Class - X
TIME: 3 Hrs.
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. The question paper comprises five sections - A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A - Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B - Question no. 17 to 22 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
4. Section C - Question no. 23 to 26 are Source Based Questions, carrying 4 marks each.
5. Section D - Question no. 27 to 31 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E - Question no. 32 is Map Based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
8. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Q.1. Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union -1707’ from the following options. (1 Mark)
(a) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(b) The British parliament seized power from Ireland.
(c) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
Ans: (c) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’
Q.2. Which of the following treaty recognized Greece as an independent nation? (1 Mark)
(a) Treaty of Sevres
(b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Lausanne
(d) Treaty of Constantinople
Ans: (d) Treaty of Constantinople
Q.3. Which of the following was the reason for calling off ‘the Non- cooperation Movement’ by Gandhiji? (1 Mark)
(a) Pressure from the British Government
(b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Gandhiji’s arrest
(d) Chauri- Chaura incident
Ans: (d) Chauri- Chaura incident
Q.4. Fill in the blank :
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) is an example of _______ industry in India. (1 Mark)
Ans: Information Technology
Green Revolution has helped _______ industry to expand in different parts of India.
Q.5. Choose the correctly matched pair about the Primitive Cultivation in India from the following : (1 Mark)
(a) Dahiya-Madhya Pradesh
(c) Khil-Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (a) Dahiya-Madhya Pradesh
Q.6. Fill in the blank : (1 Mark)
(1) Barley: Rabi crop, cotton: kharif crop ___________________: zaid crop.
(c) Soya bean
Ans: (d) Cucumber
Q.7. Identify the soil with the help of the following features. (1 Mark)
• Red to brown in colour
• Sandy in texture and saline in nature
• Lacks humus and moisture
Ans: Arid Soil
Q.8. A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is ___________. (1 Mark)
Ans: (d) Ragi
Q.9. Population of Sri Lankan Tamils is concentrated in ____________ region of Sri Lanka. (1 Mark)
(a) North and South
(b) North and East
(c) East and West
(d) South and East
Ans: (b) North and East
Q.10. Define Majoritarianism. (1 Mark)
Ans: A belief that the majority of community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority.
Ans: A social division based on shared culture/ people belonging to same ethnic group believe in their common descent.
Q.11. Which administrative authority legislates on Residuary subjects? (1 Mark)
Ans: Union/ Centre
Which administrative authority legislates on Union list?
Ans: Union/ Centre
Q.12. Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income. (1 Mark)
(a) Country A
(b) Country B
(c) Country C
(d) Country D
Ans: (a) Country A
Q.13. Read the information given below and select the correct option : (1 Mark)
Mohan is an agricultural labourer. There are several months in a year when he has no work and needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer, the landowner for credit who charges an interest rate of 5 per cent per month. Mohan repays the money by working physically for the landowner on his farmland.
Over the years his debt will –
(a) Increase - because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount
(b) Remain constant - as he is working for the employer but is repaying less
(c) Reduce - as amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly repayment
(d) Be totally repaid - as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labour
Ans: (a) Increase - because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount
Most of the agricultural labourers like Mohan depend upon loans from informal sector. Which of the following statements about this sector is correct ?
(a) There are govt. bodies to supervise informal sector
(b) Money lenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest
(c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high
(d) Money lenders use fair means to get their money back
Ans: (c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high
Q.14. Which one of the following options describe ‘Collateral’? (1 Mark)
(a) Double coincidence of wants
(b) Certain products for barter
(c) Trade in barter
(d) Asset as guarantee for loan
Ans: (d) Asset as guarantee for loan
Q.15. Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct option : (1 Mark)
(a) It is the only way for economic development of the country
(b) Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world
(c) It has always given only positive results in all the countries
(d) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from one region to another
Ans: (d) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from one region to another
Q.16. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option : (1 Mark)
Assertion (A) : Different people have different development goals.
Reason (R) : People want freedom, equality, security and respect.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q.17. Why did Gandhiji start Non- Cooperation Movement? Explain. (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) Against Rowlatt Act
(ii) Jallianwala Bagh incidence
(iii) Khilafat Andolan
Detailed Answer :
(i) Gandhiji launched the Non- Cooperation Movement with the aim of self-governance and obtaining full independence.
(ii) The Indian National Congress withdrew its support for British reforms against the Rowlatt Act and the Jallianwala Bagh incident.
(iii) Indian Muslims who had participated in the Khilafat Movement to restore the status of the Caliph (the spiritual leader of Muslims) gave their support to the Non- Cooperation Movement.
Q.18. Explain the measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) The ideas of La Patrie (the fatherland) and Le Citoyen (the citizen) emphasized the notion of united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.
(ii) A new French flag, tricolour was chosen to replace the Royal Standard.
(iii) Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
(iv) New hymns were composed and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
(v) A centralized system of administration was introduced, uniform laws were made for all citizens.
“Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation”. Explain.
Ans: (i) Italians were scattered over several dynastic states.
(ii) Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house.
(iii) Italy was unified in 1861 and Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of United Italy.
(iv) Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a programme for a unitary Italian Republic.
(v) The unification of Italy was a result of many wars, through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France by Chief Minister Cavour.
(vi) Garibaldi joined the fray.
Q.19. Suggest and explain any three ways to protect land from degradation in various states of India. (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) Afforestation.
(ii) Proper management of grazing.
(iii) Planting of shelter belts of plants.
(iv) Stabilization of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes.
(v) Control of mining activities.
(vi) Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment.
(vii) Any other relevant point
Detailed Answer :
(i) Afforestation and proper management of grazing can help to some extent.
(ii) Planting of shelter belts, control on overgrazing, stabilization of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes are some of the methods to check land degradation in arid areas.
(iii) Proper management of wastelands, control of mining activities, proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment can reduce land water degradation in industrial and suburban areas.
(iv) Control ploughing is another step to conserve land. The fields are ploughed, harrowed and sown along the natural contour of the hills.
Q.20. Describe any three steps taken by the government towards decentralization in the year 1992. (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) Constitution mandates to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
(ii) Reservation of seats in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.
(iii) Reservation of at least one third of all positions for women.
(iv) Creation of an independent institution called the State Election Commission in each state to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.
(v) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
Describe any three federal features of Indian democracy.
Ans: (i) Division of powers between the centre and states.
(ii) There are three lists: Union List, State List, Concurrent List.
(iii) Residuary subjects.
(iv) Control of union territories with Centre.
Detailed Answer : (i) The Indian Constitution clearly provided a threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments.
(ii) There are three lists : Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
(iii) Union List on which Centre can make laws such as defence, currency, etc.
(iv) State List on which State can make laws such as police, trade, agriculture, etc.
(v) Concurrent List on which both Centre and State can legislate, such as education, marriage, etc.
(vi) Centre legislates on residuary subjects.
(vii) Centre also has special powers to control Union territories.
Q.21. Imagine yourself to be XYZ, a member of a women Self Help Group. Analyse the ways through which your group provides loan to the members. (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) Self Help Groups pool their savings.
(ii) A typical SHG has 15–20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and save regularly.
(iii) Saving per member varies from ` 25 to ` 100 or more, depending on the ability of the people to save.
(iv) Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs.
(v) The group charges interest on these loans but this is still less than what the moneylender charges.
(vi) After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank.
Q.22. ‘The issue of sustainability is important for development.’ Examine the statement. (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) Sustainable development aims at fulfilling the needs of today without compromising the needs of the future generation.
(ii) Sustainability is the capability to use the resources judiciously and maintain the ecological balance.
(iii) It lays emphasis on environmental protection and check environmental degradation.
(iv) Any other relevant point.
Q.23. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow : (4 Mark)
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre- revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state's power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
23.1 Which of the following statement correctly describes about European conservative ideology?
(a) Preservation of believes introduced by Napoleon
(b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity
(c) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere
(d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
Ans: (d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society.
23.2 Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815 from the following options.
(a) To declare competition of German unification
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
(c) To declare war against France
(d) To start the process of Italian Unification
Ans: (b) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
23.3 What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option.
(a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe
(b) To establish socialism in Europe
(c) To introduce democracy in France
(d) To set up a new Parliament in Austria
Ans: (a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe.
23.4 How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option. (4 Mark)
(a) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty
(b) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy
(c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
(d) By giving power to the German confederation
Ans: (c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe.
Q.24. Read the text given below and answer the following questions. (4 Mark)
Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country. This was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange. Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible. Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand. For instance, the agro- industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
24.1 Manufacturing industries fall in _________ and agriculture in ___________ .
(a) Primary, Secondary Sector
(b) Secondary, Tertiary Sector
(c) Primary, Tertiary Sector
(d) Secondary, Primary Sector
Ans: (d) Secondary, Primary Sector
24.2 Manufacturing provides job opportunities to reduce dependence on agriculture. Identify which sector the following jobs belong to –
Choose the correct option :
(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(c) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-2
(d) a-4, b-1, c-4, d-3
Ans: (b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
24.3 Which of the following options does not help in modernising agriculture?
(a) Manufacturing farm equipment
(b) Providing unskilled labour force
(c) Supplying fertilizers and pesticides
(d) Producing tube well pumps and sprinklers
Ans: (b) Providing unskilled labour force
24.4 In order to attract foreign manufacturing firms, a country needs to develop :
(a) Agrarian facilities
(b) Cultivable lands
(c) Media facilities
(d) Infrastructure facilities
Ans: (d) Infrastructure facilities
Q.25. Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 Mark)
In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects them all. Therefore, the most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. Some people think that democracy produces less effective government. It is, of course, true that non- democratic rulers are very quick and efficient in decision making and implementation, whereas, democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. So, some delay is bound to take place. But, because it has followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more effective. Moreover, when citizens want to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures, they can find this out. They have the right and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency. This factor is often missing from a non- democratic government. There is another aspect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives: democratic government is legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive, or clean. But a democratic government is people’s own government.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
25.1 People’s right to choose their own rulers is called as the :
(a) Right to Initiate
(b) Right to Plebiscite
(c) Right to Vote
(d) Right to Referendum
Ans: (c) Right to Vote
25.2 Which of the following options helps in promoting transparency in the governance?
(a) Right to education
(b) Right to information
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) Right to speech and expression
Ans: (b) Right to information
25.3 __________________________ make/s the government legitimate.
(a) Credibility of politicians
(b) People’s movements
(c) Free and fair elections
(d) Holding of powers
Ans: (c) Free and fair elections
25.4 Decisions in a democracy are more acceptable to the people because they are -
(a) Taken swiftly and implemented quickly
(b) Taken by giving privileges to the people
(c) Taken through elites’ votes
(d) Taken after following due processes
Ans: (d) Taken after following due processes
Q.26. Read the source given below and answer the following questions. (4 Mark)
Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent ` 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2004, Ford Motors was selling 27,000 cars in the Indian markets, while 24,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico and Brazil. The company wanted to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
26.1 The passage given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) Increased employment
(b) Foreign investment
(c) Foreign collaboration
(d) International competition
Ans: (b) Foreign investment
26.2 According to the given passage, Ford Motors can be termed as a Multi- National Company based on which of the following options?
(a) Production of different types of automobiles
(b) Largest automobile manufacturer in the world
(c) Because of large scale exports of cars across globe
(d) Industrial and commercial ventures across globe
Ans: (d) Industrial and commercial ventures across globe
26.3 By setting up their production plants in India, Ford Motors wanted to –
(a) Collaborate with a leading Indian Automobile company
(b) Satisfy the demands of American, African and Indian markets
(c) Tap the benefits of low-cost production and a large market
(d) Take over small automobile manufacturing units in India
Ans: (c) Tap the benefits of low-cost production and a large market
26.4 Ford Motors wish to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe is an evidence of :
(a) Promoting local industries of India
(b) Merging trade from different countries
(c) Supplying jobs to factory workers in India
(d) Interlinking of production across countries
Ans: (d) Interlinking of production across countries
Q.27. How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups develop a sense of collective belonging in the nineteenth century India? Explain. (5 Mark)
Ans: (i) The identity of the nation is most often symbolised with the image of Bharat Mata.
(ii) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland.
(iii) Novel Anandamath.
(iv) Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata and portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual.
(v) Ideas of nationalism also developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore.
(vi) Icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism.
(vii) During the Swadeshi movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed.
(viii) Reinterpretation of history to instill a sense of pride in the nation.
Explain the meaning and notion of ‘Swaraj’ as perceived by the plantation workers. How did they respond to the call of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
1. For plantation workers in Assam, Swaraj meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed, and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.
2. (i) Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission, and in fact, they were rarely given such permission.
(ii) When they heard of the Non- Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed home.
(iii) They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming, and everyone would be given land in their own villages.
(iv) They, however, never reached their destination. Stranded on the way by a railway and steamer strike, they were caught by the police and brutally beaten up.
Q.28. Describe the role of mass communication in India. (5 Mark)
Ans: (i) Mass communication provides entertainment.
(ii) Creates awareness among people about various national programmes and policies. It includes radio, television, newspapers, magazines, books and films.
(iii) All India Radio (Akashwani) broadcasts a variety of programmes in national, regional and local languages.
(iv) Doordarshan broadcasts programmes of entertainment, education, sports, etc. for people of different age groups.
(v) India publishes a large number of newspapers and periodicals annually.
(vi) Newspapers are published in about 100 languages and dialects to create awareness among people in different parts of the country.
(vii) India produces short films; video feature films and video short films.
(viii) Mass media creates awareness among people on various socio- economic and political issues.
(ix) Any other relevant point.
Describe the benefits of Roadways.
Ans: (i) Roads need less capital than the railways.
(ii) Road transport provides door-to-door service.
(iii) The road transport provides flexible service to men and materials.
(iv) Road transport is useful in small distances.
(v) Road transport is helpful in production of perishable goods as it facilitates the distribution of perishable goods from point of production to point of consumption.
(vi) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas. Any other relevant point.
Q.29. Suggest and explain any five ways to reform Political Parties in India. (5 Mark)
Ans: (i) A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties. (ii) It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its members.
(iii) It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets; about 1/3rd to its women candidates.
(iv) There should be a quota for women in the decision-making bodies of the party.
(v) There should be state funding of elections.
(vi) Vote casting should be made compulsory in each election.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
Q.30. ‘Power sharing is the essence of a democratic government.’ Examine the statement. (5 Mark)
Ans: (i) Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary, also called as Horizontal Power Sharing. Example – India.
(ii) Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Example – India (Union Government & State Government).
(iii) Community government – Power may also be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups. Example – Belgium.
(iv) Power-sharing between political parties, pressure groups and movements – Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand.
(v) In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.
Q.31. ‘Tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian Economy.' Justify the statement. (5 Mark)
Ans: (i) Basic services: Services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post and telegraph services, transport, banks, insurance companies, are in this group.
(ii) Development of primary and secondary sector: The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such as transport, trade and storage.
(iii) Rise in income levels: As income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools and professional training centres.
(iv) Rise in information technology: Over the past decade or so, certain new services, such as those based on information and communication technology, have become important and essential.
(v) Globalization: Due to globalization, people have become aware of new services and activities, and communication because of which the tertiary sector has gained importance.
‘Public sector contributes to the economic development of India.’ Justify the statement.
Ans: (i) It promotes rapid economic development through creation and expansion of infrastructure.
(ii) It creates employment opportunities.
(iii) It generates financial resources for development.
(iv) It is ensuring equality of income, wealth and thus, a balanced regional development.
(v) It encourages development of small, medium and cottage industries.
(vi) It ensures easy availability of goods at moderate rates.
(vii) Contributes to community development, Human Development Index, i.e., health and educational services.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Q.32. (i) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1927 (1 Mark)
(B) Mahatma Gandhi organized a Satyagraha Movement at this place for indigo planters (1 Mark)
(ii) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable Symbols.
(a) Rana Pratap Sagar Dam
(b) Namrup Thermal Plant
(c) Bengaluru Software Technology Park
(d) Visakhapatnam Port
(e) Narora Nuclear Power Plant (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) & (ii)