SSC CGL Past Year Paper 2012 (1 July 2012) PDF Download

 Page 1


PART-A :  GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Directions : In questions no. 1 to 9, select the related
letters/word number from the given alternatives.
1. 8 : 12 : : 6 : ?
(a)8 (b) 11
(c)5 (d) 7
2 . 13 : 19 : : 21 : ?
(a) 41 (b) 8 1
(c) 1 41 (d) 1 4
3 . Eagle : Swoops : : Duck : ?
(a) waddles (b) floats
(c) swims (d) flits
4 . APPLE : 50 : : ORANGE : ?
(a) 60 (b) 6 9
(c) 61 (d) 6 3
5. Accommodation : Rent : : Journey : ?
(a) Freight (b) Octroi
(c) Fare (d) Expense
6. Fire : Smoke : : ?
(a) Children : School (b) Cloud : Rain
(c) Moon : Sky (d) Shoe : Polish
7. Grenade : Gun : : ?
(a) Sister : Brother (b) Father : Mother
(c) Man : Woman (d) Head : Brain
8. TSH : IRQ: : QPK : ?
(a) L NO (b) LON
(c) PWK (d) PON
9. AEZ : FPY : : BGX : ?
(a) HWW (b) I Y Y
(c) HTX (d) HYW
Directions : In questions no. 10 to 17, find the odd
number/ letters/ word/ number pair from the given
alternatives.
10. (a) SP (b) NL
(c) ZW (d) TQ
11. (a) Major (b) Colonel
(c) Brigadier (d) Admiral
12. (a) Life Insurance Corporation.
(b) New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(c) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
(d) National Insurance Company Ltd.
13. (a) Hurdle (b) Disease
(c) Barrier (d) Obstacle
14. (a) Mar (b) Remedy
(c) Maim (d) Mutilate
15. (a) Socrates (b) Beethoven
(c) Mozart (d) Bach
16. (a) (132, 5) (b) (125, 8)
(c) (124, 7) (d) (112, 4)
17. (a) 6246 – 6296 (b) 7137 – 7267
(c) 4344 – 4684 (d) 5235 – 5465
Directions : In questions no. 18 to 22, a series is
given, with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete
the series.
18. YX, UTS, ONML,    ?   .
(a) FEDCB (b) GFEDC
(c) IH GFE (d) HGFED
19. DA, HE, LI,   ?  , TQ
(a) PJ (b) PT
(c) PM (d) PK
20. B E I N T   ? .
(a)X (b) Y
(c)A (d) Z
21. AZ, CX, EV ,   ?  .
(a) HT (b) HU
(c) GS (d) G T
22. D9Y , J27S, P81M, V243G ,   ? .
(a) A324B (b) C729B
(c) B729A (d) A729B
23. Which one set of letters when sequentially
placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it?
_c_bd_cbcda_a_db_a
(a) daabbc (b) bdbcba
(c) adabcd (d) cdbbca
Directions : In questions no. 24 to 27, identify the
wrong number in the series.
24. 9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340
( a) 83 (b) 4 0
(c) 3 40 (d) 1 70
                            1 
Page 2


PART-A :  GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Directions : In questions no. 1 to 9, select the related
letters/word number from the given alternatives.
1. 8 : 12 : : 6 : ?
(a)8 (b) 11
(c)5 (d) 7
2 . 13 : 19 : : 21 : ?
(a) 41 (b) 8 1
(c) 1 41 (d) 1 4
3 . Eagle : Swoops : : Duck : ?
(a) waddles (b) floats
(c) swims (d) flits
4 . APPLE : 50 : : ORANGE : ?
(a) 60 (b) 6 9
(c) 61 (d) 6 3
5. Accommodation : Rent : : Journey : ?
(a) Freight (b) Octroi
(c) Fare (d) Expense
6. Fire : Smoke : : ?
(a) Children : School (b) Cloud : Rain
(c) Moon : Sky (d) Shoe : Polish
7. Grenade : Gun : : ?
(a) Sister : Brother (b) Father : Mother
(c) Man : Woman (d) Head : Brain
8. TSH : IRQ: : QPK : ?
(a) L NO (b) LON
(c) PWK (d) PON
9. AEZ : FPY : : BGX : ?
(a) HWW (b) I Y Y
(c) HTX (d) HYW
Directions : In questions no. 10 to 17, find the odd
number/ letters/ word/ number pair from the given
alternatives.
10. (a) SP (b) NL
(c) ZW (d) TQ
11. (a) Major (b) Colonel
(c) Brigadier (d) Admiral
12. (a) Life Insurance Corporation.
(b) New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(c) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
(d) National Insurance Company Ltd.
13. (a) Hurdle (b) Disease
(c) Barrier (d) Obstacle
14. (a) Mar (b) Remedy
(c) Maim (d) Mutilate
15. (a) Socrates (b) Beethoven
(c) Mozart (d) Bach
16. (a) (132, 5) (b) (125, 8)
(c) (124, 7) (d) (112, 4)
17. (a) 6246 – 6296 (b) 7137 – 7267
(c) 4344 – 4684 (d) 5235 – 5465
Directions : In questions no. 18 to 22, a series is
given, with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete
the series.
18. YX, UTS, ONML,    ?   .
(a) FEDCB (b) GFEDC
(c) IH GFE (d) HGFED
19. DA, HE, LI,   ?  , TQ
(a) PJ (b) PT
(c) PM (d) PK
20. B E I N T   ? .
(a)X (b) Y
(c)A (d) Z
21. AZ, CX, EV ,   ?  .
(a) HT (b) HU
(c) GS (d) G T
22. D9Y , J27S, P81M, V243G ,   ? .
(a) A324B (b) C729B
(c) B729A (d) A729B
23. Which one set of letters when sequentially
placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it?
_c_bd_cbcda_a_db_a
(a) daabbc (b) bdbcba
(c) adabcd (d) cdbbca
Directions : In questions no. 24 to 27, identify the
wrong number in the series.
24. 9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340
( a) 83 (b) 4 0
(c) 3 40 (d) 1 70
                            1 
25. 21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36
( a) 21 (b) 3 6
(c) 33 (d) 3 5
26. 5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253
(a) 1 20 (b) 2 53
(c) 61 (d) 2 9
27. 0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215
( a) 28 (b) 2 15
(c)7 (d) 6 3
28. Some relationships have been expressed through
symbols which are explained below:
0 = greater than
D = not equal to
 × = not less than
+ = equal to
f = not greater than
Ñ
 = less than
a 
Ñ
 b  
Ñ
 c implies
(a) a D b  f c (b) a  f b + c
(c) a 0 b + c (d) a 0 b × c
29.
23
45
 = ?
(a) 14400 (b) 15600
(c) 23040 (d) 17400
30. If PEAR is written as GFDN, how is REAP written
in this code?
(a) FD NG (b) NF DG
(c) DN GF (d) ND FG
31. If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 = ?
(a) 30 (b) 1 8
(c) 20 (d) 9
32. If L denotes ×
M denotes ¸ ;  P denotes + ;  Q denotes –
then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 11
33. In this question, from the given alternatives select
the word which cannot be formed by using the
letters of the given word.
APPROPRIA TE
(a) PIRA TE (b) APPROVE
(c) PR OPER (d) RAPPOR T
34. If FLA TTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER
is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH
coded?
(a) 4344681 (b) 4344651
(c) 4146481 (d) 4346481
35. If 16 – 2 = 2, 9 – 3 = 0, 81 – 1 = 8, then w hat is 64 – 4?
(a)4 (b) 2
(c)6 (d) 8
Directions : In questions no. 36 to 37, select the
missing number from the given responses.
36.
7 
43
5
8
24
15
9
2
28
1
18
9
9
8
45
32
3
7
?
2
3 14
(a) 20 (b) 25
(c) 10 (d) 15
37.
10 15 11
8 12 12
10 4 12
10 5 13
18 20 ?
(a) 21 (b) 20
(c) 23 (d) 22
38. Four aeroplanes of Airforce viz, A, B, C, D, started
for a demonstration flight towards east. After
flying 50 km planes A and D flew towards right,
planes B and C flew towards left. After 50 km,
planes B and C flew towards their left, planes A
and D also towards their left. In which directions
are the aeroplanes A, B, D, C respectively flying
now?
(a) North, South, West, East
(b) South, North, West, East
(c) East, West, West, East
(d) West, East, West, East
39. Satish start from A and walks 2 km east upto B
and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At
C he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then
turns northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is
he from his starting point ?
(a) 5 km (b) 6 km
(c) 3 km (d) 4 km
                            2 
Page 3


PART-A :  GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Directions : In questions no. 1 to 9, select the related
letters/word number from the given alternatives.
1. 8 : 12 : : 6 : ?
(a)8 (b) 11
(c)5 (d) 7
2 . 13 : 19 : : 21 : ?
(a) 41 (b) 8 1
(c) 1 41 (d) 1 4
3 . Eagle : Swoops : : Duck : ?
(a) waddles (b) floats
(c) swims (d) flits
4 . APPLE : 50 : : ORANGE : ?
(a) 60 (b) 6 9
(c) 61 (d) 6 3
5. Accommodation : Rent : : Journey : ?
(a) Freight (b) Octroi
(c) Fare (d) Expense
6. Fire : Smoke : : ?
(a) Children : School (b) Cloud : Rain
(c) Moon : Sky (d) Shoe : Polish
7. Grenade : Gun : : ?
(a) Sister : Brother (b) Father : Mother
(c) Man : Woman (d) Head : Brain
8. TSH : IRQ: : QPK : ?
(a) L NO (b) LON
(c) PWK (d) PON
9. AEZ : FPY : : BGX : ?
(a) HWW (b) I Y Y
(c) HTX (d) HYW
Directions : In questions no. 10 to 17, find the odd
number/ letters/ word/ number pair from the given
alternatives.
10. (a) SP (b) NL
(c) ZW (d) TQ
11. (a) Major (b) Colonel
(c) Brigadier (d) Admiral
12. (a) Life Insurance Corporation.
(b) New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(c) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
(d) National Insurance Company Ltd.
13. (a) Hurdle (b) Disease
(c) Barrier (d) Obstacle
14. (a) Mar (b) Remedy
(c) Maim (d) Mutilate
15. (a) Socrates (b) Beethoven
(c) Mozart (d) Bach
16. (a) (132, 5) (b) (125, 8)
(c) (124, 7) (d) (112, 4)
17. (a) 6246 – 6296 (b) 7137 – 7267
(c) 4344 – 4684 (d) 5235 – 5465
Directions : In questions no. 18 to 22, a series is
given, with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete
the series.
18. YX, UTS, ONML,    ?   .
(a) FEDCB (b) GFEDC
(c) IH GFE (d) HGFED
19. DA, HE, LI,   ?  , TQ
(a) PJ (b) PT
(c) PM (d) PK
20. B E I N T   ? .
(a)X (b) Y
(c)A (d) Z
21. AZ, CX, EV ,   ?  .
(a) HT (b) HU
(c) GS (d) G T
22. D9Y , J27S, P81M, V243G ,   ? .
(a) A324B (b) C729B
(c) B729A (d) A729B
23. Which one set of letters when sequentially
placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it?
_c_bd_cbcda_a_db_a
(a) daabbc (b) bdbcba
(c) adabcd (d) cdbbca
Directions : In questions no. 24 to 27, identify the
wrong number in the series.
24. 9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340
( a) 83 (b) 4 0
(c) 3 40 (d) 1 70
                            1 
25. 21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36
( a) 21 (b) 3 6
(c) 33 (d) 3 5
26. 5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253
(a) 1 20 (b) 2 53
(c) 61 (d) 2 9
27. 0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215
( a) 28 (b) 2 15
(c)7 (d) 6 3
28. Some relationships have been expressed through
symbols which are explained below:
0 = greater than
D = not equal to
 × = not less than
+ = equal to
f = not greater than
Ñ
 = less than
a 
Ñ
 b  
Ñ
 c implies
(a) a D b  f c (b) a  f b + c
(c) a 0 b + c (d) a 0 b × c
29.
23
45
 = ?
(a) 14400 (b) 15600
(c) 23040 (d) 17400
30. If PEAR is written as GFDN, how is REAP written
in this code?
(a) FD NG (b) NF DG
(c) DN GF (d) ND FG
31. If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 = ?
(a) 30 (b) 1 8
(c) 20 (d) 9
32. If L denotes ×
M denotes ¸ ;  P denotes + ;  Q denotes –
then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 11
33. In this question, from the given alternatives select
the word which cannot be formed by using the
letters of the given word.
APPROPRIA TE
(a) PIRA TE (b) APPROVE
(c) PR OPER (d) RAPPOR T
34. If FLA TTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER
is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH
coded?
(a) 4344681 (b) 4344651
(c) 4146481 (d) 4346481
35. If 16 – 2 = 2, 9 – 3 = 0, 81 – 1 = 8, then w hat is 64 – 4?
(a)4 (b) 2
(c)6 (d) 8
Directions : In questions no. 36 to 37, select the
missing number from the given responses.
36.
7 
43
5
8
24
15
9
2
28
1
18
9
9
8
45
32
3
7
?
2
3 14
(a) 20 (b) 25
(c) 10 (d) 15
37.
10 15 11
8 12 12
10 4 12
10 5 13
18 20 ?
(a) 21 (b) 20
(c) 23 (d) 22
38. Four aeroplanes of Airforce viz, A, B, C, D, started
for a demonstration flight towards east. After
flying 50 km planes A and D flew towards right,
planes B and C flew towards left. After 50 km,
planes B and C flew towards their left, planes A
and D also towards their left. In which directions
are the aeroplanes A, B, D, C respectively flying
now?
(a) North, South, West, East
(b) South, North, West, East
(c) East, West, West, East
(d) West, East, West, East
39. Satish start from A and walks 2 km east upto B
and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At
C he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then
turns northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is
he from his starting point ?
(a) 5 km (b) 6 km
(c) 3 km (d) 4 km
                            2 
Directions: In questions no. 40 to 41, one/two
statements are given, followed by two conclusions I
and II. You have to consider the statements to be true,
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any follow from the given statement.
40. Statements :
1 . Temple is a place of worship.
2. Church is also a place of worship.
Conclusions :
I. Hindus and Christians use the same place
for worship.
II. All  churches are temples.
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(b) Both conclusion I nor II follows
(c) Only conclusion  I follows
(d) Only conclusion  II follows
41. Statement :
The human organism grows and develops
through stimulation and action.
Conclusions :
I. Inert human organism cannot grow and
develop.
II. Human organisms do not react to stimulation
and action.
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(b) Both conclusion I nor II follows
(c) Only conclusion  I follows
(d) Only conclusion  II follows
42. If the first four letters of a term
HIPPNOW ADIASM are written in reverse order,
the next five letters are written without changing
their order and then, the remaining letters are
again written in reverse order, then which letter is
in the middle of the word?
(a)O (b) W
(c)A (d) I
43. In the following letter series how many times do
PQR occur in such away that Q is in the middle of
P and R.
Q M P N P Q RR O P Q N O P P Q R P M Q R O P
Q R P P R R P Q R P
(a)5 (b) 6
(c)4 (d) 3
44. Volume of a sphere is equal to the volume of a
hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is
3
32
 cm, then the radius of the sphere is equal to
(a)
3
92
 cm (b)
3
62
cm
(c) 27 cm (d) 3 cm
45. A sheet of paper has been folded as shown by
the question figures. You have to figure out from
amongst the four answer figures how it will
appear when opened?
Question figures :
Answer figures :
         
(a) (b) (c) (d)
46. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror
image of the question figure if a mirror is placed
on the line MN?
Question figure :
BB
M
N
Answer figures :
BB
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. If SEARCH is coded as TFBSDI, how will PENCIL
be coded ?
(a) RGPEN (b) LICNEP
(c) QFODJM (d) QDMBHK
48. Which answer figure completes the form in
question figure ?
Question figures :
?
Answer figures :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
                            3 
Page 4


PART-A :  GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Directions : In questions no. 1 to 9, select the related
letters/word number from the given alternatives.
1. 8 : 12 : : 6 : ?
(a)8 (b) 11
(c)5 (d) 7
2 . 13 : 19 : : 21 : ?
(a) 41 (b) 8 1
(c) 1 41 (d) 1 4
3 . Eagle : Swoops : : Duck : ?
(a) waddles (b) floats
(c) swims (d) flits
4 . APPLE : 50 : : ORANGE : ?
(a) 60 (b) 6 9
(c) 61 (d) 6 3
5. Accommodation : Rent : : Journey : ?
(a) Freight (b) Octroi
(c) Fare (d) Expense
6. Fire : Smoke : : ?
(a) Children : School (b) Cloud : Rain
(c) Moon : Sky (d) Shoe : Polish
7. Grenade : Gun : : ?
(a) Sister : Brother (b) Father : Mother
(c) Man : Woman (d) Head : Brain
8. TSH : IRQ: : QPK : ?
(a) L NO (b) LON
(c) PWK (d) PON
9. AEZ : FPY : : BGX : ?
(a) HWW (b) I Y Y
(c) HTX (d) HYW
Directions : In questions no. 10 to 17, find the odd
number/ letters/ word/ number pair from the given
alternatives.
10. (a) SP (b) NL
(c) ZW (d) TQ
11. (a) Major (b) Colonel
(c) Brigadier (d) Admiral
12. (a) Life Insurance Corporation.
(b) New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(c) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
(d) National Insurance Company Ltd.
13. (a) Hurdle (b) Disease
(c) Barrier (d) Obstacle
14. (a) Mar (b) Remedy
(c) Maim (d) Mutilate
15. (a) Socrates (b) Beethoven
(c) Mozart (d) Bach
16. (a) (132, 5) (b) (125, 8)
(c) (124, 7) (d) (112, 4)
17. (a) 6246 – 6296 (b) 7137 – 7267
(c) 4344 – 4684 (d) 5235 – 5465
Directions : In questions no. 18 to 22, a series is
given, with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete
the series.
18. YX, UTS, ONML,    ?   .
(a) FEDCB (b) GFEDC
(c) IH GFE (d) HGFED
19. DA, HE, LI,   ?  , TQ
(a) PJ (b) PT
(c) PM (d) PK
20. B E I N T   ? .
(a)X (b) Y
(c)A (d) Z
21. AZ, CX, EV ,   ?  .
(a) HT (b) HU
(c) GS (d) G T
22. D9Y , J27S, P81M, V243G ,   ? .
(a) A324B (b) C729B
(c) B729A (d) A729B
23. Which one set of letters when sequentially
placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it?
_c_bd_cbcda_a_db_a
(a) daabbc (b) bdbcba
(c) adabcd (d) cdbbca
Directions : In questions no. 24 to 27, identify the
wrong number in the series.
24. 9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340
( a) 83 (b) 4 0
(c) 3 40 (d) 1 70
                            1 
25. 21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36
( a) 21 (b) 3 6
(c) 33 (d) 3 5
26. 5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253
(a) 1 20 (b) 2 53
(c) 61 (d) 2 9
27. 0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215
( a) 28 (b) 2 15
(c)7 (d) 6 3
28. Some relationships have been expressed through
symbols which are explained below:
0 = greater than
D = not equal to
 × = not less than
+ = equal to
f = not greater than
Ñ
 = less than
a 
Ñ
 b  
Ñ
 c implies
(a) a D b  f c (b) a  f b + c
(c) a 0 b + c (d) a 0 b × c
29.
23
45
 = ?
(a) 14400 (b) 15600
(c) 23040 (d) 17400
30. If PEAR is written as GFDN, how is REAP written
in this code?
(a) FD NG (b) NF DG
(c) DN GF (d) ND FG
31. If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 = ?
(a) 30 (b) 1 8
(c) 20 (d) 9
32. If L denotes ×
M denotes ¸ ;  P denotes + ;  Q denotes –
then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 11
33. In this question, from the given alternatives select
the word which cannot be formed by using the
letters of the given word.
APPROPRIA TE
(a) PIRA TE (b) APPROVE
(c) PR OPER (d) RAPPOR T
34. If FLA TTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER
is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH
coded?
(a) 4344681 (b) 4344651
(c) 4146481 (d) 4346481
35. If 16 – 2 = 2, 9 – 3 = 0, 81 – 1 = 8, then w hat is 64 – 4?
(a)4 (b) 2
(c)6 (d) 8
Directions : In questions no. 36 to 37, select the
missing number from the given responses.
36.
7 
43
5
8
24
15
9
2
28
1
18
9
9
8
45
32
3
7
?
2
3 14
(a) 20 (b) 25
(c) 10 (d) 15
37.
10 15 11
8 12 12
10 4 12
10 5 13
18 20 ?
(a) 21 (b) 20
(c) 23 (d) 22
38. Four aeroplanes of Airforce viz, A, B, C, D, started
for a demonstration flight towards east. After
flying 50 km planes A and D flew towards right,
planes B and C flew towards left. After 50 km,
planes B and C flew towards their left, planes A
and D also towards their left. In which directions
are the aeroplanes A, B, D, C respectively flying
now?
(a) North, South, West, East
(b) South, North, West, East
(c) East, West, West, East
(d) West, East, West, East
39. Satish start from A and walks 2 km east upto B
and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At
C he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then
turns northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is
he from his starting point ?
(a) 5 km (b) 6 km
(c) 3 km (d) 4 km
                            2 
Directions: In questions no. 40 to 41, one/two
statements are given, followed by two conclusions I
and II. You have to consider the statements to be true,
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any follow from the given statement.
40. Statements :
1 . Temple is a place of worship.
2. Church is also a place of worship.
Conclusions :
I. Hindus and Christians use the same place
for worship.
II. All  churches are temples.
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(b) Both conclusion I nor II follows
(c) Only conclusion  I follows
(d) Only conclusion  II follows
41. Statement :
The human organism grows and develops
through stimulation and action.
Conclusions :
I. Inert human organism cannot grow and
develop.
II. Human organisms do not react to stimulation
and action.
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(b) Both conclusion I nor II follows
(c) Only conclusion  I follows
(d) Only conclusion  II follows
42. If the first four letters of a term
HIPPNOW ADIASM are written in reverse order,
the next five letters are written without changing
their order and then, the remaining letters are
again written in reverse order, then which letter is
in the middle of the word?
(a)O (b) W
(c)A (d) I
43. In the following letter series how many times do
PQR occur in such away that Q is in the middle of
P and R.
Q M P N P Q RR O P Q N O P P Q R P M Q R O P
Q R P P R R P Q R P
(a)5 (b) 6
(c)4 (d) 3
44. Volume of a sphere is equal to the volume of a
hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is
3
32
 cm, then the radius of the sphere is equal to
(a)
3
92
 cm (b)
3
62
cm
(c) 27 cm (d) 3 cm
45. A sheet of paper has been folded as shown by
the question figures. You have to figure out from
amongst the four answer figures how it will
appear when opened?
Question figures :
Answer figures :
         
(a) (b) (c) (d)
46. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror
image of the question figure if a mirror is placed
on the line MN?
Question figure :
BB
M
N
Answer figures :
BB
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. If SEARCH is coded as TFBSDI, how will PENCIL
be coded ?
(a) RGPEN (b) LICNEP
(c) QFODJM (d) QDMBHK
48. Which answer figure completes the form in
question figure ?
Question figures :
?
Answer figures :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
                            3 
49. From the answer figures, select the one in which
the question figure is hidden/embedded.
Question figure :
Answer figures :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers
as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets
of numbers given in the alternatives are
represented by two classes of alphabets as in
two matrices given below . The columns and rows
of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of
Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from
these matrices can be represented first by its row
and next by its column, e.g., 'A' can be
represented by 10, 33, etc., and 'H' can be
represented by 59, 78, etc. Similarly , you have to
identify the set for the word GUIDE.
Matrix-I
0 1 234
0 I E A OU
1 AOU I E
2E I OUA
3 O U E AI
4 U A I EO
Matrix-II
56789
5 F DB GH
6 B G H FD
7 D FG HB
8 G H D BF
9 H B F GD
(a) 85, 23, 21, 87, 32 (b) 58, 31, 12, 57, 41
(c) 77, 13, 42, 99, 32 (d) 66, 31, 43, 78, 14
PART-B :  GENERAL AWARENESS
51. The National Commission for Minorities was
constituted in the year
(a) 1990 (b) 1992
(c) 1980 (d) 1989
52. The first Indian who was chosen as the Secretary
General of Commonwealth is
(a) Rakesh V erma (b) Gopalaswami
(c) Krishna Murthy (d) Kamalesh Sharma
53. In which of the following systems of government
is bi–cameralism an essential feature?
(a) Federal system
(b) Unitary system
(c) parliamentary system
(d) Presidential system
54. Kuldip Nayer, a journalist, was appointed as a
High Commissioner in
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Australia
(c ) UK (d) Pakistan
55. Which king is referred to as Devanampiya
Piyadassi (Beloved of the Gods) in the
inscriptions?
(a) Asoka
(b) Harsha
(c) Bindusara
(d) Chandragupta Maurya
56. Socialism succeeds in achieveing
(a) higher standard of living of the people
(b) equal distribution of income in the society
(c) higher individual welfare in the society
(d) maximum social welfare in the society
57. Monopolist resorts to price discrimination
depending upon the
(a) Elasticity of supply
(b) Elasticity of demand
(c) Law of demand
(d) Law of  supply
58. Economic planning is an essential feature of
(a) Socialist economy
(b) Capitalist economy
(c) Mixed economy
(d) Dual economy
59. The HYV programme in India is also called as
(a) Traditional Agriculture
(b) New Agricultural Strategy
(c) White Revolution
(d) Blue Revolution
                            4 
Page 5


PART-A :  GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Directions : In questions no. 1 to 9, select the related
letters/word number from the given alternatives.
1. 8 : 12 : : 6 : ?
(a)8 (b) 11
(c)5 (d) 7
2 . 13 : 19 : : 21 : ?
(a) 41 (b) 8 1
(c) 1 41 (d) 1 4
3 . Eagle : Swoops : : Duck : ?
(a) waddles (b) floats
(c) swims (d) flits
4 . APPLE : 50 : : ORANGE : ?
(a) 60 (b) 6 9
(c) 61 (d) 6 3
5. Accommodation : Rent : : Journey : ?
(a) Freight (b) Octroi
(c) Fare (d) Expense
6. Fire : Smoke : : ?
(a) Children : School (b) Cloud : Rain
(c) Moon : Sky (d) Shoe : Polish
7. Grenade : Gun : : ?
(a) Sister : Brother (b) Father : Mother
(c) Man : Woman (d) Head : Brain
8. TSH : IRQ: : QPK : ?
(a) L NO (b) LON
(c) PWK (d) PON
9. AEZ : FPY : : BGX : ?
(a) HWW (b) I Y Y
(c) HTX (d) HYW
Directions : In questions no. 10 to 17, find the odd
number/ letters/ word/ number pair from the given
alternatives.
10. (a) SP (b) NL
(c) ZW (d) TQ
11. (a) Major (b) Colonel
(c) Brigadier (d) Admiral
12. (a) Life Insurance Corporation.
(b) New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(c) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
(d) National Insurance Company Ltd.
13. (a) Hurdle (b) Disease
(c) Barrier (d) Obstacle
14. (a) Mar (b) Remedy
(c) Maim (d) Mutilate
15. (a) Socrates (b) Beethoven
(c) Mozart (d) Bach
16. (a) (132, 5) (b) (125, 8)
(c) (124, 7) (d) (112, 4)
17. (a) 6246 – 6296 (b) 7137 – 7267
(c) 4344 – 4684 (d) 5235 – 5465
Directions : In questions no. 18 to 22, a series is
given, with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete
the series.
18. YX, UTS, ONML,    ?   .
(a) FEDCB (b) GFEDC
(c) IH GFE (d) HGFED
19. DA, HE, LI,   ?  , TQ
(a) PJ (b) PT
(c) PM (d) PK
20. B E I N T   ? .
(a)X (b) Y
(c)A (d) Z
21. AZ, CX, EV ,   ?  .
(a) HT (b) HU
(c) GS (d) G T
22. D9Y , J27S, P81M, V243G ,   ? .
(a) A324B (b) C729B
(c) B729A (d) A729B
23. Which one set of letters when sequentially
placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it?
_c_bd_cbcda_a_db_a
(a) daabbc (b) bdbcba
(c) adabcd (d) cdbbca
Directions : In questions no. 24 to 27, identify the
wrong number in the series.
24. 9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340
( a) 83 (b) 4 0
(c) 3 40 (d) 1 70
                            1 
25. 21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36
( a) 21 (b) 3 6
(c) 33 (d) 3 5
26. 5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253
(a) 1 20 (b) 2 53
(c) 61 (d) 2 9
27. 0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215
( a) 28 (b) 2 15
(c)7 (d) 6 3
28. Some relationships have been expressed through
symbols which are explained below:
0 = greater than
D = not equal to
 × = not less than
+ = equal to
f = not greater than
Ñ
 = less than
a 
Ñ
 b  
Ñ
 c implies
(a) a D b  f c (b) a  f b + c
(c) a 0 b + c (d) a 0 b × c
29.
23
45
 = ?
(a) 14400 (b) 15600
(c) 23040 (d) 17400
30. If PEAR is written as GFDN, how is REAP written
in this code?
(a) FD NG (b) NF DG
(c) DN GF (d) ND FG
31. If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 = ?
(a) 30 (b) 1 8
(c) 20 (d) 9
32. If L denotes ×
M denotes ¸ ;  P denotes + ;  Q denotes –
then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 11
33. In this question, from the given alternatives select
the word which cannot be formed by using the
letters of the given word.
APPROPRIA TE
(a) PIRA TE (b) APPROVE
(c) PR OPER (d) RAPPOR T
34. If FLA TTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER
is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH
coded?
(a) 4344681 (b) 4344651
(c) 4146481 (d) 4346481
35. If 16 – 2 = 2, 9 – 3 = 0, 81 – 1 = 8, then w hat is 64 – 4?
(a)4 (b) 2
(c)6 (d) 8
Directions : In questions no. 36 to 37, select the
missing number from the given responses.
36.
7 
43
5
8
24
15
9
2
28
1
18
9
9
8
45
32
3
7
?
2
3 14
(a) 20 (b) 25
(c) 10 (d) 15
37.
10 15 11
8 12 12
10 4 12
10 5 13
18 20 ?
(a) 21 (b) 20
(c) 23 (d) 22
38. Four aeroplanes of Airforce viz, A, B, C, D, started
for a demonstration flight towards east. After
flying 50 km planes A and D flew towards right,
planes B and C flew towards left. After 50 km,
planes B and C flew towards their left, planes A
and D also towards their left. In which directions
are the aeroplanes A, B, D, C respectively flying
now?
(a) North, South, West, East
(b) South, North, West, East
(c) East, West, West, East
(d) West, East, West, East
39. Satish start from A and walks 2 km east upto B
and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At
C he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then
turns northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is
he from his starting point ?
(a) 5 km (b) 6 km
(c) 3 km (d) 4 km
                            2 
Directions: In questions no. 40 to 41, one/two
statements are given, followed by two conclusions I
and II. You have to consider the statements to be true,
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any follow from the given statement.
40. Statements :
1 . Temple is a place of worship.
2. Church is also a place of worship.
Conclusions :
I. Hindus and Christians use the same place
for worship.
II. All  churches are temples.
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(b) Both conclusion I nor II follows
(c) Only conclusion  I follows
(d) Only conclusion  II follows
41. Statement :
The human organism grows and develops
through stimulation and action.
Conclusions :
I. Inert human organism cannot grow and
develop.
II. Human organisms do not react to stimulation
and action.
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(b) Both conclusion I nor II follows
(c) Only conclusion  I follows
(d) Only conclusion  II follows
42. If the first four letters of a term
HIPPNOW ADIASM are written in reverse order,
the next five letters are written without changing
their order and then, the remaining letters are
again written in reverse order, then which letter is
in the middle of the word?
(a)O (b) W
(c)A (d) I
43. In the following letter series how many times do
PQR occur in such away that Q is in the middle of
P and R.
Q M P N P Q RR O P Q N O P P Q R P M Q R O P
Q R P P R R P Q R P
(a)5 (b) 6
(c)4 (d) 3
44. Volume of a sphere is equal to the volume of a
hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is
3
32
 cm, then the radius of the sphere is equal to
(a)
3
92
 cm (b)
3
62
cm
(c) 27 cm (d) 3 cm
45. A sheet of paper has been folded as shown by
the question figures. You have to figure out from
amongst the four answer figures how it will
appear when opened?
Question figures :
Answer figures :
         
(a) (b) (c) (d)
46. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror
image of the question figure if a mirror is placed
on the line MN?
Question figure :
BB
M
N
Answer figures :
BB
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. If SEARCH is coded as TFBSDI, how will PENCIL
be coded ?
(a) RGPEN (b) LICNEP
(c) QFODJM (d) QDMBHK
48. Which answer figure completes the form in
question figure ?
Question figures :
?
Answer figures :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
                            3 
49. From the answer figures, select the one in which
the question figure is hidden/embedded.
Question figure :
Answer figures :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers
as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets
of numbers given in the alternatives are
represented by two classes of alphabets as in
two matrices given below . The columns and rows
of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of
Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from
these matrices can be represented first by its row
and next by its column, e.g., 'A' can be
represented by 10, 33, etc., and 'H' can be
represented by 59, 78, etc. Similarly , you have to
identify the set for the word GUIDE.
Matrix-I
0 1 234
0 I E A OU
1 AOU I E
2E I OUA
3 O U E AI
4 U A I EO
Matrix-II
56789
5 F DB GH
6 B G H FD
7 D FG HB
8 G H D BF
9 H B F GD
(a) 85, 23, 21, 87, 32 (b) 58, 31, 12, 57, 41
(c) 77, 13, 42, 99, 32 (d) 66, 31, 43, 78, 14
PART-B :  GENERAL AWARENESS
51. The National Commission for Minorities was
constituted in the year
(a) 1990 (b) 1992
(c) 1980 (d) 1989
52. The first Indian who was chosen as the Secretary
General of Commonwealth is
(a) Rakesh V erma (b) Gopalaswami
(c) Krishna Murthy (d) Kamalesh Sharma
53. In which of the following systems of government
is bi–cameralism an essential feature?
(a) Federal system
(b) Unitary system
(c) parliamentary system
(d) Presidential system
54. Kuldip Nayer, a journalist, was appointed as a
High Commissioner in
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Australia
(c ) UK (d) Pakistan
55. Which king is referred to as Devanampiya
Piyadassi (Beloved of the Gods) in the
inscriptions?
(a) Asoka
(b) Harsha
(c) Bindusara
(d) Chandragupta Maurya
56. Socialism succeeds in achieveing
(a) higher standard of living of the people
(b) equal distribution of income in the society
(c) higher individual welfare in the society
(d) maximum social welfare in the society
57. Monopolist resorts to price discrimination
depending upon the
(a) Elasticity of supply
(b) Elasticity of demand
(c) Law of demand
(d) Law of  supply
58. Economic planning is an essential feature of
(a) Socialist economy
(b) Capitalist economy
(c) Mixed economy
(d) Dual economy
59. The HYV programme in India is also called as
(a) Traditional Agriculture
(b) New Agricultural Strategy
(c) White Revolution
(d) Blue Revolution
                            4 
60. The National Policy for Empowerment of W omen
was adopted in the year
(a) 2001 (b) 2005
(c) 1991 (d) 1995
61. Ballots were first used in
(a) Australia (b) USA
(c) Ancient Greece (d) England
62. The Rashtriya Barh A yog (RBA) is related with
(a) Droughts and Floods
(b) Poverty Alleviation
(c) Floods
(d) Disaster Management
63. Which of the following criteria is not used for the
classification of human races?
(a) Nose (b) H air
(c) Eyes (d) E ar
64. Railway coaches are manufactured at
(a) Jamshedpur (b) Chittaranjan
(c) Perambur (d) V aranasi
65. Fertilization occurs normally in the
(a) Cervix (b) V agina
(c) Fallopian tube (d) Uterus
66. People consuming alcohol in heavy quantities
generally die of
(a) liver or stomach cancer
(b) weakening of heart muscles leading to
cardiac arrest
(c) blood cancer
(d) Cirrhosis
67. The organisms at the base of the grazing
food-chain are
(a) Carnivores (b) Decomposers
(c) Producers (d) Herbivores
68. Who among the following was credited with the
destruction of 'Chihalgani', a group of powerful
nobles?
(a) Balban
(b) Qutb-ud-din- Aibak
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Razia Sultan
69. Bombay was given away as dowry to the English
King Charles II for marrying the Princess of
(a) France (b) Portugal
(c) Holland (d) Denmark
70. The Grand Trunk Road built by Shershah
connected Punjab with
(a) Agra (b) East Bengal
(c) Lahore (d) Multan
71. Name the Maratha Saint who was a contemporary
of Shivaji.
(a) Saint Eknath (b) Saint Tukaram
(c) Saint Dhyaneshwar (d) Namdev
72. The study of lake is called
(a) Topology (b) Hydrology
(c) Limnology (d) Potomology
73. A series of lines connecting places having a quake
at the same time are called
(a) Homoseismal lines
(b) Seismolines
(c) Coseismal lines
(d) Isoseismal lines
74. 'Lumen' is the unit of
(a) Illuminance
(b) Brightness
(c) Luminous flux
(d) Luminous intensity
75. The transfer of date from a CPU to peripheral
devices of computer is achieved through
(a) interfaces (b) buffer memory
(c) modems (d) computer ports
76. Which of the following items is not used in Local
Area Networks (LANs)?
(a) Interface Card (b) Cable
(c) Computer (d) Modem
77. The mass of 10 moles of water is
(a) 90 g (b) 45 g
(c) 18 g (d) 180 g
78. V itamin A is rich in
(a) Carrot (b) Lim e
(c) Beans (d) Rice
79. The high boiling point of water compared to
hydrogen sulphide or hydrogen chloride is due
to
(a) Dipole insulation
(b) V an der Waal's attraction
(c) Polar covalent bonding
(d) Hydrogen bonding
80. Which of the following determines the chemical
properties of an element?
(a) Number of electrons
(b) Number of neutrons
(c) Number of protons
(d) All of the above
81. The Central Drug Research Institute of India is
located at
(a) Madras (b) Lucknow
(c) Delhi (d) Bangalore
                            5