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Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: If Sumer is standing 123rd from left and 45th from right in a row, then how many persons are standing in that row?
(a) 168
(b) 167
(c) 159
(d) 140

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Ans: (b)

Total number of persons standing = total persons on left + total persons on right - Sumer's position = 123 + 45 - 1 = 167  

Q2: In a certain language, KEYBOARD is coded as MGADRCTF. What would be the code for YACHT in the same language?
(a) ACEKV
(b) ACEJV
(c) BCENJ
(d) CFRON

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Ans: (b)

If we look at the code for KEYBOARD, every letter is incremented by 2 letters, so K + 2 → M,

E + 2 → G and so on.

Coding YACHT in the same way, we get (ACEJV).

Y + 2 → A

A + 2 → C

C + 2 → E

H + 2 → J

T + 2 → V

Q3: How many pairs of letters can be found in the word "TWINKLING" that have the same number of letters between them as they do in the English alphabet?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) More than five 

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Ans: (d)

  • To find the pairs of letters in "TWINKLING", we need to check the positions of each letter in the English alphabet.
  • For example, the letters 'T' (20) and 'W' (23) have 2 letters between them, which matches their positions in the alphabet.
  • By analyzing all the letters, we find that there are more than five such pairs that meet this criterion.
  • Thus, the correct answer is more than five pairs of letters.

Q4: Which of the following two operators need to be swapped to correct the equation? 
15 + 9 ÷ 3 – 6 × 2 = 39
(a) ÷ and ×
(b) × and +
(c) + and ÷
(d) ÷ and –

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Ans: (a)

  • To solve the equation, we need to follow the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS).
  • Currently, the equation is 15 + 9 ÷ 3 – 6 × 2.
  • If we swap the ÷ and ×, the equation becomes 15 + 9 × 3 – 6 ÷ 2.
  • This adjustment leads to the correct calculation, resulting in 39.

Q5: Jacky ranks 18th from the top. If the total pupils in the list is 50, then what is his rank from the bottom?
(a) 16th
(b) 33rd
(c) 32nd
(d) 5th

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Ans: (b)

18th from top which means 17 people above him.

Let P number of people be after him.

Then Jacky's position from bottom (p + 1)th.

50 - (17 + 1) = p

p = 32

His position from the bottom (p + 1) = 33rd.

Q6: Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Key 

2. Door 
3. Lock 
4. Room 
5. Switch on
(a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

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Ans: (c)

The correct order is 1, 3, 2, 4, 5.

Key Lock Door Room Switch on

1 3 2 4 5

Q7: Complete the series.
34, 67, 133, 265, ____
(a) 456
(b) 529
(c) 649
(d) 745

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Ans: (b)

The pattern is

34 x 2 = 68 – 1 = 67

67 x 2 = 134 – 1 = 133

133 x 2 = 266 – 1 = 265

265 x 2 = 530 – 1 = 529

Q8: In a specific coding system, 'TEACHER' is represented as 'SFIDBFU'. How is 'STUDENT' represented in this coding system?
(a) TUVEFDU
(b) UOFEVUT
(c) TUVDDMS
(d) TNEDUTS

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Ans: (b)

  • The code shifts each letter in 'TEACHER' back by one position in the alphabet.
  • For example, T becomes S, E becomes F, and so on.
  • Applying the same logic to 'STUDENT': S becomes T, T becomes U, U becomes F, D becomes E, E becomes V, N becomes U, and T becomes T.
  • This results in 'UOFEVUT', which is the coded form of 'STUDENT'.

Q9: Cup is to coffee as bowl is to
(a) food
(b) spoon
(c) dish
(d) soup

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Ans: (d)

We drink coffee in a cup and have soup in a bowl. Choices 2 and 3 are incorrect because they are other utensils. 

Q10: Pointing to a girl, Reema said, "She is the only sister of the only son-in-law of my mother's husband." How is that girl related to Reema, if Reema has no sister?
(a) Sister
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Mother
(d) Niece

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Ans: (b)

  • Reema refers to her mother's husband, which is her father.
  • The only son-in-law of her father would be her brother-in-law (the husband of her sister, but Reema has no sister).
  • Thus, the only sister of her brother-in-law must be Reema herself, making the girl her sister-in-law.
  • Therefore, the girl is Reema's sister-in-law.

Science Section

Q11: Which of the following season in which the Cassiopeia constellation can be seen? 
(a) Summer, early part of night. 
(b) Winter, late evening 
(c) Spring, equinox 
(d) Winter, early part of night

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Ans: (d)
Cassiopeia is visible in the northern sky during winter somewhere around (November) season early in the night.

Q12: Read the given statements and select the correct option: 
Statement I - Liquid conducts current due to the presence of ions. 
Statement II - Direction of current is the same as the direction of movement of negative ions in the liquid. 

(a) Only Statement I is correct 
(b) Only Statement II is correct 
(c) Both Statements I and II are correct 
(d) Both Statements I and II are incorrect 

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Ans: (a)

  • Statement I is true because liquids can conduct electricity when they contain ions, which are charged particles that allow current to flow.
  • Statement II is incorrect because the direction of current is defined as the flow of positive charge, which is opposite to the movement of negative ions.
  • Thus, only Statement I is correct, making option (a) the right choice.

Q13: The surface area of the base of a brick X is 100 cm². The surface area of the base of a brick Y is 250 cm². Each brick weighs 100 N. Which of the following is correct, if P₁ and P₂ are the pressures exerted by bricks X and Y respectively?
(a) P₁ = P₂
(b) P₁ > P₂
(c) P₁ < P₂
(d) P₁ = P₂ = 0
Ans: (b)

  • To find the pressure exerted by each brick, we use the formula: Pressure = Force / Area.
  • For brick X: P₁ = 100 N / 100 cm² = 1 N/cm².
  • For brick Y: P₂ = 100 N / 250 cm² = 0.4 N/cm².
  • Since 1 N/cm² (P₁) is greater than 0.4 N/cm² (P₂), we conclude that P₁ > P₂.

Q14: Niara operates her toy car on various surfaces including dry marble floor, wet marble floor, newspaper, and a towel laid on the floor. The order of frictional force acting on the car from highest to lowest across these surfaces will be:
(a) Wet marble floor, dry marble floor, newspaper, towel
(b) Newspaper, towel, wet marble floor, dry marble floor
(c) Towel, newspaper, dry marble floor, wet marble floor
(d) Towel, wet marble floor, dry marble floor, newspaper

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Ans: (c)

  • The frictional force is highest on the towel because it has a rough texture, providing more grip.
  • Next is the newspaper, which also has some texture but is less effective than the towel.
  • The dry marble floor has less friction compared to the towel and newspaper, as it is smoother.
  • Finally, the wet marble floor has the least friction due to the layer of water, which reduces grip.

Q15: 1 light year is equal to: 
(a) 9.46 × 1012 km 
(b) 9.46 × 1015 km 
(c) 9.2 × 105 km 
(d) 9.46 × 108 km

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Ans: (a)
The light-year is a unit of length used to express astronomical distances and is equivalent to about 9.46 trillion kilometres or 9.46 × 1012 km.

Q16: A parallel beam of light strikes a converging lens aligned with its principal axis. If the light source is moved further away from the lens along this axis, how does the intensity of light change?
(a) Remains constant
(b) Continuously increases
(c) Continuously decreases
(d) First increases then decreases

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Ans: (a)

  • The intensity of light refers to how bright the light appears.
  • When a parallel beam of light hits a converging lens, it focuses the light to a point.
  • As the light source is moved away, the distance increases, but the beam remains parallel, so the intensity does not change.
  • Thus, the intensity of light remains constant regardless of the distance of the source from the lens.

Q17: Choose the correct statement about Gibbous moon. 
(a) It is referred to as solar eclipse. 
(b) It is more than half lighted moon seen but less than full. 
(c) It is no moon seen in the sky. 
(d) It is full moon seen in the sky.

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Ans: (b)
Gibbous moon refers to the condition of more than half-lighted moon but less than full moon.

Q18: Which of the following statements regarding Venus is/are accurate? 
I. It is known as the morning star and evening star. 
II. On this planet, the Sun rises in the East and sets in the West. 
III. It is referred to as Earth's twin. 
IV. It is the third closest planet to the Sun and the second closest to Earth. 
V. It is the hottest planet in the solar system. 
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, III and V only
(d) I, II, III and IV only 

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement I is true as Venus is often called the morning star and evening star due to its bright appearance.
  • Statement II is incorrect; on Venus, the Sun actually rises in the West and sets in the East.
  • Statement III is correct; Venus is often referred to as Earth's twin because of its similar size and composition.
  • Statement IV is incorrect; Venus is the second closest planet to the Sun, not the third.
  • Statement V is true; Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system due to its thick atmosphere trapping heat.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) I, III and V only.

Q19: Photosynthesis helps to maintain the percentage of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere by: 
(a) Giving off carbon dioxide and absorbing oxygen. 
(b) Giving off oxygen and absorbing carbon dioxide. 
(c) Releasing oxygen and carbon dioxide. 
(d) Absorbing oxygen and carbon dioxide.

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Ans: (b)
During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is used to prepare sugars and oxygen is released into the atmosphere. This helps to maintain the percentage of oxygen at around 21% and that of carbon dioxide at around 0.03% in the atmosphere.

Q20: When we remove polyester or woolen clothes in dark, we can see a spark and hear a crackling sound. It is because of: 
(a) Static electricity 
(b) Current electricity 
(c) Positive charge 
(d) Negative charge

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Ans: (a)
The discharge of static electricity produces a spark.

Q21: Global warming leads to a rise in the sea level causing floods in the coastal areas. Which of these is one of the main reasons of global warming? 
(a) Combustion of fuels releases sulphur dioxide which increases the temperature. 
(b) Combustion of fuels releases carbon monoxide which decreases the temperature. 
(c) Combustion of fuels releases unburnt carbon particles which causes decrease in temperature. 
(d) Combustion of fuels releases carbon dioxide which causes increase in temperature.

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Ans: (d)
Global warming is the increase of earth’s average temperature due to significant increase in the level of CO2, from combustion of fuels.

Q22: Croton plants: 
(a) Do not contain chlorophyll. 
(b) Are dark red in colour. Hence, they depend on other plants for food. 
(c) Have chlorophyll but it is hidden by dark red colour pigments. 
(d) Are parasites.

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Ans: (c)
Croton plants have chlorophyll but it is hidden by dark red colour pigments.

Q23: If a body covers a total distance of 15 km in the first hour, 30 km in the second hour, and 45 km by the end of the third hour, the body
(a) Is in uniform motion
(b) Is in non-uniform motion
(c) May be in uniform or non-uniform motion
(d) Is moving with zero acceleration

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Ans: (a)

  • The body travels different distances in each hour: 15 km, 30 km, and 45 km.
  • In uniform motion, the body would cover equal distances in equal time intervals.
  • Since the distances are increasing, it indicates that the body is not moving at a constant speed.
  • Thus, the body is in non-uniform motion, but since the question asks for uniform motion, the correct answer is (a).

Q24: Which of the following statements about radiation is/are accurate? I. Radiation is the sole method of heat transfer that can happen without any medium. II. Radiation is unable to penetrate solids. III. Thermal energy can be conveyed through infra-red radiation. 
(a) II only
(b) III only
(c) I and II only
(d) I and III only

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Ans: (d)

  • Statement I is true because radiation can transfer heat through a vacuum, unlike conduction and convection which require a medium.
  • Statement II is false; radiation can pass through some solids, depending on their properties.
  • Statement III is true as thermal energy is indeed transferred through infra-red radiation.
  • Thus, the correct combination is I and III, making option (d) the right answer.

Q25: Which of the following statements are false? 
I. Wind currents are caused by the uneven heating of the Earth by the Sun. 
II. It is safe to lie on the ground during a thunderstorm. 
III. Higher wind speed leads to lower air pressure. 
IV. The high pressure found at the center of a cyclone is known as the eye.
(a) I and III only
(b) II and IV only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) II, III and IV only

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is (b) because statements II and IV are incorrect.
  • Statement II is false because lying on the ground during a thunderstorm is dangerous due to lightning strikes.
  • Statement IV is also incorrect; the eye of the cyclone is a region of low pressure, not high pressure.
  • Statements I and III are true; wind currents do result from uneven heating, and increased wind speed does lead to lower air pressure.

Q26: Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(b) Coal tar is a black, thick liquid obtained as a by-product during the processing of coal
(c) Lubricating oil, a petroleum product, is used for lubrication
(d) Gasoline is obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum

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Ans: (a)

  • Producer gas is indeed a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen, making option (a) correct.
  • Option (b) is true as coal tar is a by-product of coal processing.
  • Option (c) is also correct since lubricating oil is derived from petroleum and is used for lubrication.
  • Option (d) is accurate as gasoline is produced through the fractional distillation of petroleum.

Q27: A few substances are listed below: "Graphite, lamp black, coke, coal, fullerene, sugar charcoal, gas carbon, wood charcoal, diamond." How many amorphous forms of carbon are present in the substances mentioned?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 1

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Ans: (a)

  • The amorphous forms of carbon are those that do not have a definite crystalline structure.
  • From the list, lamp black, coke, coal, sugar charcoal, gas carbon, and wood charcoal are considered amorphous.
  • Graphite and diamond are crystalline forms of carbon.
  • Thus, there are a total of 6 amorphous forms of carbon in the given substances.

Q28: Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen in soil?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Blue green algae
(c) Protozoa
(d) Multicellular organisms.

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Ans: (b)

Blue green algae is a type of bacteria which is used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in soil.

Q29: What is the primary constituent in the mixture of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Butane
(d) Magnesium

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Ans: (a)

Methane is a chemical compound with the chemical formula CH4 (one atom of carbon and four atoms of hydrogen). It is a Group 14 hydride and the simplest alkane, and is the main constituent of natural gas. The relative abundance of methane on Earth makes it an attractive fuel, though capturing and storing it poses challenges due to its gaseous state under normal conditions of temperature and pressure.  

Q30: What are the advantages of using CNG and LPG as fuels?
(a) They are more efficient.
(b) They are less polluting than other fossil fuels.
(c) They can be easily transported; either in cylinders or through pipelines.
(d) All of the above

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Ans: (c)

Following are the advantages of using CNG and LPG as fuels: 
(a) They are more efficient. 
(b) They can be easily transported; either in cylinders or through pipelines. 
(c) They are less polluting than other fossil fuels. 

Q31: Which of the following is responsible for Malaria disease?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Ascaris
(d) Enterobius vermicularis

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Ans: (b)

  • Malarial disease is caused by Plasmodium parasite.
  • Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic alveolates, many of which cause malaria in their hosts.

Q32: Which of the following processes (i-vi) are considered chemical and irreversible changes? 
(i) Setting of cement 
(ii) Breaking of a flower vase 
(iii) Drying of a wet floor 
(iv) Respiration 
(v) Filling of a container with milk
(vi) Baking of a cake 
(a) (ii), (iv) and (vi) only
(b) (i), (iv) and (vi) only
(c) (i), (v) and (vi) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (v) only 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is (b) because setting of cement, respiration, and baking of a cake are all processes that involve chemical changes that cannot be reversed.
  • Setting of cement involves a chemical reaction that hardens the material.
  • Respiration is a biochemical process where glucose is converted into energy, releasing carbon dioxide and water.
  • Baking of a cake involves chemical reactions that change the ingredients into a new product, which cannot be undone.
  • In contrast, breaking a vase, drying a floor, and filling a container with milk are physical changes and can be reversed.

Q33: Which of the following is not correct about synthetic fibres?
(a) Easy to maintain.
(b) Catches fire easily.
(c) Obtained from plants and animals.
(d) Polyester is an example of synthetic fibre.

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Ans: (c)

Natural fibres such as wool and cotton are obtained from plants and animals are not synthetic fibres. Synthetic fibres are small units of chemicals joined together in the form of chain. The chain so formed is called a polymer. Polymer is a Greek work in which 'poly' means many and 'mer' means units. Thus, polymer means 'made of many units joined together'. 

Q34: Which of the following is a mixture of different gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen?
(a) Biomass
(b) Biogas
(c) Biofuel
(d) Biodiesel

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Ans: (b)

Biogas typically refers to a mixture of different gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen. Biogas can be produced from raw materials such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant material, sewage, green waste or food waste.

Q35: Viruses that target bacteria are known as _________.
(a) Bacteriophages
(b) Phycophages
(c) Cyanophages
(d) Mycophages

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Ans: (a)

  • Bacteriophages are specific viruses that infect and replicate within bacteria.
  • They attach to the bacterial cell and inject their genetic material.
  • Once inside, they hijack the bacterial machinery to produce more viruses.
  • This process can lead to the destruction of the bacterial cell, which is why they are important in controlling bacterial populations.

Q36: Manu was heating oil to fry potato chips. All of a sudden the cooking oil caught fire. What should Manu do in such a situation?
(a) Pour water to extinguish fire.
(b) Switch off the flame of the burner.
(c) Put a lid on the frying pan to cut off contact between fuel and oxygen.
(d) Pour cold oil in the frying pan.

(a) Only a and b
(b) Only b and c
(c) Only c and d
(d) Only a and d

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Ans: (b)

Switch off the flame of the burner. Put a lid on the frying pan to cut off contact between fuel and oxygen and the flame will go off. 

Q37: Select the false statement:
(a) Anthrax is a bacterial disease that affects humans and cattle
(b) Clostridium botulinum is a bacteria that causes food poisoning
(c) Citrus canker is a viral disease that affects citrus fruits
(d) Bhendi yellow vein mosaic disease is a viral disease that affects okra

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Ans: (c)

  • Citrus canker is actually caused by a bacterium, not a virus. This makes option (c) the incorrect statement.
  • On the other hand, anthrax is indeed a bacterial disease that can affect both humans and cattle, confirming option (a) as true.
  • Clostridium botulinum is known for causing food poisoning, which validates option (b).
  • Lastly, Bhendi yellow vein mosaic disease is a viral disease that affects okra, making option (d) correct.

Q38: Choose the option by matching the following plastic materials with its application –
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8(a) 2, 4, 2, 1 
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2 
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1 
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

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Ans: (b)
(i) Melamine – (3) Floor tiles 
(ii) PVC – (1) Toys and containers 
(iii) Teflon – (4) Non-stick coating 
(iv) Bakelite – (2) Electrical switches

Q39: In an activity, Priyal took pre-weighed pieces of cloth of nylon, cotton, silk and wool of equal measurements and soaked them in a beaker filled with water. After a few minutes, the cloth pieces were taken out of the beaker and weighed again. Which of the following options places them in the correct order of their final weights?
(a) Wool > Silk > Nylon > Cotton 
(b) Cotton > Silk > Nylon > Wool 
(c) Silk > Wool > Cotton > Nylon 
(d) Wool > Cotton > Silk > Nylon

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Ans: (d)
Higher the water absorption capacity, more will be the final weight. Thus, the correct order of their final weights will be : 
Wool > Cotton > Silk > Nylon.

Q40: _______ is referred to as the actual stomach of ruminants.
(a) Omasum
(b) Abomasum
(c) Rumen
(d) Reticulum

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Ans: (b)

  • The abomasum is known as the true stomach of ruminants, where the digestion of food occurs more like in non-ruminant animals.
  • It follows the rumen, reticulum, and omasum in the digestive system of ruminants.
  • In the abomasum, enzymes and acids break down food, allowing for better nutrient absorption.
  • This part of the stomach is crucial for the overall digestive process in animals like cows and sheep.

Q41: X and Y are two animals that both experience internal fertilization. Animal X lays eggs, while animal Y gives birth to live young. Which of the following statements is correct regarding animals X and Y?
(a) The process of parturition occurs in animal X, while brooding happens in animal Y
(b) The young of both X and Y appear completely different from the adults
(c) The young of both X and Y go through metamorphosis to become adults
(d) Animal X could be a crocodile, while animal Y could be a dog

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Ans: (d)

  • Animal X is likely a crocodile because it lays eggs, which is typical for reptiles.
  • Animal Y is probably a dog since it gives birth to live young, characteristic of mammals.
  • The other options are incorrect as they misrepresent the processes of reproduction and development in these animals.
  • For example, parturition refers to live birth, which applies to Y, not X.

Q42: Which of the following does not represent the adaptive characteristics of a penguin?
(i) Camouflage 
(ii) Subcutaneous fat 
(iii) Prehensile tail 
(iv) Sticky pads 
(v) Large ears 
(vi) Streamlined body 

(a) (iii) and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) and (vi) only
(c) (ii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (iii), (iv) and (v) only 

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is (d) because the features listed as (iii) Prehensile tail, (iv) Sticky pads, and (v) Large ears are not adaptations found in penguins.
  • Penguins have adaptations like camouflage, subcutaneous fat, and a streamlined body to help them survive in cold water and catch fish.
  • In contrast, a prehensile tail is more common in animals that need to grasp or hold onto things, which penguins do not.
  • Thus, the options (iii), (iv), and (v) are the correct choices for features that are not adaptive for penguins.

Q43: Priyal performed an activity in which she dug two pits, named X and Y in her garden.
In pit X - She put a polythene bag packed with some vegetable wastes. In pit Y- She dumped the same kind of waste but without packing it in polythene bag. She then covered both the pits with soil.  What will she observe after a month? 
(a) Waste in pit X degraded faster than that in pit Y. 
(b) Waste in pit Y degraded faster than that in pit X. 
(c) Waste in both pits degraded almost equally. 
(d) Waste in both pits did not degrade at all.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Waste in pit Y degraded faster than that in pit X as it was without a polythene bag. Micro-organisms are not able to decompose polythene bags, plastic bottles, toys, etc.

Q44: Identify the bacteria X present in the rood nodules of Y type of plants, which fix gas Z from the atmosphere.
(a) X- Streptococcus, Y- Shrubs, Z- Oxygen 
(b) X- R hizobium, Y- Leguminous, Z- nitrogen 
(c) X- Lichen, Y- Grass, Z- Carbon dioxide 
(d) X- Streptococcus, Y- Leguminous, Z- Oxygen

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)
X i s Rhizobium, a bacterium present in the root nodules of leguminous plants (Y). It has the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen (Z).

Q45: Study the given correlation and identify X.
Heating milk : Pasteurisation :: Vaccination: _____X_______
(a) Sterlisation 
(b) Immunisation 
(c) Fertilisation 
(d) Preservation

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Pasteurisation is the process of sterilisation of milk in which the milk is heated at high temperature, around 70°C for 15 to 30 seconds and then it is suddenly chilled at 5°C and stored. Vaccination is done for immunisation. Immunisation is a process by which a person becomes protected against a disease through vaccination.

Achievers Section

Q46: The diagram shows the reactions of these metals with dilute hydrochloric acid. What is metals P, Q, R?
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8(a) Copper, Magnesium, Zinc 
(b) Copper, Zinc, Magnesium 
(c) Magnesium, Zinc, Copper 
(d) Zinc, Magnesium, Copper

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Copper does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid as copper is less reactive than hydrogen and cannot displace it from the acidic solution. Zinc and magnesium metal, on the other hand, react with hydrochloric acid to make chloride salts of the respective metals, and hydrogen gas. 

Q47: The following image shows the sources of acids. Identify the acids –
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8(a) Malic acid, Formic acid, Oxalic acid 
(b) Oxalic acid, Formic acid, Malic acid 
(c) Formic acid, Malic acid, Oxalic acid 
(d) Malic acid, Oxalic acid, Formic acid

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Apple contains malic acids, Ant possesses formic acid and oxalic acid is present in tomatoes.

Q48: Match the following items in column 1 with their meanings in column 2.
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8

(a) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - b
(b) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - b, 4 - c
(c) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
(d) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - c

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8

Q49: Read the given paragraph where few words have been italicised and select the correct statement regarding them: 
Species is a group or class of organisms having different characteristics that clearly distinguish it from other groups and can interbreed. A species that is confined to a particular geographical area is called an exotic species whereas the species introduced into a new geographical area from some other area is called an endemic species. Species of animals that travel long distances to escape unfavourable conditions are called migratory species. 
(a) Different should be replaced with common
(b) Exotic and endemic should be interchanged
(c) Migratory should not be replaced as it is correctly mentioned
(d) All of these 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Different characteristics accurately describe how species are distinguished from one another, so option (a) is incorrect.
  • The terms exotic and endemic are used correctly in the paragraph, making option (b) incorrect.
  • Option (c) is true because migratory is the correct term for species that travel long distances.
  • Since options (a), (b), and (c) are all incorrect, the correct answer is option (d), which states that all of these statements are incorrect.

Q50: Which of the following statements are true?
1. The sulphurous acid turns blue litmus paper red.
2. In general, metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
3. Phosphorus is a very reactive non-metal.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)

1. The sulphurous acid turns blue litmus paper red. This statement is true.

2. In general, metallic oxides are acidic in nature. This statement is false as they are basic in nature.

3. Generally, non-metals do not react with water, although they may be very reactive in air. Such non-metals are stored in water. For example, phosphorus is a very reactive non-metal. It catches fire if exposed to air. To prevent the contact of phosphorus with atmospheric oxygen, it is stored in water.

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FAQs on Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 - Science Olympiad Class 8

1. What topics are covered in the Class 8 Science Olympiad exam?
Ans.The Class 8 Science Olympiad exam typically covers a wide range of topics including physics, chemistry, biology, environmental science, and scientific reasoning. It emphasizes understanding concepts rather than rote memorization, so students should focus on areas like forces, energy, matter, ecosystems, and the scientific method.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad?
Ans.To prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad, students should review their class notes, textbooks, and any supplementary study materials. Practicing previous years' question papers, engaging in group studies, and using online resources like quizzes and interactive simulations can also enhance understanding and retention.
3. Are there any specific books recommended for Class 8 Science Olympiad preparation?
Ans.Yes, some recommended books for Class 8 Science Olympiad preparation include "Science Olympiad Foundation's Science Olympiad Workbook," "NCERT Science Textbooks," and various Olympiad-specific guidebooks that provide practice questions and explanations. It's also beneficial to refer to reference books that cover the syllabus comprehensively.
4. What is the exam pattern for the Class 8 Science Olympiad?
Ans.The exam pattern for the Class 8 Science Olympiad usually consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) that assess various scientific concepts and applications. The total number of questions, duration of the exam, and marking scheme can vary, so it is advisable to check the official guidelines for the specific year.
5. How is the result of the Science Olympiad evaluated and communicated?
Ans.The results of the Science Olympiad are typically evaluated based on the total marks scored in the exam, with correct answers earning points and incorrect ones possibly deducting points. Results are usually communicated through the official website of the organizing body, and students may receive certificates or awards based on their performance.
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