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Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: If '–' represents '÷', '+' represents '×', '×' represents '+', and '÷' represents '–', what is the result of 30 – 5 + 4 × 7 ÷ 9?
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 24

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Ans: (c)

  • The original expression is transformed to: 30 ÷ 5 × 4 + 7 – 9.
  • Now, perform the operations in the correct order: first, 30 ÷ 5 equals 6.
  • Next, multiply: 6 × 4 equals 24.
  • Then, add: 24 + 7 equals 31, and finally subtract: 31 – 9 equals 22.

Q2: In a specific coding system, the phrase ''sky is blue'' corresponds to the number ''324'', ''flowers are beautiful'' translates to ''759'', and ''sky always beautiful'' is represented as ''365''. How is the word ''always'' encoded in this system?
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 9

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Ans: (a)

  • From the given codes, we can analyze the phrases and their corresponding numbers.
  • The word "always" appears in the phrase "sky always beautiful," which is coded as "365."
  • By comparing the codes, we find that "always" is represented by the number 6.
  • Thus, in this coding language, "always" is written as 6.

Q3: How many instances of 4 are present in the provided series that are directly preceded by 3 but not directly followed by 8? Series: 6 4 8 5 6 3 4 9 7 6 4 8 7 3 4 2 8 5 3 4 7
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

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Ans: (b)

  • To find the number of 4's that meet the criteria, we need to look for 4's that are preceded by 3 and not followed by 8.
  • In the series, the relevant 4's are located at positions where they are directly after a 3 and not followed by an 8.
  • Upon examining the series, we find 3 instances of 4 that satisfy these conditions.
  • Thus, the answer is 3.

Q4: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 2

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Ans: (a)
In each step, the pin rotates 90º clockwise and the arrow rotates 90o anti-clockwise.

Q5: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

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Ans: (b)
Only in fig. (4), both the parallel lines are bent in the same direction (i.e. towards the left).

Q6: Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2

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Ans: (a)
The figure is enclosed in a new figure with one more number of sides, in such a way that the upper vertex of the two figures coincides.

Q7: Among five friends, who is the tallest?
Statement I: D is taller than A and C.
Statement II: B is shorter than E but taller than D.

(a) Both I and II are sufficient
(b) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
(c) Neither I nor II is sufficient
(d) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

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Ans: (a)
From I, we have: D > A, D > C.
From II, we have: E > B > D.
Combining the above two, we get: E > B > D > A > C or E > B > D > C > A.
Thus, E is the tallest.

Q8: If Rabbit is called Peacock, Peacock is called Lion, Lion is called Tiger, then who is the king of jungle?
(a) Lion
(b) Rabbit
(c) Tiger
(d) Peacock

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Ans: (c)
King of Jungle Lion and Lion is called Tiger. So, the correct answer is Tiger.

Q9: Pointing to a boy on the stage, Aashi said, "he is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband". How is the boy on the stage related to Aashi?

(a) Husband
(b) Son
(c) Cousin
(d) Nephew

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Ans: (b)
Wife of Aashi’s husband - Aashi; Brother of daughter - Son.
So, the boy on the stage is Aashi’s son.

Q10: 2, 15, 4, 12, 6, 7, ?, ?
(a) 8, 0
(b) 8, 8
(c) 3, 8
(d) 8, 3

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Ans: (a)

This sequence 2, 15, 4, 12, 6, 7, ?, ? is a combination of two series :
1st: 2, 4, 6, ? and 2nd: 15, 12, 7, ?
1st consists of consecutive even numbers.
So, missing term of 1st sequence = 8.
Pattern of 2nd sequence is -3, -5, ...
So, missing term of 2nd sequence = 7 - 7 = 0.

Science Section

Q11: Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: The weight of an object becomes zero at the center of the Earth. Statement 2: As the distance from the center of the Earth increases, the acceleration due to gravity decreases.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct because at the center of the Earth, the gravitational forces from all directions cancel out, making the weight effectively zero.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect because as you move from the center to the surface of the Earth, gravity initially increases until you reach the surface, and then it decreases as you go further away from the Earth.
  • Thus, the correct option is that Statement 1 is true while Statement 2 is false.

Q12: A source of longitudinal waves vibrates 640 times in four seconds. If the velocity of this wave is 240 ms-1, find the wavelength of the wave:
(a) 2.5 m
(b) 1.5 m
(c) 3.3 m
(d) 2.8 m

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Ans: (b)
The frequency (f) of the wave can be calculated as follows:
f = Number of vibrations / Time = 640 vibrations / 4 s = 160 Hz.
The wavelength (λ) can be found using the formula: λ = Velocity / Frequency.
Substituting the values:
λ = 240 m/s / 160 Hz = 1.5 m.

Q13: A boy standing at a specific distance from a wall makes a loud noise. He receives the echo of the sound after 2.2 seconds. Given that the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, what is the distance between the wall and the boy?
(a) 340 m
(b) 748 m
(c) 374 m
(d) 680 m

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Ans: (c)

  • To find the distance between the wall and the boy, we use the formula: distance = speed × time.
  • The sound travels to the wall and back, so the time for the sound to reach the wall is half of the total time.
  • Calculating: d = (340 m/s × 2.2 s) / 2 = 374 m.
  • Thus, the distance from the boy to the wall is 374 meters.

Q14: Identify the factors that are not accounted for when we discuss the term water pollution.
(a) Contamination of water
(b) Death of aquatic organisms
(c) Loss of dissolved oxygen
(d) Change in water temperature

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
The death of aquatic organisms is due to water pollution. The rest are various factors that help to understand the changes in water, dissolved oxygen levels and temperature based on which one differentiates polluted and non-polluted water.

Q15: Kriti conducted experiments using identical bulbs and cells, but with two different solutions, 1 and 2. She observed that the bulb in setup X shines more brightly than the one in setup Y. Based on this experiment, what can we conclude?
(a) Higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup X as compared to setup Y
(b) Higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup Y as compared to setup X
(c) Equal current is flowing through both the circuits
(d) The current flowing through the circuits in the two setups cannot be compared in this manner

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Ans: (a)

  • The brightness of the bulb is directly related to the current flowing through the circuit.
  • Since the bulb in setup X is brighter, it indicates that a higher current is passing through it compared to setup Y.
  • This means that the current in setup X is greater than in setup Y.
  • Thus, we can conclude that option (a) is correct.

Q16: Which among the following observation is true regarding the following statement?
“A permanent tissue with thin walls, large intercellular spaces and green in colour.”
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Guard Cells

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Ans: (a)
The listed observations are characters of sclerenchyma cells.

Q17: The Sun and the Earth exert gravitational attraction on one another. If F1 represents the gravitational force on the Sun from the Earth and F2 represents the gravitational force on the Earth from the Sun, then:
(a) F1 = F2
(b) F2 > F1
(c) F1 > F2
(d) F1 = F2 = 0

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Ans: (a)

  • Newton's Third Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  • This means that the gravitational force F1 acting on the Sun due to the Earth is equal to the gravitational force F2 acting on the Earth due to the Sun.
  • Thus, we conclude that F1 = F2.
  • Both forces are present and equal, so the option stating they are both zero is incorrect.

Q18: Two notes are played on a piano. The second note is louder and has a lower pitch. The second note has:
(a) Higher, Lower
(b) Higher, Higher
(c) Lower, Higher
(d) Lower, Lower

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Ans: (a)

  • Loudness refers to how strong or intense a sound is, which is determined by its amplitude. A louder sound has a greater amplitude.
  • Pitch is how high or low a sound is, and it is inversely related to frequency. A lower pitch means a lower frequency.
  • In this case, since the second note is louder and has a lower pitch, it indicates that it has a higher amplitude and a lower frequency.
  • Thus, the correct description of the second note is that it has a higher amplitude and a lower frequency, which corresponds to option (a).

Q19: The velocity of ultrasonic sound in water is 1400 ms-1. If the time taken to receive the reflected wave is 10 s, calculate the depth of the ocean as detected by SONAR:
(a) 14 km
(b) 3.5 km
(c) 7 km
(d) 7.5 km

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Ans: (c)
The distance traveled by the sound wave is equal to twice the depth of the ocean.
Distance = Velocity × Time = 1400 m/s × 10 s = 14000 m.
Depth = Distance / 2 = 14000 m / 2 = 7000 m = 7 km.

Q20: Identify the factors that determine the optimum growth and yield of crops from the following:
I. Climate
II. Temperature
III. Diseases
IV. Irrigation and nutrition
V. Photoperiods
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II, IV and V
(d) IV and V

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Ans: (c)
Climate, optimum temperature, irrigation, fertilisers and photoperiods are necessary for the optimum growth and yield of crops. Photoperiods is the time during a day in which the plants receive sunlight.

Q21: The gravitational force between two masses kept at a certain distance is p N. The same two masses are now kept in water and the distance between them is kept the same. If the gravitational force between these two masses in water is q N, then:
(a) p = q
(b) p < q
(c) p > q
(d) p ≠ q

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Ans: (a)

  • Gravitational force depends only on the masses and the distance between them, not on the medium they are in.
  • When the two masses are in water, the distance remains the same, so the force remains unchanged.
  • Thus, the gravitational force in water (q) is equal to the gravitational force in air (p).
  • Therefore, we conclude that p = q.

Q22: A submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo from an object 5 seconds later. Determine the speed of sound in water if the distance to the object is 3630 meters.
(a) 1400 m/s
(b) 1452 m/s
(c) 1530 m/s
(d) 1480 m/s

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Ans: (b)

  • Speed of sound can be calculated using the formula: v = 2d/t.
  • Here, d is the distance to the object, which is 3630 m, and t is the time taken for the echo to return, which is 5 s.
  • Substituting the values: v = 2 × 3630 m / 5 s = 1452 m/s.
  • Thus, the speed of sound in water is 1452 m/s.

Q23: Identify the incorrect pairing:
(a) Calcium oxide – Basic oxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide – Neutral oxide
(c) Sulphur – Poor conductor of heat and electricity
(d) Silver – Noble metal 

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Ans: (b)

  • Sulphur dioxide is actually classified as an acidic oxide, which means it reacts with bases to form salts and water.
  • The other options are correct: Calcium oxide is a basic oxide, Sulphur is indeed a poor conductor of heat and electricity, and Silver is recognized as a noble metal.
  • Understanding these classifications helps in chemistry, especially in reactions and properties of different substances.

Q24: A few mixtures are given in the box: (i) Shaving cream (ii) Clouds (iii) Chalk powder and water (iv) Smoke (v) Muddy water (vi) Face cream Which of the following options indicates the correct classification of these mixtures? Colloid – Suspension
(a) (iii) and (v) – (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) – (i), (v) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi) – (iii) and (v)
(d) (iii) and (iv) – (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

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Ans: (c)

  • Colloids 
  • Suspensions 
  • Thus, the correct classification is: Colloids – (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) and Suspensions – (iii), (v).
  • Option (c) accurately reflects this classification.

Q25: The fluid content seen inside a cell in which cell organelles are embedded is called __X___. But the fluid content seen inside the nuclear membrane is called ___Y___. Identify X and Y.
(a) X: Matrix, Y: Nucleolus
(b) X: Cytoplasm, Y: Stroma
(c) X: Cytoplasm, Y: Nucleoplasm
(d) X: Matrix, Y: Nucleoplasm

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Ans: (c)
The fluid that is seen inside the plasma membrane is called cytoplasm. All cell organelles are embedded in the cytoplasm. The fluid seen inside the nuclear membrane is called nucleoplasm and it contains, DNA, nucleoplasm and various transcription factors etc.

Q26: An element X creates a chloride with the formula XCl₃. What will be the formula of its nitride?
(a) XN₃
(b) XN
(c) XN₂
(d) X₃N

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Ans: (b)

  • X has a valency of 3, which means it can combine with three chloride ions to form XCl₃.
  • To find the formula for its nitride, we consider that nitrogen typically has a valency of 3 as well.
  • Thus, X will combine with one nitrogen atom, leading to the formula XN.
  • This shows that the correct formula for the nitride of element X is XN.

Q27: Food scarcity is a real problem in the era of population explosion. Which among the following methods are suitable for improving crop production to meet the increasing demands of the population?
(a) Crop Variety Improvement
(b) Crop Production Improvement
(c) Crop Protection Management
(d) All of the above

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Ans: (d)
Crop variety improvement, production improvement and protection management are cornerstones in increasing the availability of food materials across the country. It also helps to combat food prices and inflation.

Q28: Which of the following shows the accurate decreasing sequence of calorific values for the listed fuels?
(a) Wood > Coal > Diesel > Methane
(b) LPG > Petrol > Hydrogen > Kerosene
(c) Hydrogen > LPG > Methane > Petrol
(d) Hydrogen > Wood > Coal > Kerosene

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct decreasing order of calorific values is Hydrogen > LPG > Methane > Petrol.
  • This means that Hydrogen provides the most energy when burned, followed by LPG, then Methane, and finally Petrol.
  • Understanding this order is important for choosing fuels based on their energy efficiency.
  • In summary, Hydrogen is the best fuel in terms of energy output, making it a preferred choice for high-energy needs.

Q29: Fill in the blanks:
I. For a land breeze to occur, the surface of the sea must be _____ than that of the surface of the land.
II. For sea breeze to occur, the surface of the sea must be ____ than that of the surface of the land.
(a) i – warmer, ii - colder
(b) i – colder, ii - colder
(c) i – colder, ii - warmer
(d) i – warmer, ii - warmer

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Ans: (a)
Land breeze: air travels from land to water for which air over water to be warmer than the air over land.
Sea breeze: air travels from sea to land for which air over land needs to be warmer.

Q30: Peter does 300 J of work in 10 seconds and James does 150 J of work in 4 seconds. Find the ratio of the power delivered by Peter to that of James:
(a) 4:5
(b) 5:4
(c) 2:5
(d) 5:2

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Ans: (a)
First, calculate the power delivered by each individual using the formula: Power = Work / Time
For Peter:
Work = 300 J
Time = 10 s
PowerPeter = 300 J / 10 s = 30 W
For James:
Work = 150 J
Time = 4 s
PowerJames = 150 J / 4 s = 37.5 W
Now, find the ratio of the power delivered by Peter to that of James: Ratio = PowerPeter : PowerJames = 30 W : 37.5 W = 30/37.5 = 4/5
Therefore, the answer is (a) 4:5.

Q31: Which parameter of health is difficult to detect?
(a) Mental health
(b) Physical health
(c) Social well being
(d) Both A and C

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Ans: (c)
Both mental and social well-being are hard to achieve as it is difficult to measure both. Physical health can be measured easily.

Q32: A dog barks in a park and hears its echo after 1 s. If the sound of its bark got reflected by a nearby building, find the distance between the dog and the building. Speed of sound in air is 346 m/s:
(a) 173 m
(b) 86.5 m
(c) 98.7 m
(d) 346 m

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Ans: (a)
The distance traveled by the sound is equal to twice the distance to the building.
Distance = Speed × Time = 346 m/s × 1 s = 346 m.
Distance to the building = 346 m / 2 = 173 m.

Q33: Which of the following statements about artificial insemination in cattle is false?
(a) Artificial insemination can be effective on any day in the female animal.
(b) Artificial insemination gives a high rate of successful fertilization.
(c) Artificial insemination method is economical as semen from a single bull can be used to impregnate several thousand cows.
(d) Artificial insemination method is used to raise animals with desired characteristics.

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Ans: (a)

  • Artificial insemination is a technique used to breed cattle.
  • It is important to note that it is only effective during the female animal's fertility period, known as oestrous.
  • Using this method can lead to a high rate of successful fertilization and is economical since a single bull's semen can impregnate many cows.
  • Additionally, it allows for the breeding of animals with specific desired traits.

Q34: Which among the following is/are characters of prokaryotic cells?
I. Lacks nuclear membrane and nucleolus.
II. Large cells
III. Cell organelles are absent
IV. Only has one chromosome
(a) I and II
(b) Only II
(c) II and IV
(d) I, III and IV

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Ans: (d)
Prokaryotes lack a well-defined nucleus. The nucleus lacks a nuclear membrane and nucleolus. Prokaryotic organisms also lack membrane-bound cell organelles and have only one chromosome that contains all the genetic information. The cell is small and the organisms are unicellular.

Q35: Which one is not a bacterial disease?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cholera
(c) Common cold
(d) Anthrax

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Ans: (c)
The causative organism of common-cold is a virus and not a bacterium.

Q36: Which of the following is not a living component of a plant cell?
(a) Ribosomes
(b) Cell wall
(c) Lysosome
(d) Chloroplasts

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Ans: (b)

  • The cell wall is a non-living structure that provides support and protection to the plant cell.
  • In contrast, ribosomes, lysosomes, and chloroplasts are all considered living parts because they are involved in various cellular functions.
  • Ribosomes are essential for protein synthesis, lysosomes help in digestion, and chloroplasts are involved in photosynthesis.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) Cell wall, as it does not carry out any metabolic activities.

Q37: How much time will it take to perform 560 J of work at a rate of 14 W?
(a) 30 s
(b) 42 s
(c) 40 s
(d) 56 s

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Ans: (c)
Time Taken to Perform Work
The formula for power is: Power = Work / Time
Rearranging the formula to find time: Time = Work / Power
Given:
Work = 560 J
Power = 14 W
Time = 560 J / 14 W = 40 s
Therefore, the answer is (c) 40 s.

Q38: Which among the following is a component that degrades the quality of air in the atmosphere?
I. Nitrogen
II. CFCs
III. Carbon dioxide
IV. Nitrogen
V. Smog
VI. Oxygen
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) II and V
(d) II, III and V

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Ans: (c)
CFCs and smog are pollutants that degrade the air quality. CFCs destroys the ozone layer. Smog is a mix of smoke and fog. Smog can be poisonous or allergic to many and reduces visibility.

Q39: Select the incorrect pairing:
(a) Polio – Virus
(b) Athlete’s foot – Fungus
(c) Chicken pox – Bacteria
(d) Tetanus – Bacteria 

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Ans: (c)

  • Chicken pox is actually caused by a virus, specifically the varicella-zoster virus, not by bacteria.
  • Polio is caused by a virus, and Athlete’s foot is caused by a fungus.
  • Tetanus is caused by a type of bacteria known as Clostridium tetani.
  • Thus, the pairing of Chicken pox with Bacteria is incorrect.

Q40: Select the false statement:
(a) The technique of planting seeds by spreading them across the soil surface is known as broadcasting.
(b) Rahat is an irrigation method that operates using a lever system.
(c) Silos are tall, cylindrical structures used for bulk grain storage.
(d) MCPA (2-methyl-4-chlorophenoxyacetic acid) is a pesticide used to eliminate insects.

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Ans: (d)

  • MCPA is actually a herbicide, which means it is used to control weeds, not a rodenticide that targets rats.
  • The other statements are true: broadcasting is a common method for sowing seeds, Rahat is indeed a lever-based irrigation system, and silos are designed for storing grains.
  • Understanding the correct use of these terms is important in agriculture and pest management.

Q41: The most diverse macromolecules found in the human body is ________.
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Lipid
(d) All of the above

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Ans: (b)
Proteins are the most diverse macromolecules found in the human body. Each cell consists of several thousand different proteins with varying functions.

Q42: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: 
Statement 1: When a body is thrown upwards, the force of gravity is in the upward direction. 
Statement 2: The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2 deep inside the earth. 
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. 
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct. 
(c) Both the statements are correct. 
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.

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Ans: (d)
When a body is thrown upwards, the force of gravity is in the downward direction.
The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2 near the surface of the earth.

Q43: Identify the correct statement:
(a) If the composting process uses redworms, then it is called vermicompost.
(b) Introducing specific genes and the crops produced by this method are called hybridized crops.
(c) Nutrients are supplied to plants only through the soil.
(d) Manure is produced by decomposing animal excreta, plant waste etc. and mulching them into the soil.

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Ans: (a)
Composting is the process of conversion of biological waste (animal excreta, food waste and plant parts) into nutrient-rich fertilisers. If the process employs red worms, it is called vermicompost.

Q44: Embryo inside a hen’s egg takes about 3 weeks to develop into a chick. Hen provides sufficient warmth to the egg to incubate it by sitting over it. This is called:
(a) Brooding
(b) Parturition
(c) Broadcasting
(d) Incubation

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Ans: (a)

  • The act of a hen sitting on her eggs to keep them warm is known as brooding.
  • This process is essential for the development of the embryo into a chick.
  • Brooding provides the necessary heat and protection for the eggs.
  • Other options like parturition and broadcasting do not relate to the incubation of eggs.

Q45: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: As a body rolls down an inclined plane, it has only kinetic energy.
Statement 2: The kinetic energy of a body depends on its mass only.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)
Statement 1: As a body rolls down an inclined plane, it has only kinetic energy.
This statement is incorrect because a rolling body has both kinetic energy and potential energy (if it's rolling down an incline).

Statement 2: The kinetic energy of a body depends on its mass only.
This statement is also incorrect because kinetic energy depends on both mass and velocity (K.E. = 1/2 mv2).
Thus, the correct option is (d) Both the statements are incorrect

Achiever Section 

Q46: Fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option. Two girls Divya and Amrita, each of mass 50 kg, climb up identical ropes suspended from the ceiling of a gymnasium. Each rope is 12 m long. Divya reaches the top twice as quickly as Amrita does. When climbing up from the floor to the ceiling, both the girls do ______ work. The net energy transfer during this process is from ______ to ______. When Divya has fallen 2/3 of the way from the ceiling to the floor, her kinetic energy is approximately ______ J.
(a) Same, Potential, Kinetic, 5000
(b) Same, Chemical, Potential, 4000
(c) Different, Kinetic, Potential, 4500
(d) Different, Potential, Kinetic, 5000

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Both girls do the same amount of work because they are climbing the same height of 12 m.
  • The energy transfer occurs from chemical energy (from their bodies) to potential energy (as they gain height).
  • When Divya falls, her kinetic energy increases as she descends, but the question focuses on the energy transfer during the climb.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that both do the same work, and the energy transfer is from chemical to potential energy.

Q47: The velocity-time graph of a particle along a straight line is shown below:
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9
Find the distance moved from 3 to 9 s:
(a) 12m
(b) 6m
(c) 36m
(d) 24m

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)
The area under the velocity-time graph gives the displacement of the object. As the particle moves in the same direction, this is also the distance covered.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9

Q48: The calorific values of some fuels are given
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9On the basis of given data, the correct order of efficiency of different fuels is
(a) LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal
(b) Coal > Diesel > LPG > CNG
(c) Diesel > CNG > Coal > LPG
(d) CNG > LPG > Diesel > Coal

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
The efficiency of a fuel is generally measured by its calorific value, which represents the amount of energy produced per unit mass when the fuel is completely burned. According to the table:
LPG has the highest calorific value of 55000 kJ/kg, making it the most efficient fuel.
CNG comes next with a calorific value of 50000 kJ/kg.
Diesel has a calorific value of 45000 kJ/kg.
Coal has the lowest calorific value, ranging between 25000 and 33000 kJ/kg.
Hence, the order of efficiency is: LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal.

Q49: Pewter is a tin-based alloy used as a material from which domestic utensils were fashioned.
It is about 91% tin, 7.5% antimony, and 1.5% copper.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9How will you classify Pewter as a substance?
(a) True solution
(b) Colloid
(c) Compound
(d) Suspension

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of two or more metals or metals and non metals. Hence, these are classified as true solutions.
Alloying helps to enhance the properties of the component metals and increases their field of applications.

Q50: One end of the string which passes through pulley and connected to 10 kg mass at the other end is pulled by 120 N force. Find out the acceleration of 10 kg mass. (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 2.4 m/s2
(b) 2.2 m/s2
(c)1.2 m/s2
(d) 3.2 m/s
2

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)
120 - 10 x g = 10 a
120 - 10 x 9.8 = 10 a
120 - 98 = 10 a
a = 2.2 m/s2

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Ans. The Class 9 Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 typically covers various topics from the Class 9 science curriculum, including Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. Key areas may include concepts related to motion, force, matter, structure of atoms, cell structure and functions, and environmental science.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad exam?
Ans. To prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad exam, students should review their Class 9 science textbooks thoroughly, practice previous years' question papers, and take model tests. Additionally, understanding key concepts through diagrams and engaging in group studies can enhance retention and comprehension.
3. What is the format of the questions in the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper?
Ans. The format of the questions in the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper usually includes multiple-choice questions (MCQs), assertion-reasoning questions, and sometimes application-based questions. Each question typically has four options, and students must select the correct answer.
4. Is there a negative marking system in the Science Olympiad exam?
Ans. Yes, in many Science Olympiad exams, there is a negative marking system. Incorrect answers may result in a deduction of marks, which emphasizes the importance of careful consideration before answering each question.
5. Where can I find additional resources for preparing for the Science Olympiad?
Ans. Additional resources for preparing for the Science Olympiad can be found in various places, including online educational platforms, coaching centers, and science reference books. Websites dedicated to Olympiad preparations may also offer practice tests, study materials, and tips from previous participants.
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