Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.
Q1: If '–' represents '÷', '+' represents '×', '×' represents '+', and '÷' represents '–', what is the result of 30 – 5 + 4 × 7 ÷ 9?
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 24
Ans: (c)
Q2: In a specific coding system, the phrase ''sky is blue'' corresponds to the number ''324'', ''flowers are beautiful'' translates to ''759'', and ''sky always beautiful'' is represented as ''365''. How is the word ''always'' encoded in this system?
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 9
Ans: (a)
Q3: How many instances of 4 are present in the provided series that are directly preceded by 3 but not directly followed by 8? Series: 6 4 8 5 6 3 4 9 7 6 4 8 7 3 4 2 8 5 3 4 7
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: (b)
Q4: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 2
Ans: (a)
In each step, the pin rotates 90º clockwise and the arrow rotates 90o anti-clockwise.
Q5: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans: (b)
Only in fig. (4), both the parallel lines are bent in the same direction (i.e. towards the left).
Q6: Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2
Ans: (a)
The figure is enclosed in a new figure with one more number of sides, in such a way that the upper vertex of the two figures coincides.
Q7: Among five friends, who is the tallest?
Statement I: D is taller than A and C.
Statement II: B is shorter than E but taller than D.
(a) Both I and II are sufficient
(b) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
(c) Neither I nor II is sufficient
(d) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
Ans: (a)
From I, we have: D > A, D > C.
From II, we have: E > B > D.
Combining the above two, we get: E > B > D > A > C or E > B > D > C > A.
Thus, E is the tallest.
Q8: If Rabbit is called Peacock, Peacock is called Lion, Lion is called Tiger, then who is the king of jungle?
(a) Lion
(b) Rabbit
(c) Tiger
(d) Peacock
Ans: (c)
King of Jungle Lion and Lion is called Tiger. So, the correct answer is Tiger.
Q9: Pointing to a boy on the stage, Aashi said, "he is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband". How is the boy on the stage related to Aashi?
(a) Husband
(b) Son
(c) Cousin
(d) Nephew
Ans: (b)
Wife of Aashi’s husband - Aashi; Brother of daughter - Son.
So, the boy on the stage is Aashi’s son.
Q10: 2, 15, 4, 12, 6, 7, ?, ?
(a) 8, 0
(b) 8, 8
(c) 3, 8
(d) 8, 3
Ans: (a)
This sequence 2, 15, 4, 12, 6, 7, ?, ? is a combination of two series :
1st: 2, 4, 6, ? and 2nd: 15, 12, 7, ?
1st consists of consecutive even numbers.
So, missing term of 1st sequence = 8.
Pattern of 2nd sequence is -3, -5, ...
So, missing term of 2nd sequence = 7 - 7 = 0.
Q11: Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: The weight of an object becomes zero at the center of the Earth. Statement 2: As the distance from the center of the Earth increases, the acceleration due to gravity decreases.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
Ans: (c)
Q12: A source of longitudinal waves vibrates 640 times in four seconds. If the velocity of this wave is 240 ms-1, find the wavelength of the wave:
(a) 2.5 m
(b) 1.5 m
(c) 3.3 m
(d) 2.8 m
Ans: (b)
The frequency (f) of the wave can be calculated as follows:
f = Number of vibrations / Time = 640 vibrations / 4 s = 160 Hz.
The wavelength (λ) can be found using the formula: λ = Velocity / Frequency.
Substituting the values:
λ = 240 m/s / 160 Hz = 1.5 m.
Q13: A boy standing at a specific distance from a wall makes a loud noise. He receives the echo of the sound after 2.2 seconds. Given that the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, what is the distance between the wall and the boy?
(a) 340 m
(b) 748 m
(c) 374 m
(d) 680 m
Ans: (c)
Q14: Identify the factors that are not accounted for when we discuss the term water pollution.
(a) Contamination of water
(b) Death of aquatic organisms
(c) Loss of dissolved oxygen
(d) Change in water temperature
Ans: (a)
The death of aquatic organisms is due to water pollution. The rest are various factors that help to understand the changes in water, dissolved oxygen levels and temperature based on which one differentiates polluted and non-polluted water.
Q15: Kriti conducted experiments using identical bulbs and cells, but with two different solutions, 1 and 2. She observed that the bulb in setup X shines more brightly than the one in setup Y. Based on this experiment, what can we conclude?
(a) Higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup X as compared to setup Y
(b) Higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup Y as compared to setup X
(c) Equal current is flowing through both the circuits
(d) The current flowing through the circuits in the two setups cannot be compared in this manner
Ans: (a)
Q16: Which among the following observation is true regarding the following statement?
“A permanent tissue with thin walls, large intercellular spaces and green in colour.”
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Guard Cells
Ans: (a)
The listed observations are characters of sclerenchyma cells.
Q17: The Sun and the Earth exert gravitational attraction on one another. If F1 represents the gravitational force on the Sun from the Earth and F2 represents the gravitational force on the Earth from the Sun, then:
(a) F1 = F2
(b) F2 > F1
(c) F1 > F2
(d) F1 = F2 = 0
Ans: (a)
Q18: Two notes are played on a piano. The second note is louder and has a lower pitch. The second note has:
(a) Higher, Lower
(b) Higher, Higher
(c) Lower, Higher
(d) Lower, Lower
Ans: (a)
Q19: The velocity of ultrasonic sound in water is 1400 ms-1. If the time taken to receive the reflected wave is 10 s, calculate the depth of the ocean as detected by SONAR:
(a) 14 km
(b) 3.5 km
(c) 7 km
(d) 7.5 km
Ans: (c)
The distance traveled by the sound wave is equal to twice the depth of the ocean.
Distance = Velocity × Time = 1400 m/s × 10 s = 14000 m.
Depth = Distance / 2 = 14000 m / 2 = 7000 m = 7 km.
Q20: Identify the factors that determine the optimum growth and yield of crops from the following:
I. Climate
II. Temperature
III. Diseases
IV. Irrigation and nutrition
V. Photoperiods
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II, IV and V
(d) IV and V
Ans: (c)
Climate, optimum temperature, irrigation, fertilisers and photoperiods are necessary for the optimum growth and yield of crops. Photoperiods is the time during a day in which the plants receive sunlight.
Q21: The gravitational force between two masses kept at a certain distance is p N. The same two masses are now kept in water and the distance between them is kept the same. If the gravitational force between these two masses in water is q N, then:
(a) p = q
(b) p < q
(c) p > q
(d) p ≠ q
Ans: (a)
Q22: A submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo from an object 5 seconds later. Determine the speed of sound in water if the distance to the object is 3630 meters.
(a) 1400 m/s
(b) 1452 m/s
(c) 1530 m/s
(d) 1480 m/s
Ans: (b)
Q23: Identify the incorrect pairing:
(a) Calcium oxide – Basic oxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide – Neutral oxide
(c) Sulphur – Poor conductor of heat and electricity
(d) Silver – Noble metal
Ans: (b)
Q24: A few mixtures are given in the box: (i) Shaving cream (ii) Clouds (iii) Chalk powder and water (iv) Smoke (v) Muddy water (vi) Face cream Which of the following options indicates the correct classification of these mixtures? Colloid – Suspension
(a) (iii) and (v) – (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) – (i), (v) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi) – (iii) and (v)
(d) (iii) and (iv) – (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
Ans: (c)
Q25: The fluid content seen inside a cell in which cell organelles are embedded is called __X___. But the fluid content seen inside the nuclear membrane is called ___Y___. Identify X and Y.
(a) X: Matrix, Y: Nucleolus
(b) X: Cytoplasm, Y: Stroma
(c) X: Cytoplasm, Y: Nucleoplasm
(d) X: Matrix, Y: Nucleoplasm
Ans: (c)
The fluid that is seen inside the plasma membrane is called cytoplasm. All cell organelles are embedded in the cytoplasm. The fluid seen inside the nuclear membrane is called nucleoplasm and it contains, DNA, nucleoplasm and various transcription factors etc.
Q26: An element X creates a chloride with the formula XCl₃. What will be the formula of its nitride?
(a) XN₃
(b) XN
(c) XN₂
(d) X₃N
Ans: (b)
Q27: Food scarcity is a real problem in the era of population explosion. Which among the following methods are suitable for improving crop production to meet the increasing demands of the population?
(a) Crop Variety Improvement
(b) Crop Production Improvement
(c) Crop Protection Management
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Crop variety improvement, production improvement and protection management are cornerstones in increasing the availability of food materials across the country. It also helps to combat food prices and inflation.
Q28: Which of the following shows the accurate decreasing sequence of calorific values for the listed fuels?
(a) Wood > Coal > Diesel > Methane
(b) LPG > Petrol > Hydrogen > Kerosene
(c) Hydrogen > LPG > Methane > Petrol
(d) Hydrogen > Wood > Coal > Kerosene
Ans: (c)
Q29: Fill in the blanks:
I. For a land breeze to occur, the surface of the sea must be _____ than that of the surface of the land.
II. For sea breeze to occur, the surface of the sea must be ____ than that of the surface of the land.
(a) i – warmer, ii - colder
(b) i – colder, ii - colder
(c) i – colder, ii - warmer
(d) i – warmer, ii - warmer
Ans: (a)
Land breeze: air travels from land to water for which air over water to be warmer than the air over land.
Sea breeze: air travels from sea to land for which air over land needs to be warmer.
Q30: Peter does 300 J of work in 10 seconds and James does 150 J of work in 4 seconds. Find the ratio of the power delivered by Peter to that of James:
(a) 4:5
(b) 5:4
(c) 2:5
(d) 5:2
Ans: (a)
First, calculate the power delivered by each individual using the formula: Power = Work / Time
For Peter:
Work = 300 J
Time = 10 s
PowerPeter = 300 J / 10 s = 30 W
For James:
Work = 150 J
Time = 4 s
PowerJames = 150 J / 4 s = 37.5 W
Now, find the ratio of the power delivered by Peter to that of James: Ratio = PowerPeter : PowerJames = 30 W : 37.5 W = 30/37.5 = 4/5
Therefore, the answer is (a) 4:5.
Q31: Which parameter of health is difficult to detect?
(a) Mental health
(b) Physical health
(c) Social well being
(d) Both A and C
Ans: (c)
Both mental and social well-being are hard to achieve as it is difficult to measure both. Physical health can be measured easily.
Q32: A dog barks in a park and hears its echo after 1 s. If the sound of its bark got reflected by a nearby building, find the distance between the dog and the building. Speed of sound in air is 346 m/s:
(a) 173 m
(b) 86.5 m
(c) 98.7 m
(d) 346 m
Ans: (a)
The distance traveled by the sound is equal to twice the distance to the building.
Distance = Speed × Time = 346 m/s × 1 s = 346 m.
Distance to the building = 346 m / 2 = 173 m.
Q33: Which of the following statements about artificial insemination in cattle is false?
(a) Artificial insemination can be effective on any day in the female animal.
(b) Artificial insemination gives a high rate of successful fertilization.
(c) Artificial insemination method is economical as semen from a single bull can be used to impregnate several thousand cows.
(d) Artificial insemination method is used to raise animals with desired characteristics.
Ans: (a)
Q34: Which among the following is/are characters of prokaryotic cells?
I. Lacks nuclear membrane and nucleolus.
II. Large cells
III. Cell organelles are absent
IV. Only has one chromosome
(a) I and II
(b) Only II
(c) II and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Ans: (d)
Prokaryotes lack a well-defined nucleus. The nucleus lacks a nuclear membrane and nucleolus. Prokaryotic organisms also lack membrane-bound cell organelles and have only one chromosome that contains all the genetic information. The cell is small and the organisms are unicellular.
Q35: Which one is not a bacterial disease?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cholera
(c) Common cold
(d) Anthrax
Ans: (c)
The causative organism of common-cold is a virus and not a bacterium.
Q36: Which of the following is not a living component of a plant cell?
(a) Ribosomes
(b) Cell wall
(c) Lysosome
(d) Chloroplasts
Ans: (b)
Q37: How much time will it take to perform 560 J of work at a rate of 14 W?
(a) 30 s
(b) 42 s
(c) 40 s
(d) 56 s
Ans: (c)
Time Taken to Perform Work
The formula for power is: Power = Work / Time
Rearranging the formula to find time: Time = Work / Power
Given:
Work = 560 J
Power = 14 W
Time = 560 J / 14 W = 40 s
Therefore, the answer is (c) 40 s.
Q38: Which among the following is a component that degrades the quality of air in the atmosphere?
I. Nitrogen
II. CFCs
III. Carbon dioxide
IV. Nitrogen
V. Smog
VI. Oxygen
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) II and V
(d) II, III and V
Ans: (c)
CFCs and smog are pollutants that degrade the air quality. CFCs destroys the ozone layer. Smog is a mix of smoke and fog. Smog can be poisonous or allergic to many and reduces visibility.
Q39: Select the incorrect pairing:
(a) Polio – Virus
(b) Athlete’s foot – Fungus
(c) Chicken pox – Bacteria
(d) Tetanus – Bacteria
Ans: (c)
Q40: Select the false statement:
(a) The technique of planting seeds by spreading them across the soil surface is known as broadcasting.
(b) Rahat is an irrigation method that operates using a lever system.
(c) Silos are tall, cylindrical structures used for bulk grain storage.
(d) MCPA (2-methyl-4-chlorophenoxyacetic acid) is a pesticide used to eliminate insects.
Ans: (d)
Q41: The most diverse macromolecules found in the human body is ________.
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Lipid
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
Proteins are the most diverse macromolecules found in the human body. Each cell consists of several thousand different proteins with varying functions.
Q42: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: When a body is thrown upwards, the force of gravity is in the upward direction.
Statement 2: The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2 deep inside the earth.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Ans: (d)
When a body is thrown upwards, the force of gravity is in the downward direction.
The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2 near the surface of the earth.
Q43: Identify the correct statement:
(a) If the composting process uses redworms, then it is called vermicompost.
(b) Introducing specific genes and the crops produced by this method are called hybridized crops.
(c) Nutrients are supplied to plants only through the soil.
(d) Manure is produced by decomposing animal excreta, plant waste etc. and mulching them into the soil.
Ans: (a)
Composting is the process of conversion of biological waste (animal excreta, food waste and plant parts) into nutrient-rich fertilisers. If the process employs red worms, it is called vermicompost.
Q44: Embryo inside a hen’s egg takes about 3 weeks to develop into a chick. Hen provides sufficient warmth to the egg to incubate it by sitting over it. This is called:
(a) Brooding
(b) Parturition
(c) Broadcasting
(d) Incubation
Ans: (a)
Q45: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: As a body rolls down an inclined plane, it has only kinetic energy.
Statement 2: The kinetic energy of a body depends on its mass only.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Ans: (d)
Statement 1: As a body rolls down an inclined plane, it has only kinetic energy.
This statement is incorrect because a rolling body has both kinetic energy and potential energy (if it's rolling down an incline).
Statement 2: The kinetic energy of a body depends on its mass only.
This statement is also incorrect because kinetic energy depends on both mass and velocity (K.E. = 1/2 mv2).
Thus, the correct option is (d) Both the statements are incorrect
Q46: Fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option. Two girls Divya and Amrita, each of mass 50 kg, climb up identical ropes suspended from the ceiling of a gymnasium. Each rope is 12 m long. Divya reaches the top twice as quickly as Amrita does. When climbing up from the floor to the ceiling, both the girls do ______ work. The net energy transfer during this process is from ______ to ______. When Divya has fallen 2/3 of the way from the ceiling to the floor, her kinetic energy is approximately ______ J.
(a) Same, Potential, Kinetic, 5000
(b) Same, Chemical, Potential, 4000
(c) Different, Kinetic, Potential, 4500
(d) Different, Potential, Kinetic, 5000
Ans: (b)
Q47: The velocity-time graph of a particle along a straight line is shown below:
Find the distance moved from 3 to 9 s:
(a) 12m
(b) 6m
(c) 36m
(d) 24m
Ans: (c)
The area under the velocity-time graph gives the displacement of the object. As the particle moves in the same direction, this is also the distance covered.
Q48: The calorific values of some fuels are given
On the basis of given data, the correct order of efficiency of different fuels is
(a) LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal
(b) Coal > Diesel > LPG > CNG
(c) Diesel > CNG > Coal > LPG
(d) CNG > LPG > Diesel > Coal
Ans: (a)
The efficiency of a fuel is generally measured by its calorific value, which represents the amount of energy produced per unit mass when the fuel is completely burned. According to the table:
LPG has the highest calorific value of 55000 kJ/kg, making it the most efficient fuel.
CNG comes next with a calorific value of 50000 kJ/kg.
Diesel has a calorific value of 45000 kJ/kg.
Coal has the lowest calorific value, ranging between 25000 and 33000 kJ/kg.
Hence, the order of efficiency is: LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal.
Q49: Pewter is a tin-based alloy used as a material from which domestic utensils were fashioned.
It is about 91% tin, 7.5% antimony, and 1.5% copper.
How will you classify Pewter as a substance?
(a) True solution
(b) Colloid
(c) Compound
(d) Suspension
Ans: (a)
Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of two or more metals or metals and non metals. Hence, these are classified as true solutions.
Alloying helps to enhance the properties of the component metals and increases their field of applications.
Q50: One end of the string which passes through pulley and connected to 10 kg mass at the other end is pulled by 120 N force. Find out the acceleration of 10 kg mass. (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 2.4 m/s2
(b) 2.2 m/s2
(c)1.2 m/s2
(d) 3.2 m/s2
Ans: (b)
120 - 10 x g = 10 a
120 - 10 x 9.8 = 10 a
120 - 98 = 10 a
a = 2.2 m/s2
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