Geography MCQs for UPSC CS PRE. UPSC Notes | EduRev

UPSC : Geography MCQs for UPSC CS PRE. UPSC Notes | EduRev

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Geography MCQs

1. Consider the following statements regarding the mineral resource of India:
I. India possesses more than 100 minerals, out of which only 30 minerals have economic significance.
II. Reserves of petroleum and some non-ferrous metallic minerals are inadequate in India and in order to fulfil the internal demands for these minerals, the country is dependent on the imports from other countries.
III. After independence though export continues but also mineral production has picked up in consonance with the increasing industrial demands in the country.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:
India is richly endowed with minerals. Our country possesses more than 100 minerals. Out of 100 minerals, there are 30 minerals which have economic significance. Some of the examples are coal, iron ore, manganese, bauxite, mica etc. The situation is also satisfactory in feldspar, florides, lime- stones, dolomite and gypsum etc. But the reserves of petroleum and some non-ferrous metallic minerals especially copper, lead, zinc, tin, graphite are inadequate. Non-ferous minerals are those which do not contain iron. Country fulfills internal demands for these minerals by importing them from other countries.
India was least industrialised and most of the minerals were exported during British period. After independence though export continues but also mineral production has picked up in consonance with the increasing industrial demands in the country. As a result the total value of all minerals produced in the country reached about Rs 744 billion in 2004 – 05 from Rs 892 million in 1950-51. Therefore, there has been 834 times increase during the past fifty five years.

2. Consider the following statements regarding distribution of mineral and energy resources in India:
I. Coal deposits are mostly associated with Gondwana system.
II. Dharwar and Cuddapah systems contain resources of major metallic minerals like copper, lead, zinc etc.
III. Major non-metallic minerals like limestone, dolomite, gypsum, calcium, sulphate etc are found in and upper Vindhyan system.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

The distribution of mineral and energy resources is uneven. It’s because occurrence of mineral resources are associated with certain types of geological formation. Coal deposits are mostly associated with Gondwana system, Dharwar and Cuddapah systems contain resources of major metallic minerals like copper, lead, zinc etc and major non-metallic minerals like limestone, dolomite, gypsum, calcium, sulphate etc are found in Cuddapah and upper Vindhyan system.

3. Consider the following statements regarding the deposits of minerals in North eastern plateaus of India:
I. It covers Chhotanagpur plateau, Orissa plateau and eastern Andhra plateau.
II. North eastern plateau belt contains rich deposits of a variety of minerals, specially used for metallurgical industries.
III. This region has also rich deposits coal, along the river valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi, Son etc.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

It covers Chhotanagpur plateau, Orissa plateau and eastern Andhra plateau. This belt contains rich deposits of a variety of minerals, specially used for metallurgical industries. Prominent minerals that are large and widely distributed are iron ore, manganese, mica, bauxite, limestone, dolomite etc.
This region has also rich deposits coal, along the river valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi, Son etc. This region has also substantial amount deposit of copper, uranium, thorium, phosphate etc.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the mineral deposits found in South-western plateaus of India:
I. This region extends over Karnataka plateau and adjoining Tamil Nadu plateau and is rich in metallic minerals particularly in iron ore, manganese and bauxite and in some non-metallic minerals.
II. All the three gold mines of India are found in this region. However, coal is not found in this plateau region.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

This region extends over Karnataka plateau and adjoining Tamil Nadu plateau and is rich in metallic minerals particularly in iron ore, manganese and bauxite and in some non-metallic minerals. All the three gold mines of India are found in this region. However, coal is not found in this plateau region.

5. Consider the following statements regarding the mineral deposits found in North-western region of India:
I. This belt extends from gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat to the Aravalli range in Rajasthan.
II. Petroleum and natural gas are principal resources of this belt.
III. The region is known for reserves and production of several non-ferrous metals particularly copper, silver, lead, and Zinc.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II

Answer: c

Explanation:

This belt extends from gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat to the Aravalli range in Rajasthan. Petroleum and natural gas are principal resources of this belt. Deposits of other minerals are small and scattered. However, it is known for reserves and production of several non-ferrous metals particularly copper, silver, lead, and Zinc.

6. The upper Brahmaputra valley is known for which of the following resources?
a. Zinc
b. Petroleum
c. Coal
d. Silver

Answer: b

Explanation: 

Outside of these mineral belts, upper Brahmaputra valley is a significant petroleum producing area whereas Kerala possesses enormous concentration of heavy mineral sands. Outside these above mentioned areas minerals deposits are very poor, scattered and reserves are inconsistent.

7. Consider the following statements regarding coal reserves of India:
I. The bulk of the Indian coal reserves are of rather poor quality and the requirements of coking coal met through the imports from other countries.
II. In India, emphasis is being laid on setting thermal and super thermal power station on or near the coal fields and electricity generated is supplied to far off places through transmission lines.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

Unfortunately, the bulk of the Indian coal reserves are of rather poor quality. We meet part of our coking coal requirements through import. In India, emphasis is being laid on setting thermal and super thermal power station on or near the coal fields and electricity generated is supplied to far off places through transmission lines. At one time Indian railways were the largest consumer of coal. Since they have switched on to the use of diesel and electricity they are no more the direct consumer of coal.

8. Consider the following statements regarding distribution of coal fields in India:
I. Coal in India occurs in two important types of coal fields which are Gondwana coal fields and Tertiary coal fields.
II. Out of the total coal reserves and production in India, Gondwana coal fields contribute 98% and the rest 2% is produced by tertiary coal fields.
III. The Gondwana coal fields are located in the sedimentary rock systems of lower Gondwana Age.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

Coal in India occurs in two important types of coal fields. They are the Gondwana coal fields and Tertiary coal fields. Out of the total coal reserves and production in India, Gondwana coal fields contribute 98% and the rest 2% is produced by tertiary coal fields.

The Gondwana coal fields are located in the sedimentary rock systems of lower Gondwana Age. They are distributed chiefly in the river velleys of the Damodar (Jharkhand - West Bengal); the Son (Madhya Pradesh–Chhatisgarh); the Mahanadi (Orissa), the Godavari (Andhra Pradesh) and the Wardha (Maharashtra).

Tertiary coalfields occur in the extra-peninsular areas which include Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Sikkim. Besides lignite or brown coal are found in coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and in land basins of Rajasthan.

9. Which of the following states has the second largest coal fields in India after Jharkhand?
a. West Bengal
b. Bihar
c. Odisha
d. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: a

Explanation: 

Jharkhand ranks highest in production as well as reserves of coal in India. The coal deposits of Jharkhand mainly occur in Dhanbad, Hazaribagh and Palamu district. In Dhanbad district the most important coalfields of Jharia and Chandrapura are located.

The oldest coal field of Raniganj is situated in West Bengal. It is the second largest coalfield in India. Raniganj coalfield stretches over Burdwan and Purulia districts. In Chhatisgarh, coal deposits occur in Bilaspur and Sarguja districts.

In Madhya Pradesh, coal deposits are found in Sidhi, Shahdol and Chhindwara districts. Singrauli coalfield in Shadhol and Sidhi districts is the largest in the state. In Andhra Pradesh, coal occurs in the district of Adilabad, Karimnagar, Warangal, Khammam and West Godavari. In Orissa, Talcher is an important coal field.

Other coal field are in Sambalpur and Sundargarh districts. In Maharashtra the coal fields are found in the districts of Chandrapura, Yeotmal and Nagpur.

10. With reference to the coal reserves in India which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Coal is used as raw material in chemical and fertiliser industries and in the production of thousands of items of daily use.
b. Coals are mainly found in the Gondwana and Tertiary coal field.
c. The states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa are the leading producers of coal.
d. The bulk of lignite reserves are found in and around Kolar in Karnataka.

Answer: d

Explanation:

Coal is used as raw material in chemical and fertiliser industries and in the production of thousands of items of daily use. Coals are mainly found in the Gondwana and Tertiary coal field.

The states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa are the leading producers of coal. The bulk of lignite reserves are found in and around Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.


11. Consider the following statements regarding the modern industrial development in India:
I. The modern industrial development in India started with the establishment of the first cotton textile mill at Mumbai in 1854, predominantly with Indian capital and entrepreneurship.
II. Jute industry made a beginning in 1855 with the establishment of a jute mill in the Hooghly Valley near Kolkata with foreign capital and entrepreneurship.
III. Coal mining was first started at Raniganj in 1772 while Railways were introduced in 1854.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

The modern industrial development in India started with the establishment of the first cotton textile mill at Mumbai in 1854, predominantly with Indian capital and entrepreneurship.

Jute industry made a beginning in 1855 with the establishment of a jute mill in the Hooghly Valley near Kolkata with foreign capital and entrepreneurship. Coal mining was first started at Raniganj in 1772. Railways were introduced in 1854.

Tata Iron and Steel Plant was set up at Jamshedpur in 1907. Several other medium and small size industries like cement, glass, soaps, chemicals, jute, sugar and paper followed. The industrial production in pre-independence period was neither adequate nor diversified.

12. Consider the following statement regarding the industrial development and planning in India after independence:
I. After independence, systematic industrial planning under different five year plans helped in establishing a large number of heavy and medium industries.
II. The main thrust of the industrial policy was to remove regional imbalances and to introduce diversification of industries.
III. Indigenous capabilities were developed to achieve self sufficiency.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

After independence, systematic industrial planning under different five year plans helped in establishing a large number of heavy and medium industries. The main thrust of the industrial policy was to remove regional imbalances and to introduce diversification of industries.

Indigenous capabilities were developed to achieve self sufficiency. It is due to these efforts that India has been able to develop in the field of industry. Today, we export a large number of industrial goods to various countries.


13. Which one of the following is a consumer industry?
a. Petro-chemicals
b. Chittranjan Locomotives
c. Sugar Industry
d. Iron and steel

Answer: c

Explanation: 

Finished products of Consumer goods industry are directly used by individuals. Iron and steel and Petro-chemicals industries are basic goods industries because the finished products of basic industry are used as raw material for other industries.
Chittranjan Locomotives is a public sector industry because it is owned managed by government of India.

14. Which one of the following is a small scale industry?
a. Sugar
b. Cotton
c. Ceiling Fans
d. Paper

Answer: c

Explanation: 

Small Scale industries are those in which the industrial undertakings having fixed investment in plant and machinery, whether held on ownership basis or lease basis or hire purchase basis not exceeding Rs. 1 crore.

15. Consider the following statement regarding the textile industry in India:
I. Textile industry is the largest industry in the unorganized sector.
II. Textile industry is comprises of cotton textile, woollen textile, silk textile, synthetic fibres, jute fibres etc.
III. Textiles have been a major component of the industrial sector which accounts for nearly a fifth of the industrial output and a third of the export earnings.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: c

Explanation:

Textile industry is the largest industry in the organized sector. It comprises of (i) cotton textiles, (ii) woolen textiles, (iii) silk textiles (iv) synthetic fibres and (v) jute textile industries.

Textiles have been a major component of the industrial sector. It accounts for nearly a fifth of the industrial output and a third of the export earnings. In term of employment, it comes next only to agriculture sector.

16. Consider the following statement regarding the cotton textile industry in India:
I. The industrial development in India began with the establishment of first successful modern cotton textile mill at Mumbai in 1854.
II. The numbers cotton textile mills increased from 378 in 1952 to 1782 by March 1998.
III. It provides employment opportunity to a large number of people which is about one fifth of the total industrial labour is absorbed by this industry.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: c

Explanation:

The industrial development in India began with the establishment of first successful modern cotton textile mill at Mumbai in 1854. Since then the industry has witnessed a phenomenal growth. The numbers of mills increased from 378 in 1952 to 1782 by March 1998.

Cotton textiles have an important place in the economy of the country. It provides employment opportunities to a large number of people. About one fifth of the total industrial labour is absorbed by this industry.

17. Which of the following states is the largest producer of cotton textile in the country?
a. Gujarat
b. Maharashtra
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Punjab

Answer: b

Explanation: 

Maharashtra is the leading producer of cotton textile in the country. Mumbai is the major centre of textile mills. About a half of the Cotton textile mills are located in Mumbai alone. It is, therefore, rightly called as ‘Cottonpolis’ of India. Sholapur, Kohlapur, Nagpur, Pune, Aurangabad and Jalgaon are other important centres in Maharashtra.

Gujarat, which ranks second in the production of cotton textiles, Ahamedabad is the major centre of the state. Surat, Bharauch, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Rajkot are other centres in the state.

Tamil Nadu has emerged as an important producer of cotton textiles in sourthern states. Coimbatore is an important centre in the state. Tirunelveli, Chennai, Madurai, Tiruchirapalli, Salem and Thanjavour are other important centers here

18. Consider the following statements regarding the sugar industry in India:
I. Sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry of India.
II. If included the production of Gur, Khandsari and Sugar together, then India becomes the largest producer of sugar product in the world.
III. Maharashtra is the most important state in the peninsular India producing about one fourth of the total sugar production in India.
 

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

Sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry of India. If we take Gur, Khandsari and Sugar together, then India becomes the largest producer of sugar product in the world. In 2003, there were about 453 sugar mills in the country. This industry employs about 2.5 lakh people.

Maharashtra is the most important state in the peninsular India producing about one fourth of the total sugar production in India. Major centres of sugar production are Nasik, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur.

19. Consider the following statements regarding the iron and steel industry in India:
I. The modern iron and steel industry started with the establishment of ‘Bengal Iron and Steel Works’ at Kulti in West Bengal in 1817.
II. Tata Iron and Steel company was established at Jamshedpur in 1907 followed by ‘Indian Iron and Steel plant’ at Burnpur in 1919 and ‘Indian Iron and Steel plant’ at Burnpur in 1919.
III. The first public sector iron and steel plant, which is now known as ‘Visvesvarayya Iron and Steel works’, was established at Bhadrawati in 1923.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

Iron and steel industry is a basic industry and its products serve as a raw material for a number of other industries. Although iron and steel manufacturing activity in India is very old, modern iron and steel industry started with the establishment of ‘Bengal Iron and Steel Works’ at Kulti in West Bengal in 1817.

Tata Iron and Steel company was established at Jamshedpur in 1907. This was followed by ‘Indian Iron and Steel plant’ at Burnpur in 1919. All the three plants were established in the private sector. The first public sector iron and steel plant, which is now known as ‘Visvesvarayya Iron and Steel works’, was established at Bhadrawati in 1923.

20. Consider the following statements regarding the iron and steel industry in India:
I. Indian Petro-Chemical Corporation has set up a huge petro-chemical complex near vadodara producing a wide range of products.
II. India is self sufficient in the production of petro-chemicals.
III. The only private oil refineries belong to Reliance Industries Ltd. is located at Jamnagar (Gujarat).

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

Petro-chemicals industry is one of the fastest growing industries of India. This industry has revolutionised the industrial scene by providing the products which are substituting the traditional raw materials like wood, glass and metals. Its products meet various needs of the people at the low cost.

Petro-chemicals are derived from petroleum or natural gas. We use a variety of products from morning till evening made from petrochemicals Toothbrushes, toothpaste, combs, hairpins, soap cases, plastic mugs, garments, radiocaes, ball point pens, detergents, electric switches, lipstick, insecticides, bags, bed covers, and foam are some of the goods made from petro-chemicals.

Indian Petro-Chemical Corporation has set up a huge petro-chemical complex near vadodara producing a wide range of products. Besides Vadodara, Gandhar, and Hazira in Gujarat and Nagathone in Maharashtra are other important centres of petro-chemical industry. India is self sufficient in the production of petro-chemicals.

Crude oil has no value unless it is refined, while refining crude oil; thousands of products like kerosene, diesel, lubricants and raw material for petro-chemical industry are derived. India has at present 18 refineries.

Industries can be classified into different categories on the basis, such as of sources of raw material, ownership, functions, size of industry and weight of raw material and finished products. Since India is still an agricultural country, it has developed various agro-based industries such as cotton textile, woolen textile, jute textile and sugar industry.

21. Which of the following country is the largest producer of sugar in the world?
a. Brazil
b. India
c. Pakistan
d. China

Answer: b

Explanation: 

The production of sugar depends upon the production of sugarcane and it fluctuates with the fluctuations in the production of sugarcane. The total sugar production in 1950-51 was 11.3 lakh tonnes. It increased to 201.32 lakh tonnes in 2002-2003.In 2003-04, it fell down to 138 lakh tonnes.

22. Consider the following reasons of shifting of sugar industry from North India to Peninsular India:
I. The production of sugarcane per hectare is higher is Peninsular India. In fact, sugarcane crop grows well in the tropical climate of south India.
II. The sucrose content is higher in the tropical variety of sugarcane grown in the south.
III. Most of the mills in Peninsular India are in cooperative sector, where profit maximization is not the sole objective.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

The production of sugarcane per hectare is higher is Peninsular India. In fact, sugarcane crop grows well in the tropical climate of south India. The sucrose content is higher in the tropical variety of sugarcane grown in the south.

The crushing season in south India is longer than in north India. In south India most of the mills have modern machinery. Most of the mills in Peninsular India are in cooperative sector, where profit maximization is not the sole objective.

 



23. Which of the following places the steel plant was established just after independence of India?
a. Bhilai
b. Raurkela
c. Durgapur
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation: 

The iron and steel industry made rapid progress after independence. The production capacity has increased in all the existing units. Three new integrated steel plants were established at Rourkela, Bhilai and Durgapur. Bokaro steel plant was established under public sector in 1964.

Bokaro and Bhilai plants were set up with the collaboration of the former Soviet Union. Durgapur steel plant was set up in Collaboration with United Kingdom while Rourkela plant was established with the help of Germany. Vishakhapattnam and Salem plants were set up afterwards.

24. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Economic liberalisation industrialisation in India:
I. The process of industrialization in India can be divided into two parts – before and after 1992.
II. In August 1992, Government of India took a bold step by changing its economic policies from state control to market forces.
III. The immediate cause of these changes in economic policy was to tide over balance of payment crises but having wide social, economic, political and geographical implications.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

The process of industrialization in India can be divided into two parts – before and after 1992. During first forty years after independence the Indian economy had diversified and expanded very fast. But this growth was characterized by rigid controls and regulations. In August 1992, Government of India took a bold step by changing its economic policies from state control to market forces.

A need was felt to give more responsibility to private capital and enterprise, both domestic as well as foreign. In response to this, the new industrial policy of liberalization, privatisation and globalization was adopted in August 1992. The immediate cause of these changes in economic policy was to tide over balance of payment crises but having wide social, economic, political and geographical implications.

25. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of cotton textile industry in India:
I. These mills are located in more than 88 centres in different parts of the country.
II. Majority of cotton textile mills are still located in the cotton growing areas of the Great Plains and peninsular India.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II

Answer: c

Explanation:

Cotton textile industry is one of the most widely distributed industries in our country. These mills are located in more than 88 centres in different parts of the country But majority of cotton textile mills are still located in the cotton growing areas of the Great Plains and peninsular India.

Maharashtra is the leading producer of cotton textile in the country. Mumbai is the major centre of textile mills. About a half of the Cotton textile mills are located in Mumbai alone. It is, therefore, rightly called as ‘Cottonpolis’ of India. Sholapur, Kohlapur, Nagpur, Pune, Aurangabad and Jalgaon are other important centres in Maharashtra.

26. Which of the following state is the second largest producer of cotton in India after Maharashtra?
a. Gujarat
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: a

Explanation: 

Gujarat, which ranks second in the production of cotton textiles, Ahamedabad is the major centre of the state. Surat, Bharauch, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Rajkot are other centres in the state.

Tamil Nadu has emerged as an important producer of cotton textiles in sourthern states. Coimbatore is an important centre in the state. Tirunelveli, Chennai, Madurai, Tiruchirapalli, Salem and Thanjavour are other important centres here.

27. Which of the following industry is the second largest agro-based industry of India?
a. Steel and iron
b. Sugar
c. Cotton textile
d. Petro Chemical

Answer: b

Explanation: 

Sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry of India. If we take Gur, Khandsari and Sugar together, then India becomes the largest producer of sugar product in the world. In 2003, there were about 453 sugar mills in the country. This industry employs about 2.5 lakh people.

28. Consider the following statements regarding the factors responsible for localisation of sugar industry in India:
I. Sugar mills can be set up only in the sugarcane producing areas.
II. It can neither be stored nor kept for long period of time.
III. The production of sugarcane per hectare is higher is Peninsular India.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Both I and II
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

The following are the factors for the localization of sugar industry:
1) Sugarcane is the main raw material for making sugar. Sugar mills can be set up only in the sugarcane producing areas. Sugarcane gets dry soon after harvesting. It can neither be stored nor kept for long period of time. Sugarcane should be taken immediately to the sugar mills after harvesting.
2) Transportation cost of sugarcane is high. Generally sugarcane is transported through bullock carts which can carry it upto 20-25 kilometers. Recently tractor trolleys and trucks have been used to carry sugarcane to the sugar mills.

Beside these factors, capital, market, labour and power also play significant role in localization of this industry.

29. Consider the following facts about Agro-based industries in India:
I. Agro-based industries use agricultural products as their raw material.
II. Cotton textile industry is the largest industry of organised sector in India.
III. Large number of sugar mills is located in Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and Bihar.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. Only II
c. Both I and II
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

Agro-based industries use agricultural products as their raw material. Cotton textile industry is the largest industry of organised sector in India.

Cotton textile industry is widely distributed in India. Large numbers of sugar mills are located in Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and Bihar.

30. Kulti is known for the iron and steel works located in which of the following states of India?
a. Jharkand
b. Bihar
c. West Bengal
d. Chhattisgarh

Answer: c

Explanation: 

Iron and steel industry is a basic industry and its products serve as a raw material for a number of other industries. Although iron and steel manufacturing activity in India is very old, modern iron and steel industry started with the establishment of ‘Bengal Iron and Steel Works’ at Kulti in West Bengal in 1817.

Tata Iron and Steel Company was established at Jamshedpur in 1907. This was followed by ‘Indian Iron and Steel plant’ at Burnpur in 1919. All the three plants were established in the private sector. The first public sector iron and steel plant, which is now known as ‘Visvesvarayya Iron and Steel works’, was established at Bhadrawati in 1923.


31. Consider the following statements regarding latitudes and longitudes?

1. Longitudes are angular distance of a place from the equator.
2. Latitudes are angular distance of a place from the prime meridian.
 

Choose the incorrect statement(s)?

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

Latitude of a place is measured as the angular distance of the place from the equator. All latitudes also called as parallels are concentric circles.
Equator is the largest latitude of earth dividing the earth in two equal halves. Longitude of a place is measured as the angular distance of the place from the prime meridian .Longitudes also known as meridians play a significant role in measuring the time zone of an area. 0 degree longitude is Greenwich in UK and 180 degree is the International Date Line.

32. Daylight saving time (DST) is the practice of advancing clocks during summer months by one hour .Why is Daylight saving time practice prevalent in many temperate countries?

1. To increase the average working hours of the employees.
2. To conserve energy by utilizing the day light and reduce evening use of incandescent lighting.
3. To compensate is variation in day length experienced from season to season.

Choose the correct statement(s)?

a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

Daytime saving has nothing to do with increase working hours. The working hours remain the same but the shift becomes one hour ahead.
Daylight saving time (DST) or summer time is the practice of advancing clocks during summer months by one hour so that evening daylight lasts an hour longer i.e fully utilizing the surplus sunlight in summers while compensating the short day length in winters. Typically, regions with summer time adjust clocks forward one hour close to the start of spring and adjust them backward in the autumn to standard time. People use the terms "spring forward" and "fall back" when referring to this.

33. Consider the following statements regarding the Standard Time Zones?

a) Every country calculates its Standard meridian as the angular distance from the Greenwich meridian.
b) Every country has only one Standard Meridian Time.
c) Indian Standard time is 5.5 hours ahead of Greenwich Meridian Time.
d) Both (a) and(c)
 

Answer: d

Explanation:

The number of time zones a country practices mostly depends on the size of the country .For example, it’s impossible for a country as huge as Russia with the area of 17.1 million km⊃2; to process on only one time zone –this might create a problem of day-night difference within the same country .So Russia has 11 time zones and USA has 6 time zones. However there are certain exceptions like china which works on only one time zone despite its size. Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.58° E longitude and its uniform all around the country.

34. If the International Date Line was a straight line, which of the following islands would have experienced a two-date problem within the same time zone?

a) Wrangel Island
b) Aleutian Islands
c) Kiribati islands
d) All of the above
 

Answer: d

Explanation:

The International Date Line is an imaginary line of longitude on the Earth’s surface located at about 180 degrees east (or west) of the Greenwich Meridian and marks the divide where the date changes by one day. It makes some deviations from the 180-degree meridian to avoid dividing countries in two, especially in the Polynesia region.
The time difference between either sides of the International Date Line is not always exactly 24 hours because of local time zone variations.
If you travel around the world, changing standard time by one hour each time you enter a new time zone, then a complete circuit would mean that you adjusted your clock or watch time by 24 hours. This would lead to a difference of one day between the date on your clock and the real calendar date. To avoid this, countries are on either side of the International Date Line which runs down the middle of the Pacific Ocean. If you cross the date line moving east, you subtract a day, whereas if you are moving west you add a day.


35. A significant variation is seen in the length of day night time from season to season .what among the below statements is the most appropriate reason of this variation?

a) Earth’s rotation on its axis
b) Earth’s revolution around the sun in an elliptical manner
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Revolution of earth on a tilted axis

Answer: b

Explanations

The earth’s revolution in the inclined position in the elliptical orbit leads to variation in the length of day and nights all over the globe.
As the earth axis makes an angle of 66 1/2 degrees with the plane of elliptic, during the month of June when it is summer over the northern hemisphere, the sun rays directly fall on the tropic of cancer. So this leads to longer days and shorter nights in the northern hemisphere area leading to increase in the day light as well. Length of day and night does vary according to the season and latitudinal position. At the equator the day and night are mostly of same lengths all round the year.

36. Every country calculates its Standard meridian as the angular distance from the Greenwich meridian.If it is12 noon at GMT what is the time on Indian Standard Time?

a) 5:30 P.M
b) 5:00 P.M
c) 5:20 P.M
d 5:30 A.M

Answer: a

Explanation:

As we know Earth rotates 360 ° in 24 hours,
Per hour earth will cover (360/24 ) 15°degrees.
Therefore,
15 degree= 1 hour and
1 degree = 4 minutes

Now according to the given problem , we know while moving east from Greenwich the time increases .
So difference between GMT and IST(82.5 degree)= 82.5-0 is 82.5 degrees
And 1 degree =1/15 hours
So 82.5 degree= 1/15 X 82.5=5.5
That is 5 and a half hour ahead
So, 5:30 P.M

37.Consider the statements regarding equator of the Earth:

1. Equator is the largest latitude of earth dividing the earth in two equal halves.
2. The equator is the only line of latitude which is also a great circle.
3. Sites near the Equator are good locations for spaceports as they have a faster revolution speed than other latitudes.

Choose the correct statements?

a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) None of the above
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

Latitude of a place is measured as the angular distance of the place from the equator. All latitudes also called as parallels are concentric circles. So,
Equator is the largest latitude of earth. The equator is the only line of latitude which is also a great circle — that is, one whose plane passes through the center of the globe. The plane of Earth's equator when projected outwards to the celestial sphere defines the celestial equator.
Sites near the Equator, such as the Guiana Space Centre in Kourou, French Guiana, are good locations for spaceports as they have a faster rotational speed than other latitudes; the added velocity reduces the fuel needed to launch spacecraft. Because the Earth spins to the east, spacecraft must also launch to the east (or to the southeast or northeast) to take advantage of this Earth-boost of speed.

38. Through which one of the following groups of Asian countries does Tropic of cancer pass?

a) India, Saudi Arabia and Sri Lanka
b) India, Bangladesh and Indonesia
c) Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates and Oman
d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Tropic of Cancer position is not fixed, but varies in a complicated manner over time. It drifts south almost half an arc second of latitude per year .North of the tropic are the subtropics and the North Temperate Zone. The equivalent line of latitude south of the Equator is called the Tropic of Capricorn, and the region between the two, centered on the Equator, is the tropics.
Starting at the Prime Meridian and heading eastward, the Tropic of Cancer passes through 16 countries:

Algeria

Myanmar

Bahamas

Saudi Arabia

Niger

China

India

Bangladesh

Libya

Taiwan

Mauritania

United Arab Emirates

Egypt

Mexico

Oman

Mali


39.Consider the following statements regarding the Chaibagaan Time:

1. Chaibagaan time is 1 hour ahead of Indian standard time.
2. Administration of the Indian state of West Bengal now wants to change it’s time zone back to Chaibagaan time to conserve energy and improve productivity by optimizing the usage of daytime.

Choose the incorrect statement(s)?

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
 

Answer: a

Explanation:

Chaibagaan Time was a daylight schedule introduced by the British tea planters more than 150 years ago which was one hour ahead of IST.
This was done to improve productivity by optimizing the usage of daytime. Since Independence, Assam has been following IST for the past 66 years.
Recently, the administration of the Indian state of Assam now wants to change it’s time zone back to Chaibagaan time to conserve energy and improve productivity. Indian government didn’t accept to such a proposal.
40. Consider the following statements?

1. A person travelling from India to USA across International Date Line will gain a day.
2. A person travelling from Mexico to New Zealand will lose a day.
3. On a 12 hour clock, the time is 05:30 in Delhi. Then the time in London on a 24 hour clock will be 00:00.
 

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

a) All the statements are correct
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
 

Answer: a

Explanation:

The International Date Line is an imaginary line of longitude on the Earth’s surface which marks the divide where the date changes by one day. It makes some deviations from the 180-degree meridian to avoid dividing countries in two zones. If you cross the date line moving east, you subtract a day, whereas if you are moving west you add a day.
So, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
As we know Earth rotates 360 ° in 24 hours,
Per hour earth will cover (360/24) 15°degrees.
Therefore,
15 degree= 1 hour and
1 degree = 4 minutes

Now according to the given problem, we know while moving east from Greenwich the time increases.
So difference between GMT and IST (82.5 degree)= 82.5-0 is 82.5 degrees
And 1 degree =1/15 hours
So 82.5 degree= 1/15 X 82.5=5.5
That is 5 and a half hour ahead
So, 5:30 P.M

41. The sequence of energy transfer from the lower level to the higher tropic level is called
a. Food web
b. Food Chain
c. Respiration
d. None

Answer. b

Explanation: 

In an eco-system, continuous interaction goes on between components and sub-components which involve the flow of energy. Food chain is one such example in which transfer of energy takes place in a sequential manner in one trophic level to those in another trophic level. In a food chain the members at the successive higher levels become smaller in number. When the numbers at successive levels are plotted, they assume the shape of a pyramid; hence it is called food pyramid.

42. When the feeding relationship in a natural ecosystem becomes complicated, this situation is called
a. Ecological Pyramid
b. Ecological Relationship
c. Food Web
d. None

Answer. c

Explanation:

The above said food chains are very simple food chain but food chains are not always so simple and isolated sequences. Several inter-connected and overlapping food chains present a complicated pattern. Such patterns are called food web. 43. Which of the following deals with the relationship between the number of primary producers and consumers?
a. Ecological Pyramid
b. Food Chain
c. Food Web
d. habitat

Answer. a

Explanation: 

Ecological pyramid is the way of representation of different organisms having different trophic level and transfer of energy from one tropic level to another. It should also be noted that energy flow along the pyramid always remains unilateral and approx 10% is transfer from each tropic level.
The ecological pyramid deals with the relationship with the number of primary producers and consumers (herbivores and carnivores) of different orders.

44. Who among the following is considered as the father of evolutionary theory?
a. Beagle
b. Russel Wallace
c. Charles Darwin
d. None

Answer. c

Explanation: 

It is assumed that no one has influenced the knowledge of life on Earth as much as the English naturalist Sir Charles Darwin (1809-1882). His theory of evolution by natural selection, now the unifying theory of the life sciences, explained where all of the astonishingly diverse kinds of living things came from and how they became exquisitely adapted to their particular environments. The theory evolution reconciled a host of diverse kinds of evidence such as the progressive fossil record, geographical distribution of species, recapitulative appearances in embryology, homologous structures, vestigial organs and nesting taxonomic relationships. No other explanation before or since has made sense of these facts.

45. Which among the following are the main agents of transportation of seeds?
I. Wind
II. Birds and animals
III. Running water and ocean current
IV. Human beings
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I, II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation: 

The main agents of transportation of seeds are wind, birds, animals, running water, ocean currents and human beings. They transport seeds of various kinds in varying amounts in different parts of the world.

46. Which of the following is considered the richest native wildlife in the world?
a. Tropical Rain forest
b. Tropical Grasslands
c. Boreal Forest
d. Temperate Grasslands
 

Answer: b

Explanation: 

47. Match the following correctly
A. Bateleur Bird i. Indian Subcontinent
B. Bison ii. Amazon Basin
C. Piranhas iii. Africa
D. Bustard iv. North America

Codes:
A B C D
a. i ii iii iv
b. ii i iv iii
c. iii iv ii i
d. iv iii ii i

Answer: c

Explanation:

The bateleur is a medium-sized eagle in the family Accipitridae. Its closest relatives are the snake eagles. It is the only member of the genus Terathopius and may be the origin of the "Zimbabwe Bird", national emblem of Zimbabwe. It is endemic to Africa and small parts of Arabia. "Bateleur" is French for "Street Performer".

48.A large terrestrial or aquatic ecosystem characterized by specific plant communities and formations is called
a. Biosphere
b. Biome
c. Ecosystem
d. None

Answer: b

Explanation: 

A large terrestrial or aquatic ecosystem characterized by specific plant communities and formations is called Biome. Usually named after the dominate vegetation in a region. It includes all plants, animals and soils where all the biota has minimum common characteristics.

49. Match the following correctly
(a) Grasshopper (i) Tertiary Consumer
(b) Frog (ii) Primary Consumer
(c) Vulture (iii) Secondary Consumer

Codes:
A B C
a. i ii iii
b. ii iii i
c. iii iv ii
d. iv iii ii

Answer: b

Explanation: 

Primary Consumer are those which feed on green plants ( autographs) e.g- grasshopper, insects etc Secondary Consumers are those which feed a primary consumer e.g. frog, lizard etc. Tertiary consumers are those that feed on secondary consumers e.g. vulture.

 

50. Which of the following are correctly matched?

a)The moon- The big Splat theory
b)Origin of universe- The Big Bang theory
c)Evolution of earth- The Nebula Hypothesis
d)All are correctly matched

Answer: d

Explanation:

In 1950, Otto Schmidt and Carl Weizascar gave the ‘nebular hypothesis’, that the sun was surrounded by solar nebula containing mostly the hydrogen and helium along with what may be termed as dust. The friction and collision of particles led to formation of a disk-shaped cloud and the planets were formed through the process of accretion. The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called expanding universe hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920, provided evidence that the universe is expanding. It is generally believed that the formation of moon, as a satellite of the earth, is an outcome of ‘giant impact’ or what is described as “the big splat”.
 

51. Arrange the following in the order of shortest to longest duration on Geological Time Scale?

(a)Epoch-Period-Era-Eons
(b)Eons-Era-Period-Epoch
(c)Epoch-Eons-Period-Era
(d)Era-Period-Epoch-Eons
 

Answer: a

Explanation:

The geological time scale (GTS) is a system of chronological dating that relates geological strata to time, and is used by geologists to describe the timing and relationships of events that have occurred during Earth’s history.
Evidence from radiometric dating indicates that Earth is about 4.54 billion years old. The deep of Earth’s past has been organized into various units according to events which took place in each period. Different spans of time on the GTS are usually marked by changes in the composition of strata which correspond to those, and indicate major geological events such as mass extinctions.
52. Consider the following statements regarding Nebular theory of Laplace?

1.The sun was surrounded by solar nebula containing mostly the hydrogen and silicon.
2.The collision of particle led to formation of a disk-shaped cloud and planets were formed through the process of accretion.
 

Choose the correct statements?

a)Only 1
b)Only 2
c)Both 1 and 2
d)None of the above
 

Answer: b

Explanation:

Nebular Hypothesis considered that the planets were formed out of a cloud of material associated with a youthful sun, which was slowly rotating. Later in 1950, Otto Schmidt in Russia and Carl Weizascar in Germany somewhat revised the ‘nebular hypothesis’, though differing in details.
1.They considered that the sun was surrounded by solar nebula containing mostly the hydrogen and helium along with what may be termed as dust.
2.The friction and collision of particles led to formation of a disk-shaped cloud and the planets were formed through the process of accretion.
 

53. Which one of the following processes is related to the formation or modification of the present atmosphere?

a)Solar winds
b)Degassing
c)Photosynthesis
d)All of the above
 

Answer: d

Explanation:

The present composition of earth’s atmosphere is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen. The first stage is marked by the loss of primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis.
The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off as a result of the solar winds. During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing. Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere.
 

54. Choose the correct statements regarding inner planets?

a)Planets between the sun and the earth.
b)Planets between the sun and the belt of asteroids.
c)Planets in gaseous state.
d)Planets without satellite(s)
 

Answer: b

Explanation:

Our Solar system consists of eight planets. Our solar system consists of the sun (the star), 8 planets, 63 moons, millions of smaller bodies like asteroids and comets and huge quantity of dust-grains and gases. Out of the eight planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are called as the inner planets as they lie between the sun and the belt of asteroids the other four planets are called the outer planets. Alternatively, the first four are called Terrestrial, meaning earth-like as they are made up of rock and metals, and have relatively high densities. The rest four are called Jovian or Gas Giant planets. Jovian means Jupiter-like.


55. Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of Terrestrial Planets?

1.The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star where it was too warm for gases to condense to solid particles.
2.The terrestrial planets are larger than Jovian planets and their lower gravity could hold the escaping gases.
 

Choose the correct statement?

a)Only 1
b)Only 2
c)Both1 and 2
d)None of the above
 

Answer: a

Explanation:

The first four planets are called Terrestrial, meaning earth-like as they are made up of rock and metals, and have relatively high densities. The rest four are called Jovian or Gas Giant planets. Jovian means Jupiter-like. Most of them are much larger than the terrestrial planets and have thick atmosphere, mostly of helium and hydrogen.
(i) The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star where it was too warm for gases to condense to solid particles. Jovian planets were formed at quite a distant location.
(ii) The solar wind was most intense nearer the sun; so, it blew off lots of gas and dust from the terrestrial planets. The solar winds were not all that intense to cause similar removal of gases from the Jovian planets.
(iii) The terrestrial planets are smaller and their lower gravity could not hold the escaping gases.
 

56. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding formation of stars?

a)A galaxy (large number of stars) starts to form by accumulation of helium gas.
b)The formation of stars is believed to have taken place some 5-6 million years ago.
c)The initial density difference in early universe is the core reason for star formation.
d)Both (a) and(b)
 

Answer: d

Explanation:

The distribution of matter and energy was not even in the early universe. These initial density differences gave rise to differences in gravitational forces and it caused the matter to get drawn together. These formed the bases for development of galaxies. A galaxy contains a large number of stars. Galaxies spread over vast distances that are measured in thousands of light-years. A galaxy starts to form by accumulation of hydrogen gas in the form of a very large cloud called nebula. Eventually, growing nebula develops localized clumps of gas. These clumps continue to grow into even denser gaseous bodies, giving rise to formation of stars. The formation of stars is believed to have taken place some 5-6 billion years ago.
 

57. What are ‘planetesimals’ associated with theories of planet formations?

a)They are formed by cohesion of small rounded bodies of condensed gas cloud with the matter around the core.
b)They are a combined object formed around the comets and meteorites.
c)Large number of dwarf planets form one planetesimal.
d)None of the above
 

Answer: a

Explanation:

Development of planets:
(i) The stars are localized lumps of gas within a nebula. The gravitational force within the lumps leads to the formation of a core to the gas cloud and a huge rotating disc of gas and dust develops around the gas core.
(ii) In the next stage, the gas cloud starts getting condensed and the matter around the core develops into small rounded objects. These small-rounded objects by the process of cohesion develop into what is called planetesimals. Larger bodies start forming by collision, and gravitational attraction causes the material to stick together. Planetesimals are a large number of smaller bodies.
(iii) In the final stage, these large number of small planetesimals accrete to form a fewer large bodies in the form of planets.
 

58.Seismology helps us understand the origin and intensity of earth’s interior. Consider the following statements regarding Seismic waves?

1.All seismic waves are mechanical waves and require medium to propagate.
2.Their behavior change with the change in medium
 

Choose the correct option?
a)Only 1
b)Only 2
c)Both 1 and 2
d)None of the above
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

Seismic waves are waves of energy that travel through the Earth's layers, and are a result of earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, magma movement, large landslides and large man-made explosions that give out low-frequency acoustic energy. Seismic wave fields are recorded by a seismometer, hydrophone (in water), or accelerometer.
The propagation velocity of the waves depends on density and elasticity of the medium. Velocity tends to increase with depth and ranges from approximately 2 to 8 km/s in the Earth's crust, up to 13 km/s in the deep mantle. The refraction or reflection of seismic waves is used for research into the structure of the Earth's interior, and man-made vibrations are often generated to investigate shallow, subsurface structures.

59. Which of the following statements regarding our solar system are incorrect?

a)The distance between celestial bodies are measured by light years.
b)All the planets were formed in the same period sometime.
c)Our Solar system consists of nine planets.
d)All the statements are correct
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

Our Solar system consists of eight planets. The nebula from which our Solar system is supposed to have been formed started its collapse and core formation some time 5-5.6 billion years ago and the planets were formed about 4.6 billion years ago. Our solar system consists of the sun (the star), 8 planets, 63 moons, millions of smaller bodies like asteroids and comets and huge quantity of dust-grains and gases. All the planets were formed in the same period sometime about 4.6 billion years ago. Till recently (August 2006), Pluto was also considered a planet. However, in a meeting of the International Astronomical Union, a decision was taken that Pluto like other celestial objects discovered in recent past may be called ‘dwarf planet’.

60. Seismology helps us understand the origin and intensity of earth’s interior. Consider the following statements regarding Seismic waves?

1. All seismic waves are mechanical waves and require medium to propagate.

2. Their behavior change with the change in medium

Choose the correct option?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: c

Explanation:

Seismic waves are waves of energy that travel through the Earth's layers, and are a result of earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, magma movement, large landslides and large man-made explosions that give out low-frequency acoustic energy. Seismic wave fields are recorded by a seismometer, hydrophone (in water), or accelerometer.

The propagation velocity of the waves depends on density and elasticity of the medium. Velocity tends to increase with depth and ranges from approximately 2 to 8 km/s in the Earth's crust, up to 13 km/s in the deep mantle. The refraction or reflection of seismic waves is used for research into the structure of the Earth's interior, and man-made vibrations are often generated to investigate shallow, subsurface structures.

61. Which of the following seismic waves is correctly matched with its respective property?

1. Secondary Waveà surface seismic waves that cause horizontal shifting of the Earth during an earthquake.

2. Love Waveà can pass through all the mediums.

3. Rayleigh Waveà a type of surface acoustic wave that travel on solids

Choose the correct answer?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Only 3

d) All are correctly matched.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Secondary waves (S-waves) are shear waves that are transverse in nature. S-waves can travel only through solids, as fluids (liquids and gases) do not support shear stresses. S-waves are slower than P-waves, and speeds are typically around 60% of that of P-waves in any given material.

Love waves are surface seismic waves that cause horizontal shifting of the Earth during an earthquake. They form a distinct class, different from other types of seismic waves, such as P-waves and S-waves (both body waves), or Rayleigh waves (another type of surface wave). Love waves travel with a lower velocity than P- or S- waves, but faster than Rayleigh waves.

Rayleigh waves are part of the seismic waves that are produced on the Earth by earthquakes. They are a type of surface acoustic wave that travel on solids. They can be produced in materials in many ways, such as by a localized impact or by piezo-electric transduction, and are frequently used in non-destructive testing for detecting defects.

62. Consider the following statements regarding layered structure of earth:

Inner Core is the densest layer of earth’s interior.

Continental crust is less dense than the oceanic crust.

Choose the correct statements?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Crust is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. The oceanic crust is basalt and the mean density of material in oceanic crust is 2.7 g/cm3.

The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. At the centre of the earth at 6,300 km, the density value is around 13g/cm3. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes referred to as the nife layer.

63. Consider the following statements regarding the gravitation force of the earth:

Gravitation force is not same at different latitudes on the surface.

Gravitational force is greater near the poles and less at the equator.

Choose theincorrectstatements?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth. The gravity values differ according to the mass of material.

The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value. The reading of the gravity at different places differs from the expected values. Such a difference is called gravity anomaly.

The gravitation force is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles.

64.which of the following statements is correct regarding the composition of interior of the Earth?

a) Earth as a whole is composed of mainly iron (Fe) but the earth’s crust consists of mostly oxygen.

b) The temperature and pressure increase with the increasing distance from the surface towards the interior in deeper depths.

c) Continental crust is thicker than oceanic crust.

d) All of the above.

Answer: d

Explanation:

Earth’s elemental composition reflects mostly heavier elements not blown away by solar wind during formation of the solar system. Most abundant elements are Fe, O, Si, Mg and most common minerals consist of silica (SiO2 ) mixed in varying proportions with other elements such as Fe, Mg, Al, Ca, K, Na.

The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. The mean thickness of oceanic crust is 5 km whereas that of the continental is around 30 km. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems.

65. Consider the various sources of information about the interior of the earth:

Seismic Activity

Volcanoes

Gravitational force

Earth magnetism

Meteors

Surface Rocks or Mined Rocks

Which one of the above sources are indirect source of information about the Interior of the Earth?

a) 1,3,4 and 5

b) 1, 2,3 and 5

c) 6 only

d) All of the above

Answer: a

Explanation:

The most easily available solid earth material is surface rock or the rocks we get from mining areas. Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when the molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes available for laboratory analysis.

Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior. Another source of information is the meteors that at times reach the earth. The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials same as, or similar to, our planet. The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity.

66. Which of the following statement is the most appropriate reason of earthquake waves developing a shadow zone?

a) Composition of material in the shadow zone is impermeable.

b) The body waves (p and s waves) follow the Snell’s law when they pass from one medium to another and hence deflect from the path.

c) Secondary waves do not pass through liquid medium (outer core).

d) Both (b) and (c).

Answer: d

Explanation:

The layering of Earth has been inferred indirectly using the time of travel of refracted and reflected seismic waves created by earthquakes. The changes in seismic velocity between different layers causes refraction owing to Snell's law, like light bending as it passes through a prism.

Secondary waves (S-waves) are shear waves that are transverse in nature. S-waves can travel only through solids, as fluids (liquids and gases) do not support shear stresses .S wave shadow zone form the boundary of outer core as it is in liquid state.

67. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. Lithosphere - the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle.

2. Shadow zone - the upper portion of the mantle.

3. Asthenosphere - NIFE layer

Choose the correct answer:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 3

d) All are correctly matched.

Answer: a

Explanation:

The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. It has a density higher than the crusts.

The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km. Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’.

68. Seismic activity is one of the most important sources of information about the interior of the earth. Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the nature of p and s waves:

a) Both P and S can only travel in solid and gas mediums.

b) P waves speed is highest in solid medium.

c) S wave shadow zone form the boundary of outer core as it is in liquid state.

d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: d

Explanation:

Primary waves (P-waves) are compressional waves that are longitudinal in nature. P waves are pressure waves that travel faster than other waves through the earth to arrive at seismograph .These waves can travel through any type of material, including fluids, and can travel at nearly twice the speed of S waves.

Secondary waves (S-waves) are shear waves that are transverse in nature. S-waves can travel only through solids, as fluids (liquids and gases) do not support shear stresses. S-waves are slower than P-waves, and speeds are typically around 60% of that of P-waves in any given material.



69. Magnetic materials in the crustal portion provide information about the distribution of materials in the interior of earth. Which of the following statements is true regarding the earth’s magnetic field?

a) Earth has a dipole magnetic field that deflects solar wind.

b) Flow in the liquid iron outer core creates a magnetic field.

c) Solar wind contains electromagnetic particles that are deflected by earth’s field. These particles distort the shape of earth’s magnetic field in space.

d) All of the above.

Answer: d

Explanation:

Earth’s magnetic field extends from the interior to out into space, where it meets the solar wind, a stream of charged particles emanating from the Sun. The field of a magnetic dipole currently tilted at an angle of about 10 degrees with respect to Earth's rotational axis.

Earth's magnetic field changes over time because it is generated by a geodynamo (in Earth's case, the motion of molten iron alloys in its outer core).While the North and South magnetic poles are usually located near the geographic poles, they can wander widely over geological time scales.

However, at irregular intervals, the Earth's field reverses and the North and South Magnetic Poles relatively abruptly switch places. These reversals of the geomagnetic poles leave a record in rocks that are of value to paleomagnetists in calculating geomagnetic field’s .Such information in turn is helpful in studying the motions of continents and ocean floors.

70.Which type of volcanic eruptions is responsible for Deccan Trap formations in the Indian peninsular region?

a) Shield

b) Flood

c) Composite

d) Caldera

Answer: b

Explanation:

Flood Basalt volcanoes contains highly fluid lava that flows for long distances.. There can be a series of flows with some flows attaining thickness of more than 50 m. Some parts of the world are covered by thousands of sq. km of thick basalt lava flows Individual flows may extend for hundreds of km.

The Deccan Traps from India, presently covering most of the Maharashtra plateau, are a much larger flood basalt province. It is believed that initially the trap formations covered a much larger area than the present.

71. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the type of volcanic eruptions? 

Basaltic eruption occurs at mid oceanic ridge and andesitic eruption occurs at volcanic arcs and mountains.

Andesitic eruption is more fluid and mobile than basaltic eruptions.

Choose the correct statements?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above.

 Answer: a

 Explanation:

Basaltic eruptions are characterized by low gas content and low viscosity magmas. If the viscosity is low, non-explosive eruptions usually begin with fire fountains due to release of dissolved gases. They occur at mid-oceanic ridge and hot spot volcanism. Basalt is highly fluid –mobile and spread across quietly.

When magma reaches the surface of the earth, it is called lava and it flows downhill in response to gravity as it’s in liquid state. Different magma types behave differently as lava flows, depending on their temperature, viscosity, and gas content.

Explosive or andesitic eruptions are favored by high gas content and high. Explosive bursting of bubbles will fragment the magma into clots of liquid that will cool as they fall through the air. These solid particles become pyroclasts (meaning - hot fragments) and tephra or volcanic ash, which refer to sand- sized or smaller fragments.

They occur at volcanic arcs and volcanic mountains. Andesitic is less fluid mobile and solidifies at short distance due to intense pressure developed inside.

72. Which of the following term regarding intrusive volcanic landforms are correctly matched?

Sill- lava solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground.

Phacolith-found at the base of syncline of top of anticline.

Laccoliths-when lava settles in a saucer shape while moving on a horizontal weak plane.

Choose theIncorrect statements?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 3

d) All are correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Laccoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below.

Lopoliths are formed when the lava moves upwards, a portion of the may tend to move in a horizontal direction wherever it finds a weak plane and develops into a saucer shape concave to the sky body.

Phocoliths are wavy mass of intrusive rocks found at the base of synclines or at the top of anticline in folded igneous country.

The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sill or sheet, depending on the thickness of the material.

Dykes are formed when the lava makes its way through cracks and solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground.


73. Match the following:

 List A List B

Calderas 1. Depression by explosive volcanoes

Deccan traps 2. Lava solidified perpendicularly

Dykes 3. Cooling in the crust

Plutonic rocks 4. Flood basalt provinces

Choose the correct answer:

 A B C D

a) 1 2 3 4

b) 1 4 2 3

c) 3 4 2 1

d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Calderas are the most explosive volcanoes. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas.

Flood Basalt Provinces are volcanoes outpour highly fluid lava that flows for long distances. There can be a series of flows with some flows attaining thickness of more than 50 m. The Deccan Traps from India, presently covering most of the Maharashtra plateau, is a much larger flood basalt province.

Dykes are formed when the lava makes its way through cracks and solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure.

The lava that is released during volcanic eruptions on cooling develops into igneous rocks. Depending on the location of the cooling of the lava, igneous rocks are classified as volcanic rocks (cooling at the surface) and plutonic rocks (cooling in the crust).


74. Which of the following is not the reason to induce as earthquake?

a) Reemergence of old fractures in the craton.

b) Small plates frequent interaction in Mediterranean Sea region.

c) Human induced deep sea mining and nuclear testing.

d) All the above can be probable reason to induce quakes.

Answer: d

Explanation:

Mostly earthquakes are caused due to plate boundary interactions like compressive, divergent and transverse boundary.

The release of energy occurs along a fault. A fault is a sharp break in the crustal rocks. Rocks along a fault tend to move in opposite directions. As a result, the blocks get deformed and eventually, they slide past one another abruptly. This causes a release of energy, and the energy wave travel in all directions.

Earthquake-like seismic waves can also be caused by explosions underground. These explosions may be set off to break rock while making tunnels for roads, railroads, subways, or mines. The largest underground explosions, from tests of nuclear warheads (bombs), can create seismic waves very much like large earthquakes.

75. Consider the following statements regarding the types of earthquakes:

Tectonic earthquakes are generated due to sliding of rocks along the fault line.

Collapse earthquakes occur due to chemical or nuclear device explosion.

Choose the correct answer:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: a

Explanation:

Among different types of earthquakes, the most common ones are the tectonic earthquakes. These are generated due to sliding of rocks along a fault plane. A special class of tectonic earthquake is sometimes recognized as volcanic earthquake. However, these are confined to areas of active volcanoes.

In the areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes.

The earthquakes that occur in the areas of large reservoirs are referred to as reservoir induced earthquakes.

Q76. Which of the following statements regarding measurement of earthquakes are correct?

a) The point directly above the focus on the surface is called the epicenter. It the first point to obverse the waves.

b) The richer scale relates to the energy released during quake.

c) The intensity scale relates to the amount of damage caused.

d) All statements are true.

Answer: d

Explanation:

The release of energy occurs along a fault. Rocks along a fault tend to move in opposite directions. As a result, the blocks get deformed and eventually, they slide past one another abruptly. This causes a release of energy, and the point where the energy is released is called the focus of an earthquake, alternatively, it is called the hypocentre. The point on the surface, nearest to the focus, is called epicentre. It is the first one to experience the waves. It is a point directly above the focus.

The earthquake events are scaled either according to the magnitude or intensity of the shock. The magnitude scale is known as the Richter scale. The magnitude relates to the energy released during the quake. The magnitude is expressed in absolute numbers, 0-10. The intensity scale is named after Mercalli, an Italian seismologist. The intensity scale takes into account the visible damage caused by the event. The range of intensity scale is from 1-12.

Q77.Which of the following statement regarding the Pacific Ring of Fire are correct?

a) The Ring of Fire is a direct result of plate tectonics that is the movement and collisions of lithospheric plates.

b) It is the most seismically active region of the world as about 90% of the world's earthquakes occur along the Ring of Fire.

c) The active seismic region of the Indian Himalayas also considered as part of pacific ring of fire.

d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: d

Explanation:

The Ring of Fire is a direct result of plate tectonics: the movement and collisions of lithospheric plates. The Ring of Fire is a major area in the basin of the Pacific Ocean where a large number of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur.

In the horseshoe shape, it is associated with a nearly continuous series of oceanic trenches, volcanic arcs, and volcanic belts and plate movements. It has more than 75% of the world's active and dormant volcanoes and about 90% of the world's earthquakes occur along the Ring of Fire.


The Ring of Fire is sometimes called the circum-Pacific belt. The next most seismically active region (5–6% of earthquakes and 17% of the world's largest earthquakes) is the Alpide belt, which extends from Java to the northern Atlantic Ocean via the Himalayas and southern Europe.

Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the geological phenomenon tsunami?

Tsunami waves have longer wave lengths and hence difficult to discover from off shore.

Tsunami waves are majorly generated due to earthquakes on oceanic crust.

Choose the correct answer:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

Answer: c

Explanation:

The most relevant reason/ cause of tsunamis are large earthquakes at the seafloor, when large slabs of rock are forced to move past each other suddenly causing the overlying water to move. The resulting wave moves outwards and away from this event. Underwater landslides can cause tsunami, and so can land which slumps into the ocean.

The phases of tsunami are shown in the below image:


Q79. Match the following famous places with type of volcanism:

 List A List B

Cinder cone 1. Mt.Fiji

Composite cone 2. Mt. Paricutin

Hot spot volcanism 3. Mt. Etna

Mediterranean volcanism 4. Reunion island

Choose the correct answer:

 A B C D

a) 1 2 3 4

b) 2 1 4 3

c) 3 4 2 1

d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

The oceanic and continental plate collision results violent andesitic volcanic mountains containing cinder cone where viscous lava solidifies at vicinity for example Mt. Paricutin, Mexico.Volcanic Mountains in which each new eruption bring in new layers of ash or lava results in composite cones like Mt. Stromboli, Mt. Vesuvius and Mt. Fuji.

The basaltic highly mobile magma from deep interior is erupted on a fixed hot spot as plate move forming the Island arc in the direction of plate movement. Examples of these island arcs are Hawaii, Reunion, Kurile, Aleutian etc

The Breaking up of Mediterranean plates into multiple blocks causes frequent interactions and andesitic eruption for examples Mt. Etna and Mt. Vesuvius.


80. Consider the following statements regarding the motion of waves and water molecules on the sea surface:

1) Water particles only travel in a small circle as a wave passes.

2) When the depth of water is less than half the wavelength of the wave, the wave breaks.

3) The largest waves are found in enclosed sea.

4) Most of the waves are caused by the wind driving with the water.

Which of the above statements is true?

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 2
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4

Answer: a

Explanation:

Waves are actually the energy, not the water as such, which moves across the ocean surface. Water particles only travel in a small circle as a wave passes. The Wind provides energy to the waves. The Wind causes waves to travel in the ocean and the energy is released on shorelines. The motion of the surface water seldom affects the stagnant deep bottom water of the oceans.

As a wave approaches the beach, it slows down. This is due to the friction occurring between the dynamic water and the sea floor and when the depth of water is less than half the wavelength of the wave, the wave breaks. The largest waves are found in the open oceans. Waves continue to grow larger as they move and absorb energy from the wind.

Most of the waves are caused by the wind driving against water. When a breeze of two knots or less blows over calm water, small ripples form and grow as the wind speed increases until white caps appear in the breaking waves.

81. Which of the following factors influence the movement of ocean water?

1) Temperature
2) Salinity of Ocean
3) Density of Ocean Water
4) Wind System
5) Coriolis Force

Choose the correct codes:

a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1,2,3 and 5
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

The ocean water is dynamic. Its physical characteristics like temperature, salinity, density and the external forces like of the sun, the moon and the winds influence the movement of ocean water. The horizontal and vertical motions are common in ocean water bodies. The horizontal motion refers to the ocean currents and waves. The vertical motion refers to tides.

82. The wave’s size and shape reveal the origin the wave. Consider the following correlations in this regard:

1) Slow and steady waves are fairly young ones and are probably formed by local wind.

2) Steep waves originate from faraway places, possibly from another hemisphere.

Which of the above statements is true?

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Explanation:

A wave’s size and shape reveal its origin. Steep waves are fairly young ones and are probably formed by local wind. Slow and steady waves originate from faraway places, possibly from another hemisphere. The maximum wave height is determined by the strength of the wind, i.e. how long it blows and the area over which it blows in a single direction.

Waves travel because the wind pushes the water body in its course while gravity pulls the crests of the waves downward. The falling water pushes the former troughs upward, and the wave moves to a new position.

The actual motion of the water beneath the waves is circular. It indicates that things are carried up and forward as the wave approaches, and down and back as it passes

83. Tides and surges are the two different types of movement of ocean water. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1) Movement of water caused by meteorological effects is called surges.

2) The periodical rise and fall of the sea level mainly due to the attraction of the sun and the moon is called a tide.

3) Surges are also regular like tides.

Which of the above statements is true?

a. Only 1
b. 1 and 2
c. Only 2
d. Only 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun and the moon, is called a tide. Movement of water caused by meteorological effects (winds and atmospheric pressure changes) are called surges. Surges are not regular like tides. The study of tides is very complex, spatially and temporally, as it has great variations in frequency, magnitude and height.

The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides. Another factor is the centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to counterbalance the gravity.

84. Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of tide-generating forces:

1) The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves have the greater height.

2) The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also magnify the intensity of tides.

3) When tidal bulges hit the mid-oceanic islands they become low.

Which of the above statements is true?

a. Only 1
b. 1 and 2
c. Only 2
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:

The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between these two forces; i.e. the gravitational attraction of the moon and the centrifugal force. On the surface of the earth, nearest the moon, pull or the attractive force of the moon is greater than the centrifugal force, and so there is a net force causing a bulge towards the moon.

On the opposite side of the earth, the attractive force is less, as it is farther away from the moon, the centrifugal force is dominant. Hence, there is a net force away from the moon. It creates the second bulge away from the moon.

On the surface of the earth, the horizontal tide-generating forces are more important than the vertical forces in generating the tidal bulges. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves have a greater height. When tidal bulges hit the mid-oceanic islands they become low.

The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also magnify the intensity of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes. When the tide is channelled between islands or into bays and estuaries they are called tidal currents.

85. Which of the following is not the relevant use of tidal movement?

a. Tidal flows are of great importance in navigation.
b. Tides help in the development of coral reefs.
c. Tides are also helpful in desilting the sediments and in removing polluted water from river estuaries.
d. Tides are used to generate electrical power.

Answer: b

Explanation:

Tides are caused by the earth, moon and sun positions which are known accurately and hence the tides can be predicted well in advance. This helps the navigators and fishermen plan their activities. Tidal flows are of great importance in navigation.

Tidal heights are very important, especially harbours near rivers and within estuaries having shallow ‘bars’ at the entrance, which prevent ships and boats from entering into the harbour. Tides are also helpful in desilting the sediments and in removing polluted water from river estuaries. Tides are used to generate electrical power especially in Canada, France, Russia, and China.

86. Consider the following types of tides based on their frequency of occurrence and their height:

1) In Diurnal tide, there is only one high tide and one low tide during each day.

2) Mixed tides generally occur along the west coast of South-East Asia.

3) In Semi-diurnal tide, successive high or low tides of the same height occur.

Which of the above statements is true?

a. Only 1
b. 1 and 3
c. Only 2
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Tides vary in their frequency, direction and movement from place to place and also from time to time. Tides may be grouped into various types based on their frequency of occurrence in one day or 24 hours or based on their height.

Tides based on Frequency Semidiurnal tide: The most common tidal pattern, featuring two high tides and two low tides each day. The successive high or low tides are approximate of the same height.

Diurnal tide: There is only one high tide and one low tide during each day. The successive high and low tides are approximate of the same height.

Mixed tide: Tides having variations in height are known as mixed tides. These tides generally occur along the west coast of North America and on many islands of the Pacific Ocean.

Tides based on the Sun, Moon and the Earth Positions: The height of rising water (high tide) varies appreciably depending upon the position of sun and moon with respect to the earth.

87. Which place in India has the potential for generation of tidal energy:

1) Gulf of Cambay
2) Gulf of Kutch
3) Gulf of Mannar
 

Choose the correct code:

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
 

Answer: a

Explanation:

Tidal Energy is one of the new and emerging technologies, which s commercially not viable and still in research and development (R&D) stage. India has a long coastline with the estuaries and gulfs where tides are strong enough to move turbines for electrical power generation.

The Gulf of Cambay and tie Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat on the west coast have the maximum tidal range of 11 m and 8 m with an average tidal range of 8.77m and 5.Z5m respectively. The Ganges Delta in the Sundarbans is approximately 5m with an average tidal range of 2.97m.

Table: Tidal Energy Potential in India

Region

State

Tidal Potential (MW)

1) Gulf of Cambay

Gujarat

7000

2) Gulf of Kutch

Gujarat

1200

3) Gangetic Delta, Sundarbans

West Bengal

100

No tidal power generation plant has been installed in India due to its high cost of generation of electricity and lack of techno-economic viability.

88. Which of the following statement is true regarding the ebb and flow of tides?

a. The time between the high tide and low tide, when the water level is falling, is called the flow.
b. The time between the low tide and high tide, when the tide is rising, is called the ebb.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
 

Answer: d

Explanation:

Ebb and flow are two phases of the tide or any similar movement of water. The ebb is the outgoing phase when the tide drains away from the shore, and the flow is the incoming phase when the water rises again. They are also called as ebb and flood and flood drain of the tide or similar movement of the water.

Tidal currents occur in conjunction with the rise and fall of the tide. The vertical motion of the tides near the shore causes the water to move horizontally, creating currents. When a tidal current moves toward the land and away from the sea, it floods. When it moves toward the sea away from the land, it ebbs. These tidal currents that ebb and flood in opposite directions are called rectilinear or reversing currents.

89. Consider the followings statements regarding the spring tides:

1) During spring tide, the sun, the moon and the earth are in a straight line.

2) The height of the tide will be higher during spring tide.

3) Spring tides occur once a month.
 

Which of the above statements is true?

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
 

Answer: b

Explanation:

The height of rising water (high tide) varies appreciably depending upon the position of sun and moon with respect to the earth. Spring tides and neap tides come under this category.

The position of both the sun and the moon in relation to the earth has direct bearing on tide height. When the sun, the moon and the earth are in a straight line, the height of the tide will be higher. These are called spring tides and they occur twice a month, one on full moon period and another during new moon period.
 

89. Which of the following names of the positions moon, sun and earth are correctly matched?

1) Perihelion- When the earth is closest to the sun

2) Perigee- when the moon’s orbit is closest to the earth

3) Apogee- When the earth is farthest from the sun
 

Which of the above statements is true?

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
 

Answer: b

Explanation:

Apogee and perigee refer to the distance from the Earth to the moon. Apogee is the farthest point from the earth. Perigee is the closest point to the earth and it is in this stage that the moon appears larger. Looking at the moon in the sky without anything to compare it to, you wouldn't notice any size difference. But the difference in size can in fact be quite significant.

The perihelion is the point in the orbit of a celestial body where it is nearest to its orbital focus, generally a star. It is the opposite of aphelion, which is the point in the orbit where the celestial body is farthest from its focus

90. Consider the followings statements regarding the Neap tides and spring tides:

1) There is a seven day interval between the spring tides and neap tides.

2) During neap tide, the sun and moon are at right angles to each other.
 

Which of the above statements is true?

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 

Answer: b

Explanation:


Normally, there is a seven day interval between the spring tides and neap tides. During neap tide, the sun and moon are at right angles to each other and the forces of the sun and moon tend to counteract one another. The Moon’s attraction, though more than twice as strong as the sun’s, is diminished by the counteracting force of the sun’s gravitational pull.
 

91. The height of rising water varies depending upon the position of sun and moon with respect to the earth. Which of the following statements is true in this regard:

a. When the moon’s orbit is closest to the earth, unusually high and low tides occur.
b. During perigee, the tidal range is much less than normal.
c. When the earth is farthest to the sun, tidal ranges are also much greater.
d. All of the above
 

Answer: a

Explanation:

Once in a month, when the moon’s orbit is closest to the earth (perigee), unusually high and low tides occur. During this time the tidal range is greater than normal. Two weeks later, when the moon is farthest from earth (apogee), the moon’s gravitational force is limited and the tidal ranges are less than their average heights.

When the earth is closest to the sun (perihelion), around 3rd January each year, tidal ranges is also much greater, with unusually high and unusually low tides. When the earth is farthest from the sun (aphelion), around 4th July each year, tidal ranges are much less than average.

92. Consider the following statements regarding Tidal Energy generation:

1) The difference in water height from low tide and high tide is potential energy.

2) Tidal water is captured in a barrage across an estuary during Low tide and forced through a hydro-turbine during high tide.

3) To capture sufficient power from the tidal energy potential, the height of high tide must be at least five meters (16 feet) greater than low tide.
 

Which of the above statements is true?

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
 

Answer: c

Explanation:

The tidal cycle occurs every 12 hours due to the gravitational force of the moon. The difference in water height from low tide and high tide is potential energy. Similar to traditional hydropower generated from dams, tidal water can be captured in a barrage across an estuary during high tide and forced through a hydro-turbine during low tide. To capture sufficient power from the tidal energy potential, the height of high tide must be at least five meters (16 feet) greater than low tide.

There are only approximately 20 locations on earth with tides this high and India is one of them. The Gulf of Cambay and the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat on the west coast have the maximum tidal range of 11m and 8m with an average tidal range of 6.77m and 5.23m respectively.

93. Consider the following statements regarding the continental glaciers:
1. A thick ice sheet covering a vast area of land is called a continental glacier.
2. The continental Glaciers build up at the centre and move outward in all directions.
3. Continental glaciers of today are found mainly in Antarctica and Greenland. Which of the following above statements is true?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:

A thick ice sheet covering a vast area of land is called a continental a glacier. The thickness of ice in such regions goes upto thousands of metres. Glaciers of this type build up at the centre and move outward in all directions. Continental glaciers of today are found mainly in Antarctica and Greenland. The precipitation in these regions occurs in the form of snow. It gets accumulated year by year because of the relatively slower rate of its melting.

94. Consider the following statements regarding the valley glaciers:
1. When a mass of ice from the high mountainous regions starts moving down into the pre-existing valleys, it is called a valley glacier.
2. Valley glaciers are quite different from the mountain glaciers.
3. The longest glacier in India is the Siachen Glacier in Karakoram Range which is 72 kilometres long.

Which of the following above statements is true?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Explanation:

When a mass of ice from the high mountainous regions starts moving down into the pre-existing valleys, it is called a valley glacier or a mountain glacier. The shape of the valley glaciers depends on the valley it occupies. Where the valley is broad, the glacier spreads outwards and where the valley is narrow, the glacier contracts. The longest glacier in India is the Siachen Glacier in Karakoram Range which is 72 kilometres long. Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand is 25.5 kilometres long. There are many smaller glaciers in other parts of the Himalaya. Their length varies from 5 to 10 kilometres. The two important rivers of India, the Ganga and Yamuna, originate from Gangotri and Yamunotri glaciers respectively.

95. Which of the following landforms created by glacial erosion?
a. Cirque
b. 'U' shaped valley
c. Hanging Valley
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

As a glacier moves over the land, it drags rock fragments, gravel and sand along with it. These rock fragments become efficient erosive tools. With their help glacier scrapes and scours the surface rocks with which it comes in contact. This action of glacier leaves behind scratches and grooves on rocks.

The landforms like Cirque, 'U' shaped valley, Hanging Valley etc are created by the glacial erosion.

95. Snow collects at the upper end in a bowl shaped depression called:
a. Cirque
b. 'U' shaped valley
c. Hanging Valley
d. None of the above

Answer: a

Explanation:

Snow collects at the upper end in a bowl shaped depression, is called cirque. Layers of snow in the process of compaction and recrystallization are called firn. Sometimes the deepest parts of these hollows are occupied by accumulated-water, to form Corrie Lake (or Tarn).

96. Consider the following statements regarding the Hanging Valley:
1. The Hanging Val1ey of the tributary glacier just looks like hanging downwards at the point of its confluence with the main valley.
2. When the ice in the hanging valley melts, a waterfall is formed at the point of confluence of this stream with the main river.

Which of the following statements is true?
a. Only 1
b. 1 and 2
c. Only 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Explanation:

Just like tributary streams of the river, there are tributary the glaciers also which join the main glacier after moving over their mountainous path. These tributary glaciers like the main glaciers carve U - shaped valleys. However, they have less volume of ice than the main glaciers and thus their rate of erosion is less rapid. As a result, their valleys are smaller and not as deep as that of the main glacier. Due to this difference in deepening; the valley of the tributary glacier is left at a higher level than that of the main glacier. The val1ey of the tributary glacier just looks like hanging downwards at the point of its confluence with the main valley. This type of a topographical feature is cal1ed a hanging val1ey. This feature is visible when ice has melted in both the val1eys. When the ice in the hanging valley melts, a waterfall is formed at the point of confluence of this stream with the main river.

97. When the glacier melts or retreats, it deposits its load of different parts and the deposited debris called moraines. Consider the following statements regarding the moraines:
1. Generally, moraines have four types- terminal moraine, lateral moraine medial moraine and ground moraine.
2. When the glacier melts, the debris is deposited at the end of the valley glacier in the form of a ridge called lateral moraine.
3. The moraine which is deposited on either side of a glacier is called thermal moraine.

Which of the following above statements is true?
a. Only 1
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Explanation:

When the glacier melts or retreats, it deposits its load in different parts. The debris thus deposited is called moraines. Depending upon their location in the valley moraines are of four types:- (i) terminal moraine, (ii) lateral moraine, (iii) medial moraine and (iv) ground moraine.

Terminal Moraine: When the glacier melts, the debris is deposited at the end of the valley glacier in the form of a ridge. It is called terminal moraine. Morainic material ranges from fine clay to large angular boulders.

Lateral moraine: The moraine which is deposited on either side of a glacier is called lateral moraine.

Medial moraine: When two glaciers join each other their lateral moraines also join. Moraines thus formed on the confluence of two glaciers are called medial moraines.
Ground moraine: It consists of deposits left behind in areas once covered by glaciers. It is seen only after the glacial ice has disappeared by melting.

 

98. Sand dunes are a special feature of the desert region made by wind deposition. Consider the following statements regarding the Sand Dunes:
1. The formation of Sand Dunes are affected by the factors like amount of sand available, direction and force of wind and an obstruction in the path of the wind.
2. If vegetation or a line of trees starts growing on the dunes they become fixed.
3. In case there is no such obstruction, sand dunes may bury agricultural land, plains and settlements.

Which of the following above statements is true?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:

Sand dunes are a special feature of the desert regions. They are of different types and have a variety of shapes. The major factors affecting their formation are (a) amount of sand available (b) direction and force of wind, (c) an obstruction in the path of the wind e.g. a bush, a stone or a dead animal. As long as the wind is strong enough to carry the sand, the sand dunes are mobile and they keep on shifting from one place to another. If vegetation or a line of trees starts growing on the dunes they become fixed. They also become stationary when they are blocked by a hillock. In case there is no such obstruction, sand dunes may bury agricultural land, plains and settlements.

99. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Loess?
a. The surface covered by deposits of wind transported silt that has settled out from dust storms over many thousands of years, such material is known as loess.
b. Loess is long, narrow ridges of sand that lie parallel to the direction of the prevailing winds.
c. Loess is an isolated heap of free sand.
d. Loess dunes are common in the western part of the Thar Desert of India.

Answer: a

Explanation:

In several large areas of the world, the surface is covered by deposits of wind transported silt that has settled out from dust storms over many thousands of years. This material is known as loess. Loess tends to break away along vertical cliffs whenever it is exposed by the cutting of a stream or grading of a roadway. It is also very easily eroded by running water and is subject to rapid gullying when the vegetation cover that protects it is broken. The thickest deposits of loess are in northeast china, where a layer over 30m deep is common and a maximum thickness of 100m has been measured.

Besides China, deposits of loess occur in Mississippi Valley of North America and north of Central European Upland in Germany, Belgium and France. Loess deposits are found in Austalia also.

100. Sea waves have a great erosive force. Consider the following statements regarding the functions of sea waves:
1. When the sea water loaded with rock fragments and sand attack the coastal rocks it is called abrasion.
2. The rock particles present in the water hit against each other and break into progressively smaller particles, the process is called attrition.
3. The rocks made up of limestone are subjected to solution action by the sea waves.

Which of the following above statements is true?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:

Sea waves have a great erosive force. In their role of an erosional agent, they perform four functions. When the sea water loaded with rock fragments and sand attack the coastal rocks it is called abrasion. The rock particles present in the water hit against each other and break into progressively smaller particles. This process is called attrition. Thirdly the broadening of cracks and crevices in the cliffs along the coast due to the attack of the sea waves is called the hydraulic action. The rocks made up of limestone are subjected to solution action by the sea waves. All these processes help in the formation of new features on the coastal margins.

101. Which of the following landforms created by the sea waves?
a. Sea Cliff
b. Sea Caves
c. Sea Arches
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

Waves, like streams, erode the coastal rocks with the help of rock fragments present in the water. Due to the continued erosion by waves, the coastline keeps retreating and a number of topographical features are formed in the process. Some of the important features made through sea wave erosion are Sea Cliff, Sea Caves, Sea Arches and Sea Stacks.

102.Consider the following statements regarding the atmospheric pressure:
1. The weight of the column of air at a given place and time is called air pressure or atmospheric pressure.
2. Atmospheric pressure is measured by an instrument called Thermometer.
3. Atmospheric pressure is measured as force per unit area and the unit used for measuring pressure is called millibar. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer. b

Explanation:

The atmosphere is held on the earth by the gravitational pull of the earth. A column of air exerts weight in terms of pressure on the surface of the earth. The weight of the column of air at a given place and time is called air pressure or atmospheric pressure. Atmospheric pressure is measured by an instrument called barometer. Nowadays, Fortin’s barometer and Aneroid barometer I are commonly used for measuring air pressure.

Atmospheric pressure is measured as force per unit area. The unit used for measuring pressure is called millibar. Its abbreviation is ‘mb’. One millibar is equal to the force of one gram per square centimetre approximately.

103. Air pressure decreases with:
a. The decrease in altitude
b. Increase in altitude
c. The decrease in density of air
d. Decrease in the temperature of air

Answer: a

Explanation:

The columnar distribution of atmospheric pressure is known as vertical distribution of pressure. Air pressure decreases with increase in altitude but it does not always decrease at the same rate. Dense components of the atmosphere are found in its lowest parts near the mean sea level. The temperature of the air, amount of water vapour present in the air and gravitational pull of the earth determines the air pressure of a given place and at a given time. Since these factors are variable with change in height, there is a variation in the rate of decrease in air pressure with an increase in altitude.

104. Consider the following statements regarding the air temperature and the air pressure on various regions on earth:
1. Air pressure is low in equatorial regions and it is higher in Polar Regions.
2. There is an inverse relationship between air temperature and air pressure.
3. Low air pressure in equatorial regions is due to the fact that hot air ascends there with a gradual decrease in temperature causing thinness of air on the surface.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer. b

Explanation:

In the previous lesson, we have studied that the earth is not heated uniformly because of unequal distribution of insolation, differential heating and cooling of land and water surfaces. Generally, there is an inverse relationship between air temperature and air pressure. The higher the air temperature, the lower is the air pressure.

The fundamental rule about gases is that when they are heated, they become less dense and expand in volume and rise. Hence, air pressure is low in equatorial regions and it is higher in polar regions. Along the equator lies a belt of low pressure known as the “equatorial low or doldrums”.

Low air pressure in equatorial regions is due to the fact that hot air ascends there with a gradual decrease in temperature causing thinness of air on the surface. In polar region, cold air is very dense hence it descends and pressure increases. From this we might expect, a gradual increase in average temperature thords equator. However, actual readings taken on the earth’s surface at different places indicate that pressure does not increase latitudinally in a regular fashion from the equator to the poles. Instead, there are regions of high pressure in subtropics and regions of low pressure in the subpolar areas.

105. Earth's rotation generates which of the following force?
a. Centrifugal force
b. Centripetal force
c. Kinetic Force
d. Static force

Answer: a

Explanation:

The earth’s rotation generates centrifugal force. This results in the deflection of air from its original place, causing a decrease in pressure. It is believed that the low-pressure belts of the sub-Polar Regions and the high-pressure belts of the sub-tropical regions are created as a result of the earth’s rotation. The earth’s rotation also causes convergence and divergence of moving air. Areas of convergence experience low pressure while those of divergence have high pressure.

106. Consider the following statements regarding the equatorial low-pressure belt:
1. The equatorial low-pressure belt extends from the equator to 100N and 100S latitudes.
2. The equatorial low-pressure belt is called doldrums (the zone of calm) due to excessive heating horizontal movement of air is absent here and only conventional currents are there.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer. d

Explanation:

The sun shines almost vertically on the equator throughout the year. As a result, the air gets warm and rises over the equatorial region and produce equatorial low pressure. This belt extends from the equator to 100N and 100S latitudes. Due to excessive heating horizontal movement of air is absent here and only conventional currents are there. Therefore this belt is called doldrums (the zone of calm) due to the virtual absence of surface winds. These are the regions of convergence because the winds flowing from sub tropical high-pressure belts converge here. This belt is also known as-Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).

107.Consider the following statements regarding Local Area Planning:
I. Local area planning is a process of planning that is concerned with resolving local level problems and issues.
II. The priorities of local area planning include over all welfare of the people and development of the local area.
III. Maintenance of social services and amenities, promotion in the quality and quantity of local products and services and keeping surroundings and local environment clean and green are some of its continuous concerns.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:


Local area planning is a process of planning that is concerned with resolving local level problems and issues. Its priorities include over all welfare of the people and development of the local area.

Maintenance of social services and amenities, promotion in the quality and quantity of local products and services and keeping surroundings and local environment clean and green are some of its continuous concerns. In terms of size, it is the smallest planning unit with reference to people and places.

A planning which is carried out through people’s participation turns out to be a dream of real situation reflecting continuous growth and development in the local area.
108. Among which of the following places is known for silk sarees?
a. Kolhapur
b. Varanasi
c. Shivakashi
d. Mysore

Answer: b

Explanation:
 

Sandles of kolhapur, sandal sticks of Mysore, fireworks of Shivakashi, Naga Shawls, Kashmiri Pashmina, Varanasi silk sarees, Madhubani art, Kuchipuri dance etc. are some of the local area products or specialities that are in great demand both from national as well as international markets.

A well maintained locality with its clean and green environments acts as a source of attraction to the non local people and acts as an ideal for other places to follow.

109. Who among the following has taken up the responsibility of planning for the whole world at global level?
a. United Nations
b. United States of America
c. World Bank
d. IMF

Answer: a

Explanation:
 

At the global level, planning for the whole world is taken up by the United Nations and countries provide cooperation in the implementation of the planning schemes. Various programmes such as UNEP, UNDP, etc. are initiated to deal with the global issues of environment, poverty, development, and so on.
110. Who among the following at state level is responsible to develop plans for the entire state?
a. Planning Commission
b. NITI Aayog
c. State Planning Board
d. State Cabinet Ministers

Answer: c

Explanation: 


At the state level there is a State Planning Board that develops plan for the entire state. This is also known as a regional plan. Chief Minister of the state is the Chairman of the State Planning Board.
111. Consider the following statements regarding the Community Development Blocks:
I. Community Development Blocks are the fourth (micro) level planning units and are responsible for plan implementation down to the village and household levels.
II. Each C.D. Block consists of about 50 villages.
III. Block Development Officer (B.D.O.) is the coordinator of the plan at this level of planning.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:


Community Development Blocks are the fourth (micro) level planning units. Each C.D. Block consists of about 50 villages. These blocks are responsible for plan implementation down to the village and household levels. Block Development Officer (B.D.O.) is the coordinator of the plan at this level of planning.

Local area planning is meant for small localities like a village, a Basti or Mohalla. The entire community, living and working at the place, is responsible for developing plans and seeking assistance and cooperation from the Governmental Organization, Non-Governmental Organization and others.
112. Consider the following statements regarding the land resources:
I. The land resources are the basis of human settlements and primary activities besides being the base for scenic landscape.
II. The exposed rock surfaces act as natural platforms while its slopes and steps remained the basis for plant growth.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. Both I and III
d. Neither I nor II

Answer: c

Explanation:


The most striking feature of a local area is its rocks and soils. These land resources are the basis of human settlements and primary activities besides being the base for scenic landscape.

The exposed rock surfaces act as natural platforms while its slopes and steps remained the basis for plant growth. The places in such a setup are developed as sites for picnic, parks and natural beauties.

113. Consider the following statements regarding soil, one of the important component of land resources:
I. Soils are the basis for a variety of human activities such as agriculture, animal herding, horticulture, etc.
II. The fertile soils have always been a source of attraction for human civilisations and development.
III. Large scale deforestation and commercial uses of land have caused imbalances in soil setup.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:


Soils are the basis for a variety of human activities such as agriculture, animal herding, horticulture, etc. The fertile soils have always been a source of attraction for human civilisations and development.

However, this rare gift of nature is threatened by massive erosion and degradation, and is fast converted to wastelands. Large scale deforestation and commercial uses of land have caused imbalances in soil setup.

Since formation of soil, its renewability and replacements require pretty long period, there is an urgent need for soil conservation and maintenance of its natural fertility.

114. Consider the following statements regarding water resources, central to all ecosystem:
I. One of the most basic requirements for life to develop and sustain on long term basis is the availability of water.
II. Most of the early human civilisations developed near water sources especially along fertile river valleys.
III. Water is being used for a variety of purposes like power generation, irrigation, for domestic and industrial uses besides keeping the local area clean and green.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

One of the most basic requirements for life to develop and sustain on long term basis is the availability of water. It is central to all ecosystems. Most of the early human civilisations developed near water sources especially along fertile river valleys.

Both for human activities and settlements water is an essential element. Water is being used for a variety of purposes like power generation, irrigation, for domestic and industrial uses besides keeping the local area clean and green.

115. Consider the following statements regarding the forest resources on earth:
I. Plants or forests are means to livelihood and natural attraction.
II. Due to ever increasing pressure of population, forest cover is fast declining causing serious environmental threats.
III. Tree plantations along highways, railway tracts, hill slopes, canals have developed schemes like social forestry, farm forestry.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:


Plants are the basic form of life and act as the source of oxygen. They are means to livelihood and natural attraction. Due to ever increasing pressure of population, forest cover is fast declining causing serious environmental threats.

Tree plantations along highways, railway tracts, hill slopes, canals have developed schemes like social forestry, farm forestry and so on.

116. The Panchayati Raj System was introduced for the first time in India in which of the following Five Year Plans?
a. First Five Year Plan
b. Second Five Year Plan
c. Third Five Year Plan
d. Fifth Five Year Plan

Answer: b

Explanation: 


The system of Panchayati Raj considered as the oldest system of local government in the Indian Subcontinent. This system of local government is mostly prevalent in South Asian Political system of the countries like India, Pakistan Bangladesh and Nepal.

In India the Panchayati Raj system was introduced during second Five Year Plan for the first time but it was formalised only in year 1992.

The 73rd Amendment 1992 of Indian Constitution added a new Part IX to it and titled “The Panchayats” covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O); and a new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of the Panchayats.

117. Consider the following statements regarding the Net Sown Area (NSA) of any region:
I. The total land area on which crops are grown in a region is called net sown area.
II. The net sown area and the area sown more than once together are called gross cultivated area.
III. In India, about 47 per cent of total reporting area is under the net sown area.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

The total land area on which crops are grown in a region is called net sown area. The net sown area and the area sown more than once together are called gross cultivated area. In India, about 47 per cent of total reporting area is under the net sown area.

States namely Punjab, Haryana, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, have the high proportional share of NSA than the national average. Against this, the share of NSA is less than one half of the national average in states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

118. Consider the following statements regarding the forest cover in India:
I. The area under forest cover is about 68 million hectares or 22 per cent of the total area in the country.
II. This area has under forest cover has increased from 40 million hectares in 1951 to 68 million hectares in 2000.
III. For the ecological balance the forest cover should be at least 33 per cent of the total geographical area of a country.
 

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation:

The area under forest cover is about 68 million hectares or 22 per cent of the total area in the country. This area has increased from 40 million hectares in 1951 to 68 million hectares in 2000.

For the ecological balance the forest cover should be at least 33 per cent of the total geographical area of a country. The states of Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu & Kashmir and Tripura have relatively larger proportion of area under forest cover.

119. Which of the following states has highest area of land available for cultivation India?
a. Odisha
b. Assam
c. Manipur
d. Nagaland

Answer: a

Explanation:

The land under the settlements, roads, mines and quarries along with barren lands are included in this category. The sandy waste land of Rajasthan, marshy land of Kutchh (Gujarat) and rugged and eroded areas of northeast and northern mountains are few examples of barren lands.

About 13 per cent of the total reported area is recorded under this category. Nagaland, Manipur and Assam registered a very high percentage of area not available for cultivations.

120. With reference to the Fallow Lands which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. When lands are left unused to erode away their fertility in a natural way is called fallow land.
b. On the basis of usability criteria follow lands can be divided into two groups current and old.
c. Current fallow is the land in which no crop is raised during the current year.
d. Old fallow land remains unused for a period of one or more years but not exceeding 5 years.

Answer: a

Explanation:

When lands are left unused to regain their lost fertility in a natural way is called fallow land. On the basis of usability criteria follow lands can be divided into two groups current and old. Current fallow is the land in which no crop is raised during the current year.

Old fallow land remains unused for a period of one or more years but not exceeding 5 years. This is due to low investment capacity of numerous small and marginal farmers in advanced technology, lack of awareness, loss of fertility of soil, inadequacy of rainfall, lacking in irrigational facility etc. The fallow land occupies about 7.5 per cent of the total reported area.

121. Which of the following states has higher percentage of fallow land?
a. Assam
b. Bihar
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Punjab

Answer: b

Explanation:

The states of Mizoram, Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan have a high percentage of area under fallow land. It is to be noted here that old fallow land may not be economically important but from ecological point of view fallow land is important category of land.

122. Which of the following types of land locally known as reh?
a. The land under the settlements, roads, mines and quarries along with barren lands are included in this category.
b. The total land area on which crops are grown in a region.
c. It is the land in which crops were raised for some period of time but has not been cultivated for the last five years due to certain deficiencies such as alkalinity and salinity in the soils.
d. When lands are left unused to regain their lost fertility in a natural way.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Cultivable Waste is the land in which crops were raised for some period of time but has not been cultivated for the last five years due to certain deficiencies such as alkalinity and salinity in the soils.

Such cultivable wastes are locally known as reh, bhur, usar, and khola in the some part of North India. Meghalaya, Himachal Pradesh and Rajasthan have a very high share of cultivable waste land in total land use in respective states.

123. Consider the following statements regarding the Agricultural Land Use in India:
I. The net sown area, current fallows and land under tree crops and groves are included in agricultural land use.
II. The agricultural land in India is little more than 50 per cent of the total geographical area in the country.
III. The per capita agricultural land in some select countries is lesser than India.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Only I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. All of the above

Answer: b

Explanation:

The net sown area, current fallows and land under tree crops and groves are included in agricultural land use. The agricultural land in India is little more than 50 per cent of the total geographical area in the country.

This is the highest share of land in any country in the world. But due to large size of population in India, per capita arable land is available only 0.17 hectares, which is lower than the world average (0.24 hec). The per capita agricultural land in some select countries is much higher than India.

124. With reference to various types of farming, which of the following is correctly matched?


Types of farming

Description

A

Dry Farming

This type of farming is practised in the areas of alluvial soils where annual average rainfall is more than 200cm.

B

Wet Farming

This type of farming is practised in the areas where the amount of annual rainfall is generally less than 80 cms.

C

Irrigated Farming

This type of farming is practiced in the areas where average rainfall is between 80 to 200 cms which is insufficient for certain crops.

D

Subsistence Farming

In this type of cultivation, land is cleared by cutting and burning of forests for raising crops.


Answer: c

Explanation:

The bases for the classification of different types of agriculture in India are rainfall, irrigational facilities, purpose of production, ownership and size of holding and technology used. On the basis of these factors a number of farming can be identified. Some of the main types of farming in India are:

Dry Farming: This type of farming is practised in the areas where the amount of annual rainfall is generally less than 80 cms. In such regions, the farmers are generally dependent upon rainfall. Here, moisture content in the soil is less. Hence, only one crop can be grown in a year.

Wet Farming: This type of farming is practised in the areas of alluvial soils where annual average rainfall is more than 200cm. Here, more than one crop is grown in a year because enough amount of moisture in the soil is available. Rice and jute are the main crops of this types of farming. West Bengal, Assam, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram and Malabar Coast fall under this category of farming.

Irrigated Farming: This type of farming is practiced in the areas where average rainfall is between 80 to 200 cms which is insufficient for certain crops. This system of farming can be practised only in those areas where availability of water from underground or surface water bodies like rivers, tanks, and lakes is sufficient throughout the year.

Subsistence Farming: These types of farming are practised primarily to fulfil self requirements of the people of the area. The main objective of this farming is to provide subsistence to the largest number of people of a given area. Size of holdings is small, use of manual labour and simple farm implements are common features of this type of farming.

Shifting Cultivation: In this type of cultivation land is cleared by cutting and burning of forests for raising crops. The crops are grown for a few years (2-3 years). As fertility of land declines, farmers move to new areas, clear the forests and grow crops there for next few years.

125. Which of the following types of farming is more suitable for the production of crops like sugarcane, wheat and rice?
a. Shifting farming
b. Irrigated farming
c. Subsistence farming
d. Terrace farming

Answer: b

Explanation:

Irrigated farming: 
This type of farming is practiced in the areas where average rainfall is between 80 to 200 cms which is insufficient for certain crops. This system of farming can be practised only in those areas where availability of water from underground or surface water bodies like rivers, tanks, and lakes is sufficient throughout the year.

The other condition for this farming is the availability of levelled agricultural land. The main areas were much farming is practised are in Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, north western Tamil Nadu and the deltas of peninsular rivers. The other important pockets of irrigated farming are found in the Deccan Plateau region particularly in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Wheat, Rice and Sugarcane are important crops of this farming.

126. Which of the following types of farming also known as “Jhuming”?
a. Shifting farming
b. Subsistence farming
c. Terrace farming
d. Irrigated farming

Answer: a

Explanation:

Shifting farming: 
In this type of cultivation land is cleared by cutting and burning of forests for raising crops. The crops are grown for a few years (2-3 years). As fertility of land declines, farmers move to new areas, clear the forests and grow crops there for next few years.

This farming is practised in some pockets of the hilly areas of Northeast and in some tribal belts of Orissa, Chhattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh. In northeast, such type of cultivation is known as “Jhuming”.

 

127. Consider the following statements:

1. Salinity of the oceans decreases to pole wards.
2. The highest salinity is recorded near the Equator.
3. The highest salinity is observed between 20 to 40 degrees North latitude.
4. The zone between 40 to 60 Degree latitudes in the both hemispheres record low salinity.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

Ans: (c) 

Explanation: Generally, salinity decreases from Equator towards the pole but the highest salinity is seldom recorded near the Equator because high rainfall reduces the related proportion of salt. The highest salinity is observed between 20 to 40 degrees North latitude. The average salinity of oceans is 35 Percent.

128. Consider the following statements:

1. In the Atlantic Ocean the highest salinity is observed between 15 degree to 20 degree latitudes
2. Salinity is higher along the western margins than the eastern margin between 10-30 degree latitude in the South Atlantic
3. The average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is 35.6 Percent.
4. Lake Van of Turkey has the highest salinity in all over the globe.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. All of the above

Ans: (d) 

Explanation: In Atlantic Ocean high salinity is not recorded at the Equator rather it is observed between 50-20 Degree latitudes. The average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is 35.6 Percent. In South Atlantic Ocean between 10-30 degrees salinity is higher along the western margin than eastern margin. Lake Van of Turkey has the highest salinity in all over the globe.

129. Consider the following statements:

1. All the material which is accumulated at the floor of the ocean is ocean deposits.
2. The sediments derived from weathering and erosion of continental rocks are transported to the oceans by rivers, winds etc.
3. Volcanic eruption also provides sediments to the ocean deposits.
4. The decay and decomposition of marine organisms also contribute to the ocean deposits.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. 1 and 2
d. All of the above

Ans: (d) 

Explanation: The unconsolidated sediments derived from various sources deposited at the Sea floor are included in ocean deposits. The sediments derived from weathering and erosion of continental rocks are transported to the oceans by rivers, winds etc.

130. Consider the following statements:

1. In the regard of ocean deposits, the source of organic material is sea itself.
2. Organic material are grouped into two categories - nerretic matter and pelagic matter.
3. Nerretic matter consists of remains of different types of algae.
4. Pelagic matter includes skeleton of marine organisms and plant remains.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

a. Only1
b. Only 2
c. 1 and 2
d. All of the above.

Ans: (c) 

Explanation: For Ocean deposits the source of organic material is sea itself. They include skeleton of marine organisms and plant remains. These materials are grouped into two types Nerretic matter and pelagic matter. Nerretic matter includes skeleton of marine organisms and plant remains whereas pelagic matter consists of remains of different types of algae.

131. Consider the following statements:

1. Tides are the most important of the all the oceanic movements.
2. The rise of sea water and its movements towards the coast is called the tide.
3. The sea waves generated by the Tides are called the Tidal waves.
4. There is much similarity in the height of high and low tides at different places in different oceans.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. 1,2 and 3
d. All of the above

Ans: (c) 

Explanation: Waves, currents and tides have vital significance among the various types of oceanic movements but tides are the most important of all the oceanic movements because the tidal currents affect the whole tidal mass from the sea surface to the bottom. The rise and fall of sea water due to gravitational forces of the Sun and the Moon are called tides.

132. Consider the following statements:

1. The moon creates high tides than the Sun on the Earth’s water surface.
2. The cause of this is that the Moon is only 3,84,000 Km from the Earth.
3. Two Tides and Ebbs are experienced twice at every place on the Earth’s water surface within 12 hours.
4. Each day tide is experienced at the same time.

Which of the above given statements are correct?

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. 1 and 2
d. All of the above.

Ans: (c) 

Explanation: The moon creates high tides than the Sun on the Earth’s water surface because of having greater gravitational force as the moon is only 3,84,000 Km from the Earth. Two Tides and Ebbs are experienced twice at every place on the Earth’s water surface within 24 hours. Each day tide is delayed by 26 minutes because the Moon also rotates on its axis while revolving around the Earth.

133. Match the following:

Table – I Table – II

A. The position of the Sun, the Moon and the
Earth in a straight line. 1. Conjunction
B.The position of the Sun and the Moon on one side
Of the Earth. 2. Syzygy
C.The position of the Earth between the Sun and the
Moon. 3. Perigee
D.The period of the nearest distance between the Moon
and the Earth. 4. Opposition

Codes:

a. A-2, B-1, C-4,D-3
b. A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4
c. A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
d. A-1,B-2,C-4,D-3

Ans: (a) 

Explanation: The related position of the Sun, the Earth and the Moon are changeable. Position of the Sun, the Moon and the Earth in a straight line is called syzygy. The position of the Sun and the Moon on one side Of the Earth is conjunction. The position of the Earth between the Sun and the Moon is called opposition. Perigee is the period of the nearest distance between the Moon and the Earth.

134. Consider the following statements:

1. Most magmas are a combination of liquid, solid and gas.
2. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the principal gases dissolved in a magma.
3. Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic magma.
4. The magma solidified between sedimentary rocks in a horizontal position is known as dyke.

Which of these statements are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

Ans: (a) 

Explanation: 1, 2 and 3 statements are correct but not 4, because the magma solidified between sedimentary rocks in a horizontal position is known as “Sill”, but not Dyke (Dyke – solidification in vertical position).

135. Consider the following statements regarding the Earthquakes:

1. The intensity of earthquake is measured on Mercalli scale.
2. The magnitude of an earthquake is a measure of energy released.
3. Earthquake magnitudes are based on direct measurements of the amplitude of seismic waves.
4. In the Richter Scale, each whole number demonstrates a hundredfold increase in the amount of energy released.

Which of these statements are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1 and 3

Ans: (a) 

Explanation: 1, 2, 3 statements are correct but not 4, because in the Richter scale each whole number demonstrates a tenfold increase in the amount of energy.

136. Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights, because clouds:

a. Prevent cold waves from the sky from descending on earth.
b. Reflect back the heat given off by earth.
c. Produce heat and radiate it towards earth
d. Absorb heat from the atmosphere and send it towards earth.

Ans: (b) 

Explanation: Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights because clouds reflects back the heat given off by the earth.

137. Consider the following pairs:

Scientist/Philosopher Related to Concept/Hypothesis 
1. Immanuel Kant : Nebular Hypothesis
2. Chamberlain and Moulton : Wandering star Hypothesis
3. Edwin Hubble : Expanding universe Hypothesis
 

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer .d
 

138. With reference to Big Bang Theory, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a “tiny ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density.
2. At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. It is now generally accepted that the event of big bang took place 4.7 billion years before the present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer .a
 

139. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

(a) A light year is a measure of time
(b) The distances the light will travel in one year is equals to 9.461*1012 km having known that light travels at a speed 300,000 km/second.
(c) The mean distance between the sun and the earth is 149,598,000 km, is known as Astronomical unit.
(d)The light takes 8.311 minutes to reach earth from Sun.

Answer .a

140. The diameters of individual galaxies range from

(a) 80,000-150,000 Astronomical Unit(AU)
(b) 80,000-150,000 light years
(c) 50,000-1,00,000 light years
(d) 50,000-1,00,000 Astronomical Unit(AU)

Answer .b

141. With reference to our Solar system, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) Our Solar system is supposed to have been formed, started its collapse and core formation some time 5-5.6 billion years ago and the planets were formed about 4.6 billion years ago.
(b) Out of the eight planets, mercury, Venus, earth and mars are called as the inner planets as they lie between the sun and the belt of asteroids the other four planets are called the outer planets.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer .c

142. Choose the ‘Jovian’ planets among planets of our Solar system?

(a) Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars
(b)Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(c)Mercury and Venus
(d)Earth and Mars

Answer .b

143. The earth’s ocean were formed within ______ million years from the formation of the earth.

(a) 4000
(b) 500
(c) 5000
(d) 4700

Answer .b

144. With reference to the Geological Time Scale, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Sometime around 3,800 million years ago, life began to evolve.
2. Extinction of Dinosaurs happened in Jurrasic period .
3. The Quaternary Period began with an ice age about 2 million years ago. It is often called the Age of Humans. It is divided into two epochs: Holocene and Pleistocene.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer .c

145. Arrange the following in the order of shortest to longest duration on Geological Time Scale?

(a)Epoch-Period-Era-Eons
(b)Eons-Era-Period-Epoch
(c)Epoch-Eons- Period-Era
(d)Era-Period-Epoch-Eons

Answer .a
 

146. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

(a) Due to the process of differentiation the earth forming material got separated into different layers.
(b) The present composition of the earth atmosphere has remained same throughout the earth’s history.
(c) Scientists at present believe that the moon was formed about 4.44 billion years ago due to “the big splat”.
(d) Through the process of differentiation that the earth forming material got separated into different layers.

Answer .b

147. Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : (c)

148. Which of the following statements regarding lacerate soils of India are correct?

1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4 d) 2 and 3 only

Answer : (c)

149. A state in India has the following characteristics?

1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Gujarat
c) Karnataka d) Tamil Nadu

Answer : (b)

150. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?

a) Abundance of magnesium
b) Accumulated humus
c) Presence of ferric oxides
d) Abundance of Phosphates

Answer : (c)

151. The lower gangetic plain is characterised by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

a) Paddy and cotton
b) Wheat and Jute
c) Paddy and Jute
d) Wheat and Cotton

Answer : (c)

152. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through:

a) Rajasthan
b) Punjab
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Jammu & Kashmir

Answer : (a)

153. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?

a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest

Answer : (c)

154. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Dam/Lake River
a) Govind Sagar : Sutlej
b) Kolleru Lake : Krishna
c) Ukai Reservoir : Tapi
d) Wular Lake : Jhelum

Answer : (b)

155. When you Travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold Mountains?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

Answer : (d)
156. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason to consider the Gondwana Rocks as most important of rock systems of India?

a) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in them
b) More than 90% of India’s coal reserves are found in them
c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them
d) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context

Answer : (b)

157. Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?

(a) P-waves
(b) Rayleigh waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Love waves

Answer: (a)

158. The Intensity scale of the earthquake is called?

(a) Mercalli scale
(b) Ritcher scale
(c) Number scale
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

159. The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?

(a) Epicentre
(b) Hypocentre
(c) Circumcentre
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

160. The type of plate- boundary interaction along the Himalayas is known as?

(a) Continent-continent convergence.
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Ocean-continent convergence

Answer: (a)

161. Which one of the following is not a longitudinal valley known as ‘duns’?

(a) Pathankot
(b) Jammu
(c) Dehradun
(d) Kashmir valley

Answer: (d)

162. The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system, it originates from which of the following places?

(a) Nasik
(b) Mahabaleshwar
(c) Amarkantak
(d) Seshachalam

Answer: (a)

163. Which of the following states is also known as ’Molassis basin’ which is made up of soft unconsolidated deposits?

(a) Mizoram
(b) Sikkim
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerela

Answer: (a)

164. The drainage pattern of a river resembling the branches of a tree is known as?

(a) Dendritic
(b) Radial
(c) Trellis
(d) Centripetal

Answer: (a)

165. Tamil Nadu gets its rainfall in the winter season from?

(a) South-West monsoon
(b) North-Eastern monsoon
(c) Temperate cyclones
(d) Local air circulation

Answer: (b)

166. Teak is an example of:

(a) Evergreen forest
(b) Deltaic forest
(c) Deciduous forest
(d) Thorny forest

Answer: (c)

167. There is a place A with longitude 060o East. There is another place B with longitude 090o East. If local time at place A is 1200 Hrs. What would be local time at Place B?

a) 1200 Hrs

b) 1400 Hrs

c) 1000 Hrs

d) 1220 Hrs

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 15o = 1 Hour

168. Which of the following is correct about India?

1) India has total area of 3.28 million sq. Km.

2) India has a coastline of 6100 km in mainland.

3) India has a total coastline of 7600 km including islands.

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

169. What is the correct order of river from north to south?

a) Indus, Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi, Beas

b) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Beas, Ravi

c) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas

d) Indus, Chenab, Jhelum, Beas, Ravi

Answer: (c)

170. What is the correct order of Mountains from East to West?

a) Garo Hills, Jaintia Hills, Naga Hills, Khasi Hills

b) Garo Hills, Khasi Hills, Jaintia Hills, Naga Hills

c) Jaintia Hills, Garo Hills, Khasi Hills, Naga Hills

d) Jaintia Hills, Garo Hills, Naga Hills, Khasi Hills

Answer: (b)

171. What is the correct order of Mountain Peaks from South to North?

a) Anai Mudi, Doda Betta, Mahendragiri, Malayagiri

b) Anai Mudi, Doda Betta, Malayagiri, Mahendragiri

c) Doda Betta, Anai Mudi, Malayagiri, Mahendragiri

d) Doda Betta, Malayagiri, Anai Mudi, Mahendragiri

Answer: (a)

172. Arrange the following rivers from longest to shortest?

a) Yamuna, Narmada, Mahanadi, Kaveri

b) Narmada, Yamuna, Mahanadi, Kaveri

c) Narmada, Mahanadi, Yamuna, Kaveri

d) Mahanadi, Narmada, Yamuna, Kaveri

Answer: (a)

173. Which of the following cities has maximum northern latitude?

a) Ranchi

b) Dhanbad

c) Jamshedpur

d) Barddhaman

Answer: (b)

174. Which of the following statement is correct about Lake Loktak?

1) It is located in Mizoram.

2) It is one of the site under Ramsar Convention

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both d) None

Answer: (b)

175. Which is the correct order of Islands from North to South in Nicobar Islands?

a) Car Nicobar, Little Nicobar, Great Nicobar

b) Great Nicobar, Little Nicobar, Car Nicobar

c) Great Nicobar, Car Nicobar, Little Nicobar

d) Little Nicobar, Car Nicobar, Great Nicobar

Answer: (a)

 176. Arrange the following islands of Japan from North to South?

a) Honshu, Hokkaido, Shikoku, Kyushu

b) Honshu, Hokkaido, Kyushu, Shikoku

c) Hokkaido, Honshu, Kyushu, Shikoku

d) Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku, Kyushu

Answer: (d

177. Consider the following pairs:

1. Earth Summit, 1993 : Rio de Janeiro
2. World Conference on Disaster Management, 1994: Yokohama
3. National Institute of Disaster Management, 1995 : Hyderabad

 Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer .b

178. Consider the following statements:

1. Natural Hazards are elements of circumstances in the Natural environment that have the potential to cause harm to people or property or both.
2. Natural disasters are relatively sudden and cause large scale, widespread death, loss of property and disturbance to social systems and life over which people have a little or no control.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these

Answer .c

179. Choose the false statement among the following statements:

(a) World Conference on Disaster Management in May 1994 was subsequently called the Yokohama Strategy and Plan of Action for a Safer World.
(b) The issue of Natural Disaster was raised at the U.N. General Assembly in 1992 and was finally formalised at the world conference on Disaster management in 1994.
(c) The Tropical cyclone of 1971 in India is the deadliest one till date.
(d) Unscientific land use and construction activities in fragile areas are some of the disasters that are the results of indirect human actions.

Answer .b

180. With reference to the Classification of Natural Disasters, Consider the following statements:

1. Broadly, natural disasters can be classified under four categories: Atmospheric, Terrestrial, Aquatic and Biological.
2. Bird flu, dengue are example of Aquatic Disaster.
3. India has experienced all the four kind of natural disaster.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer .d

Explanation-Bird flu and dengue are example of Biological Disasters. Flood, Tidal waves, Storm Surge and Tsunami are example of Aquatic Disaster.

181. Tropical Cyclones are intense low pressure areas confined to the area lying between

(a) 30 degree north and 30 degree south.
(b) 50 degree north and 50 degree south.
(c) 50 degree north and 30 degree south.
(d) 5 degree north and 5 degree south.

Answer .a

182. Which one among these is not an essential condition for emergence of Tropical Cyclone?

(a) Peninsular landmass
(b) Strong coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre.
(c) Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
(d) Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.

Answer .a

183. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC) established at Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Sciences is located in

(a)Chennai
(b)Goa
(c)Kochi
(d)Hyderabad

Answer .d

184. With reference to flood consider the following statements:

1. National Programme of Flood Management was launched in 1954.
2. Disturbances along the natural drainage channels and colonisation of flood-plains and river-beds are some of the human activities that play an important role in increasing the intensity, magnitude and gravity of floods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer .b

185. Rashtriya Barh Ayog (National Flood Commission) identified ______ million hectares of land as flood-prone in India.

(a) 40
(b) 80
(c) 100
(d) 120

Answer .a

186. Which of these is/are flood prevention and mitigation strategy?

1. Construction of flood protection embankments
2. Depopulating the flood plains
3. Afforestation
4. Decongesting river channels

Select the correct option using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer .d

187. Consider the following statements:

1. The incoming solar radiation on earth is known as insolation
2. The farthest distance of the earth from the Sun is 152 million Km on 4th July
3. The position of the earth when it is nearest to the Sun is called Aphelion

 Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer .b

188. Which of these factors are responsible for variation in Insolation? (a) The angle of inclination of the sun’s rays
(b) The length of the day
(c) The transparency of the atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer. C
189. Consider the following statements:

1. The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called Advection
2. The short wave radiation on earth are absorbed by the carbon dioxide and the other green house gases where as long wave radiation pass through them without any heating
3. The Earth as a whole doesn’t accumulate or loose heat and its temperature has remained constant

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer .d

190. The amount of visible radiation reflected by the earth is called as its _______.

(a) Albedo
(b) Scattering
(c) Refraction
(d) Dispersion

 Answer .a

191. With respect to Heat budget of the Earth, consider the following statements:

1. The surplus heat energy from the tropics is redistributed towards the pole as tropics do not get progressively heated up and high latitudes get permanently frozen.
2. Roughly 55 percent of insolation are reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these

Answer .a

192. Which of the following can influence the temperature of a place?

1. latitude of the place
2. altitude of the place
3. distance from the sea
4. air-mass circulation

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

Answer .d

193. Consider the following statements:

1. Normally temperature decreases with increase in elevation, called as normal Lapse rate
2. A long winter night with clear skies and still air can have Inversion of temperature i.e. temperature increases with increase in the height
3. Over polar areas temperature inversion is normal throughout the year

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer .c

194. With respect to isotherm, consider the following statements:

1. The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperature.
2. In January the isotherms deviate to the south over the Ocean and to the north over the continent in the northern hemisphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these

Answer .a

195. With respect to Fogs which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Due to inversion of temperature in lower layers of atmosphere smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of atmosphere.
2. Due to occurrence of Inversion in the morning of summer season, dense Fogs are a common phenomenon
3. The inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and begins to warm the earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer .d

196. Consider the following statements:

1. Cold air at the hills and mountains at night flows under the influence of gravity. They move down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage
2. The Inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these

Answer .c

197. Which of the following are true regarding waves?
1. Speed of waves is very high on approaching shallow waters.
2. Originally the waves are curved.

Select the correct answer from the following codes
a. Only 1
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation: In a open ocean the speed of waves are very high on approaching shores their speed is reduced. The waves are curved or refracted against the aligned of the coast.
198. Which of the following are marine agents of erosion?
1. Waves
2. Beach materials
3. Hydraulic action
4. Solvent action

Select the correct answer from the following codes
a. Only 1 and3
b. 1 ,2and 4
c. Only 3 and 4
d. 1,2 ,3and4

Answer: d

Explanation: Waves armed with rock debris, waves that transport beach materials, hydraulic action of water brought by waves, on lime coast solvent action of sea water on calcium carbonate are marineagents of erosion.

199. The rate of marine erosion does not depends on:  
1. Nature of rocks
2. Amount of rock exposed to sea.
3. Effects of tides and currents.
4. Human inference.

Select the correct answer from the following codes
a. Only 4
b. Only 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None

Answer: d

Explanation: the rate of marine erosion depends on all the above mentioned factors and also human inference in coast protection.

200. Which of the following influences marine erosion?
1. Earth movement
2. Organic accumulation
3. Wind

Select the correct answer from the following codes
a. Only 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation: Marine erosion is also influenced by Vulcanicity, Glaciations, earth movement and organic accumulation

 

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