CTET & State TET Exam > CTET & State TET Notes > CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 > CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023)
CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) | CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 - CTET & State TET PDF Download
| Download, print and study this document offline |
Please wait while the PDF view is loading
Page 1
G
Main Test Booklet No.
Main Test Booklet Code
_w»` narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m This Booklet contains 64 printed pages. _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m H$moS>
Bg nwpñVH$m _| 64 _w{ÐV n¥ð> h¢ &
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m H$mo V~ VH$ Z Imob| O~ VH$ H$hm Z OmE &
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ {nN>bo AmdaU na {XE JE {ZX}em| H$mo Ü`mZ go n‹T>| &
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES narjm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE {ZX}e
1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When
you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue / black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
150 questions. There is no negative marking.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer
Sheet.
4. The CODE for this Booklet is G. Make sure that the CODE
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and
Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the
candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V,
consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carries
1 mark :
Part I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1 – 30)
Part II : Mathematics and Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part III : Social Studies / Social Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part IV : Language I – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91 – 120)
Part V : Language II – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121 – 150)
6. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from
Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social
Studies / Social Science) as filled by the candidates in their
online application form.
7. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V
contains 30 questions for Language II. In this Test Booklet,
only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language
have been given. In case the language(s) you have opted
for as Language I and/or Language II is a language
other than English or Hindi, please ask for a
Supplement (Language) Test Booklet of G Code that
contains questions on that language. The languages
being answered must tally with the languages opted
for in your Application Form. No change in languages
is allowed.
8. Candidates are required to attempt questions in
Language II (Part V) in a language other than the one
chosen as Language I (Part IV) from the list of
languages.
9. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the
Test Booklet for the same.
10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet
only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed
for changing answers.
11. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions
of questions/answers, English version will be taken as final.
1. OMR CÎma nÌ Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ AÝXa aIm h¡ & O~ AmnH$mo
narjm nwpñVH$m ImobZo H$mo H$hm OmE, Vmo CÎma nÌ {ZH$mb H$a n¥ð>-1 Ed§
n¥ð>-2 na Ü`mZ go Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ go {ddaU ^a| &
2. narjm H$s Ad{Y 2½ K§Q>o h¡ Ed§ narjm _| 150 àíZ h¢ & H$moB©
G$UmË_H$ A§H$Z Zht h¡ &
3. Bg n¥ð> na {ddaU A§{H$V H$aZo Ed§ CÎma nÌ na {ZemZ bJmZo Ho$ {bE
Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ H$m à`moJ H$a| &
4. Bg nwpñVH$m H$m H$moS> G h¡ & `h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ Bg nwpñVH$m H$m
H$moS>, CÎma nÌ Ho$ n¥ð>-2 na N>no H$moS> go {_bVm h¡ & `h ^r gw{ZpíMV
H$a b| {H$ narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m Am¡a CÎma nÌ g§»`m {_bVo h¢ & AJa
`h {^Þ hm| Vmo narjmWu Xÿgar narjm nwpñVH$m Am¡a CÎma nÌ boZo Ho$ {bE
{ZarjH$ H$mo VwaÝV AdJV H$amE± &
5. Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| nm±M ^mJ I, II, III, IV Am¡a V h¢, {OZ_|
150 dñVw{Zð> àíZ h¢, VWm àË`oH$ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ :
^mJ I : ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ (àíZ g§. 1 – 30)
^mJ II : J{UV d {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 – 90)
^mJ III : gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z / gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 –90)
^mJ IV : ^mfm I – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 91 – 120)
^mJ V : ^mfm II – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 121 – 150)
6. narjm{W©¶m| H$mo àíZ 31 go 90 ¶m Vmo ^mJ II (J{UV d {dkmZ) ¶m
^mJ III (gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z/gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ) go H$aZo h¢ O¡gm {H$
narjm{W©`m| Zo AnZo Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ nÌ _| ^am h¡ &
7. ^mJ IV _| ^mfm I Ho$ {bE 30 àíZ Am¡a ^mJ V _| ^mfm II Ho$ {bE
30 àíZ {XE JE h¢ & Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| Ho$db A§J«oµOr d {hÝXr ^mfm
go gå~pÝYV àíZ {XE JE h¢ & `{X ^mfm I Am¡a/`m ^mfm II _| AmnHo$
Ûmam MwZr JB© ^mfm(E±) A§J«oµOr `m {hÝXr Ho$ Abmdm h¡/h¢, Vmo H¥$n`m
G H$moS> dmbr Cg ^mfm dmbr n[a{eï> (^mfm) narjm nwpñVH$m _m±J
br{OE & {OZ ^mfmAm| Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Amn Xo aho h¢ dh AmdoXZ nÌ
_| MwZr JB© ^mfmAm| go Adí` _ob ImZr Mm{hE & ^mfmAm| H$m
n[adV©Z AZw_Ý` Zht h¡ &
8. narjmWu ^mfm II (^mJ V) Ho$ {bE, ^mfm gyMr go Eogr ^mfm MwZ|
Omo CZHo$ Ûmam ^mfm I (^mJ IV) _| MwZr JB© ^mfm go {^Þ hmo &
9. a\$ H$m`© narjm nwpñVH$m _| Bg à`moOZ Ho$ {bE Xr JB© Imbr OJh na hr
H$a| &
10. g^r CÎma Ho$db OMR CÎma nÌ na hr A§{H$V H$a| & AnZo CÎma
Ü`mZnyd©H$ A§{H$V H$a| & CÎma ~XbZo hoVw ídoV a§OH$ H$m à`moJ {Z{fÕ h¡ &
11. `{X A§J«oµOr Am¡a {hÝXr g§ñH$aU Ho$ àíZm|/CÎmam| _| H$moB© {dg§J{V hmo, Vmo
A§J«oµOr g§ñH$aU A§{V_ _mZm OmEJm &
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjmWu H$m Zm_ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Roll Number (AZwH«$_m§H$) : in figures (A§H$m| _|) _________________________________________________________
: in words (eãXm| _|) _________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjm Ho$ÝÐ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Candidate’s Signature : _____________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________
narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja : {ZarjH$ Ho$ hñVmja :
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent _________________________________________________
MAK-23-II
PAPER II
/
àíZ-nÌ II
MAIN TEST BOOKLET / _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m
Page 2
G
Main Test Booklet No.
Main Test Booklet Code
_w»` narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m This Booklet contains 64 printed pages. _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m H$moS>
Bg nwpñVH$m _| 64 _w{ÐV n¥ð> h¢ &
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m H$mo V~ VH$ Z Imob| O~ VH$ H$hm Z OmE &
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ {nN>bo AmdaU na {XE JE {ZX}em| H$mo Ü`mZ go n‹T>| &
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES narjm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE {ZX}e
1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When
you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue / black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
150 questions. There is no negative marking.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer
Sheet.
4. The CODE for this Booklet is G. Make sure that the CODE
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and
Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the
candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V,
consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carries
1 mark :
Part I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1 – 30)
Part II : Mathematics and Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part III : Social Studies / Social Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part IV : Language I – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91 – 120)
Part V : Language II – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121 – 150)
6. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from
Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social
Studies / Social Science) as filled by the candidates in their
online application form.
7. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V
contains 30 questions for Language II. In this Test Booklet,
only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language
have been given. In case the language(s) you have opted
for as Language I and/or Language II is a language
other than English or Hindi, please ask for a
Supplement (Language) Test Booklet of G Code that
contains questions on that language. The languages
being answered must tally with the languages opted
for in your Application Form. No change in languages
is allowed.
8. Candidates are required to attempt questions in
Language II (Part V) in a language other than the one
chosen as Language I (Part IV) from the list of
languages.
9. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the
Test Booklet for the same.
10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet
only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed
for changing answers.
11. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions
of questions/answers, English version will be taken as final.
1. OMR CÎma nÌ Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ AÝXa aIm h¡ & O~ AmnH$mo
narjm nwpñVH$m ImobZo H$mo H$hm OmE, Vmo CÎma nÌ {ZH$mb H$a n¥ð>-1 Ed§
n¥ð>-2 na Ü`mZ go Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ go {ddaU ^a| &
2. narjm H$s Ad{Y 2½ K§Q>o h¡ Ed§ narjm _| 150 àíZ h¢ & H$moB©
G$UmË_H$ A§H$Z Zht h¡ &
3. Bg n¥ð> na {ddaU A§{H$V H$aZo Ed§ CÎma nÌ na {ZemZ bJmZo Ho$ {bE
Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ H$m à`moJ H$a| &
4. Bg nwpñVH$m H$m H$moS> G h¡ & `h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ Bg nwpñVH$m H$m
H$moS>, CÎma nÌ Ho$ n¥ð>-2 na N>no H$moS> go {_bVm h¡ & `h ^r gw{ZpíMV
H$a b| {H$ narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m Am¡a CÎma nÌ g§»`m {_bVo h¢ & AJa
`h {^Þ hm| Vmo narjmWu Xÿgar narjm nwpñVH$m Am¡a CÎma nÌ boZo Ho$ {bE
{ZarjH$ H$mo VwaÝV AdJV H$amE± &
5. Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| nm±M ^mJ I, II, III, IV Am¡a V h¢, {OZ_|
150 dñVw{Zð> àíZ h¢, VWm àË`oH$ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ :
^mJ I : ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ (àíZ g§. 1 – 30)
^mJ II : J{UV d {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 – 90)
^mJ III : gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z / gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 –90)
^mJ IV : ^mfm I – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 91 – 120)
^mJ V : ^mfm II – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 121 – 150)
6. narjm{W©¶m| H$mo àíZ 31 go 90 ¶m Vmo ^mJ II (J{UV d {dkmZ) ¶m
^mJ III (gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z/gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ) go H$aZo h¢ O¡gm {H$
narjm{W©`m| Zo AnZo Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ nÌ _| ^am h¡ &
7. ^mJ IV _| ^mfm I Ho$ {bE 30 àíZ Am¡a ^mJ V _| ^mfm II Ho$ {bE
30 àíZ {XE JE h¢ & Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| Ho$db A§J«oµOr d {hÝXr ^mfm
go gå~pÝYV àíZ {XE JE h¢ & `{X ^mfm I Am¡a/`m ^mfm II _| AmnHo$
Ûmam MwZr JB© ^mfm(E±) A§J«oµOr `m {hÝXr Ho$ Abmdm h¡/h¢, Vmo H¥$n`m
G H$moS> dmbr Cg ^mfm dmbr n[a{eï> (^mfm) narjm nwpñVH$m _m±J
br{OE & {OZ ^mfmAm| Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Amn Xo aho h¢ dh AmdoXZ nÌ
_| MwZr JB© ^mfmAm| go Adí` _ob ImZr Mm{hE & ^mfmAm| H$m
n[adV©Z AZw_Ý` Zht h¡ &
8. narjmWu ^mfm II (^mJ V) Ho$ {bE, ^mfm gyMr go Eogr ^mfm MwZ|
Omo CZHo$ Ûmam ^mfm I (^mJ IV) _| MwZr JB© ^mfm go {^Þ hmo &
9. a\$ H$m`© narjm nwpñVH$m _| Bg à`moOZ Ho$ {bE Xr JB© Imbr OJh na hr
H$a| &
10. g^r CÎma Ho$db OMR CÎma nÌ na hr A§{H$V H$a| & AnZo CÎma
Ü`mZnyd©H$ A§{H$V H$a| & CÎma ~XbZo hoVw ídoV a§OH$ H$m à`moJ {Z{fÕ h¡ &
11. `{X A§J«oµOr Am¡a {hÝXr g§ñH$aU Ho$ àíZm|/CÎmam| _| H$moB© {dg§J{V hmo, Vmo
A§J«oµOr g§ñH$aU A§{V_ _mZm OmEJm &
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjmWu H$m Zm_ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Roll Number (AZwH«$_m§H$) : in figures (A§H$m| _|) _________________________________________________________
: in words (eãXm| _|) _________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjm Ho$ÝÐ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Candidate’s Signature : _____________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________
narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja : {ZarjH$ Ho$ hñVmja :
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent _________________________________________________
MAK-23-II
PAPER II
/
àíZ-nÌ II
MAIN TEST BOOKLET / _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m
P-II/G ( 2 )
PART I / ^mJ I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ
Directions : Answer the following questions by
selecting the correct/most appropriate option.
1. A conducive classroom environment for
learning in middle classes centres around
_________.
(1) co-operative learning
(2) fear of punishment and embarrassment
(3) competitive ethos
(4) conditioning and reinforcement
2. How can a teacher help Aman who is
struggling with complex problems develop
problem-solving skills ?
(1) Tell him to give up on the problem
(2) Encourage him to brainstorm and
generate ideas
(3) Discourage him from experimenting and
taking risks
(4) Provide him with the answers
3. The underlying principle of
‘understanding-based teaching’ is the belief
that :
(1) learners are passive recipients and the
teacher has the ‘right’ knowledge.
(2) learners’ abilities and needs are diverse
which cannot be catered to without
focusing on standard instructions.
(3) learners can construct knowledge when
provided with a facilitative environment
to do so.
(4) learners know little and teaching involves
transmission of facts to students.
4. Students struggling with ‘dyslexia’ can be
taught to read :
(1) by providing higher grade level reading
texts.
(2) by encouraging them to study in multiple
distractions.
(3) through use of strict punishment to
ensure corrective reading.
(4) through systemic phonological training.
{ZX}e : {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma XoZo Ho$ {bE ghr /g~go
C{MV {dH$ën Mw{ZE &
1. ‘mܶ{‘H$ H$jmAm| ‘| A{YJ‘ Ho$ {bE EH$ AZwHy$b
H$jm H$m dmVmdaU __________ na H|${ÐV hmoVm h¡ &
(1) ghH$mar A{YJ_
(2) gµOm Am¡a e{‘ªXJr Ho$ S>a
(3) à{VñnYu bmoH$mMma
(4) AZw~§YZ Am¡a nwZ~©bZ
2. O{Q>b g‘ñ¶mAm| go OyP aho A‘Z Ho$ g‘ñ¶m-g‘mYmZ
H$m¡eb {dH${gV H$aZo ‘| EH$ {ejH$ {H$g àH$ma ‘XX
H$a gH$Vm h¡ ?
(1) Cggo H$hH$a {H$ dh g‘ñ¶m H$mo gwbPmZm N>mo‹S>
Xo
(2) Cgo ‘§WZ H$aZo Am¡a {dMma CËnÞ H$aZo Ho$ {bE
àmoËgm{hV H$aHo$
(3) Cgo à¶moJ H$aZo Am¡a Omo{I‘ boZo go hVmoËgm{hV
H$aHo$
(4) Cgo CÎma àXmZ H$aHo$
3. ‘~moY-AmYm[aV {ejU’ H$m A§V{Z©{hV {gÕm§V ¶h
{dídmg h¡ {H$ :
(1) {ejmWu {ZpîH«$¶ àmßVH$Vm© h¢ Am¡a {ejH$ Ho$
nmg ‘ghr’ kmZ h¡ &
(2) {ejm{W©¶m| H$s j‘VmE± Am¡a Amdí¶H$VmE± {d{dY
h¢ {OÝh| ‘mZH$ {ZX}em| na ܶmZ H|${ÐV {H$E {~Zm
nyam Zht {H$¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ &
(3) Eogm H$aZo Ho$ {bE EH$ gw{dYmOZH$ dmVmdaU
àXmZ {H$E OmZo na {ejmWu kmZ H$m {Z‘m©U H$a
gH$Vo h¢ &
(4) {ejmWu H$‘ OmZVo h¢ Am¡a {ejU ‘| {dÚm{W©`m|
Ho$ {bE V϶m| H$m àgmaU em{‘b h¡ &
4. dh {dÚmWu Omo ‘nR>Z-d¡H$붒 go OyP aho h¢, H$mo n‹T>Zm
{gIm¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ :
(1) Cƒ J«oS> ñVa Ho$ nR>Z J«§W àXmZ H$aHo$ &
(2) CÝh| H$B© {dH$f©Um| ‘| Aܶ¶Z H$aZo Ho$ {bE
àmoËgm{hV H$aHo$ &
(3) gwYmamË‘H$ nR>Z gw{ZpíMV H$aZo Ho$ {bE g™V
X§S> Ho$ Cn¶moJ Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go &
(4) àUmbrJV ÜdݶmË‘H$ à{ejU Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go &
Page 3
G
Main Test Booklet No.
Main Test Booklet Code
_w»` narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m This Booklet contains 64 printed pages. _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m H$moS>
Bg nwpñVH$m _| 64 _w{ÐV n¥ð> h¢ &
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m H$mo V~ VH$ Z Imob| O~ VH$ H$hm Z OmE &
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ {nN>bo AmdaU na {XE JE {ZX}em| H$mo Ü`mZ go n‹T>| &
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES narjm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE {ZX}e
1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When
you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue / black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
150 questions. There is no negative marking.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer
Sheet.
4. The CODE for this Booklet is G. Make sure that the CODE
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and
Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the
candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V,
consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carries
1 mark :
Part I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1 – 30)
Part II : Mathematics and Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part III : Social Studies / Social Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part IV : Language I – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91 – 120)
Part V : Language II – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121 – 150)
6. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from
Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social
Studies / Social Science) as filled by the candidates in their
online application form.
7. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V
contains 30 questions for Language II. In this Test Booklet,
only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language
have been given. In case the language(s) you have opted
for as Language I and/or Language II is a language
other than English or Hindi, please ask for a
Supplement (Language) Test Booklet of G Code that
contains questions on that language. The languages
being answered must tally with the languages opted
for in your Application Form. No change in languages
is allowed.
8. Candidates are required to attempt questions in
Language II (Part V) in a language other than the one
chosen as Language I (Part IV) from the list of
languages.
9. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the
Test Booklet for the same.
10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet
only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed
for changing answers.
11. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions
of questions/answers, English version will be taken as final.
1. OMR CÎma nÌ Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ AÝXa aIm h¡ & O~ AmnH$mo
narjm nwpñVH$m ImobZo H$mo H$hm OmE, Vmo CÎma nÌ {ZH$mb H$a n¥ð>-1 Ed§
n¥ð>-2 na Ü`mZ go Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ go {ddaU ^a| &
2. narjm H$s Ad{Y 2½ K§Q>o h¡ Ed§ narjm _| 150 àíZ h¢ & H$moB©
G$UmË_H$ A§H$Z Zht h¡ &
3. Bg n¥ð> na {ddaU A§{H$V H$aZo Ed§ CÎma nÌ na {ZemZ bJmZo Ho$ {bE
Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ H$m à`moJ H$a| &
4. Bg nwpñVH$m H$m H$moS> G h¡ & `h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ Bg nwpñVH$m H$m
H$moS>, CÎma nÌ Ho$ n¥ð>-2 na N>no H$moS> go {_bVm h¡ & `h ^r gw{ZpíMV
H$a b| {H$ narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m Am¡a CÎma nÌ g§»`m {_bVo h¢ & AJa
`h {^Þ hm| Vmo narjmWu Xÿgar narjm nwpñVH$m Am¡a CÎma nÌ boZo Ho$ {bE
{ZarjH$ H$mo VwaÝV AdJV H$amE± &
5. Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| nm±M ^mJ I, II, III, IV Am¡a V h¢, {OZ_|
150 dñVw{Zð> àíZ h¢, VWm àË`oH$ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ :
^mJ I : ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ (àíZ g§. 1 – 30)
^mJ II : J{UV d {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 – 90)
^mJ III : gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z / gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 –90)
^mJ IV : ^mfm I – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 91 – 120)
^mJ V : ^mfm II – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 121 – 150)
6. narjm{W©¶m| H$mo àíZ 31 go 90 ¶m Vmo ^mJ II (J{UV d {dkmZ) ¶m
^mJ III (gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z/gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ) go H$aZo h¢ O¡gm {H$
narjm{W©`m| Zo AnZo Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ nÌ _| ^am h¡ &
7. ^mJ IV _| ^mfm I Ho$ {bE 30 àíZ Am¡a ^mJ V _| ^mfm II Ho$ {bE
30 àíZ {XE JE h¢ & Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| Ho$db A§J«oµOr d {hÝXr ^mfm
go gå~pÝYV àíZ {XE JE h¢ & `{X ^mfm I Am¡a/`m ^mfm II _| AmnHo$
Ûmam MwZr JB© ^mfm(E±) A§J«oµOr `m {hÝXr Ho$ Abmdm h¡/h¢, Vmo H¥$n`m
G H$moS> dmbr Cg ^mfm dmbr n[a{eï> (^mfm) narjm nwpñVH$m _m±J
br{OE & {OZ ^mfmAm| Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Amn Xo aho h¢ dh AmdoXZ nÌ
_| MwZr JB© ^mfmAm| go Adí` _ob ImZr Mm{hE & ^mfmAm| H$m
n[adV©Z AZw_Ý` Zht h¡ &
8. narjmWu ^mfm II (^mJ V) Ho$ {bE, ^mfm gyMr go Eogr ^mfm MwZ|
Omo CZHo$ Ûmam ^mfm I (^mJ IV) _| MwZr JB© ^mfm go {^Þ hmo &
9. a\$ H$m`© narjm nwpñVH$m _| Bg à`moOZ Ho$ {bE Xr JB© Imbr OJh na hr
H$a| &
10. g^r CÎma Ho$db OMR CÎma nÌ na hr A§{H$V H$a| & AnZo CÎma
Ü`mZnyd©H$ A§{H$V H$a| & CÎma ~XbZo hoVw ídoV a§OH$ H$m à`moJ {Z{fÕ h¡ &
11. `{X A§J«oµOr Am¡a {hÝXr g§ñH$aU Ho$ àíZm|/CÎmam| _| H$moB© {dg§J{V hmo, Vmo
A§J«oµOr g§ñH$aU A§{V_ _mZm OmEJm &
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjmWu H$m Zm_ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Roll Number (AZwH«$_m§H$) : in figures (A§H$m| _|) _________________________________________________________
: in words (eãXm| _|) _________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjm Ho$ÝÐ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Candidate’s Signature : _____________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________
narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja : {ZarjH$ Ho$ hñVmja :
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent _________________________________________________
MAK-23-II
PAPER II
/
àíZ-nÌ II
MAIN TEST BOOKLET / _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m
P-II/G ( 2 )
PART I / ^mJ I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ
Directions : Answer the following questions by
selecting the correct/most appropriate option.
1. A conducive classroom environment for
learning in middle classes centres around
_________.
(1) co-operative learning
(2) fear of punishment and embarrassment
(3) competitive ethos
(4) conditioning and reinforcement
2. How can a teacher help Aman who is
struggling with complex problems develop
problem-solving skills ?
(1) Tell him to give up on the problem
(2) Encourage him to brainstorm and
generate ideas
(3) Discourage him from experimenting and
taking risks
(4) Provide him with the answers
3. The underlying principle of
‘understanding-based teaching’ is the belief
that :
(1) learners are passive recipients and the
teacher has the ‘right’ knowledge.
(2) learners’ abilities and needs are diverse
which cannot be catered to without
focusing on standard instructions.
(3) learners can construct knowledge when
provided with a facilitative environment
to do so.
(4) learners know little and teaching involves
transmission of facts to students.
4. Students struggling with ‘dyslexia’ can be
taught to read :
(1) by providing higher grade level reading
texts.
(2) by encouraging them to study in multiple
distractions.
(3) through use of strict punishment to
ensure corrective reading.
(4) through systemic phonological training.
{ZX}e : {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma XoZo Ho$ {bE ghr /g~go
C{MV {dH$ën Mw{ZE &
1. ‘mܶ{‘H$ H$jmAm| ‘| A{YJ‘ Ho$ {bE EH$ AZwHy$b
H$jm H$m dmVmdaU __________ na H|${ÐV hmoVm h¡ &
(1) ghH$mar A{YJ_
(2) gµOm Am¡a e{‘ªXJr Ho$ S>a
(3) à{VñnYu bmoH$mMma
(4) AZw~§YZ Am¡a nwZ~©bZ
2. O{Q>b g‘ñ¶mAm| go OyP aho A‘Z Ho$ g‘ñ¶m-g‘mYmZ
H$m¡eb {dH${gV H$aZo ‘| EH$ {ejH$ {H$g àH$ma ‘XX
H$a gH$Vm h¡ ?
(1) Cggo H$hH$a {H$ dh g‘ñ¶m H$mo gwbPmZm N>mo‹S>
Xo
(2) Cgo ‘§WZ H$aZo Am¡a {dMma CËnÞ H$aZo Ho$ {bE
àmoËgm{hV H$aHo$
(3) Cgo à¶moJ H$aZo Am¡a Omo{I‘ boZo go hVmoËgm{hV
H$aHo$
(4) Cgo CÎma àXmZ H$aHo$
3. ‘~moY-AmYm[aV {ejU’ H$m A§V{Z©{hV {gÕm§V ¶h
{dídmg h¡ {H$ :
(1) {ejmWu {ZpîH«$¶ àmßVH$Vm© h¢ Am¡a {ejH$ Ho$
nmg ‘ghr’ kmZ h¡ &
(2) {ejm{W©¶m| H$s j‘VmE± Am¡a Amdí¶H$VmE± {d{dY
h¢ {OÝh| ‘mZH$ {ZX}em| na ܶmZ H|${ÐV {H$E {~Zm
nyam Zht {H$¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ &
(3) Eogm H$aZo Ho$ {bE EH$ gw{dYmOZH$ dmVmdaU
àXmZ {H$E OmZo na {ejmWu kmZ H$m {Z‘m©U H$a
gH$Vo h¢ &
(4) {ejmWu H$‘ OmZVo h¢ Am¡a {ejU ‘| {dÚm{W©`m|
Ho$ {bE V϶m| H$m àgmaU em{‘b h¡ &
4. dh {dÚmWu Omo ‘nR>Z-d¡H$붒 go OyP aho h¢, H$mo n‹T>Zm
{gIm¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ :
(1) Cƒ J«oS> ñVa Ho$ nR>Z J«§W àXmZ H$aHo$ &
(2) CÝh| H$B© {dH$f©Um| ‘| Aܶ¶Z H$aZo Ho$ {bE
àmoËgm{hV H$aHo$ &
(3) gwYmamË‘H$ nR>Z gw{ZpíMV H$aZo Ho$ {bE g™V
X§S> Ho$ Cn¶moJ Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go &
(4) àUmbrJV ÜdݶmË‘H$ à{ejU Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go &
( 3 ) P-II/G
5. Sibling relationships :
(1) are similar to relationships with parents
and peers and play an important role in
socialization throughout childhood.
(2) are different than relationships with
parents and peers and play an important
role in socialization throughout
childhood.
(3) play an important role only during early
childhood.
(4) do not have much role in socialization.
6. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option :
Assertion (A) :
Considerable variations exist in
developmental rates among children.
Reason (R) :
Developmental differences are an inevitable
result of complex interaction of genetic and
experiential variations.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
7. Which principle of development is illustrated
in the following statement ?
“Children who are deprived of a conducive
environment for learning language in their
early years have some difficulty in picking
language later in life.”
(1) Language and cognition are complexly
interrelated.
(2) Development of language is totally
dependent on genetics.
(3) Development is disorderly and
unpredictable.
(4) There is a sensitive period of language
development.
5. ^mB©-~hZ Ho$ [aíVo/[aíVm| :
(1) ‘mVm-{nVm Am¡a gm{W¶m| Ho$ gmW g§~§Ym| Ho$ g‘mZ
h¢ Am¡a ~më`mdñWm ‘| g‘mOrH$aU ‘| ‘hÎdnyU©
^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(2) ‘mVm-{nVm Am¡a gm{W¶m| Ho$ gmW g§~§Ym| go {^Þ
hmoVo h¢ Am¡a ~më`mdñWm ‘| g‘mOrH$aU ‘|
‘hÎdnyU© ^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(3) Ho$db àma§{^H$ ~më`mdñWm ‘| hr ‘hÎdnyU©
^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(4) H$s g‘mOrH$aU ‘| A{YH$ ^y{‘H$m Zht h¡ &
6. ????????? ? ????? ?? ? ???? ??? ??? ?????? ??
??? ??? ? :
A{^H$WZ (A) :
~ƒm| Ho$ ~rM {dH$mgmË‘H$ Xam| ‘| H$m’$s {^ÞVmE± ‘m¡OyX
hmoVr h¢ &
H$maU (R) :
{dH$mgmË‘H$ A§Va, AmZwd§{eH$ Am¡a AZw^dmË‘H$
{d{dYVmAm| H$s O{Q>b A§V:{H«$¶m H$m EH$ A{Zdm¶©
n[aUm‘ h¢ &
(1) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? , ?????? (R), (A) ??
??? ?? ?? ?? ?? ???? ?? ?
(2) (A) ??? ?? , ?????? (R) ???? ?? ?
(3) (A) ?? (R) ????? ???? ??? ?
(4) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? ??? (R), (A) ?? ???
?? ???? ?? ?? ?
7. {ZåZ{b{IV H$WZ ‘| {dH$mg Ho$ {H$g {gÕm§V H$mo
Xem©¶m J¶m h¡ ?
“Omo ~ƒo AnZo ewéAmVr dfm] ‘| ^mfm grIZo Ho$ {bE
AZwHy$b dmVmdaU go d§{MV ahVo h¢, CÝh| ~mX Ho$ OrdZ
‘| ^mfm MwZZo ‘| Wmo‹S>r H${R>ZmB© hmoVr h¡ &”
(1) ^mfm Am¡a AZw^y{V O{Q>b ê$n go nañna g§~§{YV
h¢ &
(2) ^mfm H$m {dH$mg nyar Vah AmZwd§{eH$s na {Z^©a
h¡ &
(3) {dH$mg Aì¶dpñWV Am¡a Aà˶m{eV hmoVm h¡ &
(4) ^mfm Ho$ {dH$mg H$m EH$ g§doXZerb H$mb h¡ &
Page 4
G
Main Test Booklet No.
Main Test Booklet Code
_w»` narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m This Booklet contains 64 printed pages. _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m H$moS>
Bg nwpñVH$m _| 64 _w{ÐV n¥ð> h¢ &
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m H$mo V~ VH$ Z Imob| O~ VH$ H$hm Z OmE &
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ {nN>bo AmdaU na {XE JE {ZX}em| H$mo Ü`mZ go n‹T>| &
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES narjm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE {ZX}e
1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When
you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue / black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
150 questions. There is no negative marking.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer
Sheet.
4. The CODE for this Booklet is G. Make sure that the CODE
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and
Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the
candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V,
consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carries
1 mark :
Part I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1 – 30)
Part II : Mathematics and Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part III : Social Studies / Social Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part IV : Language I – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91 – 120)
Part V : Language II – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121 – 150)
6. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from
Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social
Studies / Social Science) as filled by the candidates in their
online application form.
7. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V
contains 30 questions for Language II. In this Test Booklet,
only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language
have been given. In case the language(s) you have opted
for as Language I and/or Language II is a language
other than English or Hindi, please ask for a
Supplement (Language) Test Booklet of G Code that
contains questions on that language. The languages
being answered must tally with the languages opted
for in your Application Form. No change in languages
is allowed.
8. Candidates are required to attempt questions in
Language II (Part V) in a language other than the one
chosen as Language I (Part IV) from the list of
languages.
9. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the
Test Booklet for the same.
10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet
only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed
for changing answers.
11. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions
of questions/answers, English version will be taken as final.
1. OMR CÎma nÌ Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ AÝXa aIm h¡ & O~ AmnH$mo
narjm nwpñVH$m ImobZo H$mo H$hm OmE, Vmo CÎma nÌ {ZH$mb H$a n¥ð>-1 Ed§
n¥ð>-2 na Ü`mZ go Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ go {ddaU ^a| &
2. narjm H$s Ad{Y 2½ K§Q>o h¡ Ed§ narjm _| 150 àíZ h¢ & H$moB©
G$UmË_H$ A§H$Z Zht h¡ &
3. Bg n¥ð> na {ddaU A§{H$V H$aZo Ed§ CÎma nÌ na {ZemZ bJmZo Ho$ {bE
Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ H$m à`moJ H$a| &
4. Bg nwpñVH$m H$m H$moS> G h¡ & `h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ Bg nwpñVH$m H$m
H$moS>, CÎma nÌ Ho$ n¥ð>-2 na N>no H$moS> go {_bVm h¡ & `h ^r gw{ZpíMV
H$a b| {H$ narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m Am¡a CÎma nÌ g§»`m {_bVo h¢ & AJa
`h {^Þ hm| Vmo narjmWu Xÿgar narjm nwpñVH$m Am¡a CÎma nÌ boZo Ho$ {bE
{ZarjH$ H$mo VwaÝV AdJV H$amE± &
5. Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| nm±M ^mJ I, II, III, IV Am¡a V h¢, {OZ_|
150 dñVw{Zð> àíZ h¢, VWm àË`oH$ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ :
^mJ I : ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ (àíZ g§. 1 – 30)
^mJ II : J{UV d {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 – 90)
^mJ III : gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z / gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 –90)
^mJ IV : ^mfm I – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 91 – 120)
^mJ V : ^mfm II – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 121 – 150)
6. narjm{W©¶m| H$mo àíZ 31 go 90 ¶m Vmo ^mJ II (J{UV d {dkmZ) ¶m
^mJ III (gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z/gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ) go H$aZo h¢ O¡gm {H$
narjm{W©`m| Zo AnZo Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ nÌ _| ^am h¡ &
7. ^mJ IV _| ^mfm I Ho$ {bE 30 àíZ Am¡a ^mJ V _| ^mfm II Ho$ {bE
30 àíZ {XE JE h¢ & Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| Ho$db A§J«oµOr d {hÝXr ^mfm
go gå~pÝYV àíZ {XE JE h¢ & `{X ^mfm I Am¡a/`m ^mfm II _| AmnHo$
Ûmam MwZr JB© ^mfm(E±) A§J«oµOr `m {hÝXr Ho$ Abmdm h¡/h¢, Vmo H¥$n`m
G H$moS> dmbr Cg ^mfm dmbr n[a{eï> (^mfm) narjm nwpñVH$m _m±J
br{OE & {OZ ^mfmAm| Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Amn Xo aho h¢ dh AmdoXZ nÌ
_| MwZr JB© ^mfmAm| go Adí` _ob ImZr Mm{hE & ^mfmAm| H$m
n[adV©Z AZw_Ý` Zht h¡ &
8. narjmWu ^mfm II (^mJ V) Ho$ {bE, ^mfm gyMr go Eogr ^mfm MwZ|
Omo CZHo$ Ûmam ^mfm I (^mJ IV) _| MwZr JB© ^mfm go {^Þ hmo &
9. a\$ H$m`© narjm nwpñVH$m _| Bg à`moOZ Ho$ {bE Xr JB© Imbr OJh na hr
H$a| &
10. g^r CÎma Ho$db OMR CÎma nÌ na hr A§{H$V H$a| & AnZo CÎma
Ü`mZnyd©H$ A§{H$V H$a| & CÎma ~XbZo hoVw ídoV a§OH$ H$m à`moJ {Z{fÕ h¡ &
11. `{X A§J«oµOr Am¡a {hÝXr g§ñH$aU Ho$ àíZm|/CÎmam| _| H$moB© {dg§J{V hmo, Vmo
A§J«oµOr g§ñH$aU A§{V_ _mZm OmEJm &
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjmWu H$m Zm_ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Roll Number (AZwH«$_m§H$) : in figures (A§H$m| _|) _________________________________________________________
: in words (eãXm| _|) _________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjm Ho$ÝÐ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Candidate’s Signature : _____________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________
narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja : {ZarjH$ Ho$ hñVmja :
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent _________________________________________________
MAK-23-II
PAPER II
/
àíZ-nÌ II
MAIN TEST BOOKLET / _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m
P-II/G ( 2 )
PART I / ^mJ I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ
Directions : Answer the following questions by
selecting the correct/most appropriate option.
1. A conducive classroom environment for
learning in middle classes centres around
_________.
(1) co-operative learning
(2) fear of punishment and embarrassment
(3) competitive ethos
(4) conditioning and reinforcement
2. How can a teacher help Aman who is
struggling with complex problems develop
problem-solving skills ?
(1) Tell him to give up on the problem
(2) Encourage him to brainstorm and
generate ideas
(3) Discourage him from experimenting and
taking risks
(4) Provide him with the answers
3. The underlying principle of
‘understanding-based teaching’ is the belief
that :
(1) learners are passive recipients and the
teacher has the ‘right’ knowledge.
(2) learners’ abilities and needs are diverse
which cannot be catered to without
focusing on standard instructions.
(3) learners can construct knowledge when
provided with a facilitative environment
to do so.
(4) learners know little and teaching involves
transmission of facts to students.
4. Students struggling with ‘dyslexia’ can be
taught to read :
(1) by providing higher grade level reading
texts.
(2) by encouraging them to study in multiple
distractions.
(3) through use of strict punishment to
ensure corrective reading.
(4) through systemic phonological training.
{ZX}e : {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma XoZo Ho$ {bE ghr /g~go
C{MV {dH$ën Mw{ZE &
1. ‘mܶ{‘H$ H$jmAm| ‘| A{YJ‘ Ho$ {bE EH$ AZwHy$b
H$jm H$m dmVmdaU __________ na H|${ÐV hmoVm h¡ &
(1) ghH$mar A{YJ_
(2) gµOm Am¡a e{‘ªXJr Ho$ S>a
(3) à{VñnYu bmoH$mMma
(4) AZw~§YZ Am¡a nwZ~©bZ
2. O{Q>b g‘ñ¶mAm| go OyP aho A‘Z Ho$ g‘ñ¶m-g‘mYmZ
H$m¡eb {dH${gV H$aZo ‘| EH$ {ejH$ {H$g àH$ma ‘XX
H$a gH$Vm h¡ ?
(1) Cggo H$hH$a {H$ dh g‘ñ¶m H$mo gwbPmZm N>mo‹S>
Xo
(2) Cgo ‘§WZ H$aZo Am¡a {dMma CËnÞ H$aZo Ho$ {bE
àmoËgm{hV H$aHo$
(3) Cgo à¶moJ H$aZo Am¡a Omo{I‘ boZo go hVmoËgm{hV
H$aHo$
(4) Cgo CÎma àXmZ H$aHo$
3. ‘~moY-AmYm[aV {ejU’ H$m A§V{Z©{hV {gÕm§V ¶h
{dídmg h¡ {H$ :
(1) {ejmWu {ZpîH«$¶ àmßVH$Vm© h¢ Am¡a {ejH$ Ho$
nmg ‘ghr’ kmZ h¡ &
(2) {ejm{W©¶m| H$s j‘VmE± Am¡a Amdí¶H$VmE± {d{dY
h¢ {OÝh| ‘mZH$ {ZX}em| na ܶmZ H|${ÐV {H$E {~Zm
nyam Zht {H$¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ &
(3) Eogm H$aZo Ho$ {bE EH$ gw{dYmOZH$ dmVmdaU
àXmZ {H$E OmZo na {ejmWu kmZ H$m {Z‘m©U H$a
gH$Vo h¢ &
(4) {ejmWu H$‘ OmZVo h¢ Am¡a {ejU ‘| {dÚm{W©`m|
Ho$ {bE V϶m| H$m àgmaU em{‘b h¡ &
4. dh {dÚmWu Omo ‘nR>Z-d¡H$붒 go OyP aho h¢, H$mo n‹T>Zm
{gIm¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ :
(1) Cƒ J«oS> ñVa Ho$ nR>Z J«§W àXmZ H$aHo$ &
(2) CÝh| H$B© {dH$f©Um| ‘| Aܶ¶Z H$aZo Ho$ {bE
àmoËgm{hV H$aHo$ &
(3) gwYmamË‘H$ nR>Z gw{ZpíMV H$aZo Ho$ {bE g™V
X§S> Ho$ Cn¶moJ Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go &
(4) àUmbrJV ÜdݶmË‘H$ à{ejU Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go &
( 3 ) P-II/G
5. Sibling relationships :
(1) are similar to relationships with parents
and peers and play an important role in
socialization throughout childhood.
(2) are different than relationships with
parents and peers and play an important
role in socialization throughout
childhood.
(3) play an important role only during early
childhood.
(4) do not have much role in socialization.
6. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option :
Assertion (A) :
Considerable variations exist in
developmental rates among children.
Reason (R) :
Developmental differences are an inevitable
result of complex interaction of genetic and
experiential variations.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
7. Which principle of development is illustrated
in the following statement ?
“Children who are deprived of a conducive
environment for learning language in their
early years have some difficulty in picking
language later in life.”
(1) Language and cognition are complexly
interrelated.
(2) Development of language is totally
dependent on genetics.
(3) Development is disorderly and
unpredictable.
(4) There is a sensitive period of language
development.
5. ^mB©-~hZ Ho$ [aíVo/[aíVm| :
(1) ‘mVm-{nVm Am¡a gm{W¶m| Ho$ gmW g§~§Ym| Ho$ g‘mZ
h¢ Am¡a ~më`mdñWm ‘| g‘mOrH$aU ‘| ‘hÎdnyU©
^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(2) ‘mVm-{nVm Am¡a gm{W¶m| Ho$ gmW g§~§Ym| go {^Þ
hmoVo h¢ Am¡a ~më`mdñWm ‘| g‘mOrH$aU ‘|
‘hÎdnyU© ^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(3) Ho$db àma§{^H$ ~më`mdñWm ‘| hr ‘hÎdnyU©
^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(4) H$s g‘mOrH$aU ‘| A{YH$ ^y{‘H$m Zht h¡ &
6. ????????? ? ????? ?? ? ???? ??? ??? ?????? ??
??? ??? ? :
A{^H$WZ (A) :
~ƒm| Ho$ ~rM {dH$mgmË‘H$ Xam| ‘| H$m’$s {^ÞVmE± ‘m¡OyX
hmoVr h¢ &
H$maU (R) :
{dH$mgmË‘H$ A§Va, AmZwd§{eH$ Am¡a AZw^dmË‘H$
{d{dYVmAm| H$s O{Q>b A§V:{H«$¶m H$m EH$ A{Zdm¶©
n[aUm‘ h¢ &
(1) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? , ?????? (R), (A) ??
??? ?? ?? ?? ?? ???? ?? ?
(2) (A) ??? ?? , ?????? (R) ???? ?? ?
(3) (A) ?? (R) ????? ???? ??? ?
(4) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? ??? (R), (A) ?? ???
?? ???? ?? ?? ?
7. {ZåZ{b{IV H$WZ ‘| {dH$mg Ho$ {H$g {gÕm§V H$mo
Xem©¶m J¶m h¡ ?
“Omo ~ƒo AnZo ewéAmVr dfm] ‘| ^mfm grIZo Ho$ {bE
AZwHy$b dmVmdaU go d§{MV ahVo h¢, CÝh| ~mX Ho$ OrdZ
‘| ^mfm MwZZo ‘| Wmo‹S>r H${R>ZmB© hmoVr h¡ &”
(1) ^mfm Am¡a AZw^y{V O{Q>b ê$n go nañna g§~§{YV
h¢ &
(2) ^mfm H$m {dH$mg nyar Vah AmZwd§{eH$s na {Z^©a
h¡ &
(3) {dH$mg Aì¶dpñWV Am¡a Aà˶m{eV hmoVm h¡ &
(4) ^mfm Ho$ {dH$mg H$m EH$ g§doXZerb H$mb h¡ &
P-II/G ( 4 )
8. Which of the following questions promotes
critical and creative thinking in children ?
(1) Where does water come from in your
city ?
(2) Which can be the best way to save water
and why ?
(3) How many states and how many capitals
are there in your country ?
(4) What is the name of your country and its
geographical location on the map ?
9. What does inclusive education entail ?
(1) Segregation and categorisation of
students on the basis of their abilities
(2) Standard curriculum for all learners
(3) Provisioning of only vocational education
to learners with special needs
(4) Flexibility in the curriculum as a result of
recognition of individual differences
10. What is the role of evidence in critical
thinking ?
(1) Evidence should be accepted without
analysis.
(2) Evidence should be evaluated in a logical
and systematic way.
(3) Evidence is irrelevant to critical thinking.
(4) Evidence should be ignored in favour of
personal opinion.
11. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option :
Assertion (A) :
Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky differ in their
perspective on the influence of language on
cognitive development in children.
Reason (R) :
In discovery learning, teacher provides
opportunities and students derive information
for themselves.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
8. {ZåZ{b{IV ‘| go H$m¡Z-gm àíZ ~ƒm| Ho$
g‘mbmoMZmË‘H$ d aMZmË‘H$ qMVZ H$mo ~‹T>mdm XoVm h¡ ?
(1) AmnHo$ eha ‘| nmZr H$hm± go AmVm h¡ ?
(2) nmZr Ho$ ~Mmd Ho$ {bE g~go AÀN>m VarH$m
H$m¡Z-gm hmo gH$Vm h¡ Am¡a ³¶m| ?
(3) AmnHo$ Xoe ‘| Hw$b {H$VZo amÁ¶ Am¡a {H$VZr
amOYm{Z`m± h¢ ?
(4) AmnHo$ Xoe H$m Zm‘ d ‘mZ{MÌ na BgH$s
^m¡Jmo{bH$ pñW{V ³¶m h¡ ?
9. g‘mdoer {ejm ‘| ³¶m em{‘b h¡ ?
(1) {dÚm{W©`m| H$m CZH$s ¶mo½¶VmAm| Ho$ AmYma na
n¥WŠH$aU d dJuH$aU H$aZm
(2) g^r {ejm{W©¶m| Ho$ {bE ‘mZH$ nmR>çM¶m©
(3) {deof Amdí¶H$Vm dmbo {ejm{W©¶m| H$mo Ho$db
ì¶mdgm{¶H$ {ejm H$m àmdYmZ
(4) ì¶{º$JV A§Vam| H$s nhMmZ Ho$ n[aUm‘ñdê$n
nmR>çM¶m© ‘| bMrbmnZ
10. g‘mbmoMZmË‘H$ qMVZ ‘| à‘mU H$s ³¶m ^y{‘H$m hmoVr
h¡ ?
(1) à‘mU H$mo {~Zm {díbofU Ho$ ñdrH$ma {H$¶m OmZm
Mm{hE &
(2) à‘mU H$m Vm{H©$H$ Am¡a gw{Z¶mo{OV ê$n go
‘yë¶m§H$Z {H$¶m OmZm Mm{hE &
(3) g‘mbmoMZmË‘H$ qMVZ Ho$ {bE à‘mU Aàmg§{JH$
hmoVm h¡ &
(4) ì¶{º$JV am¶ Ho$ nj ‘| à‘mU H$s Cnojm H$s
OmZr Mm{hE &
11. ????????? ? ????? ?? ? ???? ??? ??? ?????? ??
??? ??? ? :
A{^H$WZ (A) :
~ƒm| ‘| g§kmZmË‘H$ {dH$mg na ^mfm Ho$ à^md na OrZ
{n¶mµOo Am¡a bod dm¶JmoËñH$s Ho$ ÑpîQ>H$moU ‘| {^ÞVm
h¡ &
H$maU (R) :
ImoO A{YJ_ _|, {ejH$ Adga àXmZ H$aVm h¡ Am¡a
{dÚmWu ñd`§ OmZH$mar àmßV H$aZo Ho$ {bE CÝ_wI hmoVo
h¢ &
(1) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? , ?????? (R), (A) ??
??? ?? ?? ?? ?? ???? ?? ?
(2) (A) ??? ?? , ?????? (R) ???? ?? ?
(3) (A) ?? (R) ????? ???? ??? ?
(4) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? ??? (R), (A) ?? ???
?? ???? ?? ?? ?
Page 5
G
Main Test Booklet No.
Main Test Booklet Code
_w»` narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m This Booklet contains 64 printed pages. _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m H$moS>
Bg nwpñVH$m _| 64 _w{ÐV n¥ð> h¢ &
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m H$mo V~ VH$ Z Imob| O~ VH$ H$hm Z OmE &
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ {nN>bo AmdaU na {XE JE {ZX}em| H$mo Ü`mZ go n‹T>| &
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES narjm{W©`m| Ho$ {bE {ZX}e
1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When
you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue / black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of
150 questions. There is no negative marking.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer
Sheet.
4. The CODE for this Booklet is G. Make sure that the CODE
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and
Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the
candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V,
consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions and each carries
1 mark :
Part I : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. Nos. 1 – 30)
Part II : Mathematics and Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part III : Social Studies / Social Science (Q. Nos. 31 – 90)
Part IV : Language I – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 91 – 120)
Part V : Language II – (English/Hindi) (Q. Nos. 121 – 150)
6. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from
Part II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social
Studies / Social Science) as filled by the candidates in their
online application form.
7. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V
contains 30 questions for Language II. In this Test Booklet,
only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language
have been given. In case the language(s) you have opted
for as Language I and/or Language II is a language
other than English or Hindi, please ask for a
Supplement (Language) Test Booklet of G Code that
contains questions on that language. The languages
being answered must tally with the languages opted
for in your Application Form. No change in languages
is allowed.
8. Candidates are required to attempt questions in
Language II (Part V) in a language other than the one
chosen as Language I (Part IV) from the list of
languages.
9. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the
Test Booklet for the same.
10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet
only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed
for changing answers.
11. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions
of questions/answers, English version will be taken as final.
1. OMR CÎma nÌ Bg narjm nwpñVH$m Ho$ AÝXa aIm h¡ & O~ AmnH$mo
narjm nwpñVH$m ImobZo H$mo H$hm OmE, Vmo CÎma nÌ {ZH$mb H$a n¥ð>-1 Ed§
n¥ð>-2 na Ü`mZ go Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ go {ddaU ^a| &
2. narjm H$s Ad{Y 2½ K§Q>o h¡ Ed§ narjm _| 150 àíZ h¢ & H$moB©
G$UmË_H$ A§H$Z Zht h¡ &
3. Bg n¥ð> na {ddaU A§{H$V H$aZo Ed§ CÎma nÌ na {ZemZ bJmZo Ho$ {bE
Ho$db Zrbo / H$mbo ~m°b nm°B§Q> noZ H$m à`moJ H$a| &
4. Bg nwpñVH$m H$m H$moS> G h¡ & `h gw{ZpíMV H$a b| {H$ Bg nwpñVH$m H$m
H$moS>, CÎma nÌ Ho$ n¥ð>-2 na N>no H$moS> go {_bVm h¡ & `h ^r gw{ZpíMV
H$a b| {H$ narjm nwpñVH$m g§»`m Am¡a CÎma nÌ g§»`m {_bVo h¢ & AJa
`h {^Þ hm| Vmo narjmWu Xÿgar narjm nwpñVH$m Am¡a CÎma nÌ boZo Ho$ {bE
{ZarjH$ H$mo VwaÝV AdJV H$amE± &
5. Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| nm±M ^mJ I, II, III, IV Am¡a V h¢, {OZ_|
150 dñVw{Zð> àíZ h¢, VWm àË`oH$ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ :
^mJ I : ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ (àíZ g§. 1 – 30)
^mJ II : J{UV d {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 – 90)
^mJ III : gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z / gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ (àíZ g§. 31 –90)
^mJ IV : ^mfm I – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 91 – 120)
^mJ V : ^mfm II – (A§J«oµOr / {hÝXr) (àíZ g§. 121 – 150)
6. narjm{W©¶m| H$mo àíZ 31 go 90 ¶m Vmo ^mJ II (J{UV d {dkmZ) ¶m
^mJ III (gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z/gm‘m{OH$ {dkmZ) go H$aZo h¢ O¡gm {H$
narjm{W©`m| Zo AnZo Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ nÌ _| ^am h¡ &
7. ^mJ IV _| ^mfm I Ho$ {bE 30 àíZ Am¡a ^mJ V _| ^mfm II Ho$ {bE
30 àíZ {XE JE h¢ & Bg narjm nwpñVH$m _| Ho$db A§J«oµOr d {hÝXr ^mfm
go gå~pÝYV àíZ {XE JE h¢ & `{X ^mfm I Am¡a/`m ^mfm II _| AmnHo$
Ûmam MwZr JB© ^mfm(E±) A§J«oµOr `m {hÝXr Ho$ Abmdm h¡/h¢, Vmo H¥$n`m
G H$moS> dmbr Cg ^mfm dmbr n[a{eï> (^mfm) narjm nwpñVH$m _m±J
br{OE & {OZ ^mfmAm| Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Amn Xo aho h¢ dh AmdoXZ nÌ
_| MwZr JB© ^mfmAm| go Adí` _ob ImZr Mm{hE & ^mfmAm| H$m
n[adV©Z AZw_Ý` Zht h¡ &
8. narjmWu ^mfm II (^mJ V) Ho$ {bE, ^mfm gyMr go Eogr ^mfm MwZ|
Omo CZHo$ Ûmam ^mfm I (^mJ IV) _| MwZr JB© ^mfm go {^Þ hmo &
9. a\$ H$m`© narjm nwpñVH$m _| Bg à`moOZ Ho$ {bE Xr JB© Imbr OJh na hr
H$a| &
10. g^r CÎma Ho$db OMR CÎma nÌ na hr A§{H$V H$a| & AnZo CÎma
Ü`mZnyd©H$ A§{H$V H$a| & CÎma ~XbZo hoVw ídoV a§OH$ H$m à`moJ {Z{fÕ h¡ &
11. `{X A§J«oµOr Am¡a {hÝXr g§ñH$aU Ho$ àíZm|/CÎmam| _| H$moB© {dg§J{V hmo, Vmo
A§J«oµOr g§ñH$aU A§{V_ _mZm OmEJm &
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjmWu H$m Zm_ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Roll Number (AZwH«$_m§H$) : in figures (A§H$m| _|) _________________________________________________________
: in words (eãXm| _|) _________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : _________________________________________________________
narjm Ho$ÝÐ (~‹S>o Ajam| _|) :
Candidate’s Signature : _____________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________
narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja : {ZarjH$ Ho$ hñVmja :
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent _________________________________________________
MAK-23-II
PAPER II
/
àíZ-nÌ II
MAIN TEST BOOKLET / _w»` narjm nwpñVH$m
P-II/G ( 2 )
PART I / ^mJ I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / ~mb {dH$mg d {ejmemñÌ
Directions : Answer the following questions by
selecting the correct/most appropriate option.
1. A conducive classroom environment for
learning in middle classes centres around
_________.
(1) co-operative learning
(2) fear of punishment and embarrassment
(3) competitive ethos
(4) conditioning and reinforcement
2. How can a teacher help Aman who is
struggling with complex problems develop
problem-solving skills ?
(1) Tell him to give up on the problem
(2) Encourage him to brainstorm and
generate ideas
(3) Discourage him from experimenting and
taking risks
(4) Provide him with the answers
3. The underlying principle of
‘understanding-based teaching’ is the belief
that :
(1) learners are passive recipients and the
teacher has the ‘right’ knowledge.
(2) learners’ abilities and needs are diverse
which cannot be catered to without
focusing on standard instructions.
(3) learners can construct knowledge when
provided with a facilitative environment
to do so.
(4) learners know little and teaching involves
transmission of facts to students.
4. Students struggling with ‘dyslexia’ can be
taught to read :
(1) by providing higher grade level reading
texts.
(2) by encouraging them to study in multiple
distractions.
(3) through use of strict punishment to
ensure corrective reading.
(4) through systemic phonological training.
{ZX}e : {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma XoZo Ho$ {bE ghr /g~go
C{MV {dH$ën Mw{ZE &
1. ‘mܶ{‘H$ H$jmAm| ‘| A{YJ‘ Ho$ {bE EH$ AZwHy$b
H$jm H$m dmVmdaU __________ na H|${ÐV hmoVm h¡ &
(1) ghH$mar A{YJ_
(2) gµOm Am¡a e{‘ªXJr Ho$ S>a
(3) à{VñnYu bmoH$mMma
(4) AZw~§YZ Am¡a nwZ~©bZ
2. O{Q>b g‘ñ¶mAm| go OyP aho A‘Z Ho$ g‘ñ¶m-g‘mYmZ
H$m¡eb {dH${gV H$aZo ‘| EH$ {ejH$ {H$g àH$ma ‘XX
H$a gH$Vm h¡ ?
(1) Cggo H$hH$a {H$ dh g‘ñ¶m H$mo gwbPmZm N>mo‹S>
Xo
(2) Cgo ‘§WZ H$aZo Am¡a {dMma CËnÞ H$aZo Ho$ {bE
àmoËgm{hV H$aHo$
(3) Cgo à¶moJ H$aZo Am¡a Omo{I‘ boZo go hVmoËgm{hV
H$aHo$
(4) Cgo CÎma àXmZ H$aHo$
3. ‘~moY-AmYm[aV {ejU’ H$m A§V{Z©{hV {gÕm§V ¶h
{dídmg h¡ {H$ :
(1) {ejmWu {ZpîH«$¶ àmßVH$Vm© h¢ Am¡a {ejH$ Ho$
nmg ‘ghr’ kmZ h¡ &
(2) {ejm{W©¶m| H$s j‘VmE± Am¡a Amdí¶H$VmE± {d{dY
h¢ {OÝh| ‘mZH$ {ZX}em| na ܶmZ H|${ÐV {H$E {~Zm
nyam Zht {H$¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ &
(3) Eogm H$aZo Ho$ {bE EH$ gw{dYmOZH$ dmVmdaU
àXmZ {H$E OmZo na {ejmWu kmZ H$m {Z‘m©U H$a
gH$Vo h¢ &
(4) {ejmWu H$‘ OmZVo h¢ Am¡a {ejU ‘| {dÚm{W©`m|
Ho$ {bE V϶m| H$m àgmaU em{‘b h¡ &
4. dh {dÚmWu Omo ‘nR>Z-d¡H$붒 go OyP aho h¢, H$mo n‹T>Zm
{gIm¶m Om gH$Vm h¡ :
(1) Cƒ J«oS> ñVa Ho$ nR>Z J«§W àXmZ H$aHo$ &
(2) CÝh| H$B© {dH$f©Um| ‘| Aܶ¶Z H$aZo Ho$ {bE
àmoËgm{hV H$aHo$ &
(3) gwYmamË‘H$ nR>Z gw{ZpíMV H$aZo Ho$ {bE g™V
X§S> Ho$ Cn¶moJ Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go &
(4) àUmbrJV ÜdݶmË‘H$ à{ejU Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go &
( 3 ) P-II/G
5. Sibling relationships :
(1) are similar to relationships with parents
and peers and play an important role in
socialization throughout childhood.
(2) are different than relationships with
parents and peers and play an important
role in socialization throughout
childhood.
(3) play an important role only during early
childhood.
(4) do not have much role in socialization.
6. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option :
Assertion (A) :
Considerable variations exist in
developmental rates among children.
Reason (R) :
Developmental differences are an inevitable
result of complex interaction of genetic and
experiential variations.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
7. Which principle of development is illustrated
in the following statement ?
“Children who are deprived of a conducive
environment for learning language in their
early years have some difficulty in picking
language later in life.”
(1) Language and cognition are complexly
interrelated.
(2) Development of language is totally
dependent on genetics.
(3) Development is disorderly and
unpredictable.
(4) There is a sensitive period of language
development.
5. ^mB©-~hZ Ho$ [aíVo/[aíVm| :
(1) ‘mVm-{nVm Am¡a gm{W¶m| Ho$ gmW g§~§Ym| Ho$ g‘mZ
h¢ Am¡a ~më`mdñWm ‘| g‘mOrH$aU ‘| ‘hÎdnyU©
^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(2) ‘mVm-{nVm Am¡a gm{W¶m| Ho$ gmW g§~§Ym| go {^Þ
hmoVo h¢ Am¡a ~më`mdñWm ‘| g‘mOrH$aU ‘|
‘hÎdnyU© ^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(3) Ho$db àma§{^H$ ~më`mdñWm ‘| hr ‘hÎdnyU©
^y{‘H$m {Z^mVo h¢ &
(4) H$s g‘mOrH$aU ‘| A{YH$ ^y{‘H$m Zht h¡ &
6. ????????? ? ????? ?? ? ???? ??? ??? ?????? ??
??? ??? ? :
A{^H$WZ (A) :
~ƒm| Ho$ ~rM {dH$mgmË‘H$ Xam| ‘| H$m’$s {^ÞVmE± ‘m¡OyX
hmoVr h¢ &
H$maU (R) :
{dH$mgmË‘H$ A§Va, AmZwd§{eH$ Am¡a AZw^dmË‘H$
{d{dYVmAm| H$s O{Q>b A§V:{H«$¶m H$m EH$ A{Zdm¶©
n[aUm‘ h¢ &
(1) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? , ?????? (R), (A) ??
??? ?? ?? ?? ?? ???? ?? ?
(2) (A) ??? ?? , ?????? (R) ???? ?? ?
(3) (A) ?? (R) ????? ???? ??? ?
(4) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? ??? (R), (A) ?? ???
?? ???? ?? ?? ?
7. {ZåZ{b{IV H$WZ ‘| {dH$mg Ho$ {H$g {gÕm§V H$mo
Xem©¶m J¶m h¡ ?
“Omo ~ƒo AnZo ewéAmVr dfm] ‘| ^mfm grIZo Ho$ {bE
AZwHy$b dmVmdaU go d§{MV ahVo h¢, CÝh| ~mX Ho$ OrdZ
‘| ^mfm MwZZo ‘| Wmo‹S>r H${R>ZmB© hmoVr h¡ &”
(1) ^mfm Am¡a AZw^y{V O{Q>b ê$n go nañna g§~§{YV
h¢ &
(2) ^mfm H$m {dH$mg nyar Vah AmZwd§{eH$s na {Z^©a
h¡ &
(3) {dH$mg Aì¶dpñWV Am¡a Aà˶m{eV hmoVm h¡ &
(4) ^mfm Ho$ {dH$mg H$m EH$ g§doXZerb H$mb h¡ &
P-II/G ( 4 )
8. Which of the following questions promotes
critical and creative thinking in children ?
(1) Where does water come from in your
city ?
(2) Which can be the best way to save water
and why ?
(3) How many states and how many capitals
are there in your country ?
(4) What is the name of your country and its
geographical location on the map ?
9. What does inclusive education entail ?
(1) Segregation and categorisation of
students on the basis of their abilities
(2) Standard curriculum for all learners
(3) Provisioning of only vocational education
to learners with special needs
(4) Flexibility in the curriculum as a result of
recognition of individual differences
10. What is the role of evidence in critical
thinking ?
(1) Evidence should be accepted without
analysis.
(2) Evidence should be evaluated in a logical
and systematic way.
(3) Evidence is irrelevant to critical thinking.
(4) Evidence should be ignored in favour of
personal opinion.
11. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option :
Assertion (A) :
Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky differ in their
perspective on the influence of language on
cognitive development in children.
Reason (R) :
In discovery learning, teacher provides
opportunities and students derive information
for themselves.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
8. {ZåZ{b{IV ‘| go H$m¡Z-gm àíZ ~ƒm| Ho$
g‘mbmoMZmË‘H$ d aMZmË‘H$ qMVZ H$mo ~‹T>mdm XoVm h¡ ?
(1) AmnHo$ eha ‘| nmZr H$hm± go AmVm h¡ ?
(2) nmZr Ho$ ~Mmd Ho$ {bE g~go AÀN>m VarH$m
H$m¡Z-gm hmo gH$Vm h¡ Am¡a ³¶m| ?
(3) AmnHo$ Xoe ‘| Hw$b {H$VZo amÁ¶ Am¡a {H$VZr
amOYm{Z`m± h¢ ?
(4) AmnHo$ Xoe H$m Zm‘ d ‘mZ{MÌ na BgH$s
^m¡Jmo{bH$ pñW{V ³¶m h¡ ?
9. g‘mdoer {ejm ‘| ³¶m em{‘b h¡ ?
(1) {dÚm{W©`m| H$m CZH$s ¶mo½¶VmAm| Ho$ AmYma na
n¥WŠH$aU d dJuH$aU H$aZm
(2) g^r {ejm{W©¶m| Ho$ {bE ‘mZH$ nmR>çM¶m©
(3) {deof Amdí¶H$Vm dmbo {ejm{W©¶m| H$mo Ho$db
ì¶mdgm{¶H$ {ejm H$m àmdYmZ
(4) ì¶{º$JV A§Vam| H$s nhMmZ Ho$ n[aUm‘ñdê$n
nmR>çM¶m© ‘| bMrbmnZ
10. g‘mbmoMZmË‘H$ qMVZ ‘| à‘mU H$s ³¶m ^y{‘H$m hmoVr
h¡ ?
(1) à‘mU H$mo {~Zm {díbofU Ho$ ñdrH$ma {H$¶m OmZm
Mm{hE &
(2) à‘mU H$m Vm{H©$H$ Am¡a gw{Z¶mo{OV ê$n go
‘yë¶m§H$Z {H$¶m OmZm Mm{hE &
(3) g‘mbmoMZmË‘H$ qMVZ Ho$ {bE à‘mU Aàmg§{JH$
hmoVm h¡ &
(4) ì¶{º$JV am¶ Ho$ nj ‘| à‘mU H$s Cnojm H$s
OmZr Mm{hE &
11. ????????? ? ????? ?? ? ???? ??? ??? ?????? ??
??? ??? ? :
A{^H$WZ (A) :
~ƒm| ‘| g§kmZmË‘H$ {dH$mg na ^mfm Ho$ à^md na OrZ
{n¶mµOo Am¡a bod dm¶JmoËñH$s Ho$ ÑpîQ>H$moU ‘| {^ÞVm
h¡ &
H$maU (R) :
ImoO A{YJ_ _|, {ejH$ Adga àXmZ H$aVm h¡ Am¡a
{dÚmWu ñd`§ OmZH$mar àmßV H$aZo Ho$ {bE CÝ_wI hmoVo
h¢ &
(1) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? , ?????? (R), (A) ??
??? ?? ?? ?? ?? ???? ?? ?
(2) (A) ??? ?? , ?????? (R) ???? ?? ?
(3) (A) ?? (R) ????? ???? ??? ?
(4) (A) ?? (R) ????? ??? ??? ??? (R), (A) ?? ???
?? ???? ?? ?? ?
( 5 ) P-II/G
12. In a progressive classroom, the students :
A. do not ask many questions.
B. ask questions to the teacher.
C. ask questions to each other.
D. ask themselves questions.
Choose the correct option :
(1) B and C
(2) B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A
13. Expectations associated with being male or
female are referred to as __________ and these
are learned ___________ .
(1) gender constancy; initially during
adolescence
(2) gender roles; throughout childhood and
into adulthood
(3) gender stereotypes; only during middle
childhood
(4) gender bias; mainly during early
childhood
14. Which of the following views about
intelligence supports the respectful
consideration of diversity among learners ?
(1) Intelligence is not influenced by genetic
factors.
(2) Intelligence is not influenced by
environmental factors.
(3) IQ tests are the only measure of
intelligence.
(4) Intelligence is multidimensional and can
change over time.
15. Who among the following critiqued the concept
of ‘general’ intelligence and proposed an
alternative theory of intelligence ?
(1) Howard Gardner
(2) Jean Piaget
(3) Lev Vygotsky
(4) Charles Spearman
16. Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory has been
critiqued by Carol Gilligan for :
(1) not applying quantitative methods of
analysis.
(2) ignoring gender differences in moral
reasoning.
(3) presenting a stage-theory of moral
development.
(4) collecting data by means of real-life
situations.
12. EH$ àJ{Verb H$jm ‘|, {dÚmWu :
A. A{YH$ àíZ Zht nyN>Vo h¢ &
B. {ejH$ go àíZ nyN>Vo h¢ &
C. EH$-Xÿgao go àíZ nyN>Vo h¢ &
D. ñd¶§ go àíZ nyN>Vo h¢ &
ghr {dH$ën H$m M`Z H$s{OE :
(1) B Am¡a C
(2) B Am¡a D
(3) B, C Am¡a D
(4) A
13. nwq„J ¶m ñÌrqbJ hmoZo go Ow‹S>r AnojmAm| H$mo
________ H$hm OmVm h¡ Am¡a BÝh| __________ grIm
OmVm h¡ &
(1) O|S>a pñWaVm; àma§^ ‘| {H$emoamdñWm Ho$ Xm¡amZ
(2) O|S>a ^y{‘H$mE±; ~më¶mdñWm H$s g^r
AdñWmAm| go boH$a d¶ñH$Vm ‘| ^r
(3) O|S>a ê${‹T>dm{XVm; Ho$db ‘ܶ ~më¶mdñWm Ho$
Xm¡amZ
(4) O|S>a nydm©J«h; ‘w»¶ ê$n go àma§{^H$ ~më¶mdñWm
Ho$ Xm¡amZ
14. ~w{Õ Ho$ g§X^© ‘| {ZåZ{b{IV ‘| go H$m¡Z-gm ÑpîQ>H$moU
{ejm{W©¶m| Ho$ ~rM {d{dYVm Ho$ gå‘mZnyU© {dMma H$m
g‘W©Z H$aVm h¡ ?
(1) ~w{Õ AmZwd§{eH$ H$maH$m| go à^m{dV Zht hmoVr
h¡ &
(2) ~w{Õ dmVmdaUr¶ H$maH$m| go à^m{dV Zht hmoVr
h¡ &
(3) ~w{Õ H$mo ‘mnZo Ho$ {bE ~w{Õ-bpãY narjU hr
EH$‘mÌ gmYZ h¢ &
(4) ~w{Õ ~hþAm¶m‘r h¡ Am¡a g‘¶ Ho$ gmW ~Xb
gH$Vr h¡ &
15. {ZåZ{b{IV ‘| go {H$gZo ‘gm‘mݶ’ ~w{Õ H$s AdYmaUm
H$s AmbmoMZm H$s Am¡a ~w{Õ H$m EH$ d¡H$pënH$ {gÕm§V
àñVm{dV {H$¶m ?
(1) hm°dS>© JmS>©Za
(2) OrZ {n¶mµOo
(3) bod dm¶JmoËñH$s
(4) Mmëg© ñnr¶a‘¡Z
16. bm°a|g H$moh²b~J© Ho$ {gÕm§V H$s AmbmoMZm H¡$ab
{J{bJZ Ûmam :
(1) {díbofU Ho$ ‘mÌmË‘H$ VarH$m| H$mo bmJy Zht H$aZo
Ho$ {bE H$s JB© h¡ &
(2) Z¡{VH$ VH©$ ‘| b¢{JH$ {^ÞVmAm| H$s Cnojm H$aZo
Ho$ {bE H$s JB© h¡ &
(3) Z¡{VH$ {dH$mg H$m EH$ MaU-{gÕm§V àñVwV H$aZo
Ho$ {bE H$s JB© h¡ &
(4) dmñV{dH$-OrdZ H$s pñW{V¶m| Ho$ ‘mܶ‘ go V϶m|
H$mo EH$Ì H$aZo Ho$ {bE H$s JB© h¡ &
Read More
FAQs on CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) - CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 - CTET & State TET
| 1. What is the CTET exam and how can it benefit my teaching career? |  |
Ans. The CTET exam, also known as the Central Teacher Eligibility Test, is a national-level exam conducted in India to assess the eligibility of candidates for teaching positions in primary and upper primary schools. Qualifying the CTET exam can benefit your teaching career as it serves as a mandatory requirement for getting appointed as a teacher in various government schools. Moreover, many private schools also consider CTET scores while hiring teachers, thus increasing your job prospects in both government and private educational institutions.
| 2. What are the important dates and eligibility criteria for the CTET exam? | |
Ans. The important dates for the CTET exam vary each year, so it is recommended to refer to the official notification or website for the most accurate and up-to-date information. However, typically, the CTET exam is conducted twice a year. As for the eligibility criteria, candidates must have completed their senior secondary education (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and have a two-year diploma in elementary education. Alternatively, candidates with a bachelor's degree in any discipline and a two-year diploma in elementary education are also eligible to apply.
| 3. How can I prepare for the CTET exam effectively? | |
Ans. To prepare for the CTET exam effectively, it is important to have a thorough understanding of the exam pattern and syllabus. Start by familiarizing yourself with the exam pattern, which includes sections on child development and pedagogy, language I (compulsory), language II (compulsory), mathematics, environmental studies, and social studies/science (for upper primary level). Create a study schedule and allocate dedicated time for each subject. Make use of study materials, previous year question papers, and mock tests to practice and assess your knowledge. Additionally, consider joining coaching classes or online courses to gain expert guidance and tips for the exam.
| 4. Is it necessary to clear both papers of the CTET exam? | |
Ans. The CTET exam consists of two papers - Paper I and Paper II. Paper I is for candidates who wish to teach classes I to V, while Paper II is for candidates who wish to teach classes VI to VIII. It is not necessary to clear both papers of the CTET exam. Candidates can choose to appear for either Paper I or Paper II, depending on their teaching preferences. However, if a candidate clears both papers, they will have the flexibility to apply for teaching positions in both primary and upper primary schools.
| 5. Can I apply for the CTET exam if I have completed my education through distance learning? | |
Ans. Yes, candidates who have completed their education through distance learning or correspondence mode are eligible to apply for the CTET exam, provided they fulfill the other eligibility criteria specified by the conducting authority. As long as the candidate's degree/diploma is recognized by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) or the respective state governments, they can apply for the CTET exam and pursue a teaching career. It is advisable to verify the recognition of your degree/diploma before applying for the exam.
Related Exams
About this Document
|
4.84/5 Rating |
|
Nov 22, 2024 Last updated |
Document Description: CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) for CTET & State TET 2024 is part of CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 preparation.
The notes and questions for CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) have been prepared according to the CTET & State TET exam syllabus. Information about CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) covers topics
like and CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) Example, for CTET & State TET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023).
Introduction of CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) in English is available as part of our CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024
for CTET & State TET & CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) in Hindi for CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 course.
Download more important topics related with notes, lectures and mock test series for CTET & State TET
Exam by signing up for free. CTET & State TET: CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) | CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 - CTET & State TET
Description
Full syllabus notes, lecture & questions for CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) | CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 - CTET & State TET - CTET & State TET | Plus excerises question with solution to help you revise complete syllabus for CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 | Best notes, free PDF download
Information about CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023)
In this doc you can find the meaning of CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) defined & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides explaining types of
CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) theory, EduRev gives you an ample number of questions to practice CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) tests, examples and also practice CTET & State TET
tests
|
178 docs|90 tests
|
Download as PDF
|
Explore Courses for CTET & State TET exam
|
|
Signup for Free!
Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days! Learn & Practice with 1000+ FREE Notes, Videos & Tests.
Related Searches
ppt
,Summary
,shortcuts and tricks
,past year papers
,study material
,Important questions
,CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) | CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 - CTET & State TET
,Previous Year Questions with Solutions
,CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) | CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 - CTET & State TET
,Semester Notes
,Extra Questions
,Sample Paper
,Free
,video lectures
,MCQs
,Objective type Questions
,practice quizzes
,CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) | CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) Mock Test Series 2024 - CTET & State TET
,Exam
,Viva Questions
,mock tests for examination
;
Additional Information about CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) for CTET & State TET Preparation
CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) Free PDF Download
The CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) is an invaluable resource that delves deep into the core of the CTET & State TET exam.
These study notes are curated by experts and cover all the essential topics and concepts, making your preparation more efficient and effective.
With the help of these notes, you can grasp complex subjects quickly, revise important points easily,
and reinforce your understanding of key concepts. The study notes are presented in a concise and easy-to-understand manner,
allowing you to optimize your learning process. Whether you're looking for best-recommended books, sample papers, study material,
or toppers' notes, this PDF has got you covered. Download the CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) now and kickstart your journey towards success in the CTET & State TET exam.
Importance of CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023)
The importance of CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) cannot be overstated, especially for CTET & State TET aspirants.
This document holds the key to success in the CTET & State TET exam.
It offers a detailed understanding of the concept, providing invaluable insights into the topic.
By knowing the concepts well in advance, students can plan their preparation effectively.
Utilize this indispensable guide for a well-rounded preparation and achieve your desired results.
CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) Notes
CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) Notes offer in-depth insights into the specific topic to help you master it with ease.
This comprehensive document covers all aspects related to CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023).
It includes detailed information about the exam syllabus, recommended books, and study materials for a well-rounded preparation.
Practice papers and question papers enable you to assess your progress effectively.
Additionally, the paper analysis provides valuable tips for tackling the exam strategically.
Access to Toppers' notes gives you an edge in understanding complex concepts.
Whether you're a beginner or aiming for advanced proficiency, CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) Notes on EduRev are your ultimate resource for success.
CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) CTET & State TET Questions
The "CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) CTET & State TET Questions" guide is a valuable resource for all aspiring students preparing for the
CTET & State TET exam. It focuses on providing a wide range of practice questions to help students gauge
their understanding of the exam topics. These questions cover the entire syllabus, ensuring comprehensive preparation.
The guide includes previous years' question papers for students to familiarize themselves with the exam's format and difficulty level.
Additionally, it offers subject-specific question banks, allowing students to focus on weak areas and improve their performance.
Study CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) on the App
Students of CTET & State TET can study CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) alongwith tests & analysis from the EduRev app,
which will help them while preparing for their exam. Apart from the CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023),
students can also utilize the EduRev App for other study materials such as previous year question papers, syllabus, important questions, etc.
The EduRev App will make your learning easier as you can access it from anywhere you want.
The content of CTET Previous Year Question Paper - 2 Set G (Aug - 2023) is prepared as per the latest CTET & State TET syllabus.
|
© EduRev
|
Education Revolution
|
Follow Us
|
Signup to see your scores
go up within 7 days!
Access 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos and Tests
Takes less than 10 seconds to signup