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Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning

Q1: If in a certain language, LIGHT is coded as OLJKW, how can SOUND be written in that code?
(a) VHRJK
(b) VRXQG
(c) VYTRD
(d) VRUYT

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)
The pattern followed is: + 3, + 3, + 3.

So, LIGHT = L + 3 = O, I + 3 = L, G + 3 = J, H + 3 = K, T + 3 = W

hence, OLJKW

So, SOUND = S + 3 = V, O + 3 = R, U + 3 = X, N + 3 = Q, D + 3 = G

Hence, VRXQG

Q2: Play is to actor as concert is to
(a) symphony
(b) musician
(c) piano
(d) percussion

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Ans: (b)

An actor performs in a play. A musician performs at a concert. Choices 1, 3 and 4 are incorrect because none is people who performs. 

Q3: Complete the following number series:
13, 40, 121, ___
(a) 299
(b) 309
(c) 353
(d) 364

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Ans: (d)

The pattern is as follows:

13 × 3 + 1 = 40

40 × 3 + 1 = 121

121 × 3 + 1 = 364

Q4: Pointing to a person, Arjun said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter's father.” How is the person related to Arjun?
(a) Father
(b) Uncle
(c) Grandfather
(d) Cousin

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Ans: (b)

  • Arjun's daughter's father is Arjun himself.
  • So, the father of Arjun's daughter’s father is Arjun's father.
  • Thus, the only brother of Arjun's father is Arjun's uncle.
  • Therefore, the person pointed out by Arjun is his uncle.

Q5: Vinita walked 20 m towards the North. After that, she turned right and walked 30 m. Then, she turned right again and walked 35 m. Next, she turned left and walked 15 m. Finally, she turned left once more and walked 15 m. What is her distance and direction from her starting point?
(a) 45 m, East
(b) 45 m, West
(c) 35 m, West
(d) 35 m, East

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Ans: (a)

  • Vinita starts by walking 20 m North.
  • She then turns right (which is towards the East) and walks 30 m.
  • After that, she turns right again (now facing South) and walks 35 m.
  • Next, she turns left (now facing East) and walks 15 m.
  • Finally, she turns left again (now facing North) and walks 15 m.
  • To find her final position, we calculate: she moved 20 m North, then 30 m East, then 35 m South, which brings her back down, and finally 15 m East. This results in a total of 45 m East from her starting point.

Q6: Select the related word to replace the question mark.
DOG : PUPPY : : HORSE : ?
(a) Foal
(b) Kid
(c) Lamb
(d) Kitten

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Ans: (a)

Baby of a dog is called puppy. Baby of a horse is called foal.

Q7: P, Q, R, S, T and U are arranged in a line. T and U occupy the center positions, while Q and R are positioned at the ends. S is located directly to the left of Q. Who is seated directly to the right of R?
(a) Q
(b) P
(c) T
(d) U

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Ans: (b)

  • To solve this, we first note that Q and R are at the ends, meaning they are either at the leftmost or rightmost positions.
  • Since S is immediately to the left of Q, Q must be on the left end, making S the second person.
  • This arrangement places T and U in the center, leaving R at the right end.
  • Thus, the order is: Q, S, T, U, R. Therefore, the person to the immediate right of R is P.

Q8: Directions: Select the figure from the given options that will complete the following series.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6(a) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6
(b) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6
(c) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6
(d) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6

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Ans: (c)
The triangle rotates 90o clockwise in each step and also the number of small circle-like shapes is increased by 1 in each step.

Q9: If M denotes ÷, L denotes -, P denotes x and J denotes +, then find the value of 25 M 5 L 10 P 2 J 15.
(a) 10
(b) 0
(c) 5
(d) 15

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • We start with the expression: 25 M 5 L 10 P 2 J 15.
  • Substituting the symbols, we get: 25 ÷ 5 - 10 * 2 + 15.
  • Calculating step by step: First, 25 ÷ 5 equals 5.
  • Next, we have 5 - 10 * 2 + 15, which simplifies to 5 - 20 + 15.
  • Finally, 5 - 20 equals -15, and -15 + 15 equals 0.

Q10: E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C. C is B's daughter. How is D related to E?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Father–in–law
(d) Brother–in–law

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6

Science Section

Q11: Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) A magnet can have only one pole as per our requirement.
(b) Maximum iron filing sticks to the poles of a magnet when it is brought near them.
(c) Magnets lose their property on heating and hammering.
(d) Magnetite contains iron and is a natural magnet.

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Ans: (a)

  • A magnet cannot have only one pole. Every magnet has two poles: a north pole and a south pole. This is a fundamental property of magnets.
  • Maximum iron filings do stick to the poles of a magnet when they are brought close, demonstrating the magnetic field's strength.
  • Magnets do lose their properties when subjected to heat or hammering, which can disrupt their magnetic alignment.
  • Magnetite is indeed a natural magnet and contains iron, making it a common example of a magnetic material.

Q12: Consider the list of terms given below:
A. High tide
B. Extreme rainfall
C. Storm
D. Earthquake
What of the above can cause floods?
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and A
(d) A, B and C

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Ans: (d)
High tide, extreme rainfall, and storms over oceans can bring a lot of water with them by pressure causing floods.  

Q13: One morning after the sun had risen, Kunal was positioned facing a pole. The shadow of the pole extended directly to his right. In which direction was he facing?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) Can't be predicted

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Ans: (c)

  • Sunrise occurs in the East. Therefore, if Kunal is facing the pole and the shadow is to his right, he must be facing South.
  • In this scenario, the pole is in front of him, and the shadow falls to the right, indicating his orientation.
  • Thus, Kunal is indeed facing South.

Q14: The distance between Trisha's house to the playground is 500 m. While Ansh’s house is at a distance of 0.6 km and on the same line as that of Trisha’s. If both of them start from their houses to the playground taking 80 cm long footsteps and move at the same rate, who will reach first?
(a) Trisha
(b) Ansh
(c) Cannot be determined.
(d) Both will reach at the same time.

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Ans: (a)

  • Trisha's distance to the playground is 500 m, while Ansh's distance is 0.6 km (which is 600 m).
  • Since 500 m is less than 600 m, Trisha has a shorter distance to cover.
  • Both are taking 80 cm footsteps and moving at the same speed, so the one with the shorter distance will arrive first.
  • Thus, Trisha will reach the playground first.

Q15: Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(a) Deficiency diseases can be prevented by eating a balanced diet.
(b) Balanced diet for the body should contain a variety of food items.
(c) Meat alone is not sufficient to provide all nutrients to the body.
(d) By eating rice alone, we can fulfil nutritional requirement of our body.

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Ans: (d)

By eating rice alone, we cannot fulfil nutritional requirement of our body. 

Q16: Which of the following statements is TRUE about magnet?
(a) A cylindrical magnet has only one pole.
(b) Maximum iron filings stick in the middle of a bar magnet when it is brought near them.
(c) A compass can be used to find East-West direction at any place.
(d) Rubber is a magnetic material.

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Ans: (c)

A compass can be used to find East-West direction at any place. 

Q17: Which of the following are indications of higher speed?
(i) Given distance has been covered in a shorter time.
(ii) Given distance has been covered in a longer time.
(iii) Larger distance is covered in a given time.
(iv) Shorter distance is covered in a given time.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

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Ans: (d)
Higher speed is indicated by the following statements:

(i) Given distance has been covered in a shorter time.

(iii) Larger distance is covered in a given time.

Q18: ______ is light scattering by particles in a colloid or else particles in a very fine suspension.
(a) Tyndall effect
(b) Collision effect
(c) Atmospheric scattering
(d) All of these

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Ans: (a)

Tyndall effect, also known as Tyndall scattering, is light scattering by particles in a colloid or else particles in a very fine suspension. It is named after the 19th-century physicist John Tyndall.  

Q19: Read the given statements and select the correct option. 
Statement 1: The filament of a bulb is a thin wire that emits light when current passes through it. 
Statement 2: An electric cell has two terminals, while an electric bulb has only one terminal.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct because the filament indeed emits light when electricity flows through it.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect as both the electric cell and the electric bulb actually have two terminals.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that statement 1 is true while statement 2 is false.
  • This means option (c) is the right choice.

Q20: Which of the following options is TRUE?
(a) Transparent object casts dark shadow.
(b) When the top circular view of a cylindrical shaped object faces the shining object, a triangle shape shadow is formed.
(c) In a completely dark room, if mirror is held in front of face, a reflection of face is seen in the mirror.
(d) When the curved side of a cylindrical shaped object faces the shining object, it casts a rectangular shadow.

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Ans: (d)

A cylinder object can cast shadows in two ways. When the top circular view faces the shining object, a circular shape shadow is formed. When its curved side faces the shining object, it casts a rectangular shadow. 

Q21: Which of the following statements is accurate?
(a) Silver is the least effective conductor of electricity.
(b) Metals are shiny because they reflect light from their surface.
(c) Both plastic and glass possess magnetic properties.
(d) All substances that are denser than water will float on it.

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Ans: (b)

  • Silver is actually the best conductor of electricity, not the poorest.
  • Metals are known for their shiny appearance because they reflect light effectively.
  • Both plastic and glass are non-magnetic, meaning they do not attract magnets.
  • Materials that are denser than water will sink rather than float.

Q22 Which of the following is true about air?
(a) Air helps in the growing of seeds and pollens of plants.
(b) The component of air, used by green plants to make their food, is oxygen.
(c) Air helps in the movements of sailing yachts, gliders, parachutes and aeroplanes.
(d) Blowing air (wind) is used for power generation by sea water.

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Ans: (c)

  • Living beings use air for respiration.
  • Plants use air (carbon dioxide) to prepare their food.
  • Blowing air (wind) is used for power generation by windmills.
  • Air helps in burning of fuels and substances.
  • Air helps in the scattering of seeds and pollens of plants.
  • Air helps in the movements of sailing yachts, gliders, parachutes and aeroplanes.

Q23: Substance P has a rough texture, Q is non-lustrous while R floats on water. P, Q, and R could be respectively:
(a) Copper vessel
(b) Sandpaper
(c) Pumice stone
(d) Aluminum foil

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Ans: (c)

  • Pumice stone is known for its rough texture, making it a suitable match for P.
  • Jute bag is non-lustrous, which aligns perfectly with Q.
  • Wooden bowl is capable of floating on water, fitting the description for R.

Q24: It is a type of motion in which the velocity of an object changes by an equal amount in every equal time period. What is this motion called?
(a) Accelerated motion
(b) Linear motion
(c) Rotary motion
(d) Reciprocating motion

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Ans: (a)
Accelerated motion is a type of motion in which the velocity of an object changes by an equal amount in every equal time period. 

Q25: Read the given statements and select the correct option. 
Statement 1: To attach the metal rim to a wooden cart wheel, it is designed to be slightly smaller than the wooden wheel. 
Statement 2: When heated, the rim expands and fits onto the wheel, which then contracts when cold water is poured, securing it tightly onto the wheel.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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Ans: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct because the metal rim must be smaller to fit onto the wooden wheel.
  • Statement 2 is also correct as heating the rim allows it to expand and fit over the wheel, and it contracts when cooled, securing it tightly.
  • Thus, both statements are true, and the second statement explains the first.
  • This process is a practical application of thermal expansion and contraction.

Q26: In which of the following cases can evaporation be helpful?
(a) Cooling water in an earthen pot
(b) Obtaining salt from sea water
(c) Obtaining powdered milk from milk
(d) All of these

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Ans: (d)

  • Salt from the sea water and milk powder from the solution can be separated by evaporation.
  • The water evaporates, leaving behind the non-volatile solute.
  • Water in an earthen pot remains cool as it evaporates from the surface of the pot because evaporation has a cooling effect.

Q27: The process responsible for foggy bathroom mirrors after a hot water bath and the formation of dew drops on leaves in the morning is:
(a) Condensation and freezing respectively
(b) Condensation and melting respectively
(c) Vaporization and condensation respectively
(d) Condensation

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Ans: (d)

Hot water vapors get condensed on cold mirrors and leaves, forming dew.

Q28: Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?
(a) Alloys
(b) Smoke
(c) Oil in water
(d) Glucose in water

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Ans: (b)

  • Homogeneous mixtures are those that have a uniform composition throughout. Examples include alloys and glucose in water.
  • On the other hand, smoke and oil in water are considered heterogeneous mixtures because their components can be easily distinguished.
  • In a homogeneous mixture, you cannot see the different parts, while in a heterogeneous mixture, the different substances remain separate.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) as it represents a homogeneous mixture.

Q29: Which of the following is a reversible change?
(a) Baking of bread
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Making of curd from milk
(d) Sublimation of naphthalene balls

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Ans: (d)

Sublimation is a reversible change. When a substance sublimes on heating, it changes directly from the solid to gaseous state without passing through the liquid state. Desublimation, or deposition, is the reverse of this process in which a gas is directly converted into solid state on cooling.

Therefore, sublimation is a reversible change that can be undone or reversed.

Q30: Which of the following animals inhabit a comparable type of environment?
(a) Red-eyed tree frog, Polar bear, Deer
(b) Gorilla, Monkey, Toucan
(c) Macaw, Elephant, Reindeer
(d) Gazelle, Lion, Snowshoe hare

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Ans: (b)

  • Gorilla, Monkey, and Toucan are all species that thrive in rainforest ecosystems.
  • These animals share a habitat characterized by dense vegetation and a warm climate.
  • In contrast, the other options include animals that live in very different environments, such as polar regions or savannas.
  • Thus, option (b) is the correct choice as they all belong to the same habitat type.

Q31: Which of the following devices is used to secure tall buildings from the effect of lightning?
(a) Lightning rod
(b) Electroscope
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Seismograph

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Ans: (a)

Lightning rod is the device used to secure tall buildings from the effect of lightning. A metal rod taller than the height of the building is installed in the walls of the building during its construction which protects the building from the effect of lightning.

Q32: Study the given relationship: Cotton : Jute : Wool
Select the option which correctly identifies the same relationship.
(a) Silk cotton : Sisal : Hemp
(b) Sisal : Polyester : Nylon
(c) Silk cotton : Flax : Silk
(d) Rayon : Flax : Nylon

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Ans: (c)

  • Cotton, jute, and wool are all examples of natural fibers.
  • In the same way, silk cotton, flax, and silk are also classified as natural fibers.
  • This shows that the relationship is based on the type of material, specifically natural fibers.
  • Thus, option (c) maintains the same relationship as the original set.

Q33: Which of the following animals has sharp front teeth, used for biting, and large back teeth, used for grinding?
(a) Rabbit
(b) Cat
(c) Hyena
(d) Bear

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Ans: (a)
Herbivores animals are those that eat plants. They include sheep, rabbits, hyenas, cows, zebras and deer. They have sharp front teeth, used for biting, and large back teeth, used for grinding.  

Q34: The tiny openings in the body of a cockroach through which it takes in air are known as
(a) gills
(b) spiracles
(c) lungs
(d) pores

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Ans: (b)
Cockroaches take in air through tiny openings in their bodies which are known as spiracles.  

Q35: Which one of the following foods is rich in Vitamin E?
(a) Apple
(b) Egg
(c) Banana
(d) Almond

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Ans: (d)

'Almonds' are one of the best sources of vitamin E.

Q36: Read the given statements and select the incorrect ones.
(a) In plants, extra glucose is converted into starch and stored for future use.
(b) Anther contains ovules that take part in reproduction.
(c) In some plants, leaves get modified to provide support to the plant, e.g., Gloriosa.
(d) The stem helps to conduct food from leaves to other plant parts.

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Ans: (b)

  • Explanation: The statement about the anther is incorrect because the anther actually contains pollen grains, which are involved in the male part of reproduction in plants. Ovules are found in the ovary, not the anther. The other statements about glucose storage, leaf modifications, and stem functions are correct.

Q37: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Cotton is a preferred fabric to wear in summers.
Statement 2: It has good absorbency and allows air to pass through it.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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Ans: (a)

  • Cotton is known for being a light and breathable fabric, making it a popular choice for summer clothing.
  • It has excellent absorbency, which helps in keeping the body dry by soaking up sweat.
  • Additionally, cotton allows air to circulate, providing comfort in hot weather.
  • Thus, both statements are true, and statement 2 correctly explains why cotton is preferred in summer.

Q38: Select the correct pairing.
(a) Bharatanatyam - Kerala
(b) Odissi - Assam
(c) Kathakali - Tamil Nadu
(d) Kuchipudi - Andhra Pradesh

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Ans: (d)

  • Kuchipudi is a classical dance form that originates from Andhra Pradesh.
  • Bharatanatyam is associated with Tamil Nadu, while Odissi comes from Odisha.
  • Kathakali is a traditional dance-drama from Kerala.
  • Thus, the correct match is Kuchipudi with Andhra Pradesh.

Q39: Study the given analogy and select the option that correctly fills the blank. Pumice : Igneous rock :: _______ : Sedimentary rock
(a) Quartzite
(b) Marble
(c) Limestone
(d) Basalt

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Ans: (c)

  • Pumice is classified as an igneous rock, which forms from volcanic activity.
  • In this analogy, we need to find a rock that is a type of sedimentary rock.
  • Limestone is a well-known example of a sedimentary rock, formed from the accumulation of marine organisms.
  • On the other hand, quartzite and marble are types of metamorphic rocks, and basalt is also an igneous rock.

Q40: Which fibre is obtained form the thick coat layer of hair of animals?
(a) Silk
(b) Jute
(c) Cotton
(d) Wool

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Ans: (d)

There are many animals that bear a thick coat of hair on their bodies. Such animals generally live in cold climates. Thick coat of hair over the body of such an animal traps lot of air and keeps them warm, as air is a bad conductor of heat, and that thick layer is used to obtain wool. 

Q41: What are the small fluffy fibres, which are picked out from the hair of wool-yielding animals?
(a) Burrs
(b) Roving
(c) Ripped
(d) Rugged

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Ans: (a)
Burrs are the small, fluffy fibres, which are picked out from the hair of wool-yielding animals. Burrs produce many tiny bristles that easily attach to clothing when they come into contact with it.

Q42: Which of the following is not a reflex action?
(a) Blinking of the eye
(b) Playing the piano
(c) Watering of the mouth
(d) Sudden withdrawal of hand when pricked by a needle

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Ans: (b)

  • Playing the piano is a learned skill that requires practice and coordination, unlike reflex actions.
  • Reflex actions are automatic responses to stimuli, such as blinking of the eye or sudden withdrawal of hand when pricked.
  • These actions happen quickly and do not involve conscious thought.
  • In contrast, playing an instrument involves deliberate control and practice.

Q43: Consider the list of terms given below:
A. High tide
B. Extreme rainfall
C. Storm
D. Earthquake
Which of the above can cause floods?

(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and A
(d) A, B and C

Ans: (d)

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

High tide, extreme rainfall, and storms over oceans can bring a lot of water with them by pressure causing floods.

Q44: Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Fats deposited in our body act as shock absorbers and protect us from injury.
(b) Kwashiorkor is caused by a deficiency of protein, carbohydrate, and fat.
(c) Roughage neither releases energy nor helps in tissue or body building.
(d) Starch-containing food item turns bluish-black in color with iodine test.

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Ans: (b)

  • The statement about Kwashiorkor is incorrect because it is primarily caused by a deficiency of protein, not carbohydrates and fats. The other statements are true. Fats do act as shock absorbers, roughage does not provide energy or build tissue, and starch does turn bluish-black with iodine. Thus, the only incorrect statement is (ii).

Q45: Why does a person get a jerk back when he shoots a bullet off a piston?
(a) Every action has equal and opposite reaction.
(b) Bullet leaves with high speed.
(c) Bullet leaves with low speed.
(d) There is no force on bullet.

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Ans: (a)
When a person shoots a bullet, he gets a pull back on his shoulder because every action has equal and opposite reaction.

Achievers Section

Q46: In the following images, contact forces and non-contact forces have been shown.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6

Choose the option in which images are correctly labelled.
(A) Contact, (B) Contact, (C) Non-contact, (D) Non-contact
(A) Non-contact, (B) Contact, (C) Contact, (D) Non-contact
(A) Non-contact, (B) Contact, (C) Non-contact, (D) Contact
(A) Non-contact, (B) Contact, (C) Non-contact, (D) Non-contact

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6

Q47: Study the dichotomous key and identify the type of change represented by W, X, Y and Z.
I. (i) It is a man-made fibre: W
(ii) It is a natural fibre. Go to II.
II. (i) It is a natural mineral fibre: X
(ii) It is a plant fibre. Go to III.
III. (i) The crop is usually grown at places having black soil and warm climate: Y
(ii) It is cultivated during the rainy season: ZScience Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)
W is a man-made fibre and could be nylon or spandex.

X is asbestos, which is a natural mineral fibre.

Y is cotton plant and grows well in black soil and warm climate.

Jute grows well in soil rich in alluvial deposits and requires standing water. It is cultivated during the rainy season. Hence, Z is jute.

Therefore, option (1) is correct.

Q48: Carefully observe the diagram given below:

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6

Choose the incorrect option regarding the process shown above.
(a) The stem is the first part that emerges from the seed.
(b) All metabolic activities within a seed speed up.
(c) Water, warmth and air are the essential factors needed.
(d) It is essential for producing new plants in angiosperms.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

The process shown in the diagram is germination. Germination is the process of seeds developing into new plants. The presence of light, water and warmth is essential for the process to take place. Seeds remain dormant if these conditions are not met. As the process of germination starts, all the metabolic activities including respiration speed up. Root is the first part of the seed that comes out in the soil and anchors the seedling in the soil. Germination is essential for the continuity and propagation of flowering plants.

Q49: Identify the paramecium from the options given below:

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) None of the above

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

Option B is the paramecium. A paramecium is a small one-celled (unicellular) living organism that can move, digest food, and reproduce. The locomotory organ in a paramecium is cilia.

Q50: The following picture shows different types of objects with different kinds of motion. Select the answer which matches them correctly.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6

(a) A - Up and down, B - Zig zag, C - Back and forth, D - Straight line motion
(b) A - Up and down, B - Straight line motion, C - Back and forth, D - Zig zag motion
(c) A - Up and down, B - Straight line motion, C - Zig zag, D - Back and forth
(d) A - Straight line motion, B - Up and down, C - Back and forth, D - Zig zag motion

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

In this case, we know that A shows an up and down motion, B shows a train in straight line motion, C shows a girl on the swing which is a back and forth motion, D shows zig zag motion of a snake.

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FAQs on Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 - Science Olympiad Class 6

1. What topics are covered in the Class 6 Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1?
Ans.The Class 6 Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 typically covers a variety of topics from the science curriculum such as living organisms, ecosystems, matter, force and motion, and fundamental scientific principles. It also includes questions related to practical applications of science in everyday life.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad?
Ans.Effective preparation for the Science Olympiad involves understanding the syllabus, practicing with model test papers, reviewing key concepts, and participating in group study sessions. Additionally, students should focus on their weaker areas and revise regularly to enhance their understanding.
3. What is the format of the questions in the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper?
Ans.The format of the questions in the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper usually includes multiple-choice questions (MCQs), true or false statements, and short answer questions. This variety helps assess students' understanding and application of scientific concepts.
4. How can model test papers help in exam preparation?
Ans.Model test papers help in exam preparation by providing students with a clear understanding of the exam pattern, types of questions, and time management skills. They also allow students to assess their knowledge and identify areas that need improvement.
5. Where can I find additional resources for Science Olympiad preparation?
Ans.Additional resources for Science Olympiad preparation can be found in various places, including online educational platforms, science textbooks, study guides, and educational apps. Many schools also provide resources and practice papers to help students prepare effectively.
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