Page 1 2012 XL XL 1/28 XL : LIFE SCIENCES Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 28 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. This Question Booklet contains Seven sections: GA (General Aptitude), H (Chemistry), I (Biochemistry), J (Botany), K (Microbiology), L (Zoology) and M (Food Technology). 8. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section H (Chemistry) are compulsory. Attempt any two optional sections I through M. Using a black ink ball point pen, mark the sections you have chosen by darkening the appropriate bubbles provided on the left hand side of the ORS. Also, write the codes of the optional sections in the boxes provided. In case the candidate does not bubble section codes corresponding to Optional Section-1 or Optional Section-2 or both, the corresponding sections will NOT be evaluated. 9. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 belong to Section GA (General Aptitude) and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 – Q.10 carry 2 marks each. 10. There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in Section H (Chemistry), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1–Q.5 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.6–Q.15 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include one pair of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 11. Each of the other sections (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions Q.1–Q.10 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.11–Q.20 carry 2 marks each. 12. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 13. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 14. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number XL Page 2 2012 XL XL 1/28 XL : LIFE SCIENCES Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 28 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. This Question Booklet contains Seven sections: GA (General Aptitude), H (Chemistry), I (Biochemistry), J (Botany), K (Microbiology), L (Zoology) and M (Food Technology). 8. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section H (Chemistry) are compulsory. Attempt any two optional sections I through M. Using a black ink ball point pen, mark the sections you have chosen by darkening the appropriate bubbles provided on the left hand side of the ORS. Also, write the codes of the optional sections in the boxes provided. In case the candidate does not bubble section codes corresponding to Optional Section-1 or Optional Section-2 or both, the corresponding sections will NOT be evaluated. 9. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 belong to Section GA (General Aptitude) and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 – Q.10 carry 2 marks each. 10. There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in Section H (Chemistry), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1–Q.5 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.6–Q.15 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include one pair of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 11. Each of the other sections (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions Q.1–Q.10 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.11–Q.20 carry 2 marks each. 12. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 13. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 14. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number XL 2012 XL XL 2/28 General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory) Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 If (1.001) 1259 = 3.52 and (1.001) 2062 = 7.85, then (1.001) 3321 = (A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64 Q.2 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the following is INCORRECT? I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow. (A) requested that (B) should be given (C) the driving test (D) instead of tomorrow Q.3 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below? Latitude (A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness Q.4 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive. (A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance Q.5 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony. (A) should take (B) shall take (C) should have taken (D) will have taken Q. 6 - Q. 10 carry two marks each. Q.6 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them. Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage? (A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances. (B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals. (C) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors. (D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being against them. Page 3 2012 XL XL 1/28 XL : LIFE SCIENCES Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 28 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. This Question Booklet contains Seven sections: GA (General Aptitude), H (Chemistry), I (Biochemistry), J (Botany), K (Microbiology), L (Zoology) and M (Food Technology). 8. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section H (Chemistry) are compulsory. Attempt any two optional sections I through M. Using a black ink ball point pen, mark the sections you have chosen by darkening the appropriate bubbles provided on the left hand side of the ORS. Also, write the codes of the optional sections in the boxes provided. In case the candidate does not bubble section codes corresponding to Optional Section-1 or Optional Section-2 or both, the corresponding sections will NOT be evaluated. 9. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 belong to Section GA (General Aptitude) and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 – Q.10 carry 2 marks each. 10. There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in Section H (Chemistry), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1–Q.5 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.6–Q.15 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include one pair of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 11. Each of the other sections (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions Q.1–Q.10 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.11–Q.20 carry 2 marks each. 12. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 13. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 14. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number XL 2012 XL XL 2/28 General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory) Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 If (1.001) 1259 = 3.52 and (1.001) 2062 = 7.85, then (1.001) 3321 = (A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64 Q.2 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the following is INCORRECT? I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow. (A) requested that (B) should be given (C) the driving test (D) instead of tomorrow Q.3 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below? Latitude (A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness Q.4 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive. (A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance Q.5 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony. (A) should take (B) shall take (C) should have taken (D) will have taken Q. 6 - Q. 10 carry two marks each. Q.6 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them. Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage? (A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances. (B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals. (C) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors. (D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being against them. 2012 XL XL 3/28 Q.7 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The probability that they will meet on that day is (A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16 Q.8 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household. Category Amount (Rs.) Food 4000 Clothing 1200 Rent 2000 Savings 1500 Other expenses 1800 The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is (A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86% Q.9 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8 Q.10 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10 Page 4 2012 XL XL 1/28 XL : LIFE SCIENCES Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 28 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. This Question Booklet contains Seven sections: GA (General Aptitude), H (Chemistry), I (Biochemistry), J (Botany), K (Microbiology), L (Zoology) and M (Food Technology). 8. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section H (Chemistry) are compulsory. Attempt any two optional sections I through M. Using a black ink ball point pen, mark the sections you have chosen by darkening the appropriate bubbles provided on the left hand side of the ORS. Also, write the codes of the optional sections in the boxes provided. In case the candidate does not bubble section codes corresponding to Optional Section-1 or Optional Section-2 or both, the corresponding sections will NOT be evaluated. 9. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 belong to Section GA (General Aptitude) and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 – Q.10 carry 2 marks each. 10. There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in Section H (Chemistry), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1–Q.5 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.6–Q.15 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include one pair of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 11. Each of the other sections (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions Q.1–Q.10 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.11–Q.20 carry 2 marks each. 12. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 13. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 14. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number XL 2012 XL XL 2/28 General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory) Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 If (1.001) 1259 = 3.52 and (1.001) 2062 = 7.85, then (1.001) 3321 = (A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64 Q.2 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the following is INCORRECT? I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow. (A) requested that (B) should be given (C) the driving test (D) instead of tomorrow Q.3 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below? Latitude (A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness Q.4 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive. (A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance Q.5 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony. (A) should take (B) shall take (C) should have taken (D) will have taken Q. 6 - Q. 10 carry two marks each. Q.6 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them. Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage? (A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances. (B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals. (C) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors. (D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being against them. 2012 XL XL 3/28 Q.7 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The probability that they will meet on that day is (A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16 Q.8 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household. Category Amount (Rs.) Food 4000 Clothing 1200 Rent 2000 Savings 1500 Other expenses 1800 The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is (A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86% Q.9 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8 Q.10 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10 2012 XL XL 4/28 H : CHEMISTRY (Compulsory) Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 Among the following, the most reactive diene in the Diels-Alder reaction is (A) (B) (C) (D) Q.2 The molecule that does NOT absorb the microwave radiation is (A) CO 2 (B) H 2 O (C) CO (D) NO Q.3 The hybridization of atomic orbitals of sulphur in SF 4 is (A) dsp 2 (B) sp 3 d 2 (C) sp 3 d (D) sp 3 Q.4 The ionic size of Na + , F - , Mg 2+ and Al 3+ varies as (A) Al 3+ > Mg 2+ > Na + > F - (B) F - > Na + > Mg 2+ > Al 3+ (C) Al 3+ > Mg 2+ > F - > Na + (D) Na + > F - > Mg 2+ > Al 3+ Q.5 The non-aromatic compound/ion is (A) (B) (C) (D) Page 5 2012 XL XL 1/28 XL : LIFE SCIENCES Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 28 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. This Question Booklet contains Seven sections: GA (General Aptitude), H (Chemistry), I (Biochemistry), J (Botany), K (Microbiology), L (Zoology) and M (Food Technology). 8. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section H (Chemistry) are compulsory. Attempt any two optional sections I through M. Using a black ink ball point pen, mark the sections you have chosen by darkening the appropriate bubbles provided on the left hand side of the ORS. Also, write the codes of the optional sections in the boxes provided. In case the candidate does not bubble section codes corresponding to Optional Section-1 or Optional Section-2 or both, the corresponding sections will NOT be evaluated. 9. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 belong to Section GA (General Aptitude) and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.1 – Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 – Q.10 carry 2 marks each. 10. There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in Section H (Chemistry), which is compulsory. Questions Q.1–Q.5 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.6–Q.15 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include one pair of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 11. Each of the other sections (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions Q.1–Q.10 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.11–Q.20 carry 2 marks each. 12. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 13. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 14. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number XL 2012 XL XL 2/28 General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory) Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 If (1.001) 1259 = 3.52 and (1.001) 2062 = 7.85, then (1.001) 3321 = (A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64 Q.2 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the following is INCORRECT? I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow. (A) requested that (B) should be given (C) the driving test (D) instead of tomorrow Q.3 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below? Latitude (A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness Q.4 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence: Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive. (A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance Q.5 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony. (A) should take (B) shall take (C) should have taken (D) will have taken Q. 6 - Q. 10 carry two marks each. Q.6 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them. Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage? (A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances. (B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals. (C) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors. (D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being against them. 2012 XL XL 3/28 Q.7 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The probability that they will meet on that day is (A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16 Q.8 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household. Category Amount (Rs.) Food 4000 Clothing 1200 Rent 2000 Savings 1500 Other expenses 1800 The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is (A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86% Q.9 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8 Q.10 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10 2012 XL XL 4/28 H : CHEMISTRY (Compulsory) Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 Among the following, the most reactive diene in the Diels-Alder reaction is (A) (B) (C) (D) Q.2 The molecule that does NOT absorb the microwave radiation is (A) CO 2 (B) H 2 O (C) CO (D) NO Q.3 The hybridization of atomic orbitals of sulphur in SF 4 is (A) dsp 2 (B) sp 3 d 2 (C) sp 3 d (D) sp 3 Q.4 The ionic size of Na + , F - , Mg 2+ and Al 3+ varies as (A) Al 3+ > Mg 2+ > Na + > F - (B) F - > Na + > Mg 2+ > Al 3+ (C) Al 3+ > Mg 2+ > F - > Na + (D) Na + > F - > Mg 2+ > Al 3+ Q.5 The non-aromatic compound/ion is (A) (B) (C) (D) 2012 XL XL 5/28 Q. 6 - Q. 15 carry two marks each. Q.6 As predicted by MO theory, the bond order and magnetic nature of NO + are (A) three and paramagnetic (B) two and diamagnetic (C) two and paramagnetic (D) three and diamagnetic Q.7 The value of ionic product of water changes with temperature. It is 1 ? 10 –14 at 25 o C and 1 ? 10 –13 at 60 ?C. The CORRECT statement with respect to ?H and ?S is (A) ?H is negative and ?S is negative (B) ?H is positive and ?S is zero (C) ?H is positive and ?S is negative (D) ?H is negative and ?S is positive Q.8 10 micrograms of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase (molecular weight = 30,000 g/mole) removes 300 milligrams of carbon dioxide per minute from the cells. The turnover number of the enzyme is (A) 20 min –1 (B) 2 ? 10 7 min –1 (C) 2 ? 10 10 min –1 (D) 7.2 ? 10 10 min –1 Q.9 The iodide which reacts most slowly with cyanide ion as a nucleophile in a S N 2 reaction is (A) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 I (B) (C) (D) (CH 3 ) 2 CH-I Q.10 The value of K a of acetic acid is 1.7 ? 10 –5 mol/dm 3 . The pH of a buffer solution prepared by mixing 100 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid with a solution of 100 ml of 0.2 M sodium acetate is (A) 4.1 (B) 4.5 (C) 5.1 (D) 5.5 Q.11 The value of standard half cell potential of Cu +2 , Cu couple (E 0 Cu(+2), Cu ) is 0.34 V. A wire of pure copper is immersed into a solution of copper nitrate. If the measured cell potential against standard hydrogen electrode at 298 K is 0.24 V, the molar concentration of copper nitrate is {Assume activity of Cu +2 = [Cu +2 ]}. (A) 4.1 ? 10 –4 M (B) 2.0 ? 10 –2 M (C) 3.4 ? 10 –2 M (D) 1.8 ? 10 –1 M CH 2 I IRead More
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