Page 1 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 1/16 MT : METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each. 9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work. 12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number MT Page 2 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 1/16 MT : METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each. 9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work. 12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number MT 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 2/16 Useful Data Universal gas constant R = 8.314 J/mol.K Planck’s constant h = 6.63 ?10 -34 J.s Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s 2 Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 A is a 2 ? 2 matrix with det A = 2. The det (2A) is (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 32 (D) 16 Q.2 A is a 2 ? 2 matrix given below: A = ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 1 1 3 The eigenvalues of A are (A) –2, –2 (B) –3, –1 (C) 2, 2 (D) 3, 1 Q.3 In a production facility, iron rods are made with a mean diameter of 6 cm and standard deviation of 0.02 cm. If a large number of rods are tested, the approximate percentage of rods whose sizes fall in the range of 5.98 cm to 6.02 cm is (A) 68 (B) 75 (C) 90 (D) 99.7 Q.4 Which one of the following methods is NOT used for numerical integration? (A) Rectangular rule (B) Trapezoidal rule (C) Simpson’s rule (D) Cramer’s rule Q.5 How many boundary conditions are required to solve the following equation? t T r T r r T ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 1 2 2 (A) Two in r-direction (B) One in r-direction and one for time (C) Two in r-direction and one for time (D) Three in r-direction and one for time Q.6 When a zinc metal rod is immersed in dilute hydrochloric acid, it results in (A) Evolution of hydrogen (B) Evolution of chlorine (C) Evolution of oxygen (D) No evolution of any gas Q.7 A fluid is flowing with a velocity of 0.5 m/s on a plate moving with a velocity of 0.01 m/s in the same direction. The velocity at the interface of the fluid and plate is (A) 0.0 m/s (B) 0.01 m/s (C) 0.255 m/s (D) 0.50 m/s Q.8 Hot metal at 1700 K is poured in a sand mould that is open at the top. Heat loss from the liquid metal takes place by (A) Radiation only (B) Radiation and conduction only (C) Radiation and convection only (D) Radiation, conduction and convection Q.9 Which one of the following is an equilibrium defect? (A) Vacancies (B) Dislocations (C) Stacking faults (D) Grain boundaries Page 3 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 1/16 MT : METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each. 9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work. 12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number MT 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 2/16 Useful Data Universal gas constant R = 8.314 J/mol.K Planck’s constant h = 6.63 ?10 -34 J.s Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s 2 Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 A is a 2 ? 2 matrix with det A = 2. The det (2A) is (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 32 (D) 16 Q.2 A is a 2 ? 2 matrix given below: A = ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 1 1 3 The eigenvalues of A are (A) –2, –2 (B) –3, –1 (C) 2, 2 (D) 3, 1 Q.3 In a production facility, iron rods are made with a mean diameter of 6 cm and standard deviation of 0.02 cm. If a large number of rods are tested, the approximate percentage of rods whose sizes fall in the range of 5.98 cm to 6.02 cm is (A) 68 (B) 75 (C) 90 (D) 99.7 Q.4 Which one of the following methods is NOT used for numerical integration? (A) Rectangular rule (B) Trapezoidal rule (C) Simpson’s rule (D) Cramer’s rule Q.5 How many boundary conditions are required to solve the following equation? t T r T r r T ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 1 2 2 (A) Two in r-direction (B) One in r-direction and one for time (C) Two in r-direction and one for time (D) Three in r-direction and one for time Q.6 When a zinc metal rod is immersed in dilute hydrochloric acid, it results in (A) Evolution of hydrogen (B) Evolution of chlorine (C) Evolution of oxygen (D) No evolution of any gas Q.7 A fluid is flowing with a velocity of 0.5 m/s on a plate moving with a velocity of 0.01 m/s in the same direction. The velocity at the interface of the fluid and plate is (A) 0.0 m/s (B) 0.01 m/s (C) 0.255 m/s (D) 0.50 m/s Q.8 Hot metal at 1700 K is poured in a sand mould that is open at the top. Heat loss from the liquid metal takes place by (A) Radiation only (B) Radiation and conduction only (C) Radiation and convection only (D) Radiation, conduction and convection Q.9 Which one of the following is an equilibrium defect? (A) Vacancies (B) Dislocations (C) Stacking faults (D) Grain boundaries 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 3/16 Q.10 Floatation beneficiation is based on the principle of (A) Mineral surface hydrophobicity (B) Gravity difference (C) Chemical reactivity (D) Particle size difference Q.11 Copper can be reduced from acidic copper sulphate solution by (A) Silver (B) Iron (C) Carbon (D) Lead Q.12 Which one is NOT an agglomeration process? (A) Nodulizing (B) Briquetting (C) Roasting (D) Pelletizing Q.13 During LD blow in steelmaking the impurity that gets removed first is (A) Carbon (B) Phosphorous (C) Manganese (D) Silicon Q.14 During the solidification of a pure metal, it was found that dendrites are formed. Assuming that the liquid-solid interface is at the melting temperature, the temperature from the interface into the liquid (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains constant (D) Increases and then decreases Q.15 A peak in the X-ray diffraction pattern is observed at 2 ? = 78 ?, corresponding to {311} planes of an fcc metal, when the incident beam has a wavelength of 0.154 nm. The lattice parameter of the metal is approximately (A) 0.6 nm (B) 0.4 nm (C) 0.3 nm (D) 0.2 nm Q.16 If d is the inter-planar spacing of the planes {h k l}, the inter-planar spacing of the planes {nh nk nl}, n being an integer, is (A) d (B) d/n (C) nd (D) d/n 2 Q.17 As temperature increases, the electrical resistivities of pure metals ( ? m ) and intrinsic semiconductors ( ? s ) vary as follows (A) Both ? m and ? s increase (B) Both ? m and ? s decrease (C) ? m increases and ? s decreases (D) ? m decreases and ? s increases Q.18 At equilibrium spacing in a crystalline solid, which of the following is true for net inter-atomic force (F) and potential energy (U) (A) F is zero and U is zero (B) F is zero and U is minimum (C) F is minimum and U is zero (D) F is minimum and U is minimum Q.19 The property of a material that CANNOT be significantly changed by heat treatment is (A) Yield strength (B) Ultimate tensile strength (C) Ductility (D) Elastic modulus Page 4 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 1/16 MT : METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each. 9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work. 12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number MT 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 2/16 Useful Data Universal gas constant R = 8.314 J/mol.K Planck’s constant h = 6.63 ?10 -34 J.s Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s 2 Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 A is a 2 ? 2 matrix with det A = 2. The det (2A) is (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 32 (D) 16 Q.2 A is a 2 ? 2 matrix given below: A = ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 1 1 3 The eigenvalues of A are (A) –2, –2 (B) –3, –1 (C) 2, 2 (D) 3, 1 Q.3 In a production facility, iron rods are made with a mean diameter of 6 cm and standard deviation of 0.02 cm. If a large number of rods are tested, the approximate percentage of rods whose sizes fall in the range of 5.98 cm to 6.02 cm is (A) 68 (B) 75 (C) 90 (D) 99.7 Q.4 Which one of the following methods is NOT used for numerical integration? (A) Rectangular rule (B) Trapezoidal rule (C) Simpson’s rule (D) Cramer’s rule Q.5 How many boundary conditions are required to solve the following equation? t T r T r r T ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 1 2 2 (A) Two in r-direction (B) One in r-direction and one for time (C) Two in r-direction and one for time (D) Three in r-direction and one for time Q.6 When a zinc metal rod is immersed in dilute hydrochloric acid, it results in (A) Evolution of hydrogen (B) Evolution of chlorine (C) Evolution of oxygen (D) No evolution of any gas Q.7 A fluid is flowing with a velocity of 0.5 m/s on a plate moving with a velocity of 0.01 m/s in the same direction. The velocity at the interface of the fluid and plate is (A) 0.0 m/s (B) 0.01 m/s (C) 0.255 m/s (D) 0.50 m/s Q.8 Hot metal at 1700 K is poured in a sand mould that is open at the top. Heat loss from the liquid metal takes place by (A) Radiation only (B) Radiation and conduction only (C) Radiation and convection only (D) Radiation, conduction and convection Q.9 Which one of the following is an equilibrium defect? (A) Vacancies (B) Dislocations (C) Stacking faults (D) Grain boundaries 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 3/16 Q.10 Floatation beneficiation is based on the principle of (A) Mineral surface hydrophobicity (B) Gravity difference (C) Chemical reactivity (D) Particle size difference Q.11 Copper can be reduced from acidic copper sulphate solution by (A) Silver (B) Iron (C) Carbon (D) Lead Q.12 Which one is NOT an agglomeration process? (A) Nodulizing (B) Briquetting (C) Roasting (D) Pelletizing Q.13 During LD blow in steelmaking the impurity that gets removed first is (A) Carbon (B) Phosphorous (C) Manganese (D) Silicon Q.14 During the solidification of a pure metal, it was found that dendrites are formed. Assuming that the liquid-solid interface is at the melting temperature, the temperature from the interface into the liquid (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains constant (D) Increases and then decreases Q.15 A peak in the X-ray diffraction pattern is observed at 2 ? = 78 ?, corresponding to {311} planes of an fcc metal, when the incident beam has a wavelength of 0.154 nm. The lattice parameter of the metal is approximately (A) 0.6 nm (B) 0.4 nm (C) 0.3 nm (D) 0.2 nm Q.16 If d is the inter-planar spacing of the planes {h k l}, the inter-planar spacing of the planes {nh nk nl}, n being an integer, is (A) d (B) d/n (C) nd (D) d/n 2 Q.17 As temperature increases, the electrical resistivities of pure metals ( ? m ) and intrinsic semiconductors ( ? s ) vary as follows (A) Both ? m and ? s increase (B) Both ? m and ? s decrease (C) ? m increases and ? s decreases (D) ? m decreases and ? s increases Q.18 At equilibrium spacing in a crystalline solid, which of the following is true for net inter-atomic force (F) and potential energy (U) (A) F is zero and U is zero (B) F is zero and U is minimum (C) F is minimum and U is zero (D) F is minimum and U is minimum Q.19 The property of a material that CANNOT be significantly changed by heat treatment is (A) Yield strength (B) Ultimate tensile strength (C) Ductility (D) Elastic modulus 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 4/16 Q.20 A unit dislocation splits into two partial dislocations. The correct combination of the Burgers vectors of the partial dislocations for a given unit dislocation having Burgers vector ? ? 0 1 1 2 a is (A) ? ? 1 1 2 6 a and ? ? 1 2 1 6 a (B) ? ? 2 1 1 6 a and ? ? 1 2 1 6 a (C) ? ? 2 11 6 a and ? ? 1 1 2 6 a (D) ? ? 211 6 a and ? ? 1 12 6 a Q.21 A polymer matrix composite is reinforced with long continuous ceramic fibres aligned in one direction. The Young’s moduli of the matrix and fibres are E m and E f respectively, and the volume fraction of the fibres is f. Assuming iso-stress condition, Young’s modulus of the composite E C in a direction perpendicular to the length of fibres, is given by the expression (A) f m C E f f)E (1 E ? ? ? (B) f m C f)E (1 E f E ? ? ? (C) f m C E f E f) (1 E 1 ? ? ? (D) f m C E f) (1 E f E 1 ? ? ? Q.22 Which of the following is NOT a fusion welding process? (A) Arc welding (B) Gas welding (C) Resistance welding (D) Friction stir welding Q.23 Tungsten filament used in electric bulb is processed by (A) Extrusion (B) Wire drawing (C) Casting (D) Powder metallurgy Q.24 The riser is designed such that the melt in the riser solidifies (A) Before casting solidifies (B) At the same time as casting solidifies (C) After casting solidifies (D) Irrespective of the solidification of the casting Q.25 Radiography technique of detecting defects is based on the principle of (A) Diffraction (B) Reflection (C) Interference (D) Absorption Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 At x = 0.5, the polynomial x 2 (1-x) 2 has (A) No extrema (B) A saddle point (C) A minima (D) A maxima Page 5 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 1/16 MT : METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. 1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator. 5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each. 9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work. 12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen. Name Registration Number MT 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 2/16 Useful Data Universal gas constant R = 8.314 J/mol.K Planck’s constant h = 6.63 ?10 -34 J.s Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s 2 Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 A is a 2 ? 2 matrix with det A = 2. The det (2A) is (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 32 (D) 16 Q.2 A is a 2 ? 2 matrix given below: A = ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 1 1 3 The eigenvalues of A are (A) –2, –2 (B) –3, –1 (C) 2, 2 (D) 3, 1 Q.3 In a production facility, iron rods are made with a mean diameter of 6 cm and standard deviation of 0.02 cm. If a large number of rods are tested, the approximate percentage of rods whose sizes fall in the range of 5.98 cm to 6.02 cm is (A) 68 (B) 75 (C) 90 (D) 99.7 Q.4 Which one of the following methods is NOT used for numerical integration? (A) Rectangular rule (B) Trapezoidal rule (C) Simpson’s rule (D) Cramer’s rule Q.5 How many boundary conditions are required to solve the following equation? t T r T r r T ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 1 2 2 (A) Two in r-direction (B) One in r-direction and one for time (C) Two in r-direction and one for time (D) Three in r-direction and one for time Q.6 When a zinc metal rod is immersed in dilute hydrochloric acid, it results in (A) Evolution of hydrogen (B) Evolution of chlorine (C) Evolution of oxygen (D) No evolution of any gas Q.7 A fluid is flowing with a velocity of 0.5 m/s on a plate moving with a velocity of 0.01 m/s in the same direction. The velocity at the interface of the fluid and plate is (A) 0.0 m/s (B) 0.01 m/s (C) 0.255 m/s (D) 0.50 m/s Q.8 Hot metal at 1700 K is poured in a sand mould that is open at the top. Heat loss from the liquid metal takes place by (A) Radiation only (B) Radiation and conduction only (C) Radiation and convection only (D) Radiation, conduction and convection Q.9 Which one of the following is an equilibrium defect? (A) Vacancies (B) Dislocations (C) Stacking faults (D) Grain boundaries 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 3/16 Q.10 Floatation beneficiation is based on the principle of (A) Mineral surface hydrophobicity (B) Gravity difference (C) Chemical reactivity (D) Particle size difference Q.11 Copper can be reduced from acidic copper sulphate solution by (A) Silver (B) Iron (C) Carbon (D) Lead Q.12 Which one is NOT an agglomeration process? (A) Nodulizing (B) Briquetting (C) Roasting (D) Pelletizing Q.13 During LD blow in steelmaking the impurity that gets removed first is (A) Carbon (B) Phosphorous (C) Manganese (D) Silicon Q.14 During the solidification of a pure metal, it was found that dendrites are formed. Assuming that the liquid-solid interface is at the melting temperature, the temperature from the interface into the liquid (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains constant (D) Increases and then decreases Q.15 A peak in the X-ray diffraction pattern is observed at 2 ? = 78 ?, corresponding to {311} planes of an fcc metal, when the incident beam has a wavelength of 0.154 nm. The lattice parameter of the metal is approximately (A) 0.6 nm (B) 0.4 nm (C) 0.3 nm (D) 0.2 nm Q.16 If d is the inter-planar spacing of the planes {h k l}, the inter-planar spacing of the planes {nh nk nl}, n being an integer, is (A) d (B) d/n (C) nd (D) d/n 2 Q.17 As temperature increases, the electrical resistivities of pure metals ( ? m ) and intrinsic semiconductors ( ? s ) vary as follows (A) Both ? m and ? s increase (B) Both ? m and ? s decrease (C) ? m increases and ? s decreases (D) ? m decreases and ? s increases Q.18 At equilibrium spacing in a crystalline solid, which of the following is true for net inter-atomic force (F) and potential energy (U) (A) F is zero and U is zero (B) F is zero and U is minimum (C) F is minimum and U is zero (D) F is minimum and U is minimum Q.19 The property of a material that CANNOT be significantly changed by heat treatment is (A) Yield strength (B) Ultimate tensile strength (C) Ductility (D) Elastic modulus 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 4/16 Q.20 A unit dislocation splits into two partial dislocations. The correct combination of the Burgers vectors of the partial dislocations for a given unit dislocation having Burgers vector ? ? 0 1 1 2 a is (A) ? ? 1 1 2 6 a and ? ? 1 2 1 6 a (B) ? ? 2 1 1 6 a and ? ? 1 2 1 6 a (C) ? ? 2 11 6 a and ? ? 1 1 2 6 a (D) ? ? 211 6 a and ? ? 1 12 6 a Q.21 A polymer matrix composite is reinforced with long continuous ceramic fibres aligned in one direction. The Young’s moduli of the matrix and fibres are E m and E f respectively, and the volume fraction of the fibres is f. Assuming iso-stress condition, Young’s modulus of the composite E C in a direction perpendicular to the length of fibres, is given by the expression (A) f m C E f f)E (1 E ? ? ? (B) f m C f)E (1 E f E ? ? ? (C) f m C E f E f) (1 E 1 ? ? ? (D) f m C E f) (1 E f E 1 ? ? ? Q.22 Which of the following is NOT a fusion welding process? (A) Arc welding (B) Gas welding (C) Resistance welding (D) Friction stir welding Q.23 Tungsten filament used in electric bulb is processed by (A) Extrusion (B) Wire drawing (C) Casting (D) Powder metallurgy Q.24 The riser is designed such that the melt in the riser solidifies (A) Before casting solidifies (B) At the same time as casting solidifies (C) After casting solidifies (D) Irrespective of the solidification of the casting Q.25 Radiography technique of detecting defects is based on the principle of (A) Diffraction (B) Reflection (C) Interference (D) Absorption Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 At x = 0.5, the polynomial x 2 (1-x) 2 has (A) No extrema (B) A saddle point (C) A minima (D) A maxima 2012 METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING – MT MT 5/16 Q.27 Given that v is a vector field and f is a scalar field, match the equations in Group I with their physical meaning in Group II Group I Group II P. 0 (v) div ? 1. Irrotational Q. 0 (grad(f)) curl ? 2. Incompressible R. 0 (grad(f)) div ? 3. Potential S. grad(f) v ? 4. Laplace equation (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 Q.28 The temperature field of a slab is given by T = 400 – 50z exp (–t – x 2 – y 2 ). The temperature gradient in y-direction is (A) ) y x t ( exp yz 100 2 2 ? ? ? (B) ) y x t ( exp yz 100 2 2 ? ? ? ? (C) ) y x t ( exp xz 100 2 2 ? ? ? (D) ) y x t ( exp xz 100 2 2 ? ? ? ? Q.29 What does the solution of the following ordinary differential equation represent? 0 x dx dy y ? ? (A) A parabola (B) A circle (C) An ellipse (D) A hyperbola Q.30 A thin layer of material B (of total amount m) is plated on the end faces of two long rods of material A. These are then joined together on the plated side (see the figure below) and heated to a high temperature. Assuming the diffusion coefficient of B in A is D, the composition profile c B along the rod axis x after a time t is described by B A A X (A) ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 4Dt x exp p D t 2 m c 2 B (B) ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 4Dt x erf p D t 2 m c 2 B (C) ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 4Dt x erf 1 p D t 2 m c 2 B (D) t p D t 2 m c B ?Read More
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