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English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Word and Structure Knowledge

Choose the Correct Option to Complete Each Sentence. (Question 1 to 24)

Q1: Many students in the competition were performing on the stage with a lot of _______.
(a) compulsion
(b) determination
(c) eviction
(d) organization

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is determination, which means showing a strong will to succeed.
  • In this context, it indicates that the students were performing with a lot of effort and focus.
  • Compulsion suggests being forced to do something, which doesn't fit here.
  • Eviction and organization are unrelated to the context of performing on stage.

Q2: My recent scientific experiment came to a _______ due to a lack of funding.
(a) hiatus
(b) zenith
(c) convenience
(d) distortion

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Ans: (a)

  • The term hiatus refers to a pause or break in a process, which fits the context of the experiment being halted.
  • Zenith means the highest point, which does not apply here since the experiment is not progressing.
  • Convenience does not relate to the situation of funding issues.
  • Distortion implies a change in shape or form, which is irrelevant in this context.

Q3: Half of the groceries in the store were found to have been subjected to _______.
(a) attachment
(b) adherence
(c) adulteration
(d) account

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is adulteration, which means that the groceries were mixed with harmful or inferior substances.
  • This is a serious issue as it can affect the safety and quality of food products.
  • Attachment and adherence do not relate to food safety, while account is irrelevant in this context.
  • Understanding adulteration helps consumers make informed choices about the food they purchase.

Q4: The musician’s voice was deep and _______, and the audience loved it.
(a) egregious
(b) gusty
(c) sonorous
(d) meek

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Ans: (c)

  • The word sonorous means having a deep, full, and rich sound, which perfectly describes the musician's voice.
  • Egregious refers to something outstandingly bad, which does not fit the context.
  • Gusty relates to strong winds, not sound, making it irrelevant here.
  • Meek means quiet and gentle, which contrasts with the idea of a deep voice that the audience enjoyed.

Q5: The child had to be force-_______ because he was sick and reluctant to eat.
(a) feed
(b) fed
(c) feeded
(d) feeding

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is fed. This is the past participle form of the verb "to feed".
  • In this context, it means that the child was made to eat against his will because he was unwell.
  • Options like "feed" and "feeding" do not fit grammatically in this sentence.
  • Using "feeded" is incorrect as it is not a proper form of the verb.

Q6: The school _______ to the welfare of the students.
(a) commit
(b) have committed
(c) was committed
(d) were committed

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is was committed because it indicates that the school made a promise or dedication in the past.
  • This choice uses the past tense, which is appropriate for the context of the sentence.
  • Options (a) and (b) are incorrect as they do not fit the past context, and (d) is also incorrect because "were" does not agree with the singular subject "school".
  • Thus, "was committed" is the best fit, showing the school's dedication to student welfare.

Q7: The company _______ their software for performing advanced computation-based projects.
(a) had to optimise
(b) optimising
(c) are optimised
(d) have been optimise

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is had to optimise because it indicates a past necessity for the company to improve their software.
  • Optimise means to make something as effective as possible, which is essential for advanced computation-based projects.
  • Options (b), (c), and (d) do not fit grammatically or contextually in this sentence.
  • Thus, the phrase suggests that the company took action in the past to enhance their software capabilities.

Q8: The dog _______ the bag full of sweets and savoury treats.
(a) sniff
(b) is sniffed
(c) was sniffing
(d) has sniffed

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is was sniffing because it indicates an action that was happening in the past.
  • This option shows that the dog was in the process of sniffing the bag at some point before now.
  • Other options do not fit the context: "sniff" is not a correct form, "is sniffed" suggests a passive action, and "has sniffed" implies a completed action.
  • Thus, "was sniffing" is the best choice to describe the ongoing action of the dog at that time.

Q9: The body temperature _______ by the level of rising mercury in the thermometer.
(a) indicating
(b) is indicated
(c) are indicated
(d) were indicates

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct phrase is "is indicated," which shows that the body temperature is shown by the mercury level.
  • In this context, "is indicated" means that the thermometer provides a reading of the body temperature.
  • The other options do not fit grammatically or contextually with the sentence.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) is indicated, as it correctly describes the relationship between the thermometer and body temperature.

Q10: Going on business trips frequently to other countries proved to be a/an _______ task.
(a) stranger
(b) easily
(c) generous
(d) onerous

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Ans: (d)

  • The term onerous means something that is burdensome or difficult to manage. In this context, it describes the challenges of frequent business travel.
  • Options like stranger, easily, and generous do not fit the meaning of a task that is hard or demanding.
  • Thus, the correct choice is onerous, as it accurately reflects the difficulties associated with frequent travel for work.

Q11: Although he was well-qualified, he was still a/an _______ photographer.
(a) arbitrary
(b) amateur
(c) senior
(d) unusual

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Ans: (b)

  • The term amateur refers to someone who engages in a hobby or activity without being a professional.
  • Even though he had the necessary qualifications, he was still considered an amateur photographer, indicating he may not have had extensive experience.
  • This highlights that qualifications do not always equate to professional status.
  • In contrast, the other options like arbitrary, senior, and unusual do not accurately describe his level of expertise in photography.

Q12: The stranger spoke boisterously in a ________ loud volume.
(a) more
(b) much
(c) very
(d) surplus

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Ans: (c)

  • The word very is used to emphasize the loudness of the volume. It indicates a high degree of intensity.
  • Using more or much does not fit well in this context, as they do not convey the same level of emphasis.
  • Surplus is unrelated to the context of describing volume.
  • Thus, very is the most appropriate choice to describe the boisterous manner in which the stranger spoke.

Q13: The wise old man suggested that the problem can be solved ________.
(a) stupidly
(b) practically
(c) meanly
(d) deceitfully

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Ans: (b)

  • The wise old man believes that the solution to the problem should be approached practically.
  • Choosing practically means using common sense and realistic methods to find a solution.
  • Other options like stupidly, meanly, and deceitfully suggest negative or ineffective approaches.
  • Thus, the best way to solve the problem is through a practical mindset.

Q14: Sam entered the town at night ________ his friends.
(a) along with
(b) with a view
(c) on account of
(d) in order of

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Ans: (a)

  • The phrase "along with" indicates that Sam is accompanied by his friends as he enters the town.
  • Using "with a view" would imply a purpose or intention, which doesn't fit the context.
  • "On account of" suggests a reason for entering, which is not the case here.
  • "In order of" does not make sense in this context as it implies a sequence rather than companionship.

Q15: I am supposed to pay the rent _______ the first day of every month.
(a) before
(b) towards
(c) beside
(d) without

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is before, which indicates that the rent should be paid prior to the first day of each month.
  • Using before emphasizes the need to complete the payment in advance, ensuring that it is done on time.
  • Other options like towards, beside, and without do not convey the same meaning of timely payment.
  • Thus, the best choice is before, as it clearly states the requirement to pay the rent ahead of the due date.

Q16: He graduated from the university _______ a prestigious gold medal.
(a) among
(b) around
(c) above
(d) with

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is with because it indicates that he graduated while receiving a gold medal.
  • Using with shows that the gold medal was an achievement he earned during his graduation.
  • The other options do not fit the context of receiving a medal during graduation.
  • Thus, "with a distinguished gold medal" clearly conveys the accomplishment he achieved.

Q17: The little girl saw her own shadow _______ the wall.
(a) through
(b) on
(c) with
(d) off

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is on because it describes the position of the shadow relative to the wall.
  • Shadows are typically seen on surfaces like walls, floors, or ground.
  • Using through or with does not accurately convey how shadows appear.
  • Thus, the phrase "saw her own shadow on the wall" makes the most sense.

Q18: He removed his shoes _______ he went into the house.
(a) before
(b) either
(c) unless
(d) though

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is before, which indicates that the action of taking off shoes happened prior to entering the house.
  • Using before shows the sequence of actions clearly, meaning he took off his shoes first and then entered.
  • The other options do not fit the context: either suggests a choice, unless indicates a condition, and though implies contrast, none of which apply here.
  • Thus, the sentence makes sense and is grammatically correct with before.

Q19: As you plant, _______ will you harvest.
(a) while
(b) unless
(c) so
(d) although

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "As you sow, so shall you reap" means that your actions will determine the outcomes you experience.
  • In this context, "sow" refers to planting seeds, and "reap" refers to harvesting the results.
  • Choosing "so" correctly connects the cause (sowing) with the effect (reaping).
  • The other options do not convey the same meaning or relationship between actions and outcomes.

Q20: I placed a special order _______ I am allergic to certain oils.
(a) unless
(b) because
(c) though
(d) after

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is because. This word is used to explain the reason for placing a special order.
  • In this context, the speaker is stating that their allergy to certain oils is the reason for the special order.
  • Using unless, though, or after would not correctly convey the cause of the action.
  • Thus, because clearly connects the order to the allergy, making it the right choice.

Q21: It is better to be safe _______ to be sorry.
(a) so
(b) that
(c) than
(d) although

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "better to be safe than sorry" means it's wise to take precautions rather than face potential regret.
  • In this context, "than" is the correct word to compare being safe with being sorry.
  • Using "so," "that," or "although" would not make sense in this expression.
  • Thus, the correct choice is "than," which highlights the importance of safety over regret.

Q22: The elephant in the forest _______ scaring away all the animals.
(a) ran amok
(b) ran upon
(c) ran out of
(d) run on

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Ans: (a)

  • The phrase ran amok means to behave in a frenzied or uncontrolled way, which fits the context of the elephant scaring the animals.
  • Ran upon suggests encountering something unexpectedly, which does not relate to scaring animals.
  • Ran out of implies a lack of something, which is not relevant here.
  • Run on is grammatically incorrect in this context.

Q23: I don’t understand why I _______ him initially.
(a) put away
(b) put across of
(c) put up with
(d) put with 

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase put up with means to tolerate or endure someone or something unpleasant. In this context, it suggests that the speaker is questioning their decision to tolerate this person.
  • Put away means to store something, which does not fit here.
  • Put across of is not a standard phrase in English.
  • Put with is also not commonly used in this context.

Q24: ‘To put your foot down’ means _______.
(a) to withdraw one’s comment
(b) to accept something unconditionally
(c) to disturb others by shaking your legs
(d) to not yield to someone’s plan

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Ans: (d)

  • ‘To put your foot down’ is an expression that means to be firm or assertive.
  • It indicates a decision to not give in to someone else's demands or plans.
  • This phrase is often used when someone wants to establish their authority or make a strong point.
  • In this context, the correct answer is to not yield to someone’s plan.

Q25: Choose the correct Synonym of the given word.
Confidential
(a) Civic
(b) Secret
(c) Public
(d) Aired

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Ans: (b)

  • The word confidential means something that is meant to be kept private or secret.
  • Among the options, secret is the only word that conveys a similar meaning to confidential.
  • Civic refers to community-related matters, public means open to everyone, and aired suggests something that is broadcasted or made known.
  • Thus, the correct synonym for confidential is secret.

Q26: Choose the correct Synonym of the given word.
Meld
(a) Merge
(b) Comfort
(c) Isolate
(d) Acquire

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Ans: (a)

  • The word meld means to combine or blend different elements together.
  • The correct synonym is merge, which also means to join or unite.
  • Options like comfort and isolate do not relate to the meaning of meld.
  • Thus, the best choice that reflects the meaning of meld is merge.

Q27: Choose the correct Antonym of the given word.
 Ostentation
(a) Display
(b) Pompous
(c) Simplicity
(d) Competent

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Ans: (c)

  • The word ostentation refers to excessive display or showiness, often to attract attention.
  • The correct antonym is simplicity, which means being plain or uncomplicated, the opposite of showy.
  • Display and pompous both suggest a sense of showiness, which is not the opposite of ostentation.
  • Competent does not relate to the concept of showiness or simplicity.

Q28: Choose the correct Antonym of the given word. 
Aggravate
(a) Exasperate
(b) Advocate
(c) Allocate
(d) Alleviate

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Ans: (d)

  • The word aggravate means to make a situation worse or more severe.
  • The correct antonym is alleviate, which means to make something less severe or more bearable.
  • Options like exasperate and advocate do not convey the opposite meaning of aggravate.
  • Thus, alleviate is the best choice as it directly contrasts with the meaning of aggravate.

Choose the Option With the Correct Spelling. (Question 29 to 30)

Q29: How is the word spelled that refers to the act of being watched or monitored?
(a) Surveillance
(b) Survaillance
(c) Surveilance
(d) Surveilence

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct spelling of the word that means to be monitored is Surveillance.
  • This term is commonly used in contexts like security and observation.
  • Options B, C, and D contain spelling errors, making them incorrect.
  • Understanding the correct spelling is important for clear communication.

Q30: How do you write the term that describes ‘someone who is skilled at using both hands equally well for tasks like writing’? 
(a) Amphidextrous
(b) Ambidestrous
(c) Ambidextrous
(d) Amphideterous 

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct spelling is Ambidextrous, which means a person can use both hands with equal skill.
  • Option (a) and (d) are incorrect spellings and do not represent the term.
  • Option (b) is a common misspelling of the correct term.
  • Being ambidextrous is a rare skill that allows for flexibility in tasks requiring hand use.

Reading

Read the Passage and Answer the Questions That Follow. (Question 31 to 35)
Having a ‘big heart’ may be a great thing in metaphorical terms but in literal cases, it is a serious medical condition. Enlargement of the heart muscles is known as cardiomyopathy. Cardiomyopathy is actually a group of conditions that affect the ability of the heart muscles to pump blood.
The human heart consists of four chambers - two artriums and two ventricles. The artriums receive blood and the ventricles pump blood out of the heart. These chambers are made of a special type of muscle called cardiac muscle. Cardiomyopathy affects the size and shape of the heart muscles. Cardiomyopathy can involve stiffening of the heart muscles, thickening of the muscles, or stretching of the cardiac muscles.
Cardiomyopathies are of four main types: dilated cardiomyopathy, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia, and restrictive cardiomyopathy.
Dilated Cardiomyopathy: This is a type of condition in which the heart muscles become thin and stretched which makes them weak and unable to pump blood adequately. This is the most common type of cardiomyopathy.
Thinning of the heart muscle causes enlargement of the heart. The weakness of the heart can lead to heart failure.
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: This is a genetic form of cardiomyopathy in which there is thickening of the heart muscles which restricts the flow of blood through the heart and from the heart to the rest of the body. The thickening of the walls of the heart means that the heart can’t hold as much blood as it should be able to Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy often goesL undiagnosed but it is a leading cause of sudden cardiac arrest in young people.
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Dysplasia: In this type of cardiomyopathy, the cardiac muscle of the ventricles is replaced by fat and fibrous tissue. This is a rare form of cardiomyopathy.
Loss of cardiac muscle cells can lead to heart failure and abnormal heart rhythms. This type of cardiomyopathy is caused by a mutation in the genes that control proteins that produce cardiac cells. This causes death of the cardiac muscle cells and the dead cells are replaced by fibrous tissue and fat.
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy: In restrictive cardiomyopathy, the walls of the ventricles stiffen and are unable to relax. This affects the pumping of blood out of the heart. It is the least common form of cardiomyopathy. The cause is unknown but it can be caused by scarring after a heart transplant or it may be an inherited condition.
Other types of cardiomyopathy include stress cardiomyopathy, secondary cardiomyopathy, and ischemic cardiomyopathy.
Cardiomyopathy can be life-threatening but it often goes undiagnosed. Being aware of your family history regarding cardiac conditions as well as regular heart checkups can help to detect this condition and initiate treatment if needed.

Q31: Choose the most appropriate title for the passage.
(a) Heart Failure: A serious issue
(b) Heart Surgery
(c) Cardiomyopathy and its types
(d) Heart Conditions

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Ans: (c)

  • The passage focuses on Cardiomyopathy, which is a specific type of heart condition.
  • While heart failure and surgery are related, they are not the main focus of the text.
  • Understanding the types of cardiomyopathy is crucial for recognizing different heart conditions.
  • Thus, the title that best encapsulates the content is Cardiomyopathy and its types.

Q32: According to the passage, what is cardiomyopathy?
(a) Cardiomyopathy is a condition which involves loosening of the heart muscles.
(b) Cardiomyopathy is a condition in which the heart loses its ability to pump blood well because of the enlargement of the heart muscles.
(c) Cardiomyopathy does not affect the ability of the heart muscles to pump blood.
(d) Cardiomyopathy is a heart condition that improves heart function.

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Ans: (b)

  • Cardiomyopathy refers to a medical condition affecting the heart.
  • It specifically means that the heart's ability to pump blood is compromised.
  • This happens due to the enlargement of the heart muscles, which makes it less effective.
  • Thus, option (b) accurately describes the condition as it highlights the heart's reduced pumping ability.

Q33: Identify the false statement regarding Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy.
(a) It is a genetic form of cardiomyopathy.
(b) It involves thickening of the heart muscles.
(c) It is a leading cause of sudden cardiac arrest in young people.
(d) In this condition, the heart muscles become thin and stretched.

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Ans: (d)

  • Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy is primarily a genetic condition, meaning it can be inherited.
  • This condition is characterized by the thickening of the heart muscles, which can affect how the heart pumps blood.
  • It is known to be a significant cause of sudden cardiac arrest in young individuals, particularly athletes.
  • The statement that the heart muscles become thin and stretched is incorrect, as this condition actually leads to thickening, not thinning.

Q34: In which form of cardiomyopathy do the cardiac muscle cells perish and are substituted by fibrous tissue and fat?
(a) Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Dysplasia
(b) Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
(c) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
(d) Dilated Cardiomyopathy

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Ans: (a)

  • Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Dysplasia is a condition where the heart muscle cells die and are replaced by fibrous tissue and fat, leading to heart rhythm problems.
  • This type of cardiomyopathy primarily affects the right ventricle, which is crucial for pumping blood to the lungs.
  • In contrast, the other options like Restrictive, Hypertrophic, and Dilated Cardiomyopathy involve different mechanisms and changes in the heart muscle.
  • Understanding this condition is important for recognizing symptoms and managing heart health effectively.

Q35: What does the term 'life-threatening' refer to?
(a) Simple condition
(b) Evergreen
(c) Capable of causing death
(d) Safe for life

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Ans: (c)

  • The term life-threatening describes a situation or condition that can potentially lead to death.
  • It indicates a serious health risk that requires immediate attention.
  • Options like simple condition or harmless to life do not convey the severity associated with life-threatening situations.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that it is capable of causing death.

Read the Passage and Answer the Questions That Follow. (Question 36 to 40)
Plastic-eating bacteria could help one day to tackle some of the 14 million tons of plastic that is offloaded into our oceans every year. Plastic pollution leads to severe impact on marine ecosystems and can affect human health. For example, once plastic enters the ocean it can suffocate and entangle animals. Microplastics are also ingested by many marine species that are both preyed upon by other species and that humans consume as food. Once ingested, microplastics can leach the toxic contaminants that have collected on their surface into the body of the organism that has consumed it according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Those toxins can accumulate and transfer up the food chain from marine life into humans, whenever we eat something that has been taken from the sea. On land, the majority of plastic ends up either building up in landfills or burnt into incinerators, which releases toxic fumes. Just 16% of all plastic produced is recycled to make new plastic, according to the BBC.
However, in 2016 Japanese scientists made a remarkable discovery that could help tackle the world’s plastic problem, according to the journal, Science . Scientists collected plastic bottles outside a recycling facility, and discovered that a species of bacteria was “eating” its way through them. Normally, bacteria spend their time absorbing dead organic matter, but Ideonella sakaiensis has developed a taste for a certain type of plastic called polyethylene terephthalate (PET).
After analyzing the bacteria, the scientists found out that it produced two digestive enzymes called hydrolyzing PET or PETase. When these enzymes interact with PET plastic it breaks down the long molecular chains into shorter chains (monomers) called terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol. These monomers are then broken down further to release energy for growth of the bacteria. Following the discovery of plastic-eating bacteria, many genetic scientists have experimented with Ideonella sakaiensis to improve its efficiency. One such research venture has been to genetically engineer bacteria that are more efficient at enzyme production, such as E.coli, and turn them into PETase factories. Although the discovery offers hope in the fight against mounting plastic, scientists caution that we are still years away from widespread commercial use. Similarly, PETase only decomposes PET plastic, there are six other plastic types that we are still unable to degrade using enzymes.
Researchers at the University of Portsmouth have re-engineered PETase to create an enzyme “cocktail” that they say can digest plastic up to six times faster than normal. The scientists combined PETase with another plastic-eating enzyme called MlTETase to form one super enzyme, according to the journal, Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences of the United States of America (PNAS).
The combined PETase-MHETase enzyme was created with a synchrotron, a type of particle accelerator that uses X-rays 10 billion times brighter than the sun, according to the University of Portsmouth. It enabled researchers to see the individual atoms of each enzyme and draw their molecular blueprints. Scientists then stitched their DNA together to form a super enzyme. This enzyme can also break down polyethylene furanoate (PEF), a sugar-based bioplastic.

Q36: Choose the most appropriate title for the passage.
(a) Recycling of Plastic
(b) Plastic-eating Bacteria
(c) Organic Matter
(d) Types of Plastic

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Ans: (b)

  • The passage discusses bacteria that can consume plastic, making option (b) the most relevant title.
  • Option (a) focuses on recycling, which is not the main topic.
  • Option (c) refers to organic matter, which is unrelated to the main subject of the passage.
  • Option (d) mentions types of plastic, but does not capture the essence of the passage about bacteria.

Q37: According to the passage, what is the impact of plastic pollution on marine ecosystems?
(a) Oceans are becoming less contaminated.
(b) Added plastic in oceans makes the ocean water less salty.
(c) Many aquatic species ingest plastic which results in their death and the death of the organisms that consume them.
(d) By adding plastic in oceans, there will be no need to recycle the plastic. 

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Ans: (c)

  • Plastic pollution has a severe effect on marine ecosystems. When plastic enters the oceans, many aquatic species mistakenly ingest plastic thinking it is food.
  • This ingestion can lead to the death of these species, and it also affects other organisms that eat them, creating a chain reaction in the food web.
  • Thus, the presence of plastic not only harms individual animals but also disrupts the entire marine ecosystem.

Q38: What proportion of plastic is repurposed to create new plastic products?
(a) 15%
(b) 17%
(c) 18%
(d) 16% 

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Ans: (d)

  • The percentage of plastic that is recycled to produce new plastic is 16%.
  • This means that out of all the plastic waste, only a small portion is reused to make new items.
  • Recycling helps reduce waste and the need for new plastic production, which is important for the environment.
  • Understanding this percentage can help us realize the importance of recycling and reducing plastic use.

Q39: To develop a super enzyme, researchers have merged PETase with ______.
(a) PETase
(b) Ethylene glycol
(c) MHETase
(d) Terephthalic acid

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The question is about creating a super enzyme by combining PETase with another enzyme.
  • MHETase is the correct answer because it works alongside PETase to break down plastics more effectively.
  • Other options like Ethylene glycol and Terephthalic acid are not enzymes and do not contribute to the enzyme's function.
  • Combining PETase with MHETase enhances the breakdown of polyethylene terephthalate (PET), making it more efficient.

Q40: What is a synonym for the term 'accelerator'?
(a) Sedative
(b) Dissuader
(c) Stimulator
(d) Restrainer

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The word 'accelerator' refers to something that increases speed or promotes action.
  • Among the options, 'stimulator' is the best match as it also means something that encourages or enhances activity.
  • In contrast, 'sedative' and 'dissuader' imply slowing down or preventing action, while 'restrainer' suggests holding back.
  • Thus, 'stimulator' is the correct synonym for 'accelerator'.

Spoken and Written Expression

Choose the Correct Option to Complete the Conversation. (Question 41 to 45)

Q41: Michel: I am _______ to the summer camp to be conducted this year.
(a) looking up
(b) looking over
(c) looking forward
(d) looking away

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The phrase looking forward means to be excited about something that will happen in the future.
  • In this context, Michel is expressing his excitement about the upcoming summer camp.
  • The other options do not convey the same sense of anticipation or eagerness.
  • Thus, the correct choice is (c) looking forward.

Q42: James: The Halley’s Comet was _______ seen in the year 1986.
(a) lost
(b) least
(c) late
(d) last

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is last. This indicates that Halley’s Comet was seen for the final time in 1986 during its periodic appearance.
  • Halley’s Comet is famous for its visibility from Earth approximately every 76 years, and 1986 was one of those years.
  • The other options do not fit the context of the sentence, as they do not convey the idea of the comet's final appearance.
  • Thus, the sentence correctly reads: "The Halley’s Comet was last seen in the year 1986."

Q43: Gary: Dodo, the _______ flightless bird of Mauritius, is on the dexter side of their national flag.
(a) instinct
(b) instigate
(c) extinct
(d) exist

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The Dodo is a well-known bird that is no longer alive, which is why it is referred to as extinct.
  • This means that there are no living members of this species left on Earth.
  • The Dodo was native to Mauritius and is often used as a symbol of extinction.
  • In the context of the question, the correct word to describe the Dodo is extinct, as it highlights its absence from the world today.

Q44: Kim: My cousin’s friend is _______ to arrive tomorrow by flight.
(a) likely
(b) likably
(c) mostly
(d) nearly

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is likely, which means that there is a good chance of something happening.
  • In this context, it indicates that the cousin's friend is expected to arrive by flight tomorrow.
  • Likably is an adverb that describes how something is done, which does not fit here.
  • Mostly suggests a majority but not certainty, and nearly implies closeness but not exactness, making them unsuitable choices.

Q45: Reeta: My friends are going to the bookfair _______ buy some books.
(a) owing to
(b) in order to
(c) in case of
(d) by way of

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The phrase "in order to" is used to express a purpose or intention. In this case, Reeta's friends are going to the bookfair for the specific purpose of buying books.
  • Option "owing to" suggests a reason, which does not fit the context of going to the bookfair.
  • "In case of" implies a condition or situation, which is not relevant here.
  • "By way of" indicates a method or means, which also does not convey the intended purpose of buying books.

Achievers Section

Choose the Correct Option to Fill in the Blank. (Question 46 to 47)

Q46: Joan made an indiscreet _______ at the toy shop yesterday.
(a) merchandise
(b) purchase
(c) buyings
(d) means

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is purchase because it refers to the act of buying something. In this context, Joan made a purchase at the toy shop.
  • Merchandise refers to goods for sale, but it does not fit the blank as well as purchase does.
  • Buyings is not a standard term in English, making it incorrect.
  • Means does not relate to buying and is therefore not suitable for this sentence.

Q47: Fashions and trends are _______ because they constantly change with time.
(a) longitudinal
(b) estranged
(c) ecstatic
(d) ephemeral

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Fashions and trends are described as ephemeral because they are not permanent; they come and go quickly.
  • The term ephemeral means something that lasts for a very short time, which perfectly fits the nature of trends.
  • Unlike longitudinal, which refers to something that lasts over a long period, or estranged, which means being distant or alienated, trends are always changing.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (d) ephemeral, highlighting the fleeting nature of fashion and trends.

Q48: Choose the correct Synonym of the given word.
Indignant
(a) Miffed
(b) Indigenous
(c) Indicator
(d) Gleeful

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The word indignant means feeling or showing anger or annoyance at what is perceived as unfair treatment.
  • The correct synonym is miffed, which also conveys a sense of being upset or annoyed.
  • Indigenous refers to something native to a place, while indicator is something that shows or points out.
  • Gleeful means joyful or happy, which is the opposite of indignant.

Q49: Choose the correct antonym of the given word.
Adversity
(a) Crunch
(b) Punctuality
(c) Prosperity
(d) Criticality

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The word adversity refers to difficulties or misfortune.
  • The correct antonym is prosperity, which means success or thriving conditions.
  • Options like crunch and punctuality do not relate to the concept of adversity.
  • Thus, prosperity is the opposite of facing hardships, making it the right choice.

Q50: Choose the correct option to complete the conversation. 
Robert: In the ancient times, people _______ goods.
(a) bartered
(b) babbled
(c) borrow
(d) barged

English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • In ancient times, people used to exchange goods directly without using money, which is known as bartering.
  • The other options do not fit the context: babbled means to talk rapidly and incoherently, borrow means to take something temporarily, and barged means to move forcefully.
  • Thus, the correct answer is bartered, as it accurately describes the method of trade used in ancient times.
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FAQs on English Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 - English Olympiad for Class 9

1. What are the key topics covered in the Word and Structure Knowledge section of the English Olympiad for Class 9?
Ans.The Word and Structure Knowledge section typically covers topics such as vocabulary, word formation, synonyms, antonyms, idioms, and sentence structure. Students may encounter questions that test their understanding of word meanings and their ability to use words appropriately in sentences.
2. How can students effectively prepare for the Word and Structure Knowledge section of the English Olympiad?
Ans.Students can prepare by expanding their vocabulary through reading diverse materials, practicing past Olympiad papers, and using flashcards for difficult words. Additionally, they can engage in exercises that focus on synonyms, antonyms, and sentence transformation to strengthen their understanding of word structures.
3. Are there any specific strategies to tackle difficult questions in the English Olympiad?
Ans.Yes, students can approach difficult questions by first eliminating obviously incorrect options, then making educated guesses based on context clues. Practicing time management during mock tests can also help students become more comfortable with the exam format and improve their confidence.
4. How important is vocabulary knowledge for success in the English Olympiad?
Ans.Vocabulary knowledge is crucial for success in the English Olympiad, as many questions directly assess students' understanding of words and their meanings. A strong vocabulary enables students to comprehend passages better, make connections between words, and effectively answer questions related to word usage.
5. What resources can students use to improve their word and structure knowledge for the Olympiad?
Ans.Students can utilize various resources such as vocabulary-building books, online quizzes, word games, and educational apps focused on language skills. Additionally, joining study groups or participating in discussion forums can provide opportunities for collaborative learning and exposure to new vocabulary.
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