BITSAT Past Year Paper- 2018 JEE Notes | EduRev

BITSAT Mock Tests Series & Past Year Papers

JEE : BITSAT Past Year Paper- 2018 JEE Notes | EduRev

 Page 1


INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 81 to 95
        (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 96 to 105
Part IV : Mathematics Q. No. 106 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper-3 Hours
PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,
one at each corner of the square. The relation
between Q and q for which the potential at the
centre of the square is zero is :
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
1
q
(c) Q = q (d) Q = 
1
q
2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i
flowing in the same direction are at a distance 2d
apart. The magnetic field B at a point lying on the
perpendicular line joining the wires and at a
distance x from the midpoint is –
(a)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
p+
(b)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
p-
(c)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
+
(d)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
+
3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual
meanings. The cell has emf E. X is initially joined
to Y for a long time. Then, X is joined to Z. The
maximum charge on C at any later time will be
L
Y
R
C Z
X
+     –
(a)
E
R LC
(b)
2
ER
LC
(c)
2
E LC
R
(d)
E LC
R
4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image would be formed at
(a) 30 cm left (b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right (d) 18 cm to the left
5. In Young’s double slit experiment, l = 500nm,
d = 1mm, D = 1m. Minimum distance from the
central maximum for which intensity is half of
the maximum intensity is
(a) 2.5 × 10
–4
 m (b) 1.25 × 10
–4
 m
(c) 0.625 × 10
–4 
m (d) 0.3125 × 10
–4 
m
Page 2


INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 81 to 95
        (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 96 to 105
Part IV : Mathematics Q. No. 106 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper-3 Hours
PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,
one at each corner of the square. The relation
between Q and q for which the potential at the
centre of the square is zero is :
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
1
q
(c) Q = q (d) Q = 
1
q
2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i
flowing in the same direction are at a distance 2d
apart. The magnetic field B at a point lying on the
perpendicular line joining the wires and at a
distance x from the midpoint is –
(a)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
p+
(b)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
p-
(c)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
+
(d)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
+
3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual
meanings. The cell has emf E. X is initially joined
to Y for a long time. Then, X is joined to Z. The
maximum charge on C at any later time will be
L
Y
R
C Z
X
+     –
(a)
E
R LC
(b)
2
ER
LC
(c)
2
E LC
R
(d)
E LC
R
4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image would be formed at
(a) 30 cm left (b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right (d) 18 cm to the left
5. In Young’s double slit experiment, l = 500nm,
d = 1mm, D = 1m. Minimum distance from the
central maximum for which intensity is half of
the maximum intensity is
(a) 2.5 × 10
–4
 m (b) 1.25 × 10
–4
 m
(c) 0.625 × 10
–4 
m (d) 0.3125 × 10
–4 
m
6. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter
amplifier, where input resistance is 3 W and load
resistance 24 W, b = 0.6 ?
(a) 8 . 4 (b) 4 . 8 (c) 2 . 4 (d) 4 80
7. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
the moon is 1/6 that on the surface of earth and
the diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of
earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and
moon will be
(a)
6
2
(b)
24
(c)3 (d)
3
2
8. Given 
k
ˆ
4 j
ˆ
3 – i
ˆ
2 P + =
 and 
k
ˆ
2 j
ˆ
Q - =
. The
magnitude of their resultant is
(a)
3
(b)
3 2
(c)
3 3
(d)
3 4
9. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic
motion with amplitude a and frequency n. The
average kinetic energy during its motion from the
position of equilibrium to the end is
(a)
2 22
2pn ma
(b)
2 22
pn ma
(c)
22
1
4
n ma (d)
2 22
4pn ma
10. The dipole moment of the given charge
distribution is
(a)  
4Rq
ˆ
i -
p
R
X
q
Y
–q
+
+
+
+
+
+ –
–
–
–
–
–
–
(b)
4Rq
ˆ
i
p
(c)  
2Rq
ˆ
i -
p
(d)
2Rq
ˆ
i
p
11. At a place, if the earth¢s horizontal and vertical
components of magnetic fields are equal, then
the angle of dip will be
(a) 30° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 0 °
12. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalnet
to hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm.
The ground state energy of an electron of this
ion will be
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 e V
(c) 54.4 e V (d) 122.4 eV
13. The binding energy per nucleon of 
10
X is 9 MeV
and that of 
11
X is 7.5 MeV where X represents
an element. The minimum energy required to
remove a neutron from 
11
X is
(a) 7.5 MeV (b) 2.5 MeV
(c) 8 MeV (d) 0.5 MeV
14. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due
to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the
fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the
dimensions of length will be same as that of
(a)
C
g
(b)
C
P
(c) PCg (d)
2
C
g
15. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown
through the horizontal tube in the direction as
shown then rise in capillary tube will be
(a) = H
(b) > H
H
(c) < H
(d) zero
16. A boy running on a horizontal road at 8 km/h
finds the rain falling vertically . He increases his
speed to 12 km/h and finds that the drops makes
30° with the vertical. The speed of rain with
respect to the road is
(a) 4 7 km/h (b) 9 7 km/h
(c) 12 7 km/h (d) 15 7 km/h
17. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly
at a monkey on a tree. At the instant the bullet
leaves the barrel of the gun, the monkey drops.
Pick the correct statement regarding the situation.
(a) The bullet will never hit the monkey
(b) The bullet will always hit the monkey
(c) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
(d) Can’t be predicted
18. A particle of mass m
1
 moving with velocity v
collides with a mass m
2
 at rest, then they get
embedded. Just after  collision, velocity of the
system
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) becomes zero
19. The ratio of the specific heats of a gas is
p
v
C
C
=g
1.66 , then the gas may be
(a) CO
2
(b) He (c)H
2
(d) NO
2
20. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in
same phase. After 50 oscillations of one, they
get out of phase by p, that is half oscillation. The
percentage difference of frequencies of the two
oscillators is nearest to
(a) 2% (b) 1% (c) 0.5% (d) 0.25%
21. A juggler keeps on moving four balls in the air
throwing the balls after intervals. When one ball
leaves his hand (speed = 20 ms
–1
) the position of
other balls (height in m) will be (T ake g = 10 ms
–2
)
(a) 10, 20, 10 (b) 15, 20, 15
(c) 5, 15, 20 (d) 5, 10, 20
Page 3


INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 81 to 95
        (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 96 to 105
Part IV : Mathematics Q. No. 106 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper-3 Hours
PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,
one at each corner of the square. The relation
between Q and q for which the potential at the
centre of the square is zero is :
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
1
q
(c) Q = q (d) Q = 
1
q
2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i
flowing in the same direction are at a distance 2d
apart. The magnetic field B at a point lying on the
perpendicular line joining the wires and at a
distance x from the midpoint is –
(a)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
p+
(b)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
p-
(c)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
+
(d)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
+
3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual
meanings. The cell has emf E. X is initially joined
to Y for a long time. Then, X is joined to Z. The
maximum charge on C at any later time will be
L
Y
R
C Z
X
+     –
(a)
E
R LC
(b)
2
ER
LC
(c)
2
E LC
R
(d)
E LC
R
4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image would be formed at
(a) 30 cm left (b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right (d) 18 cm to the left
5. In Young’s double slit experiment, l = 500nm,
d = 1mm, D = 1m. Minimum distance from the
central maximum for which intensity is half of
the maximum intensity is
(a) 2.5 × 10
–4
 m (b) 1.25 × 10
–4
 m
(c) 0.625 × 10
–4 
m (d) 0.3125 × 10
–4 
m
6. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter
amplifier, where input resistance is 3 W and load
resistance 24 W, b = 0.6 ?
(a) 8 . 4 (b) 4 . 8 (c) 2 . 4 (d) 4 80
7. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
the moon is 1/6 that on the surface of earth and
the diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of
earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and
moon will be
(a)
6
2
(b)
24
(c)3 (d)
3
2
8. Given 
k
ˆ
4 j
ˆ
3 – i
ˆ
2 P + =
 and 
k
ˆ
2 j
ˆ
Q - =
. The
magnitude of their resultant is
(a)
3
(b)
3 2
(c)
3 3
(d)
3 4
9. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic
motion with amplitude a and frequency n. The
average kinetic energy during its motion from the
position of equilibrium to the end is
(a)
2 22
2pn ma
(b)
2 22
pn ma
(c)
22
1
4
n ma (d)
2 22
4pn ma
10. The dipole moment of the given charge
distribution is
(a)  
4Rq
ˆ
i -
p
R
X
q
Y
–q
+
+
+
+
+
+ –
–
–
–
–
–
–
(b)
4Rq
ˆ
i
p
(c)  
2Rq
ˆ
i -
p
(d)
2Rq
ˆ
i
p
11. At a place, if the earth¢s horizontal and vertical
components of magnetic fields are equal, then
the angle of dip will be
(a) 30° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 0 °
12. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalnet
to hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm.
The ground state energy of an electron of this
ion will be
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 e V
(c) 54.4 e V (d) 122.4 eV
13. The binding energy per nucleon of 
10
X is 9 MeV
and that of 
11
X is 7.5 MeV where X represents
an element. The minimum energy required to
remove a neutron from 
11
X is
(a) 7.5 MeV (b) 2.5 MeV
(c) 8 MeV (d) 0.5 MeV
14. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due
to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the
fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the
dimensions of length will be same as that of
(a)
C
g
(b)
C
P
(c) PCg (d)
2
C
g
15. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown
through the horizontal tube in the direction as
shown then rise in capillary tube will be
(a) = H
(b) > H
H
(c) < H
(d) zero
16. A boy running on a horizontal road at 8 km/h
finds the rain falling vertically . He increases his
speed to 12 km/h and finds that the drops makes
30° with the vertical. The speed of rain with
respect to the road is
(a) 4 7 km/h (b) 9 7 km/h
(c) 12 7 km/h (d) 15 7 km/h
17. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly
at a monkey on a tree. At the instant the bullet
leaves the barrel of the gun, the monkey drops.
Pick the correct statement regarding the situation.
(a) The bullet will never hit the monkey
(b) The bullet will always hit the monkey
(c) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
(d) Can’t be predicted
18. A particle of mass m
1
 moving with velocity v
collides with a mass m
2
 at rest, then they get
embedded. Just after  collision, velocity of the
system
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) becomes zero
19. The ratio of the specific heats of a gas is
p
v
C
C
=g
1.66 , then the gas may be
(a) CO
2
(b) He (c)H
2
(d) NO
2
20. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in
same phase. After 50 oscillations of one, they
get out of phase by p, that is half oscillation. The
percentage difference of frequencies of the two
oscillators is nearest to
(a) 2% (b) 1% (c) 0.5% (d) 0.25%
21. A juggler keeps on moving four balls in the air
throwing the balls after intervals. When one ball
leaves his hand (speed = 20 ms
–1
) the position of
other balls (height in m) will be (T ake g = 10 ms
–2
)
(a) 10, 20, 10 (b) 15, 20, 15
(c) 5, 15, 20 (d) 5, 10, 20
22. If a stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown out a window
of a train moving at a constant speed of 100 km/
h then magnitude of the net force acting on the
stone is
(a) 0.5 N (b) zero (c) 50 N (d) 5 N
23. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with
velocity V and bounces back with the same
velocity . The impulse experienced by the body is
(a) MV (b) 1.5 MV (c) 2 MV (d) zero
24. A hoop rolls down an inclined plane. The fraction
of its total kinetic energy that is associated with
rotational motion is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 3
25. Infinite number of masses, each 1 kg are placed
along the x-axis at x = ± 1m, ± 2m, ± 4m, ± 8m,
± 16m ..... the magnitude of the resultant
gravitational potential in terms of gravitational
constant G at the orgin (x = 0) is
(a) G/2 (b) G (c)2G (d) 4 G
26. Water of volume 2 litre in a container is heated
with a coil of 1 kW at 27°C. The lid of the container
is open and energy dissipates at rate of 160 J/s.
In how much time temperature will rise from 27°C
to 77°C?
[Given specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg]
(a) 8 min 20 s (b) 6  min2 s
(c) 7 min (d) 14  min
27. In the following P-V diagram of an ideal gas,
two adiabates cut two isotherms at T
1
 = 300K
and T
2
 = 200K. The value of V
A
 = 2 unit, V
B
 =
8 unit, V
C
 = 16 unit. Find the value of V
D
.
(a) 4 unit (b) < 4 unit
(c) > 5 unit (d) 5 unit
28. The mass of H
2
 molecule is 3.32 × 10
–24
 g. If 10
23
hydrogen molecules per second strike 2 cm
2
 of
wall at an angle of 45
o
 with the normal, while
moving with a speed of 10
5
 cm/s, the pressure
exterted on the wall is nearly .
(a) 1350 N/m
2
(b) 2350 N/m
2
(c) 3320 N/m
2
(d) 1660 N/m
2
29. The wavelength of two waves are 50 and 51 cm
respectively. If the temperature of the room is
20°C then what will be the number of beats
produced per second by these waves, when the
speed of sound at 0°C is 332 m/s?
(a) 24 (b) 14
(c) 10 (d) None of these
30. The figure shows the interference pattern
obtained in a double-slit experiment using light
of wavelength 600nm. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are
marked on five fringes.
The third order bright fringe is
(a)2 (b) 3 (c)4 (d)5
31. Electric potential at any point is V = –5x + 3y
+
15z
, then the magnitude of the electric field
is
(a)
32
(b)
42
(c)
52
(d) 7
32. Seven resistances, each of value 20 W, are
connected to a 2 V battery as shown in the figure.
The ammeter reading will be
2V
A
(a) 1/10 A (b) 3/10 A
(c) 4/10 A (d) 7/10 A.
33. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (c) with
temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
represented by
(a)
T O
(b) 
T O
(c)
T
O
(d) 
T
O
34. A copper rod of length l rotates about its end
with angular velocity w in uniform magnetic
field B. The emf developed between the ends
of the rod if the field is normal to the plane of
rotation is
(a) Bw l
2
(b)
1
2
 Bwl
2
(c)2 Bw l
2
(d)
1
4
 Bwl
2
Page 4


INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 81 to 95
        (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 96 to 105
Part IV : Mathematics Q. No. 106 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper-3 Hours
PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,
one at each corner of the square. The relation
between Q and q for which the potential at the
centre of the square is zero is :
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
1
q
(c) Q = q (d) Q = 
1
q
2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i
flowing in the same direction are at a distance 2d
apart. The magnetic field B at a point lying on the
perpendicular line joining the wires and at a
distance x from the midpoint is –
(a)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
p+
(b)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
p-
(c)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
+
(d)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
+
3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual
meanings. The cell has emf E. X is initially joined
to Y for a long time. Then, X is joined to Z. The
maximum charge on C at any later time will be
L
Y
R
C Z
X
+     –
(a)
E
R LC
(b)
2
ER
LC
(c)
2
E LC
R
(d)
E LC
R
4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image would be formed at
(a) 30 cm left (b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right (d) 18 cm to the left
5. In Young’s double slit experiment, l = 500nm,
d = 1mm, D = 1m. Minimum distance from the
central maximum for which intensity is half of
the maximum intensity is
(a) 2.5 × 10
–4
 m (b) 1.25 × 10
–4
 m
(c) 0.625 × 10
–4 
m (d) 0.3125 × 10
–4 
m
6. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter
amplifier, where input resistance is 3 W and load
resistance 24 W, b = 0.6 ?
(a) 8 . 4 (b) 4 . 8 (c) 2 . 4 (d) 4 80
7. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
the moon is 1/6 that on the surface of earth and
the diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of
earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and
moon will be
(a)
6
2
(b)
24
(c)3 (d)
3
2
8. Given 
k
ˆ
4 j
ˆ
3 – i
ˆ
2 P + =
 and 
k
ˆ
2 j
ˆ
Q - =
. The
magnitude of their resultant is
(a)
3
(b)
3 2
(c)
3 3
(d)
3 4
9. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic
motion with amplitude a and frequency n. The
average kinetic energy during its motion from the
position of equilibrium to the end is
(a)
2 22
2pn ma
(b)
2 22
pn ma
(c)
22
1
4
n ma (d)
2 22
4pn ma
10. The dipole moment of the given charge
distribution is
(a)  
4Rq
ˆ
i -
p
R
X
q
Y
–q
+
+
+
+
+
+ –
–
–
–
–
–
–
(b)
4Rq
ˆ
i
p
(c)  
2Rq
ˆ
i -
p
(d)
2Rq
ˆ
i
p
11. At a place, if the earth¢s horizontal and vertical
components of magnetic fields are equal, then
the angle of dip will be
(a) 30° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 0 °
12. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalnet
to hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm.
The ground state energy of an electron of this
ion will be
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 e V
(c) 54.4 e V (d) 122.4 eV
13. The binding energy per nucleon of 
10
X is 9 MeV
and that of 
11
X is 7.5 MeV where X represents
an element. The minimum energy required to
remove a neutron from 
11
X is
(a) 7.5 MeV (b) 2.5 MeV
(c) 8 MeV (d) 0.5 MeV
14. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due
to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the
fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the
dimensions of length will be same as that of
(a)
C
g
(b)
C
P
(c) PCg (d)
2
C
g
15. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown
through the horizontal tube in the direction as
shown then rise in capillary tube will be
(a) = H
(b) > H
H
(c) < H
(d) zero
16. A boy running on a horizontal road at 8 km/h
finds the rain falling vertically . He increases his
speed to 12 km/h and finds that the drops makes
30° with the vertical. The speed of rain with
respect to the road is
(a) 4 7 km/h (b) 9 7 km/h
(c) 12 7 km/h (d) 15 7 km/h
17. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly
at a monkey on a tree. At the instant the bullet
leaves the barrel of the gun, the monkey drops.
Pick the correct statement regarding the situation.
(a) The bullet will never hit the monkey
(b) The bullet will always hit the monkey
(c) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
(d) Can’t be predicted
18. A particle of mass m
1
 moving with velocity v
collides with a mass m
2
 at rest, then they get
embedded. Just after  collision, velocity of the
system
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) becomes zero
19. The ratio of the specific heats of a gas is
p
v
C
C
=g
1.66 , then the gas may be
(a) CO
2
(b) He (c)H
2
(d) NO
2
20. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in
same phase. After 50 oscillations of one, they
get out of phase by p, that is half oscillation. The
percentage difference of frequencies of the two
oscillators is nearest to
(a) 2% (b) 1% (c) 0.5% (d) 0.25%
21. A juggler keeps on moving four balls in the air
throwing the balls after intervals. When one ball
leaves his hand (speed = 20 ms
–1
) the position of
other balls (height in m) will be (T ake g = 10 ms
–2
)
(a) 10, 20, 10 (b) 15, 20, 15
(c) 5, 15, 20 (d) 5, 10, 20
22. If a stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown out a window
of a train moving at a constant speed of 100 km/
h then magnitude of the net force acting on the
stone is
(a) 0.5 N (b) zero (c) 50 N (d) 5 N
23. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with
velocity V and bounces back with the same
velocity . The impulse experienced by the body is
(a) MV (b) 1.5 MV (c) 2 MV (d) zero
24. A hoop rolls down an inclined plane. The fraction
of its total kinetic energy that is associated with
rotational motion is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 3
25. Infinite number of masses, each 1 kg are placed
along the x-axis at x = ± 1m, ± 2m, ± 4m, ± 8m,
± 16m ..... the magnitude of the resultant
gravitational potential in terms of gravitational
constant G at the orgin (x = 0) is
(a) G/2 (b) G (c)2G (d) 4 G
26. Water of volume 2 litre in a container is heated
with a coil of 1 kW at 27°C. The lid of the container
is open and energy dissipates at rate of 160 J/s.
In how much time temperature will rise from 27°C
to 77°C?
[Given specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg]
(a) 8 min 20 s (b) 6  min2 s
(c) 7 min (d) 14  min
27. In the following P-V diagram of an ideal gas,
two adiabates cut two isotherms at T
1
 = 300K
and T
2
 = 200K. The value of V
A
 = 2 unit, V
B
 =
8 unit, V
C
 = 16 unit. Find the value of V
D
.
(a) 4 unit (b) < 4 unit
(c) > 5 unit (d) 5 unit
28. The mass of H
2
 molecule is 3.32 × 10
–24
 g. If 10
23
hydrogen molecules per second strike 2 cm
2
 of
wall at an angle of 45
o
 with the normal, while
moving with a speed of 10
5
 cm/s, the pressure
exterted on the wall is nearly .
(a) 1350 N/m
2
(b) 2350 N/m
2
(c) 3320 N/m
2
(d) 1660 N/m
2
29. The wavelength of two waves are 50 and 51 cm
respectively. If the temperature of the room is
20°C then what will be the number of beats
produced per second by these waves, when the
speed of sound at 0°C is 332 m/s?
(a) 24 (b) 14
(c) 10 (d) None of these
30. The figure shows the interference pattern
obtained in a double-slit experiment using light
of wavelength 600nm. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are
marked on five fringes.
The third order bright fringe is
(a)2 (b) 3 (c)4 (d)5
31. Electric potential at any point is V = –5x + 3y
+
15z
, then the magnitude of the electric field
is
(a)
32
(b)
42
(c)
52
(d) 7
32. Seven resistances, each of value 20 W, are
connected to a 2 V battery as shown in the figure.
The ammeter reading will be
2V
A
(a) 1/10 A (b) 3/10 A
(c) 4/10 A (d) 7/10 A.
33. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (c) with
temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
represented by
(a)
T O
(b) 
T O
(c)
T
O
(d) 
T
O
34. A copper rod of length l rotates about its end
with angular velocity w in uniform magnetic
field B. The emf developed between the ends
of the rod if the field is normal to the plane of
rotation is
(a) Bw l
2
(b)
1
2
 Bwl
2
(c)2 Bw l
2
(d)
1
4
 Bwl
2
35. A 10V battery with internal resistance 1W and a
15V battery with internal resistance 0.6 W are
connected in parallel to a voltmeter (see figure).
The reading in the voltmeter will be close to :
(a) 12.5 V
(b) 24.5 V
10V
1W
15V
0.6W
V
(c) 13.1 V
(d) 11.9 V
36. 10 forks are arranged in increasing order of
frequency in such a way that any two nearest
tuning forks produce 4 beats/sec. The highest
frequency is twice of the lowest. Possible highest
and the lowest frequencies (in Hz) are
(a) 80 and 40 (b) 100 and 50
(c) 44 and 22 (d) 72 and 36
37. A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic
field with a certain velocity . The power delivered
to the particle by the magnetic field depends on
(a) force exerted by magnetic field and velocity
of the particle.
(b) angular speed w and radius r of the circular
path.
(c) angular speed w and acceleration of the
particle.
(d) None of these
38. A resistor and an inductor are connected to an
ac supply of 120 V and 50 Hz. The current in the
circuit is 3 A. If the power consumed in the circuit
is 108 W , then the resistance in the circuit is
(a) 12 W (b) 40 W
(c) ( )
52 25 ´W
(d) 360 W
39. In an electron gun, the potential difference
between the filament and plate is 3000 V . What
will be the velocity of electron emitting from the
gun?
(a) 3 × 10
8
 m/s (b) 3.18 × 10
7
 m/s
(c) 3.52 × 10
7
 m/s (d) 3.26 × 10
7
 m/s
40. A radioactive substance with decay constant of
0.5s
–1
 is being produced at a constant rate of 50
nuclei  per second. If there are no nuclei present
initially , the time (in second) after which 25 nuclei
will be present is
(a)1 (b) ln 2 (c) ln (4/3) (d) 2 ln (4/3)
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
41. The 25 mL of a 0.15 M solution of lead nitrate,
Pb(NO
3
)
2
 reacts with all of the aluminium
sulphate, Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
, present in 20 mL of a
solution. What is the molar concentration of the
Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
?
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
3 244
3 2
3Pb NO aq Al SO aq 3PbSO s + ¾¾®
( ) ( )
3
3
2Al NO aq +
(a) 6.25 × 10
–2
 M (b) 2.421 × 10
–2
 M
(c) 0.1875 M (d) None of these
42. 100 mL O
2
 and H
2
 kept at same temperature and
pressure. What is true about their number of
molecules
(a) NO
2
 > NH
2
(b) NO
2
 < NH
2
(c) NO
2
 = NH
2
(d) NO
2
 + NH
2 
= 1 mole
43. If the Planck’s constant h = 6.6×10
–34
 Js, the de
Broglie wavelength of a particle having
momentum of 3.3 × 10
–24
 kg ms 
–1
 will be
(a) 0.002 Å (b) 0.5 Å (c) 2 Å (d) 500 Å
44. Amongst the elements with following electronic
configurations, which one of them may have the
highest ionization energy?
(a) [Ne] 3s
2
3p
2
(b) [Ar] 3d
10
4s
2
4p
3
(c) [Ne] 3s
2
3p
1
(d) [Ne] 3s
2
3p
3
45. Which of the following is the correct and
increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the
central atom?
(a) IF
7
 < IF
5
 < ClF
3
 < XeF
2
(b) IF
7
 < XeF
2
 < ClF
2 
< IF
5
(c) IF
7
 < ClF
3
 < XeF
2
 < IF
5
(d) IF
7
 < XeF
2
 < IF
5 
< ClF
3
46. According to molecular orbital theory which of
the following statement about the magnetic
character and bond order is correct regarding 
+
2
O
(a) Paramagnetic and Bond order < O
2
(b) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O
2
(c) Diamagnetic and Bond order < O
2
(d) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O
2
47. If V is the volume of one molecule of gas under
given conditions, the van der Waal’s constant b
is
(a) 4 V (b)
0
4V
N
(c)
0
N
4V
(d) 4VN
0
Page 5


INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 81 to 95
        (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 96 to 105
Part IV : Mathematics Q. No. 106 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper-3 Hours
PART - I : PHYSICS
1. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,
one at each corner of the square. The relation
between Q and q for which the potential at the
centre of the square is zero is :
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
1
q
(c) Q = q (d) Q = 
1
q
2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i
flowing in the same direction are at a distance 2d
apart. The magnetic field B at a point lying on the
perpendicular line joining the wires and at a
distance x from the midpoint is –
(a)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
p+
(b)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
p-
(c)
( )
0
22
ix
dx
m
+
(d)
( )
0
22
id
dx
m
+
3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual
meanings. The cell has emf E. X is initially joined
to Y for a long time. Then, X is joined to Z. The
maximum charge on C at any later time will be
L
Y
R
C Z
X
+     –
(a)
E
R LC
(b)
2
ER
LC
(c)
2
E LC
R
(d)
E LC
R
4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image would be formed at
(a) 30 cm left (b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right (d) 18 cm to the left
5. In Young’s double slit experiment, l = 500nm,
d = 1mm, D = 1m. Minimum distance from the
central maximum for which intensity is half of
the maximum intensity is
(a) 2.5 × 10
–4
 m (b) 1.25 × 10
–4
 m
(c) 0.625 × 10
–4 
m (d) 0.3125 × 10
–4 
m
6. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter
amplifier, where input resistance is 3 W and load
resistance 24 W, b = 0.6 ?
(a) 8 . 4 (b) 4 . 8 (c) 2 . 4 (d) 4 80
7. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
the moon is 1/6 that on the surface of earth and
the diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of
earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and
moon will be
(a)
6
2
(b)
24
(c)3 (d)
3
2
8. Given 
k
ˆ
4 j
ˆ
3 – i
ˆ
2 P + =
 and 
k
ˆ
2 j
ˆ
Q - =
. The
magnitude of their resultant is
(a)
3
(b)
3 2
(c)
3 3
(d)
3 4
9. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic
motion with amplitude a and frequency n. The
average kinetic energy during its motion from the
position of equilibrium to the end is
(a)
2 22
2pn ma
(b)
2 22
pn ma
(c)
22
1
4
n ma (d)
2 22
4pn ma
10. The dipole moment of the given charge
distribution is
(a)  
4Rq
ˆ
i -
p
R
X
q
Y
–q
+
+
+
+
+
+ –
–
–
–
–
–
–
(b)
4Rq
ˆ
i
p
(c)  
2Rq
ˆ
i -
p
(d)
2Rq
ˆ
i
p
11. At a place, if the earth¢s horizontal and vertical
components of magnetic fields are equal, then
the angle of dip will be
(a) 30° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 0 °
12. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalnet
to hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm.
The ground state energy of an electron of this
ion will be
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 e V
(c) 54.4 e V (d) 122.4 eV
13. The binding energy per nucleon of 
10
X is 9 MeV
and that of 
11
X is 7.5 MeV where X represents
an element. The minimum energy required to
remove a neutron from 
11
X is
(a) 7.5 MeV (b) 2.5 MeV
(c) 8 MeV (d) 0.5 MeV
14. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due
to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the
fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the
dimensions of length will be same as that of
(a)
C
g
(b)
C
P
(c) PCg (d)
2
C
g
15. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown
through the horizontal tube in the direction as
shown then rise in capillary tube will be
(a) = H
(b) > H
H
(c) < H
(d) zero
16. A boy running on a horizontal road at 8 km/h
finds the rain falling vertically . He increases his
speed to 12 km/h and finds that the drops makes
30° with the vertical. The speed of rain with
respect to the road is
(a) 4 7 km/h (b) 9 7 km/h
(c) 12 7 km/h (d) 15 7 km/h
17. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly
at a monkey on a tree. At the instant the bullet
leaves the barrel of the gun, the monkey drops.
Pick the correct statement regarding the situation.
(a) The bullet will never hit the monkey
(b) The bullet will always hit the monkey
(c) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
(d) Can’t be predicted
18. A particle of mass m
1
 moving with velocity v
collides with a mass m
2
 at rest, then they get
embedded. Just after  collision, velocity of the
system
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) becomes zero
19. The ratio of the specific heats of a gas is
p
v
C
C
=g
1.66 , then the gas may be
(a) CO
2
(b) He (c)H
2
(d) NO
2
20. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in
same phase. After 50 oscillations of one, they
get out of phase by p, that is half oscillation. The
percentage difference of frequencies of the two
oscillators is nearest to
(a) 2% (b) 1% (c) 0.5% (d) 0.25%
21. A juggler keeps on moving four balls in the air
throwing the balls after intervals. When one ball
leaves his hand (speed = 20 ms
–1
) the position of
other balls (height in m) will be (T ake g = 10 ms
–2
)
(a) 10, 20, 10 (b) 15, 20, 15
(c) 5, 15, 20 (d) 5, 10, 20
22. If a stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown out a window
of a train moving at a constant speed of 100 km/
h then magnitude of the net force acting on the
stone is
(a) 0.5 N (b) zero (c) 50 N (d) 5 N
23. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with
velocity V and bounces back with the same
velocity . The impulse experienced by the body is
(a) MV (b) 1.5 MV (c) 2 MV (d) zero
24. A hoop rolls down an inclined plane. The fraction
of its total kinetic energy that is associated with
rotational motion is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 3
25. Infinite number of masses, each 1 kg are placed
along the x-axis at x = ± 1m, ± 2m, ± 4m, ± 8m,
± 16m ..... the magnitude of the resultant
gravitational potential in terms of gravitational
constant G at the orgin (x = 0) is
(a) G/2 (b) G (c)2G (d) 4 G
26. Water of volume 2 litre in a container is heated
with a coil of 1 kW at 27°C. The lid of the container
is open and energy dissipates at rate of 160 J/s.
In how much time temperature will rise from 27°C
to 77°C?
[Given specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg]
(a) 8 min 20 s (b) 6  min2 s
(c) 7 min (d) 14  min
27. In the following P-V diagram of an ideal gas,
two adiabates cut two isotherms at T
1
 = 300K
and T
2
 = 200K. The value of V
A
 = 2 unit, V
B
 =
8 unit, V
C
 = 16 unit. Find the value of V
D
.
(a) 4 unit (b) < 4 unit
(c) > 5 unit (d) 5 unit
28. The mass of H
2
 molecule is 3.32 × 10
–24
 g. If 10
23
hydrogen molecules per second strike 2 cm
2
 of
wall at an angle of 45
o
 with the normal, while
moving with a speed of 10
5
 cm/s, the pressure
exterted on the wall is nearly .
(a) 1350 N/m
2
(b) 2350 N/m
2
(c) 3320 N/m
2
(d) 1660 N/m
2
29. The wavelength of two waves are 50 and 51 cm
respectively. If the temperature of the room is
20°C then what will be the number of beats
produced per second by these waves, when the
speed of sound at 0°C is 332 m/s?
(a) 24 (b) 14
(c) 10 (d) None of these
30. The figure shows the interference pattern
obtained in a double-slit experiment using light
of wavelength 600nm. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are
marked on five fringes.
The third order bright fringe is
(a)2 (b) 3 (c)4 (d)5
31. Electric potential at any point is V = –5x + 3y
+
15z
, then the magnitude of the electric field
is
(a)
32
(b)
42
(c)
52
(d) 7
32. Seven resistances, each of value 20 W, are
connected to a 2 V battery as shown in the figure.
The ammeter reading will be
2V
A
(a) 1/10 A (b) 3/10 A
(c) 4/10 A (d) 7/10 A.
33. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (c) with
temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
represented by
(a)
T O
(b) 
T O
(c)
T
O
(d) 
T
O
34. A copper rod of length l rotates about its end
with angular velocity w in uniform magnetic
field B. The emf developed between the ends
of the rod if the field is normal to the plane of
rotation is
(a) Bw l
2
(b)
1
2
 Bwl
2
(c)2 Bw l
2
(d)
1
4
 Bwl
2
35. A 10V battery with internal resistance 1W and a
15V battery with internal resistance 0.6 W are
connected in parallel to a voltmeter (see figure).
The reading in the voltmeter will be close to :
(a) 12.5 V
(b) 24.5 V
10V
1W
15V
0.6W
V
(c) 13.1 V
(d) 11.9 V
36. 10 forks are arranged in increasing order of
frequency in such a way that any two nearest
tuning forks produce 4 beats/sec. The highest
frequency is twice of the lowest. Possible highest
and the lowest frequencies (in Hz) are
(a) 80 and 40 (b) 100 and 50
(c) 44 and 22 (d) 72 and 36
37. A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic
field with a certain velocity . The power delivered
to the particle by the magnetic field depends on
(a) force exerted by magnetic field and velocity
of the particle.
(b) angular speed w and radius r of the circular
path.
(c) angular speed w and acceleration of the
particle.
(d) None of these
38. A resistor and an inductor are connected to an
ac supply of 120 V and 50 Hz. The current in the
circuit is 3 A. If the power consumed in the circuit
is 108 W , then the resistance in the circuit is
(a) 12 W (b) 40 W
(c) ( )
52 25 ´W
(d) 360 W
39. In an electron gun, the potential difference
between the filament and plate is 3000 V . What
will be the velocity of electron emitting from the
gun?
(a) 3 × 10
8
 m/s (b) 3.18 × 10
7
 m/s
(c) 3.52 × 10
7
 m/s (d) 3.26 × 10
7
 m/s
40. A radioactive substance with decay constant of
0.5s
–1
 is being produced at a constant rate of 50
nuclei  per second. If there are no nuclei present
initially , the time (in second) after which 25 nuclei
will be present is
(a)1 (b) ln 2 (c) ln (4/3) (d) 2 ln (4/3)
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
41. The 25 mL of a 0.15 M solution of lead nitrate,
Pb(NO
3
)
2
 reacts with all of the aluminium
sulphate, Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
, present in 20 mL of a
solution. What is the molar concentration of the
Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
?
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
3 244
3 2
3Pb NO aq Al SO aq 3PbSO s + ¾¾®
( ) ( )
3
3
2Al NO aq +
(a) 6.25 × 10
–2
 M (b) 2.421 × 10
–2
 M
(c) 0.1875 M (d) None of these
42. 100 mL O
2
 and H
2
 kept at same temperature and
pressure. What is true about their number of
molecules
(a) NO
2
 > NH
2
(b) NO
2
 < NH
2
(c) NO
2
 = NH
2
(d) NO
2
 + NH
2 
= 1 mole
43. If the Planck’s constant h = 6.6×10
–34
 Js, the de
Broglie wavelength of a particle having
momentum of 3.3 × 10
–24
 kg ms 
–1
 will be
(a) 0.002 Å (b) 0.5 Å (c) 2 Å (d) 500 Å
44. Amongst the elements with following electronic
configurations, which one of them may have the
highest ionization energy?
(a) [Ne] 3s
2
3p
2
(b) [Ar] 3d
10
4s
2
4p
3
(c) [Ne] 3s
2
3p
1
(d) [Ne] 3s
2
3p
3
45. Which of the following is the correct and
increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the
central atom?
(a) IF
7
 < IF
5
 < ClF
3
 < XeF
2
(b) IF
7
 < XeF
2
 < ClF
2 
< IF
5
(c) IF
7
 < ClF
3
 < XeF
2
 < IF
5
(d) IF
7
 < XeF
2
 < IF
5 
< ClF
3
46. According to molecular orbital theory which of
the following statement about the magnetic
character and bond order is correct regarding 
+
2
O
(a) Paramagnetic and Bond order < O
2
(b) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O
2
(c) Diamagnetic and Bond order < O
2
(d) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O
2
47. If V is the volume of one molecule of gas under
given conditions, the van der Waal’s constant b
is
(a) 4 V (b)
0
4V
N
(c)
0
N
4V
(d) 4VN
0
48. For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric
pressure, the values of DH and DS are 40.63
kJmol
–1 
and 108.8 JK
–1
 mol
–1
, respectively. The
temperature when Gibbs energy change (DG) for
this transformation will be zero, is:
(a) 293.4 K (b) 273.4 K
(c) 393.4 K (d) 373.4 K
49. For the reaction taking place at certain
temperature
() () ()
2 4 32
NH COONH s 2NH g CO g , +
???
? ??
if equilibrium pressure is 3X bar then D
r
G° would
be
(a) – R T ln 9 – 3R T ln X
(b) R T ln 4 – 3R T ln X
(c) – 3RT ln X
(d) None of these
50. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts
increases in the order :
(a) NaCl < NH
4
Cl < NaCN < HCl
(b) HCl < NH
4
Cl < NaCl < NaCN
(c) NaCN < NH
4
Cl < NaCl < HCl
(d) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH
4
Cl
51. When N
2
O
5
 is heated at certain temperature, it
dissociates as
( ) ( ) ( )
25 23 2
NO g NO g O g ; +
? ??
? ??
K
c
 = 2.5. At
the same time N
2
O
3
 also decomposes as :
( ) ( ) ( )
23 22
NO g N Og O g . +
???
? ??
If initially
4.0 moles of N
2
O
5
 are taken in 1.0 litre flask and
allowed to dissociate. Concentration of O
2
 at
equilibrium is 2.5 M. Equilibrium concentration
of N
2
O
5
 is :
(a) 1.0 M (b) 1.5 M
(c) 2.166 M (d) 1.846 M
52. Consider the reactions
(A)H
2
O
2
  + 2HI ® I
2
 + 2H
2
O
(B) HOCl + H
2
O
2
 ® H
3
O
+
 + Cl
–
 + O
2
Which of the following statements is correct
about H
2
O
2
 with reference to these reactions?
Hydrogen peroxide is ______ .
(a) an oxidising agent in both (A) and (B)
(b) an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing agent
in (B)
(c) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent
in (B)
(d) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)
53. Following are colours shown by some alkaline
earth metals in flame test. Which of the
following are not correctly matched?
Metal Colour
(i) Calcium Apple green
(ii) Strontium Crimson
(iii) Barium Brick red
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) only
(c) (ii) only (d) (ii) and (iii)
54. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with
aluminium. Which of the following similarity is
incorrect ?
(a) Be forms beryllates and Al forms aluminates
(b) Be(OH)
2
 like Al(OH)
3
 is basic.
(c) Be like Al is rendered passive by HNO
3
.
(d) Be
2
C like Al
4
C
3
 yields methane on
hydrolysis.
55. An element X occurs in short period having
configuration ns
2
 np
1
. The formula and nature of
its oxide is
(a) XO
3
, basic (b) XO
3
, acidic
(c)X
2
O
3
, amphoteric (d) X
2
O
3
,
 
basic
56. Which of the following is strongest nucleophile
(a) Br
–
(b) : OH
–
(c) : CN
-
(d)   
25
C H O:
57. The IUP AC name of the compound is
HO 
(a) 3, 3-dimethyl - 1- cyclohexanol
(b) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-hydroxy cyclohexane
(c) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane
(d) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol
58. Which of the following will have a meso-isomer
also?
(a) 2, 3- Dichloropentane
(b) 2, 3-Dichlorobutane
(c) 2-Chlorobutane
(d) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
59. In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a
product D.
CH CH
23 KMnO
4
KOH
¾¾¾®
Br
2
FeCl
3
B ¾¾®
C H OH
25
H
+
C ¾¾¾®D
(a)
CH
2 25
– CH – COOC H
Br
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