Biotechnology (BT) 2012 GATE Paper with solution GATE Notes | EduRev

GATE Past Year Papers for Practice (All Branches)

GATE : Biotechnology (BT) 2012 GATE Paper with solution GATE Notes | EduRev

 Page 1


2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 1/16 
BT : BIOTECHNOLOGY 
 
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 
 
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal 
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.   
 
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble 
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration 
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and 
put your signature at the specified location.  
 
4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are 
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each 
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS 
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen 
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More 
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 
 
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken 
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 
 
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.  
For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 
? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question 
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks 
for wrong answer to the second question.  
 
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 
 
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the 
question paper for rough work. 
 
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided 
below using a black ink ball point pen. 
 
Name 
 
 
Registration Number 
BT 
      
 
 
Page 2


2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 1/16 
BT : BIOTECHNOLOGY 
 
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 
 
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal 
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.   
 
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble 
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration 
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and 
put your signature at the specified location.  
 
4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are 
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each 
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS 
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen 
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More 
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 
 
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken 
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 
 
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.  
For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 
? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question 
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks 
for wrong answer to the second question.  
 
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 
 
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the 
question paper for rough work. 
 
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided 
below using a black ink ball point pen. 
 
Name 
 
 
Registration Number 
BT 
      
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 2/16 
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 
 
Q.1  In mismatch correction repair, the parental DNA strand is distinguished from the daughter strand by  
(A) acetylation (B) phosphorylation (C)  methylation (D) glycosylation 
 
Q.2  The basis for blue-white screening with pUC vectors is 
(A) intraallelic complementation (B) intergenic complementation 
(C) intragenic suppression (D) extragenic suppression 
 
Q.3  Idiotypic determinants of an antibody are associated with the 
(A) constant region of the heavy chains (B) constant region of the light chains 
(C) variable region (D) constant regions of light and heavy chains 
 
Q.4  Identification of blood groups involves 
(A) precipitation  (B) neutralization 
(C) opsonization (D) agglutination 
 
Q.5  B-lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow whereas T-lymphocytes originate from 
(A) thymus (B) bone marrow (C) spleen  (D) liver  
 
Q.6  A humanized antibody is one in which the 
(A) heavy and light chains are from human 
(B) heavy chain is from human and light chain is from mouse 
(C) light chain is from human and heavy chain is from mouse 
(D) CDRs are from mouse, and the rest is from human 
 
Q.7  Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because 
(A) it is an organic solvent 
(B) it easily penetrates cells 
(C) it protects cells by preventing crystallization of water 
(D) it is also utilized as a nutrient 
 
Q.8  Nude mice refers to 
(A) mice without skin (B) mice without thymus 
(C) knockout mice (D) transgenic mice 
 
Q.9  Heat inactivation of serum is done to inactivate 
(A) prions (B) mycoplasma (C) complement (D) pathogenic bacteria  
 
 
Q.10  Choose the correct signal transduction pathway. 
(A) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? G protein ? cAMP ? PKA 
(B) Hormone ? G protein ? 7 TM receptor ? cAMP ? PKA  
(C) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? G protein ? PKA ? cAMP 
(D) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? cAMP ? G protein ? PKA 
Page 3


2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 1/16 
BT : BIOTECHNOLOGY 
 
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 
 
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal 
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.   
 
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble 
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration 
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and 
put your signature at the specified location.  
 
4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are 
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each 
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS 
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen 
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More 
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 
 
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken 
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 
 
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.  
For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 
? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question 
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks 
for wrong answer to the second question.  
 
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 
 
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the 
question paper for rough work. 
 
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided 
below using a black ink ball point pen. 
 
Name 
 
 
Registration Number 
BT 
      
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 2/16 
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 
 
Q.1  In mismatch correction repair, the parental DNA strand is distinguished from the daughter strand by  
(A) acetylation (B) phosphorylation (C)  methylation (D) glycosylation 
 
Q.2  The basis for blue-white screening with pUC vectors is 
(A) intraallelic complementation (B) intergenic complementation 
(C) intragenic suppression (D) extragenic suppression 
 
Q.3  Idiotypic determinants of an antibody are associated with the 
(A) constant region of the heavy chains (B) constant region of the light chains 
(C) variable region (D) constant regions of light and heavy chains 
 
Q.4  Identification of blood groups involves 
(A) precipitation  (B) neutralization 
(C) opsonization (D) agglutination 
 
Q.5  B-lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow whereas T-lymphocytes originate from 
(A) thymus (B) bone marrow (C) spleen  (D) liver  
 
Q.6  A humanized antibody is one in which the 
(A) heavy and light chains are from human 
(B) heavy chain is from human and light chain is from mouse 
(C) light chain is from human and heavy chain is from mouse 
(D) CDRs are from mouse, and the rest is from human 
 
Q.7  Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because 
(A) it is an organic solvent 
(B) it easily penetrates cells 
(C) it protects cells by preventing crystallization of water 
(D) it is also utilized as a nutrient 
 
Q.8  Nude mice refers to 
(A) mice without skin (B) mice without thymus 
(C) knockout mice (D) transgenic mice 
 
Q.9  Heat inactivation of serum is done to inactivate 
(A) prions (B) mycoplasma (C) complement (D) pathogenic bacteria  
 
 
Q.10  Choose the correct signal transduction pathway. 
(A) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? G protein ? cAMP ? PKA 
(B) Hormone ? G protein ? 7 TM receptor ? cAMP ? PKA  
(C) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? G protein ? PKA ? cAMP 
(D) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? cAMP ? G protein ? PKA 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 3/16 
Q.11  A protein is phosphorylated at a serine residue. A phosphomimic mutant of the protein can be 
generated by substituting that serine with    
(A) glycine (B) alanine (C)  aspartate (D)  threonine 
 
Q.12  A truncated polypeptide is synthesized due to a nonsense mutation. Where would you introduce 
another mutation to obtain a full-length polypeptide? 
(A) Ribosomal protein gene (B) Transfer RNA gene 
(C) DNA repair gene (D) Ribosomal RNA gene 
 
Q.13  Protein-DNA interactions in vivo can be studied by 
(A) gel shift assay (B) Southern hybridization 
(C) chromatin immunoprecipitation assay (D) fluorescence in situ hybridization assay 
 
Q.14  The direction of shell coiling in the snail Limnaea peregra is a classic example of  
(A) chromosomal inheritance (B) extra-chromosomal inheritance 
(C) chromosomal translocation (D) homologous recombination 
 
Q.15  During photorespiration under low CO
2
 and high O
2
 levels, O
2
 reacts with ribulose  
1,5- bisphosphate to yield 
(A) one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycolate 
(B) two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate 
(C) two molecules of 2-phosphoglycolate 
(D) one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and glyoxylate 
 
Q.16  Which one of the following is NOT a protoplast fusion inducing agent? 
(A) Inactivated Sendai virus (B) Ca
2+ 
at alkaline pH  
(C) Polyethylene glycol (D) Colchicine 
 
Q.17  The activity of an enzyme is expressed in International Units (IU). However, the S.I. unit for 
enzyme activity is Katal. One Katal is  
(A) 1.66 × 10
4
 IU (B) 60 IU (C) 6 × 10
7
 IU  (D) 10
6
 IU  
 
Q.18  Identify the statement that is NOT applicable to an enzyme catalyzed reaction. 
(A) Enzyme catalysis involves propinquity effects 
(B) The binding of substrate to the active site causes a strain in the substrate 
(C) Enzymes do not accelerate the rate of reverse reaction 
(D) Enzyme catalysis involves acid-base chemistry 
 
Q.19  An example of a derived protein structure database is 
(A) Pfam (B) SCOP  (C) GEO  (D) Prosite   
 
Q.20  An example of a program for constructing a phylogenetic tree is 
(A) phylip (B) phrap  (C) prodom  (D) PHDsec   
 
Q.21  Synteny refers to  
(A) gene duplication from a common ancestor 
(B) a tree representation of related sequences 
(C) the extent of similarity between two sequences 
(D) local conservation of gene order 
Page 4


2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 1/16 
BT : BIOTECHNOLOGY 
 
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 
 
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal 
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.   
 
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble 
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration 
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and 
put your signature at the specified location.  
 
4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are 
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each 
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS 
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen 
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More 
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 
 
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken 
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 
 
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.  
For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 
? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question 
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks 
for wrong answer to the second question.  
 
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 
 
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the 
question paper for rough work. 
 
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided 
below using a black ink ball point pen. 
 
Name 
 
 
Registration Number 
BT 
      
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 2/16 
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 
 
Q.1  In mismatch correction repair, the parental DNA strand is distinguished from the daughter strand by  
(A) acetylation (B) phosphorylation (C)  methylation (D) glycosylation 
 
Q.2  The basis for blue-white screening with pUC vectors is 
(A) intraallelic complementation (B) intergenic complementation 
(C) intragenic suppression (D) extragenic suppression 
 
Q.3  Idiotypic determinants of an antibody are associated with the 
(A) constant region of the heavy chains (B) constant region of the light chains 
(C) variable region (D) constant regions of light and heavy chains 
 
Q.4  Identification of blood groups involves 
(A) precipitation  (B) neutralization 
(C) opsonization (D) agglutination 
 
Q.5  B-lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow whereas T-lymphocytes originate from 
(A) thymus (B) bone marrow (C) spleen  (D) liver  
 
Q.6  A humanized antibody is one in which the 
(A) heavy and light chains are from human 
(B) heavy chain is from human and light chain is from mouse 
(C) light chain is from human and heavy chain is from mouse 
(D) CDRs are from mouse, and the rest is from human 
 
Q.7  Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because 
(A) it is an organic solvent 
(B) it easily penetrates cells 
(C) it protects cells by preventing crystallization of water 
(D) it is also utilized as a nutrient 
 
Q.8  Nude mice refers to 
(A) mice without skin (B) mice without thymus 
(C) knockout mice (D) transgenic mice 
 
Q.9  Heat inactivation of serum is done to inactivate 
(A) prions (B) mycoplasma (C) complement (D) pathogenic bacteria  
 
 
Q.10  Choose the correct signal transduction pathway. 
(A) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? G protein ? cAMP ? PKA 
(B) Hormone ? G protein ? 7 TM receptor ? cAMP ? PKA  
(C) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? G protein ? PKA ? cAMP 
(D) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? cAMP ? G protein ? PKA 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 3/16 
Q.11  A protein is phosphorylated at a serine residue. A phosphomimic mutant of the protein can be 
generated by substituting that serine with    
(A) glycine (B) alanine (C)  aspartate (D)  threonine 
 
Q.12  A truncated polypeptide is synthesized due to a nonsense mutation. Where would you introduce 
another mutation to obtain a full-length polypeptide? 
(A) Ribosomal protein gene (B) Transfer RNA gene 
(C) DNA repair gene (D) Ribosomal RNA gene 
 
Q.13  Protein-DNA interactions in vivo can be studied by 
(A) gel shift assay (B) Southern hybridization 
(C) chromatin immunoprecipitation assay (D) fluorescence in situ hybridization assay 
 
Q.14  The direction of shell coiling in the snail Limnaea peregra is a classic example of  
(A) chromosomal inheritance (B) extra-chromosomal inheritance 
(C) chromosomal translocation (D) homologous recombination 
 
Q.15  During photorespiration under low CO
2
 and high O
2
 levels, O
2
 reacts with ribulose  
1,5- bisphosphate to yield 
(A) one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycolate 
(B) two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate 
(C) two molecules of 2-phosphoglycolate 
(D) one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and glyoxylate 
 
Q.16  Which one of the following is NOT a protoplast fusion inducing agent? 
(A) Inactivated Sendai virus (B) Ca
2+ 
at alkaline pH  
(C) Polyethylene glycol (D) Colchicine 
 
Q.17  The activity of an enzyme is expressed in International Units (IU). However, the S.I. unit for 
enzyme activity is Katal. One Katal is  
(A) 1.66 × 10
4
 IU (B) 60 IU (C) 6 × 10
7
 IU  (D) 10
6
 IU  
 
Q.18  Identify the statement that is NOT applicable to an enzyme catalyzed reaction. 
(A) Enzyme catalysis involves propinquity effects 
(B) The binding of substrate to the active site causes a strain in the substrate 
(C) Enzymes do not accelerate the rate of reverse reaction 
(D) Enzyme catalysis involves acid-base chemistry 
 
Q.19  An example of a derived protein structure database is 
(A) Pfam (B) SCOP  (C) GEO  (D) Prosite   
 
Q.20  An example of a program for constructing a phylogenetic tree is 
(A) phylip (B) phrap  (C) prodom  (D) PHDsec   
 
Q.21  Synteny refers to  
(A) gene duplication from a common ancestor 
(B) a tree representation of related sequences 
(C) the extent of similarity between two sequences 
(D) local conservation of gene order 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 4/16 
Q.22  While searching a database for similar sequences, E value does NOT depend on the 
(A) sequence length (B) number of sequences in the database 
(C) scoring system (D) probability from a normal distribution 
 
Q.23  In transmission electron microscopy, electron opacity is greatly enhanced by treating the specimen 
with  
(A) ferrous ammonium sulfate (B) uranium acetate 
(C) sodium chloride (D) basic fuchsin 
 
Q.24  The molarity of water in a water : ethanol mixture (15 : 85, v/v) is approximately 
(A) 0.85 (B) 5.55 
(C) 8.5 (D) 55.5 
 
Q.25  The helix content of a protein can be determined using 
(A) an infrared spectrometer (B) a fluorescence spectrometer 
(C) a circular dichroism spectrometer (D) a UV-Visible spectrophotometer 
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. 
Q.26  Which one of the following DNA sequences carries an invert repeat? 
(A)  ATGAGCCCCGAGTA 
   TACTCGGGGCTCAT 
(B)  ATGAGCCGGCTCTA 
   TACTCGGCCGAGAT 
(C)  ATGAGCCGAGCCTA 
   ACTCGGCTCGGAT 
(D)  ATGAGCCTATGGTA 
   TACTCGGATACCAT 
 
Q.27  In zinc finger proteins, the amino acid residues that coordinate zinc are 
(A) Cys and His (B) Asp and Glu 
(C) Arg and Lys (D) Asp and Arg 
 
Q.28  Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II. 
 
Group I  Group II 
 
P. MTT 1. Dihydrofolate reductase 
Q. Annexin V 2. Succinate dehydrogenase 
R. Methotrexate 3. Microtubules 
S. Taxol 4. Phosphatidylserine 
  
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2  (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 
 
Q.29  In an exponentially growing batch culture of Saccharomyces cerevisiae, the cell density is 20 gl
-1
 
(DCW), the specific growth rate ( ?) is 0.4 h
-1
 and substrate uptake rate ( ?) is 16 gl
-1
h
-1
. The cell 
yield coefficient Y
x/s
 will be 
(A)  0.32 (B) 0.64 (C) 0.80  (D) 0.50  
 
Q.30  A single base pair of DNA weighs 1.1 × 10
-21
 grams. How many picomoles of a plasmid vector of 
length 2750 bp are contained in 1 ?g of purified DNA? 
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.55 (C) 0.25   (D) 0.91   
Page 5


2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 1/16 
BT : BIOTECHNOLOGY 
 
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 
 
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal 
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.   
 
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble 
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration 
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and 
put your signature at the specified location.  
 
4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are 
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each 
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS 
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen 
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More 
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 
 
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken 
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 
 
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.  
For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 
? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question 
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks 
for wrong answer to the second question.  
 
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 
 
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the 
question paper for rough work. 
 
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided 
below using a black ink ball point pen. 
 
Name 
 
 
Registration Number 
BT 
      
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 2/16 
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 
 
Q.1  In mismatch correction repair, the parental DNA strand is distinguished from the daughter strand by  
(A) acetylation (B) phosphorylation (C)  methylation (D) glycosylation 
 
Q.2  The basis for blue-white screening with pUC vectors is 
(A) intraallelic complementation (B) intergenic complementation 
(C) intragenic suppression (D) extragenic suppression 
 
Q.3  Idiotypic determinants of an antibody are associated with the 
(A) constant region of the heavy chains (B) constant region of the light chains 
(C) variable region (D) constant regions of light and heavy chains 
 
Q.4  Identification of blood groups involves 
(A) precipitation  (B) neutralization 
(C) opsonization (D) agglutination 
 
Q.5  B-lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow whereas T-lymphocytes originate from 
(A) thymus (B) bone marrow (C) spleen  (D) liver  
 
Q.6  A humanized antibody is one in which the 
(A) heavy and light chains are from human 
(B) heavy chain is from human and light chain is from mouse 
(C) light chain is from human and heavy chain is from mouse 
(D) CDRs are from mouse, and the rest is from human 
 
Q.7  Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because 
(A) it is an organic solvent 
(B) it easily penetrates cells 
(C) it protects cells by preventing crystallization of water 
(D) it is also utilized as a nutrient 
 
Q.8  Nude mice refers to 
(A) mice without skin (B) mice without thymus 
(C) knockout mice (D) transgenic mice 
 
Q.9  Heat inactivation of serum is done to inactivate 
(A) prions (B) mycoplasma (C) complement (D) pathogenic bacteria  
 
 
Q.10  Choose the correct signal transduction pathway. 
(A) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? G protein ? cAMP ? PKA 
(B) Hormone ? G protein ? 7 TM receptor ? cAMP ? PKA  
(C) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? G protein ? PKA ? cAMP 
(D) Hormone ? 7 TM receptor ? cAMP ? G protein ? PKA 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 3/16 
Q.11  A protein is phosphorylated at a serine residue. A phosphomimic mutant of the protein can be 
generated by substituting that serine with    
(A) glycine (B) alanine (C)  aspartate (D)  threonine 
 
Q.12  A truncated polypeptide is synthesized due to a nonsense mutation. Where would you introduce 
another mutation to obtain a full-length polypeptide? 
(A) Ribosomal protein gene (B) Transfer RNA gene 
(C) DNA repair gene (D) Ribosomal RNA gene 
 
Q.13  Protein-DNA interactions in vivo can be studied by 
(A) gel shift assay (B) Southern hybridization 
(C) chromatin immunoprecipitation assay (D) fluorescence in situ hybridization assay 
 
Q.14  The direction of shell coiling in the snail Limnaea peregra is a classic example of  
(A) chromosomal inheritance (B) extra-chromosomal inheritance 
(C) chromosomal translocation (D) homologous recombination 
 
Q.15  During photorespiration under low CO
2
 and high O
2
 levels, O
2
 reacts with ribulose  
1,5- bisphosphate to yield 
(A) one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycolate 
(B) two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate 
(C) two molecules of 2-phosphoglycolate 
(D) one molecule each of 3-phosphoglycerate and glyoxylate 
 
Q.16  Which one of the following is NOT a protoplast fusion inducing agent? 
(A) Inactivated Sendai virus (B) Ca
2+ 
at alkaline pH  
(C) Polyethylene glycol (D) Colchicine 
 
Q.17  The activity of an enzyme is expressed in International Units (IU). However, the S.I. unit for 
enzyme activity is Katal. One Katal is  
(A) 1.66 × 10
4
 IU (B) 60 IU (C) 6 × 10
7
 IU  (D) 10
6
 IU  
 
Q.18  Identify the statement that is NOT applicable to an enzyme catalyzed reaction. 
(A) Enzyme catalysis involves propinquity effects 
(B) The binding of substrate to the active site causes a strain in the substrate 
(C) Enzymes do not accelerate the rate of reverse reaction 
(D) Enzyme catalysis involves acid-base chemistry 
 
Q.19  An example of a derived protein structure database is 
(A) Pfam (B) SCOP  (C) GEO  (D) Prosite   
 
Q.20  An example of a program for constructing a phylogenetic tree is 
(A) phylip (B) phrap  (C) prodom  (D) PHDsec   
 
Q.21  Synteny refers to  
(A) gene duplication from a common ancestor 
(B) a tree representation of related sequences 
(C) the extent of similarity between two sequences 
(D) local conservation of gene order 
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 4/16 
Q.22  While searching a database for similar sequences, E value does NOT depend on the 
(A) sequence length (B) number of sequences in the database 
(C) scoring system (D) probability from a normal distribution 
 
Q.23  In transmission electron microscopy, electron opacity is greatly enhanced by treating the specimen 
with  
(A) ferrous ammonium sulfate (B) uranium acetate 
(C) sodium chloride (D) basic fuchsin 
 
Q.24  The molarity of water in a water : ethanol mixture (15 : 85, v/v) is approximately 
(A) 0.85 (B) 5.55 
(C) 8.5 (D) 55.5 
 
Q.25  The helix content of a protein can be determined using 
(A) an infrared spectrometer (B) a fluorescence spectrometer 
(C) a circular dichroism spectrometer (D) a UV-Visible spectrophotometer 
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. 
Q.26  Which one of the following DNA sequences carries an invert repeat? 
(A)  ATGAGCCCCGAGTA 
   TACTCGGGGCTCAT 
(B)  ATGAGCCGGCTCTA 
   TACTCGGCCGAGAT 
(C)  ATGAGCCGAGCCTA 
   ACTCGGCTCGGAT 
(D)  ATGAGCCTATGGTA 
   TACTCGGATACCAT 
 
Q.27  In zinc finger proteins, the amino acid residues that coordinate zinc are 
(A) Cys and His (B) Asp and Glu 
(C) Arg and Lys (D) Asp and Arg 
 
Q.28  Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II. 
 
Group I  Group II 
 
P. MTT 1. Dihydrofolate reductase 
Q. Annexin V 2. Succinate dehydrogenase 
R. Methotrexate 3. Microtubules 
S. Taxol 4. Phosphatidylserine 
  
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2  (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 
 
Q.29  In an exponentially growing batch culture of Saccharomyces cerevisiae, the cell density is 20 gl
-1
 
(DCW), the specific growth rate ( ?) is 0.4 h
-1
 and substrate uptake rate ( ?) is 16 gl
-1
h
-1
. The cell 
yield coefficient Y
x/s
 will be 
(A)  0.32 (B) 0.64 (C) 0.80  (D) 0.50  
 
Q.30  A single base pair of DNA weighs 1.1 × 10
-21
 grams. How many picomoles of a plasmid vector of 
length 2750 bp are contained in 1 ?g of purified DNA? 
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.55 (C) 0.25   (D) 0.91   
2012                                                                                                                                                                                               BIOTECHNOLOGY – BT 
BT 5/16 
Q.31  Match the terms in Group I with the ploidy in Group II. 
 
Group I  Group II 
 
P. Disome 1. 2n + 1 
Q. Monosome 2. 2n – 1 
R. Nullisome 3. n – 1 
S. Trisome 4. n + 1 
  
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 
 
Q.32  What is the rank of the following matrix? 
5 3 1
6 2 4
14 10 0
? ??
??
?
??
??
??
 
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2   (D) 3   
 
Q.33  Match the products in Group I with the applications in Group II. 
 
Group I  Group II 
 
P. Digoxin 1. Muscle relaxant 
Q. Stevioside 2. Anti-cancer agent 
R. Atropine 3. Cardiovascular disorder 
S. Vinblastine 4. Sweetener 
  
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 
 
Q.34  Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). 
 
Assertion: The production of secondary metabolites in plant cell cultures is enhanced by the 
addition of elicitors. 
Reason: Elicitors induce the expression of enzymes responsible for the biosynthesis of 
secondary metabolites. 
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) 
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) 
(C) (a) is true but (r) is false 
(D) (a) is false but (r) is true 
 
Q.35  Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r). 
 
Assertion: Plants convert fatty acids into glucose. 
Reason:     Plants have peroxisomes. 
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) 
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) 
(C) (a) is true but (r) is false 
(D) (a) is false but (r) is true 
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