Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.
Ans: (c)
Q2: Which of the following options will complete the given sequence? ABC, GHI, MNO, ?
(a) PQR
(b) QRS
(c) RST
(d) STU
Ans: (d)
Q3: The question figure is embedded in one of the answer figures given below. You have to find out that answer figure and mark the answer.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: (b)
Question figure is embedded in answer figure B.
Q4: Choose the appropriate option which resembles the perfect mirror image of the following figure:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (a)
To get the mirror image, we need to flip it horizontally.
Out of the given options, figure 1 is the only image that is horizontally flip of the image given in the question.
Q5: One of the answer figures A, B, C, or D contains the mirror image of the question figure. Find the correct mirror image of the question figure.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: (c)
Answer figure C is the correct mirror image of the question figure.
Q6: How many pairs of letters can be found in the word "INTERVIEW" that have the same number of letters between them as they do in the English alphabet?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans: (a)
Q7: In a specific coding system, the word HEAR is represented as 160. How is the word BORN represented in that same coding system?
(a) 180
(b) 300
(c) 245
(d) 210
Ans: (c)
Q8: Reptile is to lizard as flower is to
(a) petal
(b) stem
(c) daisy
(d) bud
Ans: (c)
A lizard is a type of reptile; a daisy is a type of flower. Choices 1 and 2 are incorrect because a petal and a stem are parts of a flower, not types of flowers. Choice 4 is incorrect because bud is a small growth at the tip or on the side of a stem that later develops into a flower, leaf, or branch.
Q9: In a line of boys, Vinay is positioned 10th from the right side and Sunil is 15th from the left side. After they switch places, Vinay is now 17th from the right side. What is the total number of boys in the line?
(a) 30
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 33
Ans: (b)
Q10: Rashmi walked 4 m towards the North, then turned West and walked 3 m, after that she turned North again and walked 2 m, and finally turned East and walked 11 m. What is her distance from the starting point now?
(a) 10 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 18 m
Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
The name of the separation method is evaporation. It is the process of changing a liquid into vapours. Salt is soluble in water. So, on evaporation, water will turn to vapour while salt crystals remain in the container.
Q12: Filtration is the separation technique used when –
(a) One component of a mixture is soluble in water and other is insoluble in water.
(b) Both the components of a mixture are soluble in water.
(c) Both the components of a mixture are insoluble in water.
(d) Both the components of a mixture are sparingly soluble in water.
Ans: (a)
Filtration is the process in which insoluble substances from the liquid can be removed or separated by using filter paper. The liquid which is filtered is known as filtrate and the insoluble particles left in the filter paper is known as residue.
Q13: Which of the following are the properties of nonmetals?
I. They have low densities.
II. They have low melting points.
III. They are poor conductors of electricity.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Non-metals have low densities, low melting points and are poor conductors of electricity.
Q14: In a science class, Sneha’s science teacher told her that water should not be used to control the fire involving electrical equipment. This is because:
(a) Water is a liquid, so it is difficult to carry.
(b) Water is an insulator.
(c) Water is a good conductor of electricity and may result in electric shock.
(d) Water is not available easily.
Ans: (a)
In case of fires produced by electric short circuit or electric equipment, water is not used at all because water is a good conductor of electricity and may result in electric shock.
Q15: The dry leaves can catch fire easily as compared to green leaves though both are from the same plant. This is because:
(a) Green leaves have chlorophyll.
(b) Green leaves have water and other elements so they need more heat to reach ignition temperature.
(c) Dry leaves have low ignition temperature than green leaves.
(d) Option (b) and (c)
Ans: (d)
Dry leaves have low ignition temperature than heap of green leaves. So, to ignite the green leaves, we have to heat them up to ignition temperature of their constituents which is comparatively high. Hence, it is easier to ignite dry leaves than green leaves.
Q16: Rajat and Ronit were doing an experiment in which water was to be heated in a beaker. Rajat kept the beaker with water near the wick in the yellow part of the candle flame. Ronit kept the beaker with water in the outermost part of the flame. Whose water will get heated early?
(a) Rajat’ beaker
(b) Ronit’ beaker
(c) There will not be any effect of heat of candle flame.
(d) Water in both the beakers will take same time to get heated.
Ans: (b)
As outermost flame is hotter than the middle part or yellow flame, so water in beaker of Ronit will be heated in a shorter time.
Q17: Match the columns and choose the correct option.
(a) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv)
(b) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i)
(c) (A) – (iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i)
(d) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii)
Ans: (b)
Goat – Herbivores,
Dog – Omnivores,
Tiger – Carnivores,
Fungi – Decomposers.
Q18: Read the following statements and choose the accurate option. Statement I: The laws of reflection apply in regular reflection. Statement II: The laws of reflection apply in irregular reflection.
(a) Statement I is correct.
(b) Statement II is correct.
(c) Both statements I and II are correct.
(d) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
Ans: (c)
Q19: Which of the following represents the appropriate environmental conditions for setting the upper fixed point and the lower fixed point on a thermometer? Upper Fixed Point / Lower Fixed Point
(a) Steam from boiling water / Ice at minimum temperature
(b) Boiling water / Melting ice
(c) Steam from boiling water / Melting ice
(d) Boiling water / Ice at freezing temperature
Ans: (c)
Q20: Choose the incorrect statement about Biosphere Reserve?
(a) It involves conservation of wildlife of the area.
(b) It prevents the commercial exploitation of the area.
(c) It keeps a record of all the endangered animals of the area.
(d) It maintains the lifestyle of the tribal people living in the area.
Ans: (c)
Biosphere reserve is a large protected area which is meant for the conservation of all life forms found in a particular area. It prevents the commercial exploitation of the area.
Q21: IUCN stands for:
(a) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.
(b) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.
(c) International Union for Controlling the Nature and National resources.
(d) International Unity for Controlling the Nature and Natural resources.
Ans: (b)
IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.
Q22: Identify the accurate statement(s) regarding tornadoes:
I. Violent tornado can travel at a speed of 300 km/h.
II. Tornado may form within cyclones.
III. Tornado is a dark funnel-shaped cloud that reaches from sky to ground.
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (d)
Q23: An object at rest is allowed to fall from a tall tower. Which of the following statements is true for the motion of the object upon its release?
(a) The acceleration of the object increases.
(b) The acceleration of the object decreases.
(c) The acceleration of the object remains same.
(d) The velocity of the object remains same.
Ans: (c)
Q24: Select the incorrect statements regarding the function of a fuse:
I. It is used to prevent the current from coming out from the neutral terminal.
II. It is used to prevent damage to electrical appliances by melting, whenever current exceeds the maximum value.
III. It is used to prevent the current from coming out from the live terminal.
IV. It is used to allow current to discharge to the Earth.
(a) I and III only
(b) I, III and IV only
(c) II, III and IV only
(d) II and III only
Ans: (b)
Q25: Why do animals like frog and fish produce hundreds of eggs while hens and humans produce one egg at a time?
(a) Eggs of frog and fish are preyed by predators and are exposed to environment.
(b) In frogs and fish, internal fertilisation occurs.
(c) Eggs of hens and humans are exposed to external environment.
(d) Eggs of frogs and fish are produced inside the mother's body and are hence protected.
Ans: (a)
Fish lay a large number of eggs because only a few of them, out of thousands, will be fertilised and produce a fish. This is because they are fertilised outside of the body and are highly sensitive to temperature changes and external factors including predators.
Q26: Which area of the flame do goldsmiths utilize to melt silver and gold?
(a) Middle zone
(b) Outermost zone
(c) Innermost zone
(d) Either A or C
Ans: (b)
Q27: Which microorganism causes rust of wheat in leaves?
(a) Alga
(b) Fungus
(c) Bacterium
(d) Virus
Ans: (b)
Wheat-leaf rust is a fungal disease that affects wheat. The fungus is an obligate parasite, which is capable of producing infectious urediniospores as long as infected leaf tissue remains alive.
Q28: Some common methods of food preservation are given below:
P: Preservation by sugar
Q: Heat and cold treatments
R: Preservation by using chemicals
S: Preservation by oil and vinegar
Which of the statements is incorrect regarding methods of food preservation?
(a) P increases the moisture content which inhibits the growth of bacteria
(b) R uses sodium benzoate and sodium metabisulphite
(c) Q is involved in the pasteurisation of milk
(d) S is used in the preservation of fruits and vegetables in the form of pickles.
Ans: (a)
Jams, jellies and squashes are preserved by sugar. Sugar reduces the moisture content which inhibits the growth of bacteria which spoil food.
Q29: Which of the following changes have been classified correctly?
I. Rusting of iron – Physical, irreversible change
II. Digestion of food – Chemical, irreversible change
III. Cooking of food – Physical, reversible change
IV. Woollen yarn to knitted sweater – Physical, reversible change
(a) I and III only
(b) II and IV only
(c) I and IV only
(d) II and III only
Ans: (b)
Q30: Read the following statements carefully: X: It is a fossil fuel used in thermal power plants to produce electricity. Y: It is a porous, black and almost pure form of carbon. Z: It is a mixture of about 200 substances. X, Y, and Z are respectively:
(a) Petroleum, coal gas, coke
(b) Coal, coke, coal tar
(c) CNG, bitumen, diesel
(d) Coal gas, petrol, paraffin wax
Ans: (b)
Q31: Read the following statements and choose the accurate option:
Statement 1: Great care should be taken while handling strong acids and bases in the laboratory.
Statement 2: Strong acids and bases are corrosive in nature, irritating, and harmful for skin.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
Ans: (a)
Q32: Identify the substances S, T, U, and V from the following description: S - Used in the manufacture of steel T - Used to obtain naphthalene balls U - Was used for street lighting V - Fuel for home and industry
(a) Coal gas, Coal tar, Coke, LPG
(b) Coke, Coal tar, Coal gas, LPG
(c) Coke, Water gas, Coal tar, Petrol
(d) Coal gas, Coke, Coal tar, CNG
Ans: (b)
Q33: Which of the following statements are accurate?
(i) Luminous zone is the zone of complete combustion.
(ii) Dark zone is the least hot zone of a candle flame.
(iii) Incomplete combustion occurs in the non-luminous zone of a candle flame.
(iv) Non-luminous zone is the hottest part of the candle flame.
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Ans: (b)
Q34: Rust and Smut diseases of wheat are caused by _______.
(a) Protozoa
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae
Ans: (c)
Q35: Identify the one that does not belong in the following groups and select the correct option:
(i) Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Gelidium
(ii) Sargassum, Laminaria, Polysiphonia
(iii) Polysiphonia, Fucus, Gelidium
(a) Gelidium, Polysiphonia, Fucus
(b) Ulothrix, Laminaria, Polysiphonia
(c) Gelidium, Sargassum, Fucus
(d) Spirogyra, Sargassum, Fucus
Ans: (d)
Q36: Select the accurate statement about the various zones of a biosphere reserve:
(a) Buffer zone is also referred to as the natural zone.
(b) Restricted human activity is allowed in the core zone.
(c) Various human activities are allowed in the manipulation zone.
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q37: Which of the following options is TRUE?
(a) All the multicellular organisms start their lives as a single cell.
(b) Nucleolus is situated inside the nucleus.
(c) Cell membrane is a biological membrane that separates the interior of all cells from the outside environment.
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q38: Read the given statements and select the option that correctly fills the blanks:
(i) ________ reproduces through multiple fission.
(ii) Organisms that have both male and female sex organs are called ________ organisms.
(iii) ________ exhibits well-marked sexual dimorphism.
(a) Paramecium, Hermaphrodite, Earthworm
(b) Plasmodium, Hermaphrodite, Human beings
(c) Euglena, Morphallaxis, Hydra
(d) Plasmodium, Unisexual, Human beings
Ans: (b)
Q39: Which of the following substances are classified as herbicides?
(i) Malathion
(ii) Metolachlor
(iii) Simazine
(iv) MCPA
(v) Disyston
(vi) Gammexane
(vii) Butachlor
(viii) 2, 4–D
(ix) Dalapon
(x) BHC
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (vii), (viii) and (ix) only
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (ix) only
(c) (iv), (vi), (vii), (viii) and (x) only
(d) (i), (iii), (v), (vi) and (x) only
Ans: (a)
Q40: Select the incorrect pairing:
(a) Camel - Leathery lips
(b) Fennec fox - Large ears
(c) Macaw - Long beak
(d) Penguin - Adaptation for flight
Ans: (d)
Q41: How many animals from the following list produce wool? (i) Angora goat (ii) Alpaca (iii) Yak (iv) Deer (v) Changthangi (vi) Merino sheep
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Ans: (d)
Q42: Read the following statements and select the correct ones:
(i) The seeds of Hiptage are dispersed by animals.
(ii) The male gamete fuses with the female gamete to form the embryo.
(iii) Maize is a monoecious plant.
(iv) Autogamy always occurs in bisexual flowers.
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (ii) and (iv) only
Ans: (d)
Q43: Read the given paragraph. Organism X and organism Y live in a symbiotic relationship so closely that they create a new structure known as lichen. Organism X supplies food to Y, while Y assists in adhering to surfaces and absorbing nutrients, which it then provides to X. Identify X and Y and select the correct statement regarding them:
(a) X is a eukaryote whereas Y is a prokaryote.
(b) X constitutes a cell wall and Y is devoid of chlorophyll.
(c) Some species of X are responsible for causing malaria in humans.
(d) Some species of Y are responsible for fixing nitrogen in root nodules of leguminous plants.
Ans: (b)
Q44: Which of the following organisms experience metamorphosis?
(i) Silk moth
(ii) Snake
(iii) Frog
(iv) Hen
(v) Butterfly
(vi) Human
(vii) Cat
(viii) Cockroach
(ix) Whale
(x) Dog
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (x) only
(b) (i), (iii), (v) and (viii) only
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (iv), (vi), (vii) and (ix) only
Ans: (b)
Q45: What does zinc give along with zinc chloride when it reacts with hydrochloric acid?
(a) Chlorine gas
(b) Chloric acid
(c) Zinc oxide
(d) Hydrogen gas
Ans: (d)
Zinc gives hydrogen gas along with zinc chloride when it reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
Ans: (d)
The screwdriver used by electricians while repairing electrical appliances is made of metal and metals conduct electricity. It is provided with a wooden or plastic handle because these materials are poor conductors of both heat and electricity. They insulate the body when in use and prevent electric shock. Therefore, statement I is incorrect.
Graphite, an allotrope of carbon, is a non-metal. It is a good conductor of electricity due to the presence of free electrons in its lattice. Therefore, statement II is also incorrect.
Q47: Analyze the two statements given below and select the correct option.
Statement I: In fractional distillation of petroleum, kerosene is collected in a lower part of the fractional column as compared to petrol.
Statement II: Petrol and kerosene have different boiling points.
(a) Both the statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct reason for statement I.
(b) Both the statements I and II are correct but statement II is not the correct reason for statement I.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Both the statements I and II are incorrect.
Ans: (b)
Hence, both the statements I and II are correct but statement II is not the correct reason for I.
Q48: Refer to the Venn diagram given below and choose the correct option.
(a) X represents a sickle, which is used to manually harvest crops.
(b) X represents a combine machine, which functions both as a harvester and thresher.
(c) X represents a harvester, which is used to separate seed from chaff.
(d) X represents a winnowing machine, which is used to separate grain from chaff.
Ans: (b)
X stands for a combine machine, which can carry out both harvesting and threshing.
Q49: Based on the given flowchart, identify X, Y and Z.
(a) X - Biosphere reserve, Y - Sanctuary, Z - National park
(b) X - Biosphere reserve, Y - National park, Z - Sanctuary
(c) X - Sanctuary, Y - National park, Z - Biosphere reserve
(d) X - National park, Y - Biosphere reserve, Z - Sanctuary
Ans: (c)
Wild sanctuary (X) is the area reserved for conservation of wild animals only, National park (Y) is the area reserved for conservation of both plants and animals. In this area, activities like grazing, and collection of timber are strictly prohibited. Z is biosphere reserve, which is also reserved for conservation of both plants and animals. In these areas, conservation of plants, animals and microorganisms are done along with traditional life forms, living in that area.
Q50: According to the extent of thread to a species and its population in its natural habitat, four categories have been identified which are given below:
(I) Extinct in wild
(II) Critically endangered species
(III) Vulnerable species
(IV) Endangered species Select the correct order of these species according to their conservation priority:
(a) II > IV > I > III
(b) I > II > IV > III
(c) III > I > II > IV
(d) I > IV > III > II
Ans: (b)
An endangered species is a type of organism that is threatened by extinction. These species are very likely to become extinct. Extinct species is a particular animal or plant species that can no longer be available as a wild. Vulnerable species is considered to be facing a risk of extinction in the wild.
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