IES/ESE_MECHANICAL PAPER-2008 Mechanical Engineering Notes | EduRev

ISRO, GATE & IES/ESE Mechanical Previous Year Solved Papers

Mechanical Engineering : IES/ESE_MECHANICAL PAPER-2008 Mechanical Engineering Notes | EduRev

 Page 1


 1 of 11
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. What is the additional time available for the 
performance of an activity in PERT and CPM 
calculated on the basis that all activities will 
start at their earliest start time, called? 
a. Slack 
b. Total float 
c. Free float 
d. independent float 
2. In the basic EOQ model, if demand is 60 per 
month, ordering cost is Rs. 12 per order, 
holding cost is Rs. 10 per unit per month. what 
is the EOQ? 
a. 12 
b. 144 
c. 24 
d. 28 
3. Which one of the following is correct? In tile 
basic EOQ model, if lead time increases from 
5 to 10 days, the EOQ will 
a. double 
b. decrease by a factor of two 
c. remain the same  
d. The data is insufficient to find EOQ 
4. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct 
a. Work sampling is a technique of work 
measurement 
b. Method study is a technique aimed at 
evolving improved methods. 
c. Synthetic data is not a technique covered 
under pre-determined motion time systems 
d. ‘Select’ is the first step of method study 
5. A time standard for a data entry clerk is to be 
set A job is rated at l20 percent, it takes 30 
seconds to enter each record and the 
allowances are 15%. What is the normal time? 
a. 25 seconds 
b. 30 seconds 
c. 36 seconds 
d. 40 seconds 
6. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct?  
a. The operating characteristic curve of an 
acceptance sampling plan shows the 
ability of the plan to distinguish between 
good and bad lots. 
b. No sampling plan can give complete 
protection against the acceptance of 
defective products. 
c. C chart has straight line limits and U chart 
has zig-zag limits. 
d. Double sampling results in more 
inspection than single sampling if the 
incoming quality is very bad 
7. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct? 
a. A linear programming problem with 2 
variables and 3 constraints can be solved 
by Graphical Method. 
b. In big-M method if the artificial variable 
can not be driven out it depicts an optimal 
solution. 
c. Dual of a dual is the primal problem. 
d. For mixed constraints either big-M 
method or two phase method can be 
employed. 
8. In Order for a transportation matrix which has 
six rows and four columns not to degenerate, 
what is the number of occupied celled in the 
matrix? 
a. 6 
b. 9 
c. 15 
d. 24 
9. In a single server queuing system with arrival 
rate of ‘ ?’ and mean service time of ‘ ?’ the 
expected number of customers in the system is 
??
?
? ? ?
. 
What is the expected waiting time per 
customer in the system? 
a. 
??
2
?
? ? ?
 
b. ? ? ? 
c. 
1
? ? ?
 
d. 
? ? ? ?
?
?
 
10. Match List-I with List-II and -select the 
correct answer using the code given below the 
lists: 
List-I 
(Components) 
A. Control unit 
B. Arithmetic unit  
C. Memory  
D. Output device 
List-II 
(Functions) 
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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Page 2


 1 of 11
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. What is the additional time available for the 
performance of an activity in PERT and CPM 
calculated on the basis that all activities will 
start at their earliest start time, called? 
a. Slack 
b. Total float 
c. Free float 
d. independent float 
2. In the basic EOQ model, if demand is 60 per 
month, ordering cost is Rs. 12 per order, 
holding cost is Rs. 10 per unit per month. what 
is the EOQ? 
a. 12 
b. 144 
c. 24 
d. 28 
3. Which one of the following is correct? In tile 
basic EOQ model, if lead time increases from 
5 to 10 days, the EOQ will 
a. double 
b. decrease by a factor of two 
c. remain the same  
d. The data is insufficient to find EOQ 
4. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct 
a. Work sampling is a technique of work 
measurement 
b. Method study is a technique aimed at 
evolving improved methods. 
c. Synthetic data is not a technique covered 
under pre-determined motion time systems 
d. ‘Select’ is the first step of method study 
5. A time standard for a data entry clerk is to be 
set A job is rated at l20 percent, it takes 30 
seconds to enter each record and the 
allowances are 15%. What is the normal time? 
a. 25 seconds 
b. 30 seconds 
c. 36 seconds 
d. 40 seconds 
6. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct?  
a. The operating characteristic curve of an 
acceptance sampling plan shows the 
ability of the plan to distinguish between 
good and bad lots. 
b. No sampling plan can give complete 
protection against the acceptance of 
defective products. 
c. C chart has straight line limits and U chart 
has zig-zag limits. 
d. Double sampling results in more 
inspection than single sampling if the 
incoming quality is very bad 
7. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct? 
a. A linear programming problem with 2 
variables and 3 constraints can be solved 
by Graphical Method. 
b. In big-M method if the artificial variable 
can not be driven out it depicts an optimal 
solution. 
c. Dual of a dual is the primal problem. 
d. For mixed constraints either big-M 
method or two phase method can be 
employed. 
8. In Order for a transportation matrix which has 
six rows and four columns not to degenerate, 
what is the number of occupied celled in the 
matrix? 
a. 6 
b. 9 
c. 15 
d. 24 
9. In a single server queuing system with arrival 
rate of ‘ ?’ and mean service time of ‘ ?’ the 
expected number of customers in the system is 
??
?
? ? ?
. 
What is the expected waiting time per 
customer in the system? 
a. 
??
2
?
? ? ?
 
b. ? ? ? 
c. 
1
? ? ?
 
d. 
? ? ? ?
?
?
 
10. Match List-I with List-II and -select the 
correct answer using the code given below the 
lists: 
List-I 
(Components) 
A. Control unit 
B. Arithmetic unit  
C. Memory  
D. Output device 
List-II 
(Functions) 
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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 2 of 11
1. Logical checks and calculations 
2. Stores instructions and data 
3. Converts results and presents to the user 
4. Converts instructions to codes 
5. Receives instructions and per forms 
operations 
Code: 
  A  B  C D  
a.   2  1  4  3 
b.   5  3  2  1 
c.   2  3  4  1 
d.   5 1  2  3 
11. The Central Processing Unit of a mini 
computers uses which of the following blocks:  
1. Memory Unit 
2. Control Unit 
3. Arithmetic Unit 
4. Output Unit 
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
a. 1 and 2 
b. 1 and 3 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 4 
12. Which one of the following statements about 
FORTRAN is not correct? 
a. GO TO 999 
b. CONTINUE 999 
c. PRINT 999 
d. DIMENSION A (999) 
13. Bottom gating system is sometimes preferred 
in casting because 
a. it enables rapid filling of mould cavity 
b. it is easier to provide in the mould 
c. it provides cleaner metal  
d. it reduces splashing and turbulence 
14. The pattern adopted for those castings where 
there are some portions which’ are structurally 
weak and are likely to break by the force of 
ramming are called: 
a. Loose piece pattern 
b. Follow board pattern 
c. Skelton pattern 
d. Single piece pattern 
15. Which of the following casting processes does 
not/do not require central core for producing 
pipe? 
1. Sand casting process 
2. Die casting process 
3. Centrifugal casting process 
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
a. 1 and 2 
b. 2 only 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 3 only 
16. If critical path of a project is 20 months with a 
standard derivative 4 months, What is the 
probability that the project will be 
completed in 24moths? 
a. 15.85 % 
b. 68.3 % 
c. 84.2 % 
d. 95.50% 
17. Common contact ratio of a pair of spur pinion 
and gear is 
a. Less than 1.0 
b. equal to 1 
c. between 2 and 3 
d. greater than 3  
18. In case of am p disc clutch, if n
1
 is the 
nurnberofdiscicni1hedriving-shaft and n
2
 is the 
number of discs on the driven shaft, then what 
is the number of pairs of contact surfaces? 
a. n
1
 + n
2
 
b. n
1
 + n
2
 – 1 
c. n
1
 + n
2
 + 1 
d. n
1
 + 2n
2
 
19. For roller chain drive with sprocket having 10
 
teeth, the velocity of the driven shaft with 
respect to that of drive will be approximately 
a. same 
b. 5% above to 5% below 
c. 5% above 
d. below 
20. Which of the following in-line engines 
working on four-stroke cycle is completely 
balanced inherently? 
a. 2 cylinder engine 
b. 3 cylinder engine 
c. 4 cylinder engine 
d. 6 cylinder engine 
 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the lists: 
List-I 
(Key/spline) 
B. Gib head key 
C. Woodruff key 
D. Parallel key 
E. Spline 
List-II 
(Application) 
1. Self aligning 
2. Facilitates removal 
3. Mostly used 
4. Axial movement possible 
Code: 
  A  B C D 
a.   1 2 3 4 
b.   1 2 4 3 
c.   2  1 3 4 
d.   2 1 4 3 
21. Eight bolts are to be selected for fixing the 
cover plate of a cylinder subjected to a 
maximum load of 980 175 kN. If the design 
stress for the bolt material is 315 N/mm2, what 
is the diameter of each bolt? 
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Page 3


 1 of 11
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. What is the additional time available for the 
performance of an activity in PERT and CPM 
calculated on the basis that all activities will 
start at their earliest start time, called? 
a. Slack 
b. Total float 
c. Free float 
d. independent float 
2. In the basic EOQ model, if demand is 60 per 
month, ordering cost is Rs. 12 per order, 
holding cost is Rs. 10 per unit per month. what 
is the EOQ? 
a. 12 
b. 144 
c. 24 
d. 28 
3. Which one of the following is correct? In tile 
basic EOQ model, if lead time increases from 
5 to 10 days, the EOQ will 
a. double 
b. decrease by a factor of two 
c. remain the same  
d. The data is insufficient to find EOQ 
4. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct 
a. Work sampling is a technique of work 
measurement 
b. Method study is a technique aimed at 
evolving improved methods. 
c. Synthetic data is not a technique covered 
under pre-determined motion time systems 
d. ‘Select’ is the first step of method study 
5. A time standard for a data entry clerk is to be 
set A job is rated at l20 percent, it takes 30 
seconds to enter each record and the 
allowances are 15%. What is the normal time? 
a. 25 seconds 
b. 30 seconds 
c. 36 seconds 
d. 40 seconds 
6. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct?  
a. The operating characteristic curve of an 
acceptance sampling plan shows the 
ability of the plan to distinguish between 
good and bad lots. 
b. No sampling plan can give complete 
protection against the acceptance of 
defective products. 
c. C chart has straight line limits and U chart 
has zig-zag limits. 
d. Double sampling results in more 
inspection than single sampling if the 
incoming quality is very bad 
7. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct? 
a. A linear programming problem with 2 
variables and 3 constraints can be solved 
by Graphical Method. 
b. In big-M method if the artificial variable 
can not be driven out it depicts an optimal 
solution. 
c. Dual of a dual is the primal problem. 
d. For mixed constraints either big-M 
method or two phase method can be 
employed. 
8. In Order for a transportation matrix which has 
six rows and four columns not to degenerate, 
what is the number of occupied celled in the 
matrix? 
a. 6 
b. 9 
c. 15 
d. 24 
9. In a single server queuing system with arrival 
rate of ‘ ?’ and mean service time of ‘ ?’ the 
expected number of customers in the system is 
??
?
? ? ?
. 
What is the expected waiting time per 
customer in the system? 
a. 
??
2
?
? ? ?
 
b. ? ? ? 
c. 
1
? ? ?
 
d. 
? ? ? ?
?
?
 
10. Match List-I with List-II and -select the 
correct answer using the code given below the 
lists: 
List-I 
(Components) 
A. Control unit 
B. Arithmetic unit  
C. Memory  
D. Output device 
List-II 
(Functions) 
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
www.estudentzone.com
www.estudentzone.com
 2 of 11
1. Logical checks and calculations 
2. Stores instructions and data 
3. Converts results and presents to the user 
4. Converts instructions to codes 
5. Receives instructions and per forms 
operations 
Code: 
  A  B  C D  
a.   2  1  4  3 
b.   5  3  2  1 
c.   2  3  4  1 
d.   5 1  2  3 
11. The Central Processing Unit of a mini 
computers uses which of the following blocks:  
1. Memory Unit 
2. Control Unit 
3. Arithmetic Unit 
4. Output Unit 
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
a. 1 and 2 
b. 1 and 3 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 4 
12. Which one of the following statements about 
FORTRAN is not correct? 
a. GO TO 999 
b. CONTINUE 999 
c. PRINT 999 
d. DIMENSION A (999) 
13. Bottom gating system is sometimes preferred 
in casting because 
a. it enables rapid filling of mould cavity 
b. it is easier to provide in the mould 
c. it provides cleaner metal  
d. it reduces splashing and turbulence 
14. The pattern adopted for those castings where 
there are some portions which’ are structurally 
weak and are likely to break by the force of 
ramming are called: 
a. Loose piece pattern 
b. Follow board pattern 
c. Skelton pattern 
d. Single piece pattern 
15. Which of the following casting processes does 
not/do not require central core for producing 
pipe? 
1. Sand casting process 
2. Die casting process 
3. Centrifugal casting process 
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
a. 1 and 2 
b. 2 only 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 3 only 
16. If critical path of a project is 20 months with a 
standard derivative 4 months, What is the 
probability that the project will be 
completed in 24moths? 
a. 15.85 % 
b. 68.3 % 
c. 84.2 % 
d. 95.50% 
17. Common contact ratio of a pair of spur pinion 
and gear is 
a. Less than 1.0 
b. equal to 1 
c. between 2 and 3 
d. greater than 3  
18. In case of am p disc clutch, if n
1
 is the 
nurnberofdiscicni1hedriving-shaft and n
2
 is the 
number of discs on the driven shaft, then what 
is the number of pairs of contact surfaces? 
a. n
1
 + n
2
 
b. n
1
 + n
2
 – 1 
c. n
1
 + n
2
 + 1 
d. n
1
 + 2n
2
 
19. For roller chain drive with sprocket having 10
 
teeth, the velocity of the driven shaft with 
respect to that of drive will be approximately 
a. same 
b. 5% above to 5% below 
c. 5% above 
d. below 
20. Which of the following in-line engines 
working on four-stroke cycle is completely 
balanced inherently? 
a. 2 cylinder engine 
b. 3 cylinder engine 
c. 4 cylinder engine 
d. 6 cylinder engine 
 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the lists: 
List-I 
(Key/spline) 
B. Gib head key 
C. Woodruff key 
D. Parallel key 
E. Spline 
List-II 
(Application) 
1. Self aligning 
2. Facilitates removal 
3. Mostly used 
4. Axial movement possible 
Code: 
  A  B C D 
a.   1 2 3 4 
b.   1 2 4 3 
c.   2  1 3 4 
d.   2 1 4 3 
21. Eight bolts are to be selected for fixing the 
cover plate of a cylinder subjected to a 
maximum load of 980 175 kN. If the design 
stress for the bolt material is 315 N/mm2, what 
is the diameter of each bolt? 
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a. 10 mm 
b. 22 mm 
c. 30 mm 
d. 36 mm 
22. Consider the following statements: 
1. The amount of interference needed to 
create a tight joint varies with diameter of  
the shaft. 
2. An interference fit creates no stress state in 
the shaft. 
3. The stress state in the hub is similar to a 
thick-walled cylinder with internal 
pressure. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 3 only 
23. Consider the following statements: 
A nomenclature ?50 H8/p8 denotes that 
1. hole diameter is 50 mm. 
2. it is a shaft base system. 
3. 8 indicates fundamental deviation. 
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. I and 3 only 
d. 3 only 
24. Consider the following: 
V-belts are specified by their 
1. nominal inside length in mm 
2. nominal pitch length 
3. belt cross section symbol 
4. weight/unit length of the belt 
Which of the above are correct? 
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. 1 and 3 only 
d. 3 and 4 only 
25. Consider the following statements: 
Maximum shear stress induced in a power 
transmitting shaft is 
1. directly proportional to torque being 
transmitted. 
2. inversely proportional to the cube of its 
diameter. 
3. directly proportional to its polar moment 
of inertia. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 3 only 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 2 only  
26. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr’s Circle 
a. is equal to radius of Mohr’s circle 
b. is greater than radius of Mohr’s circle 
c. is less than radius of Mohr’s circle 
d. could be any of the above 
27. Maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of 
length l carrying uniformly distributed load w 
per unit length will be: 
a. Wl 
4
/ (EI) 
b. Wl 
4
/ (4 EI) 
c. Wl 
4
/ (8 EI) 
d. Wl 
4
/ (384 EI) 
[Where E = modulus of elasticity of beam material and I 
moment of inertia of beam cross-section] 
28. In I-section of a beam subjected to transverse 
shear force, the maximum shear stress is 
developed 
a. at the centre of the web 
b. at the top edge of the top flange 
c. at the bottom edge of the top flange 
d. None of the above 
29. In case of a beam of circular cross-section 
subjected to transverse loading, the maximum 
shear stress developed in the beam is greater 
than the average shear stress by 
a. 50% 
b. 33% 
c. 25% 
d. 10% 
30. A structural member subjected to an axial 
compressive force is called 
a. beam 
b. column 
c. frame  
d. strut   
31. Structure of a polymer is: 
a. Long chain 
b. Rhombic 
c. Cubic 
d. Closed pack hexagonal 
32. Consider the following statements: 
1. Metal forming decreases harmful effects 
of impurities and improves mechanical 
strength. 
2. Metal working process is a plastic 
deformation process. 
3. Very intricate shapes can be produced by 
forging process as compared to casting 
process. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 on1y 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 3 only 
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the lists 
List-I  
(Forging Technique) 
A. Smith Forging 
B. Drop Forging 
C. Press Forging 
D. Machine Forging 
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Page 4


 1 of 11
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. What is the additional time available for the 
performance of an activity in PERT and CPM 
calculated on the basis that all activities will 
start at their earliest start time, called? 
a. Slack 
b. Total float 
c. Free float 
d. independent float 
2. In the basic EOQ model, if demand is 60 per 
month, ordering cost is Rs. 12 per order, 
holding cost is Rs. 10 per unit per month. what 
is the EOQ? 
a. 12 
b. 144 
c. 24 
d. 28 
3. Which one of the following is correct? In tile 
basic EOQ model, if lead time increases from 
5 to 10 days, the EOQ will 
a. double 
b. decrease by a factor of two 
c. remain the same  
d. The data is insufficient to find EOQ 
4. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct 
a. Work sampling is a technique of work 
measurement 
b. Method study is a technique aimed at 
evolving improved methods. 
c. Synthetic data is not a technique covered 
under pre-determined motion time systems 
d. ‘Select’ is the first step of method study 
5. A time standard for a data entry clerk is to be 
set A job is rated at l20 percent, it takes 30 
seconds to enter each record and the 
allowances are 15%. What is the normal time? 
a. 25 seconds 
b. 30 seconds 
c. 36 seconds 
d. 40 seconds 
6. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct?  
a. The operating characteristic curve of an 
acceptance sampling plan shows the 
ability of the plan to distinguish between 
good and bad lots. 
b. No sampling plan can give complete 
protection against the acceptance of 
defective products. 
c. C chart has straight line limits and U chart 
has zig-zag limits. 
d. Double sampling results in more 
inspection than single sampling if the 
incoming quality is very bad 
7. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct? 
a. A linear programming problem with 2 
variables and 3 constraints can be solved 
by Graphical Method. 
b. In big-M method if the artificial variable 
can not be driven out it depicts an optimal 
solution. 
c. Dual of a dual is the primal problem. 
d. For mixed constraints either big-M 
method or two phase method can be 
employed. 
8. In Order for a transportation matrix which has 
six rows and four columns not to degenerate, 
what is the number of occupied celled in the 
matrix? 
a. 6 
b. 9 
c. 15 
d. 24 
9. In a single server queuing system with arrival 
rate of ‘ ?’ and mean service time of ‘ ?’ the 
expected number of customers in the system is 
??
?
? ? ?
. 
What is the expected waiting time per 
customer in the system? 
a. 
??
2
?
? ? ?
 
b. ? ? ? 
c. 
1
? ? ?
 
d. 
? ? ? ?
?
?
 
10. Match List-I with List-II and -select the 
correct answer using the code given below the 
lists: 
List-I 
(Components) 
A. Control unit 
B. Arithmetic unit  
C. Memory  
D. Output device 
List-II 
(Functions) 
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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 2 of 11
1. Logical checks and calculations 
2. Stores instructions and data 
3. Converts results and presents to the user 
4. Converts instructions to codes 
5. Receives instructions and per forms 
operations 
Code: 
  A  B  C D  
a.   2  1  4  3 
b.   5  3  2  1 
c.   2  3  4  1 
d.   5 1  2  3 
11. The Central Processing Unit of a mini 
computers uses which of the following blocks:  
1. Memory Unit 
2. Control Unit 
3. Arithmetic Unit 
4. Output Unit 
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
a. 1 and 2 
b. 1 and 3 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 4 
12. Which one of the following statements about 
FORTRAN is not correct? 
a. GO TO 999 
b. CONTINUE 999 
c. PRINT 999 
d. DIMENSION A (999) 
13. Bottom gating system is sometimes preferred 
in casting because 
a. it enables rapid filling of mould cavity 
b. it is easier to provide in the mould 
c. it provides cleaner metal  
d. it reduces splashing and turbulence 
14. The pattern adopted for those castings where 
there are some portions which’ are structurally 
weak and are likely to break by the force of 
ramming are called: 
a. Loose piece pattern 
b. Follow board pattern 
c. Skelton pattern 
d. Single piece pattern 
15. Which of the following casting processes does 
not/do not require central core for producing 
pipe? 
1. Sand casting process 
2. Die casting process 
3. Centrifugal casting process 
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
a. 1 and 2 
b. 2 only 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 3 only 
16. If critical path of a project is 20 months with a 
standard derivative 4 months, What is the 
probability that the project will be 
completed in 24moths? 
a. 15.85 % 
b. 68.3 % 
c. 84.2 % 
d. 95.50% 
17. Common contact ratio of a pair of spur pinion 
and gear is 
a. Less than 1.0 
b. equal to 1 
c. between 2 and 3 
d. greater than 3  
18. In case of am p disc clutch, if n
1
 is the 
nurnberofdiscicni1hedriving-shaft and n
2
 is the 
number of discs on the driven shaft, then what 
is the number of pairs of contact surfaces? 
a. n
1
 + n
2
 
b. n
1
 + n
2
 – 1 
c. n
1
 + n
2
 + 1 
d. n
1
 + 2n
2
 
19. For roller chain drive with sprocket having 10
 
teeth, the velocity of the driven shaft with 
respect to that of drive will be approximately 
a. same 
b. 5% above to 5% below 
c. 5% above 
d. below 
20. Which of the following in-line engines 
working on four-stroke cycle is completely 
balanced inherently? 
a. 2 cylinder engine 
b. 3 cylinder engine 
c. 4 cylinder engine 
d. 6 cylinder engine 
 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the lists: 
List-I 
(Key/spline) 
B. Gib head key 
C. Woodruff key 
D. Parallel key 
E. Spline 
List-II 
(Application) 
1. Self aligning 
2. Facilitates removal 
3. Mostly used 
4. Axial movement possible 
Code: 
  A  B C D 
a.   1 2 3 4 
b.   1 2 4 3 
c.   2  1 3 4 
d.   2 1 4 3 
21. Eight bolts are to be selected for fixing the 
cover plate of a cylinder subjected to a 
maximum load of 980 175 kN. If the design 
stress for the bolt material is 315 N/mm2, what 
is the diameter of each bolt? 
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a. 10 mm 
b. 22 mm 
c. 30 mm 
d. 36 mm 
22. Consider the following statements: 
1. The amount of interference needed to 
create a tight joint varies with diameter of  
the shaft. 
2. An interference fit creates no stress state in 
the shaft. 
3. The stress state in the hub is similar to a 
thick-walled cylinder with internal 
pressure. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 3 only 
23. Consider the following statements: 
A nomenclature ?50 H8/p8 denotes that 
1. hole diameter is 50 mm. 
2. it is a shaft base system. 
3. 8 indicates fundamental deviation. 
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. I and 3 only 
d. 3 only 
24. Consider the following: 
V-belts are specified by their 
1. nominal inside length in mm 
2. nominal pitch length 
3. belt cross section symbol 
4. weight/unit length of the belt 
Which of the above are correct? 
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. 1 and 3 only 
d. 3 and 4 only 
25. Consider the following statements: 
Maximum shear stress induced in a power 
transmitting shaft is 
1. directly proportional to torque being 
transmitted. 
2. inversely proportional to the cube of its 
diameter. 
3. directly proportional to its polar moment 
of inertia. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 3 only 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 2 only  
26. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr’s Circle 
a. is equal to radius of Mohr’s circle 
b. is greater than radius of Mohr’s circle 
c. is less than radius of Mohr’s circle 
d. could be any of the above 
27. Maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of 
length l carrying uniformly distributed load w 
per unit length will be: 
a. Wl 
4
/ (EI) 
b. Wl 
4
/ (4 EI) 
c. Wl 
4
/ (8 EI) 
d. Wl 
4
/ (384 EI) 
[Where E = modulus of elasticity of beam material and I 
moment of inertia of beam cross-section] 
28. In I-section of a beam subjected to transverse 
shear force, the maximum shear stress is 
developed 
a. at the centre of the web 
b. at the top edge of the top flange 
c. at the bottom edge of the top flange 
d. None of the above 
29. In case of a beam of circular cross-section 
subjected to transverse loading, the maximum 
shear stress developed in the beam is greater 
than the average shear stress by 
a. 50% 
b. 33% 
c. 25% 
d. 10% 
30. A structural member subjected to an axial 
compressive force is called 
a. beam 
b. column 
c. frame  
d. strut   
31. Structure of a polymer is: 
a. Long chain 
b. Rhombic 
c. Cubic 
d. Closed pack hexagonal 
32. Consider the following statements: 
1. Metal forming decreases harmful effects 
of impurities and improves mechanical 
strength. 
2. Metal working process is a plastic 
deformation process. 
3. Very intricate shapes can be produced by 
forging process as compared to casting 
process. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 on1y 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 3 only 
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the lists 
List-I  
(Forging Technique) 
A. Smith Forging 
B. Drop Forging 
C. Press Forging 
D. Machine Forging 
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List-II  
(Process) 
1. Material is only upset to get the desired 
shape 
2. Carried out manually in open dies 
3. Done in closed impression dies by 
hammers in blows 
4. Done in closed impression dies by 
continuous squeezing force 
Code: 
  A  B  C D  
a.   2 3 4 1 
b.   4  3  2  1 
c.   2 1 4  3 
d.   4  1  2  3 
34. A cylindrical vessel with flat bottom can be 
deep drawn by  
a. shallow drawing 
b. single action deep drawing 
c. double action deep drawing 
d. triple action deep drawing 
35. Which one of the following methods is used 
for the manufacture of collapsible toothpaste 
tubes? 
a. Impact extrusion 
b. Direct extrusion 
c. Deep drawing 
d. Piercing 
36. Small amount of carbonaceous material 
sprinkled on the inner surface of mould cavity 
is called 
a. Backing sand 
b. Facing sand 
c. Green sand 
d. Dry sand 
37. In automobiles, Hook’s joint is used between 
which of the following? 
a. Clutch and gear box 
b. Gear box and differential 
c. Differential and wheels 
d. Flywheel and clutch 
38. In a flat belt drive the belt can be subjected to 
a maximum tension T and centrifugal tension 
T
C
. What is the condition for transmission of 
maximum power? 
a. T = T
C
 
b. T= 3 T
C
 
c. T = 2T
C
 
d. T = 3 T
C
 
39. A shaft is subjected to combined twisting 
moment T and bending moment M. What is 
the equivalent bending moment? 
a. ½ 
? ?
22
M T ? 
b. 
22
M T ? 
c. ½ 
? ?
22
M MT ?? 
d. 
22
M MT ??
 
 
40. The ratio of torque carrying capacity of a solid 
shaft to that of a hollow shaft is given by: 
a. (1-K
4
) 
b. (1-K
4
)
-1
 
c. K
4
 
d. 1/K
4
 
Where 
0
i
D
K
D
? 
D
i
 =  Inside diameter of hollow shaft 
D
0
 = Outside diameter of hollow shaft Shaft materials are 
the same. 
41. The principal stresses at a point in two- 
dimensional stress system are ?
1
 and ?
2
 and 
corresponding principal strains are ?
1 
and ?
2
. If 
E and V denote Young’s modulus and 
Poisson’s ratio, respectively, then which one 
of the following is correct? 
a. 
11
E ? ? ? 
b. 
??
112
2
1
E
V
V
? ?? ??
?
 
c. ??
112
2
1
E
V
V
? ?? ??
?
 
d. 
11 2
() EV ? ?? ? ? 
42. A point in a two dimensional state of strain is 
subjected to pure shearing strain of magnitude 
y radians. Which one of the following is the 
maximum principal strain? 
a. 
xy
? 
b. /2
xy
? 
c. /2
xy
? 
d. 2
xy
? 
43.  
Consider the Mohr’s circle shown above: 
What is the state of stress represented by this 
circle? 
a. ?
x
 = ?
y
 ? 0, ?
xy
 = 0 
b. ?
x
 = ?
y
 = 0, ?
xy
 ? 0 
c. ?
x
 = 0, ?
y
 = ?
xy
 ? 0 
d. ?
x
 ? 0, ?
y
 = ?
xy
 = 0 
44. What is the relationship between the linear 
elastic properties Young’s modulus (E), 
rigidity modulus (G) and bulk modulus (K)? 
a. 
19 3
EK G
? ? 
b. 
39 1
EK G
? ? 
c. 
93 1
EK G
? ? 
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 1 of 11
 
 
 
PAPER-II 
 
1. What is the additional time available for the 
performance of an activity in PERT and CPM 
calculated on the basis that all activities will 
start at their earliest start time, called? 
a. Slack 
b. Total float 
c. Free float 
d. independent float 
2. In the basic EOQ model, if demand is 60 per 
month, ordering cost is Rs. 12 per order, 
holding cost is Rs. 10 per unit per month. what 
is the EOQ? 
a. 12 
b. 144 
c. 24 
d. 28 
3. Which one of the following is correct? In tile 
basic EOQ model, if lead time increases from 
5 to 10 days, the EOQ will 
a. double 
b. decrease by a factor of two 
c. remain the same  
d. The data is insufficient to find EOQ 
4. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct 
a. Work sampling is a technique of work 
measurement 
b. Method study is a technique aimed at 
evolving improved methods. 
c. Synthetic data is not a technique covered 
under pre-determined motion time systems 
d. ‘Select’ is the first step of method study 
5. A time standard for a data entry clerk is to be 
set A job is rated at l20 percent, it takes 30 
seconds to enter each record and the 
allowances are 15%. What is the normal time? 
a. 25 seconds 
b. 30 seconds 
c. 36 seconds 
d. 40 seconds 
6. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct?  
a. The operating characteristic curve of an 
acceptance sampling plan shows the 
ability of the plan to distinguish between 
good and bad lots. 
b. No sampling plan can give complete 
protection against the acceptance of 
defective products. 
c. C chart has straight line limits and U chart 
has zig-zag limits. 
d. Double sampling results in more 
inspection than single sampling if the 
incoming quality is very bad 
7. Which one of the following statements is not 
correct? 
a. A linear programming problem with 2 
variables and 3 constraints can be solved 
by Graphical Method. 
b. In big-M method if the artificial variable 
can not be driven out it depicts an optimal 
solution. 
c. Dual of a dual is the primal problem. 
d. For mixed constraints either big-M 
method or two phase method can be 
employed. 
8. In Order for a transportation matrix which has 
six rows and four columns not to degenerate, 
what is the number of occupied celled in the 
matrix? 
a. 6 
b. 9 
c. 15 
d. 24 
9. In a single server queuing system with arrival 
rate of ‘ ?’ and mean service time of ‘ ?’ the 
expected number of customers in the system is 
??
?
? ? ?
. 
What is the expected waiting time per 
customer in the system? 
a. 
??
2
?
? ? ?
 
b. ? ? ? 
c. 
1
? ? ?
 
d. 
? ? ? ?
?
?
 
10. Match List-I with List-II and -select the 
correct answer using the code given below the 
lists: 
List-I 
(Components) 
A. Control unit 
B. Arithmetic unit  
C. Memory  
D. Output device 
List-II 
(Functions) 
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 
M ME EC CH HA AN NI IC CA AL L  E EN NG GI IN NE EE ER RI IN NG G  
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 2 of 11
1. Logical checks and calculations 
2. Stores instructions and data 
3. Converts results and presents to the user 
4. Converts instructions to codes 
5. Receives instructions and per forms 
operations 
Code: 
  A  B  C D  
a.   2  1  4  3 
b.   5  3  2  1 
c.   2  3  4  1 
d.   5 1  2  3 
11. The Central Processing Unit of a mini 
computers uses which of the following blocks:  
1. Memory Unit 
2. Control Unit 
3. Arithmetic Unit 
4. Output Unit 
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
a. 1 and 2 
b. 1 and 3 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 1 and 4 
12. Which one of the following statements about 
FORTRAN is not correct? 
a. GO TO 999 
b. CONTINUE 999 
c. PRINT 999 
d. DIMENSION A (999) 
13. Bottom gating system is sometimes preferred 
in casting because 
a. it enables rapid filling of mould cavity 
b. it is easier to provide in the mould 
c. it provides cleaner metal  
d. it reduces splashing and turbulence 
14. The pattern adopted for those castings where 
there are some portions which’ are structurally 
weak and are likely to break by the force of 
ramming are called: 
a. Loose piece pattern 
b. Follow board pattern 
c. Skelton pattern 
d. Single piece pattern 
15. Which of the following casting processes does 
not/do not require central core for producing 
pipe? 
1. Sand casting process 
2. Die casting process 
3. Centrifugal casting process 
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
a. 1 and 2 
b. 2 only 
c. 2 and 3 
d. 3 only 
16. If critical path of a project is 20 months with a 
standard derivative 4 months, What is the 
probability that the project will be 
completed in 24moths? 
a. 15.85 % 
b. 68.3 % 
c. 84.2 % 
d. 95.50% 
17. Common contact ratio of a pair of spur pinion 
and gear is 
a. Less than 1.0 
b. equal to 1 
c. between 2 and 3 
d. greater than 3  
18. In case of am p disc clutch, if n
1
 is the 
nurnberofdiscicni1hedriving-shaft and n
2
 is the 
number of discs on the driven shaft, then what 
is the number of pairs of contact surfaces? 
a. n
1
 + n
2
 
b. n
1
 + n
2
 – 1 
c. n
1
 + n
2
 + 1 
d. n
1
 + 2n
2
 
19. For roller chain drive with sprocket having 10
 
teeth, the velocity of the driven shaft with 
respect to that of drive will be approximately 
a. same 
b. 5% above to 5% below 
c. 5% above 
d. below 
20. Which of the following in-line engines 
working on four-stroke cycle is completely 
balanced inherently? 
a. 2 cylinder engine 
b. 3 cylinder engine 
c. 4 cylinder engine 
d. 6 cylinder engine 
 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the lists: 
List-I 
(Key/spline) 
B. Gib head key 
C. Woodruff key 
D. Parallel key 
E. Spline 
List-II 
(Application) 
1. Self aligning 
2. Facilitates removal 
3. Mostly used 
4. Axial movement possible 
Code: 
  A  B C D 
a.   1 2 3 4 
b.   1 2 4 3 
c.   2  1 3 4 
d.   2 1 4 3 
21. Eight bolts are to be selected for fixing the 
cover plate of a cylinder subjected to a 
maximum load of 980 175 kN. If the design 
stress for the bolt material is 315 N/mm2, what 
is the diameter of each bolt? 
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 3 of 11
a. 10 mm 
b. 22 mm 
c. 30 mm 
d. 36 mm 
22. Consider the following statements: 
1. The amount of interference needed to 
create a tight joint varies with diameter of  
the shaft. 
2. An interference fit creates no stress state in 
the shaft. 
3. The stress state in the hub is similar to a 
thick-walled cylinder with internal 
pressure. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 3 only 
23. Consider the following statements: 
A nomenclature ?50 H8/p8 denotes that 
1. hole diameter is 50 mm. 
2. it is a shaft base system. 
3. 8 indicates fundamental deviation. 
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. I and 3 only 
d. 3 only 
24. Consider the following: 
V-belts are specified by their 
1. nominal inside length in mm 
2. nominal pitch length 
3. belt cross section symbol 
4. weight/unit length of the belt 
Which of the above are correct? 
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 
b. 1 and 2 only 
c. 1 and 3 only 
d. 3 and 4 only 
25. Consider the following statements: 
Maximum shear stress induced in a power 
transmitting shaft is 
1. directly proportional to torque being 
transmitted. 
2. inversely proportional to the cube of its 
diameter. 
3. directly proportional to its polar moment 
of inertia. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 3 only 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 2 only  
26. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr’s Circle 
a. is equal to radius of Mohr’s circle 
b. is greater than radius of Mohr’s circle 
c. is less than radius of Mohr’s circle 
d. could be any of the above 
27. Maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of 
length l carrying uniformly distributed load w 
per unit length will be: 
a. Wl 
4
/ (EI) 
b. Wl 
4
/ (4 EI) 
c. Wl 
4
/ (8 EI) 
d. Wl 
4
/ (384 EI) 
[Where E = modulus of elasticity of beam material and I 
moment of inertia of beam cross-section] 
28. In I-section of a beam subjected to transverse 
shear force, the maximum shear stress is 
developed 
a. at the centre of the web 
b. at the top edge of the top flange 
c. at the bottom edge of the top flange 
d. None of the above 
29. In case of a beam of circular cross-section 
subjected to transverse loading, the maximum 
shear stress developed in the beam is greater 
than the average shear stress by 
a. 50% 
b. 33% 
c. 25% 
d. 10% 
30. A structural member subjected to an axial 
compressive force is called 
a. beam 
b. column 
c. frame  
d. strut   
31. Structure of a polymer is: 
a. Long chain 
b. Rhombic 
c. Cubic 
d. Closed pack hexagonal 
32. Consider the following statements: 
1. Metal forming decreases harmful effects 
of impurities and improves mechanical 
strength. 
2. Metal working process is a plastic 
deformation process. 
3. Very intricate shapes can be produced by 
forging process as compared to casting 
process. 
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
a. 1, 2 and 3 
b. 1 and 2 on1y 
c. 2 and 3 only 
d. 1 and 3 only 
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the lists 
List-I  
(Forging Technique) 
A. Smith Forging 
B. Drop Forging 
C. Press Forging 
D. Machine Forging 
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List-II  
(Process) 
1. Material is only upset to get the desired 
shape 
2. Carried out manually in open dies 
3. Done in closed impression dies by 
hammers in blows 
4. Done in closed impression dies by 
continuous squeezing force 
Code: 
  A  B  C D  
a.   2 3 4 1 
b.   4  3  2  1 
c.   2 1 4  3 
d.   4  1  2  3 
34. A cylindrical vessel with flat bottom can be 
deep drawn by  
a. shallow drawing 
b. single action deep drawing 
c. double action deep drawing 
d. triple action deep drawing 
35. Which one of the following methods is used 
for the manufacture of collapsible toothpaste 
tubes? 
a. Impact extrusion 
b. Direct extrusion 
c. Deep drawing 
d. Piercing 
36. Small amount of carbonaceous material 
sprinkled on the inner surface of mould cavity 
is called 
a. Backing sand 
b. Facing sand 
c. Green sand 
d. Dry sand 
37. In automobiles, Hook’s joint is used between 
which of the following? 
a. Clutch and gear box 
b. Gear box and differential 
c. Differential and wheels 
d. Flywheel and clutch 
38. In a flat belt drive the belt can be subjected to 
a maximum tension T and centrifugal tension 
T
C
. What is the condition for transmission of 
maximum power? 
a. T = T
C
 
b. T= 3 T
C
 
c. T = 2T
C
 
d. T = 3 T
C
 
39. A shaft is subjected to combined twisting 
moment T and bending moment M. What is 
the equivalent bending moment? 
a. ½ 
? ?
22
M T ? 
b. 
22
M T ? 
c. ½ 
? ?
22
M MT ?? 
d. 
22
M MT ??
 
 
40. The ratio of torque carrying capacity of a solid 
shaft to that of a hollow shaft is given by: 
a. (1-K
4
) 
b. (1-K
4
)
-1
 
c. K
4
 
d. 1/K
4
 
Where 
0
i
D
K
D
? 
D
i
 =  Inside diameter of hollow shaft 
D
0
 = Outside diameter of hollow shaft Shaft materials are 
the same. 
41. The principal stresses at a point in two- 
dimensional stress system are ?
1
 and ?
2
 and 
corresponding principal strains are ?
1 
and ?
2
. If 
E and V denote Young’s modulus and 
Poisson’s ratio, respectively, then which one 
of the following is correct? 
a. 
11
E ? ? ? 
b. 
??
112
2
1
E
V
V
? ?? ??
?
 
c. ??
112
2
1
E
V
V
? ?? ??
?
 
d. 
11 2
() EV ? ?? ? ? 
42. A point in a two dimensional state of strain is 
subjected to pure shearing strain of magnitude 
y radians. Which one of the following is the 
maximum principal strain? 
a. 
xy
? 
b. /2
xy
? 
c. /2
xy
? 
d. 2
xy
? 
43.  
Consider the Mohr’s circle shown above: 
What is the state of stress represented by this 
circle? 
a. ?
x
 = ?
y
 ? 0, ?
xy
 = 0 
b. ?
x
 = ?
y
 = 0, ?
xy
 ? 0 
c. ?
x
 = 0, ?
y
 = ?
xy
 ? 0 
d. ?
x
 ? 0, ?
y
 = ?
xy
 = 0 
44. What is the relationship between the linear 
elastic properties Young’s modulus (E), 
rigidity modulus (G) and bulk modulus (K)? 
a. 
19 3
EK G
? ? 
b. 
39 1
EK G
? ? 
c. 
93 1
EK G
? ? 
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d. 
91 3
EK G
?? 
45. A 100 mm x 5 mm x 5 mm steel bar fee to 
expand is heated from 15
0
C to 40
0
C. What 
shall be developed? 
a. Tensile stress 
b. Compressive stress 
c. Shear stress  
d. No stress 
46.  
 
The shearing force diagram for a beam is 
shown in the above figure. The bending 
moment diagram is represented by which one 
of the following? 
 
a.  
 
 
 
b.  
 
 
 
 
c.  
 
 
 
 
d.  
 
 
 
47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the lists 
List-I 
(Formula/theorem/method) 
A. Clapeyron’s theorem 
B. Maculay’s method 
C. Perry’s formula 
List-II 
(Deals with topic) 
1. Deflection of beam 
2. Eccentrically loaded column 
3. Rivetted joints  
4. Continuous beam 
Code: 
  A B  C 
a.   3  2  1 
b.   4  1  2 
c.   4  1  3 
d.   2  4  3 
48. What is the shape of the shearing stress 
distribution across a rectangular cross- section 
beam? 
a. Triangular 
b. Parabolic only 
c. Rectangular only 
d. A combination of rectangular and 
parabolic shape 
49. A solid shaft transmits a torque T. The 
allowable shearing stress is ?. What is the 
diameter of the shaft? 
a. 
3
16T
? ?
 
b. 
3
32T
? ?
 
c. 
3
16T
?
 
d. 
3
T
?
 
50. Which one of the following expresses the 
stress factor K used for design of closed coiled 
helical spring? 
a. 
44
41
C
C
?
?
 
b. 
4 1 0.615
44
C
CC
?
?
?
 
c. 
44 0.615
41
C
CC
?
?
?
 
d. 
41
44
C
C
?
?
 
Where C = spring index  
51. A helical coil spring with wire diameter ‘d’ 
and coil diameter ‘D’ is subjected to external 
load. A constant ratio of d and D has to be 
maintained, such that the extension of spring is 
independent of d and D. What is this ratio? 
a. 
34
/ Dd 
b. 
34
/ dD 
c. 
4/3
3
D
d
 
d. 
34
3
d
D
?
 
52. A closed coil helical spring of mean coil 
diameter ‘D’ and made from a wire of 
diameter ‘d’ is subjected to a torque ‘T’ about 
the axis of the spring. What is the maximum 
stress developed in the spring wire? 
a. 
3
8T
d ?
 
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