 Hz, 144 Hz (d) 170 Hz, 118 Hz
21. If an electron has an initial velocity in a direction
different from that of an electric field, the path of
the electron is
(a) a straight line (b) a circle
(c) an ellipse (d) a parabola
22. If on combining two charged bodies, the current
does not flow then
(a) charge is equal on both
(b) capacitance  is equal on both
(c) potential is equal on both
(d) resistance is equal on both
23. Calculate the area of the plates of a one farad
parallel plate capacitor if separation between
plates is 1 mm and plates are in vacuum
(a) 18 × 10
8
 m
2
(b) 0.3 × 10
8
 m
2
(c) 1.3 × 10
8
 m
2
(d) 1.13 × 10
8
 m
2
24. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of
emf E is balanced at a length l/3 from the posi-
tive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is
increased by l/2. At what distance will be the
same cell give a balance point.
(a)2l/3 (b) l/2 (c) l/6 (d) 4l/3
25. A conducting circular loop  of radius r carries a
constant current i. It is placed in a uniform
magnetic field 
0
B
r
 such that 
0
B
r
 is perpendicular
to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting
on the loop is
(a) ir B
0
(b) 2p ir B
0
(c) zero (d) p ir B
0
26. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal
resistance is 0.81ohm. To increase the range to
10 A the value of the required shunt is
(a) 0.03W (b) 0.3W (c) 0.9W (d) 0.09W
27. At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value
of horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
and angle of dip are, respectively
(a) ze ro , maximum
(b) maximum, minimum
(c) maximu m, maximu m
(d) minimum, minimum
28. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of
conservation of
(a) charge (b) mass
(c) energy (d) momentum
29. The instantaneous current from an a.c. source is
I = 6 sin 314 t. What is the rms value of the current?
(a) 3 2 amp (b) 2 2 amp
(c) 2 amp (d) 2 amp
30. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive
reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across
the coil, the current in the coil will be
(a) 4.0 A (b) 8.0 A (c) 7.2 A (d) 2.0 A
31. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value
of electric field strength is
(a) 3 V /m (b) 6 V /m (c) 9 V /m (d) 12 V /m
32. A plano-convex lens of focal length 30 cm has its
plane surface silvered. An object is placed 40 cm
from the lens on the convex side. The distance of
the image from the lens is
(a) 18 cm (b) 24 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 40 cm
33. When a mica sheet of thickness 7 microns and
m = 1.6 is placed in the path of one of interfering
beams in the biprism experiment then the central
fringe gets at the position of seventh bright fringe.
The wavelength of light used will be
(a) 4000 Å (b) 5000 Å
(c) 6000 Å (d) 7000 Å
34. In Y oung's double slit experiment, if the slit widths
are in the ratio 1 : 2, the ratio of the intensities at
minima and maxima will be
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 9
35. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wave-
length l, the fastest electron has speed v. If the
exciting wavelength is changed to 3l/4, the speed
of the fastest emitted electron will become
(a)
3
v
4
(b)
4
v
3
(c) less than 
4
v
3
(d) greater than 
4
v
3
36. Taking Rydberg’s constant R
H
 = 1.097 × 10
7
m,
first and second wavelength of Balmer series in
hydrogen spectrum is
(a) 2000 Å, 3000 Å (b) 1575 Å, 2960 Å
(c) 6529 Å, 4280 Å (d) 6552 Å, 4863 Å
37. An X-ray tube is operated at 15 kV . Calculate the
upper limit of the speed of the electrons striking
the target.
(a) 7.26 × 10
7
 m/s (b) 7.62 × 10
7
 m/s
(c) 7.62 × 10
7
 cm/s (d) 7.26 × 10
9
 m/s
38. Nuclear energy is released in fission since binding
energy per nucleon is
(a) sometimes larger and sometimes smaller
(b) larger for fission fragments than for parent
nucleus
(c) same for fission fragments and nucleus
(d) smaller for fission fragments than for parent
nucleus
39. Assuming the diodes to be of silicon with forward
resistance zero, the current I in the following
circuit is
E = 20 V
2kW
(a) 0 (b) 9.65 mA (c) 10 mA (d) 10.35 mA
40. The truth table given below correspond to the
logic gate
A B X
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0
(a) OR (b) NOR
(c) AND (d) NAND
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
41. Given the numbers : 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm.
The number of significant figures for the three
numbers are
(a) 3, 4 and 5 respectively
(b) 3, 3 and 4 respectively
(c) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
(d) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
42. Beryllium resembles much with :
(a) Zn (b) Al (c) Li (d) Ra
43. Which one of the following ions has the highest
value of ionic radius?
(a)O
2–
 (b)B
3+
(c) Li
+
 (d)F
–
44. Which of the following two are isostructural ?
(a)
-
2 , 2
IF XeF (b) NH
3
, BF
3
(c)
22
33
CO ,SO
--
(d) PCI
5
, ICI
5
45. The cooking time in a pressure cooker is less
because :
(a) More heat is used
(b) High pressure cooks the food
(c) The boiling point of water increases in the
cooker
(d) Heat is uniformly distributed
46. For the reaction : N
2
 + 3H
2
 
???
? ?? 2NH
3
Which one of the following is correct regarding
DH :
(a) DH = DE + 2RT (b) DH = DE – 2R T
(c) DH = DE + RT (d) DH = DE – RT
47. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded
isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10
litres. The DE for this process is
(R = 2 cal mol
–1
 K
–1
)
(a) 163.7 cal (b) zero
(c) 1381.1 cal (d) 9 lit atom
48. At 25°C and 1 bar which of the following has a
non-zero 
f
H
°
D ?
(a) Br
2
(l) (b) C (graphite)
(c)O
3
(g) (d) I
2
(s)
49. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction
2HI 
???
? ?? H
2
 + I
2
 is 0.25, then the equilibrium
constant for the reaction  H
2
 + I
2
 
???
? ?? 2HI
would be
(a)1 (b) 2 (c)3 (d) 4
50. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions
- - - 2
6 2
2
4 2
2
3
O S and O S , SO follow the order
(a)
- - -
< <
2
6 2
2
4 2
2
3
O S O S SO
(b)
- - -
< <
2
3
2
6 2
2
4 2
SO O S O S
(c)
- - -
< <
2
3
2
4 2
2
6 2
SO O S O S
(d)
- - -
< <
2
6 2
2
3
2
4 2
O S SO O S
51. The value of x is maximum for
(a) MgSO
4
.x H
2
O (b) CaSO
4
.x H
2
O
(c) BaSO
4
.x H
2
O (d) All have the same
52. For making good quality mirrors, plates of float
glass are used. These are obtained by floating
molten glass over a liquid metal which does not
solidify before glass. The metal used can be
(a) tin (b) sodium
(c) magnesium (d) mercury
Page 5


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Given that A BR +=
r rr
 and A A
2
 + B
2
 = R
2
. The angle
between A
r
 and B
r
 is
(a)0 (b) p/4 (c) p/2 (d) p
2. In the relation : 
Z
  
k
Pe
a
-
q
a
=
b
P is pressure, Z is distance, k is Boltzmann
constant and q is the temperature. The
dimensional formula of b will be
(a) [M
0
L
2
T
0
] (b) [M
1
L
2
T
1
]
(c) [M
1
L
0
T
–1
] (d) [M
0
L
2
T
–1
]
3. Which of the following is most accurate?
(a) A screw gauge of least count 0.001 mm.
(b) A screw gauge having pitch 1 mm and 50
divisions on circular scale.
(c) A vernier callipers of least count 0.01 mm.
(d) V ernier callipers having 20 divisions on the
sliding scale (vernier scale) coinciding 19
divisions on the main millimetre scale.
4. A projectile projected at an angle 30º from the
horizontal has a range R. If the angle of projection
at the same initial velocity be 60º, then the range
will be-
(a)R (b) R/2 (c) 2 R (d) R
2
5. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass M/2. If a
force 2Mg is applied at one end of the rope, the
force which the rope exerts on the block is –
(a) 2Mg/3 (b) 2Mg (c) 4Mg/3 (d) zero
6. A chain of mass M is placed on a smooth table
with 1/n of its length L hanging over the edge.
The work done in pulling the hanging portion of
the chain back to the surface of the table is
(a) MgL/n (b) MgL/2n
(c) MgL/n
2
(d) MgL/2n
2
7. A particle of mass 10 kg moving eastwards with a
speed 5 ms
–1
 collides with another particle of
the same mass moving north-wards with the same
speed 5 ms
–1
. The two particles coalesce on
collision. The new particle of mass 20 kg will move
in the north-east direction with velocity
(a) 10 ms
–1
(b) 5 ms
–1
(c)
1
(5 / 2)ms
-
(d) none of these
8. A uniform cube of side a and mass m rests on a
rough horizontal table. A horizontal force F is
applied normal to one of the faces at a point that
is directly above the centre of the face, at a height
3a/4 above the base. The minimum value of F for
which the cube begins to topple an edge is
(assume that cube does not slide)
(a)
mg
3
(b) 
mg
2
   
F
3a/4
(c)
2mg
3
(d) 
3mg
4
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
9. The rotation of the earth having radius R about
its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at
latitude angle 60
0
 feels weightless. The duration
of the day in such case will be :
(a)
R
8
g
p (b) 
g
8
R
p (c) 
R
g
p
(d) 
g
4
R
p
10. A metallic rod breaks when strain produced is
0.2%. The Young’s modulus of the material of
the rod is 7 × 10
9
 N/m
2
. What should be its area
of cross-section to support a load of 10
4
 N ?
(a) 7.1 × 10
–8
 m
2
(b) 7.1 × 10
–6
 m
2
(c) 7.1 × 10
–4
 m
2
(d) 7.1 × 10
–2
 m
2
11. A liquid is flowing through a non-sectional tube
with its axis horizontally . If two points X and Y
on the axis of tube has a sectional area 2.0 cm
3
and 25 mm
2
 respectively then find the flow
velocity at Y when the flow velocity at X is 10m/s.
(a) 20 m/s (b) 40 m/s (c) 80 m/s (d) 60 m/s
12. A body of length 1m having cross-sectional area
0.75m
2
 has heat flow through it at the rate of
6000 Joule/sec. Then find the temperature
difference if K = 200 Jm
–1
K
–1
.
(a) 20°C (b) 40°C (c) 80°C (d) 100°C
13. Which of the following combinations of
properties would be most desirable for a cooking
pot?
(a) High specific heat and low conductivity .
(b) Low specific heat and high conductivity .
(c) High specific heat and high conductivity .
(d) Low specific heat and low conductivity .
14. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0
such that its velocity v changes with time t
according to the equation v = t
2
 – t where t is in
seconds and v is in m/s. Find the time interval for
which the particle retards.
(a)
1
2
 < t < 1 (b)
1
2
 > t > 1
(c)
1
4
 < t < 1 (d)
1
2
 < t < 
3
4
15. A sample of gas expands from volume V
1
 to V
2
.
The amount of work done by the gas is greatest
when the expansion is
(a) isothermal (b) isobaric
(c) adiabatic (d) equal in all cases
16. A cyclic process is
shown in the p-T
diagram. Which of the
curves show the same
process on a  P-V
diagram ?
p
O
C B
A
T
(a)
p
C B
A
V
(b)
V
p
C B
A
(c)
V
p
C
B
A
(d) p
C
B
A
V
17. Which one the following graphs represents the
behaviour of an ideal gas
(a)
V
PV
(b)
V
PV
(c)
V
PV
(d)
V
PV
18. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave
becomes very sharp when the
(a) restoring force is small
(b) applied periodic force is small
(c) quality factor is small
(d) damping force is small
19. A pendulum bob carries a +ve charge +q. A
positive charge +q is held at the point of support.
Then the time period of the bob is –
[where, L = length of pendulum, g
eff
 = effective
value of g]
(a) greater than 
eff
2 L/g p
(b) less than 
eff
2 L/g p
(c) equal to 
eff
2 L/g p
(d) equal to 
eff
2 2L/g p
20. Two tuning forks A and  B sounded together
give 6 beats per second. With an air resonance
tube closed at one end, the two forks give reso-
nance when the two air columns are 24 cm and 25
cm respectively. Calculate the frequencies of
forks.
(a) 120 H z, 124 H z (b) 110 Hz, 114 Hz
(c) 150 Hz, 144 Hz (d) 170 Hz, 118 Hz
21. If an electron has an initial velocity in a direction
different from that of an electric field, the path of
the electron is
(a) a straight line (b) a circle
(c) an ellipse (d) a parabola
22. If on combining two charged bodies, the current
does not flow then
(a) charge is equal on both
(b) capacitance  is equal on both
(c) potential is equal on both
(d) resistance is equal on both
23. Calculate the area of the plates of a one farad
parallel plate capacitor if separation between
plates is 1 mm and plates are in vacuum
(a) 18 × 10
8
 m
2
(b) 0.3 × 10
8
 m
2
(c) 1.3 × 10
8
 m
2
(d) 1.13 × 10
8
 m
2
24. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of
emf E is balanced at a length l/3 from the posi-
tive end of the wire. If the length of the wire is
increased by l/2. At what distance will be the
same cell give a balance point.
(a)2l/3 (b) l/2 (c) l/6 (d) 4l/3
25. A conducting circular loop  of radius r carries a
constant current i. It is placed in a uniform
magnetic field 
0
B
r
 such that 
0
B
r
 is perpendicular
to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting
on the loop is
(a) ir B
0
(b) 2p ir B
0
(c) zero (d) p ir B
0
26. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal
resistance is 0.81ohm. To increase the range to
10 A the value of the required shunt is
(a) 0.03W (b) 0.3W (c) 0.9W (d) 0.09W
27. At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value
of horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
and angle of dip are, respectively
(a) ze ro , maximum
(b) maximum, minimum
(c) maximu m, maximu m
(d) minimum, minimum
28. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of
conservation of
(a) charge (b) mass
(c) energy (d) momentum
29. The instantaneous current from an a.c. source is
I = 6 sin 314 t. What is the rms value of the current?
(a) 3 2 amp (b) 2 2 amp
(c) 2 amp (d) 2 amp
30. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive
reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across
the coil, the current in the coil will be
(a) 4.0 A (b) 8.0 A (c) 7.2 A (d) 2.0 A
31. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value
of electric field strength is
(a) 3 V /m (b) 6 V /m (c) 9 V /m (d) 12 V /m
32. A plano-convex lens of focal length 30 cm has its
plane surface silvered. An object is placed 40 cm
from the lens on the convex side. The distance of
the image from the lens is
(a) 18 cm (b) 24 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 40 cm
33. When a mica sheet of thickness 7 microns and
m = 1.6 is placed in the path of one of interfering
beams in the biprism experiment then the central
fringe gets at the position of seventh bright fringe.
The wavelength of light used will be
(a) 4000 Å (b) 5000 Å
(c) 6000 Å (d) 7000 Å
34. In Y oung's double slit experiment, if the slit widths
are in the ratio 1 : 2, the ratio of the intensities at
minima and maxima will be
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 9
35. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wave-
length l, the fastest electron has speed v. If the
exciting wavelength is changed to 3l/4, the speed
of the fastest emitted electron will become
(a)
3
v
4
(b)
4
v
3
(c) less than 
4
v
3
(d) greater than 
4
v
3
36. Taking Rydberg’s constant R
H
 = 1.097 × 10
7
m,
first and second wavelength of Balmer series in
hydrogen spectrum is
(a) 2000 Å, 3000 Å (b) 1575 Å, 2960 Å
(c) 6529 Å, 4280 Å (d) 6552 Å, 4863 Å
37. An X-ray tube is operated at 15 kV . Calculate the
upper limit of the speed of the electrons striking
the target.
(a) 7.26 × 10
7
 m/s (b) 7.62 × 10
7
 m/s
(c) 7.62 × 10
7
 cm/s (d) 7.26 × 10
9
 m/s
38. Nuclear energy is released in fission since binding
energy per nucleon is
(a) sometimes larger and sometimes smaller
(b) larger for fission fragments than for parent
nucleus
(c) same for fission fragments and nucleus
(d) smaller for fission fragments than for parent
nucleus
39. Assuming the diodes to be of silicon with forward
resistance zero, the current I in the following
circuit is
E = 20 V
2kW
(a) 0 (b) 9.65 mA (c) 10 mA (d) 10.35 mA
40. The truth table given below correspond to the
logic gate
A B X
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0
(a) OR (b) NOR
(c) AND (d) NAND
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
41. Given the numbers : 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm.
The number of significant figures for the three
numbers are
(a) 3, 4 and 5 respectively
(b) 3, 3 and 4 respectively
(c) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
(d) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
42. Beryllium resembles much with :
(a) Zn (b) Al (c) Li (d) Ra
43. Which one of the following ions has the highest
value of ionic radius?
(a)O
2–
 (b)B
3+
(c) Li
+
 (d)F
–
44. Which of the following two are isostructural ?
(a)
-
2 , 2
IF XeF (b) NH
3
, BF
3
(c)
22
33
CO ,SO
--
(d) PCI
5
, ICI
5
45. The cooking time in a pressure cooker is less
because :
(a) More heat is used
(b) High pressure cooks the food
(c) The boiling point of water increases in the
cooker
(d) Heat is uniformly distributed
46. For the reaction : N
2
 + 3H
2
 
???
? ?? 2NH
3
Which one of the following is correct regarding
DH :
(a) DH = DE + 2RT (b) DH = DE – 2R T
(c) DH = DE + RT (d) DH = DE – RT
47. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded
isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10
litres. The DE for this process is
(R = 2 cal mol
–1
 K
–1
)
(a) 163.7 cal (b) zero
(c) 1381.1 cal (d) 9 lit atom
48. At 25°C and 1 bar which of the following has a
non-zero 
f
H
°
D ?
(a) Br
2
(l) (b) C (graphite)
(c)O
3
(g) (d) I
2
(s)
49. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction
2HI 
???
? ?? H
2
 + I
2
 is 0.25, then the equilibrium
constant for the reaction  H
2
 + I
2
 
???
? ?? 2HI
would be
(a)1 (b) 2 (c)3 (d) 4
50. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions
- - - 2
6 2
2
4 2
2
3
O S and O S , SO follow the order
(a)
- - -
< <
2
6 2
2
4 2
2
3
O S O S SO
(b)
- - -
< <
2
3
2
6 2
2
4 2
SO O S O S
(c)
- - -
< <
2
3
2
4 2
2
6 2
SO O S O S
(d)
- - -
< <
2
6 2
2
3
2
4 2
O S SO O S
51. The value of x is maximum for
(a) MgSO
4
.x H
2
O (b) CaSO
4
.x H
2
O
(c) BaSO
4
.x H
2
O (d) All have the same
52. For making good quality mirrors, plates of float
glass are used. These are obtained by floating
molten glass over a liquid metal which does not
solidify before glass. The metal used can be
(a) tin (b) sodium
(c) magnesium (d) mercury
53. The intermediate formed during the addition of
HCl to propene in the presence of peroxide is
(a)
•32
CH CHCH CI (b)
+
23
CH CHCH
(c)
• 3 22
CH CH CH (d)
+
3 22
CH CH CH
54. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
(a) 1, 1-dichloromethane
(b) cis-1, 2-dichloroethene
(c) trans-1, 2-dichloroethene
(d) 1-chloroethane
55. Keto-enol tautomerism is observed in
(a) H
O
C H C
||
5 6
- - (b)
3
||
5 6
CH
O
C H C - -
(c)
5 6
||
5 6
H C
O
C H C - - (d) None
56. Which one of the following contain isopropyl
group?
(a) 2, 2, 3, 3-Tetramethylpentane
(b) 2-Methylpentane
(c) 2, 2, 3-Trimethylpentane
(d) 3, 3-Dimethylpentane
57. The statement which is not correct about control
of particulate pollution is:
(a) In electrostatic precipitator, the particulates
are made to acquire positive charge which
are then attracted by the negative electrode
and removed.
(b) Gravity settling chamber removes larger
particles from the air.
(c) Cyclone collector removes fine particls in
the diameter range 5-20 microns.
(d) Wet scrubbers are used to wash away all
types of particulates.
58. Chief source of soil and water pollution is:
(a) Mining
(b) Agro industry
(c) Thermal power plant
(d) All of the above
59. The false statement among the followings:
(a) The average residence time of NO is one
month.
(b) Limestone acts as a sink for SO
x
.
(c) SO
x
 can be removed from flue gases by
passing through a solution of citrate ions.
(d) Ammonia acts as a sink for NO
x
.
60. The atomic radius of atom is r.Total volume of
atoms present in a fcc unit cell of an element is
(a)
3
24
r
3
p
 (b)
3
12
r
3
p
(c)
3
16
r
3
p
(d) None
61. Which one of the following statements is false?
(a) The correct order of osmotic pressure for
0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound
is BaCl
2
 > KCl > CH
3
COOH > sucrose.
(b) The osmotic pressure (p) of a solution is
given by the equation p = MR T, where M is
the molarity of the solution.
(c) Raoult’s law states that the vapour pressure
of a component over a solution is
proportional to its mole fraction.
(d) Two sucrose solutions of same molality
prepared in different solvents will have the
same freezing point depression.
62. The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO
3
)
2
 in dilute
aq. solution containing 7.0 g of salt per 100 g of
water at 100° C is 70%. If vapour pressure of
water at 100° C is 760 mm Hg. The vapour
pressure of solution is
(a) 735 (b) 730 (c) 760 (d) 746
63. When the sample of copper with zinc impurity is
to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate
electrodes are
Cathode Anode
(a) Pure zinc Pure copper
(b) Impure sample Pure copper
(c) Impure zinc Impure sample
(d) Pure copper Impure sample
64. The conductivity of a saturated solution of
BaSO
4
 is 3.06 × 10
–6
 ohm
–1
 cm
–1
 and its equivalent
conductance is 1.53 ohm
–1
 cm
2
 equiv
–1
. The K
sp
for BaSO
4
 will be
(a) 4 × 10
–12
(b) 2.5 × 10
–9
(c) 2.5 × 10
–13
(d) 4 × 10
–6
65. In a cell that utilises the reaction
2
2
Zn(s) 2H (aq) Zn (aq) H (g)
++
+ ®+
 addition of H
2
SO
4
 to cathode compartment, will
(a) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the
right.
(b) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right.
(c) lower the E and shift equlibrium to the left.
(d) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the
left.