Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.
Q1: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question. ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is father of B’. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is son of B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is mother of B’. ‘A & B’ means ‘A is husband of B’. How is P related to T in the given expression? P % Q + R @ S & T
(a) Mother
(b) Sister
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Mother-in-law
Ans: (d)
Q2: Introducing a boy, a girl said, He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle. How is the boy related to the girl?
(a) Uncle
(b) Brother
(c) Son-in-law
(d) Nephew
Ans: (b)
The father of the boy's uncle is the grandfather of the boy and the daughter of the grandfather is the sister of the father.
So, the boy is the brother of the girl.
Q3: If 'A' represents '+', 'B' represents '–', 'C' represents '×', and 'D' represents '÷', what is the result of 28 B 14 D 2 C 7 A 24 = ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Ans: (d)
Q4: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 4
Ans: (d)
The line segment rotates through 90o and moves to the adjacent portion of the rhombus in an anti-clockwise direction in first, third, fifth, ... steps. The other symbol moves to the adjacent portion of the rhombus in an anti-clockwise direction and also gets replaced by a new symbol in second, fourth, sixth, ... steps.
Q5: In the provided letter sequence, certain letters are absent and are listed in the options below. Choose the correct option. DB__ADB__AD__C__DB__A
(a) CCBCA
(b) CCBAC
(c) CBCAC
(d) CACBC
Ans: (b)
Q6: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1
Ans: (b)
Only in fig. (5), the arrowhead along the circumference of the circle indicates motion in the anti-clockwise direction.
Q7: 11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001
(a) 1010
(b) 101
(c) 110
(d) 111
Ans: (b)
The pattern is -1, x10 + 1, -1, x10 + 1, -1, x10 + 1, ...
So, missing term = 10 x 10 + 1 = 101
Q8: Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
Ans: (a)
The upper part of the figure gets vertically inverted.
Q9: Arrange the following words in a logical order and choose the right option.
(a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
(b) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(d) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
Ans: (b)
Q10: Sahil is looking towards the South. After making a right turn, he walks 20 m. Then he makes another right turn and walks 30 m. Following that, he turns right once more and walks 60 m. What is the distance from Sahil's current position to the starting point?
(a) 50 m
(b) 30 m
(c) 40 m
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q11: A stone is thrown straight up with an initial speed of 25 m/s from the top of a tower. It strikes the ground after a while with a final speed of 90 m/s. What is the total time taken by the stone during this journey? (Take g = 10 m/s²)
(a) 5.75 s
(b) 5.0 s
(c) 6.5 s
(d) 11.5 s
Ans: (d)
Q12: Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Isotopes are electrically neutral.
Statement 2: Atoms of different elements with the same number of neutrons but different atomic and mass numbers are known as isotopes.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Ans: (a)
Atoms of different elements with same number of neutrons but different atomic and mass numbers are known as isotones.
Q13: A helicopter of mass 2000 kg ascends with a vertical acceleration of 15 m/s². The total mass of the crew and passengers is 500 kg. Identify the correct statements from the options below. (Assume g = 10 m/s²) (i) The force exerted on the floor of the helicopter by the crew and passengers is 1.25 × 10⁴ N, directed downwards. (ii) The rotor's action on the surrounding air is 6.25 × 10⁴ N, directed downwards. (iii) The force acting on the helicopter from the surrounding air is 6.25 × 10⁴ N, directed upwards.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: (d)
Q14: A solution contains 60 g of common salt in 240 g of water. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by mass percentage of solvent:
(a) 88%
(b) 80%
(c) 49%
(d) 69%
Ans: (b)
Mass by mass percent of solvent
Q15: A source can generate waves with a wavelength of 100 mm in medium X and a wavelength of 0.25 cm in medium Y. Given that the wave velocity in medium X is 80 m/s, what is the wave velocity in medium Y?
(a) 2 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 6 m/s
(d) 8 m/s
Ans: (a)
Q16: When a conducting sphere A on an insulating stand is brought close to a positively charged light sphere B suspended from a nylon thread, sphere B is drawn towards A. Which of the following statements about sphere A is accurate?
(a) Sphere A is neutral.
(b) Sphere A is positively charged.
(c) Sphere A is negatively charged.
(d) Sphere A is either negatively charged or neutral.
Ans: (d)
Q17: Pressure at a point within a liquid is not influenced by
(a) The type of liquid
(b) Gravitational acceleration at that location
(c) The form of the container
(d) The depth of the point beneath the liquid's surface
Ans: (c)
Q18: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: If the initial velocity is reduced to half, the stopping distance of a moving object decreases by a factor of 2 (assuming the same deceleration).
Statement 2: The stopping distance is related to the square of the initial velocity.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
Ans: (d)
Q19: Which among the following is the correct signal pathway from one neuron to another?
I. Cell body
II. Dendrites
III. Axon
(a) II, I, III and II
(b) I, III and II
(c) III, II and I
(d) II, III and I
Ans: (a)
The electrical impulses flow from the dendrites to the cell body and the axon. The axon transfers the signal through its dendrites onto the next cell.
Q20: Which of the following statements is/are accurate regarding the mass of the substance deposited at the cathode?
(i) It is inversely proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
(ii) It is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
(iii) It is directly proportional to the time for which electricity is passed through the electrolyte.
(iv) It is inversely proportional to the time for which electricity is passed through the electrolyte.
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) (i) and (iii) only
Ans: (b)
Q21: A body when floats in water, (1/4)th of its volume remains outside water. When it floats in another liquid, half of its volume remains outside the liquid. Then the density of the liquid is
(a) 3/4 gm/cc
(b) 4/3 gm/cc
(c) 3/2 gm/cc
(d) 8/3 gm/cc
Ans: (c)
Q22: The atomic number of three elements A, B and C are 4, 9, 12 respectively. Which two elements show similar chemical properties?
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans: (c)
Elements A and C have the same number of valence electrons. Hence, they show the same chemical properties
Q23: Which of the following shows the correct increasing order of rigidity for the listed substances?
(a) Milk < Nitrogen < Book
(b) Stone < Oxygen < Oil
(c) Alcohol < Salt < Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen < Petrol < Wooden block
Ans: (d)
Q24: Soham, a class 9 student, combined iron filings and sulfur in a China dish and heated them strongly to create a residue. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of the residue?
(a) It cannot be separated into sulfur and iron filings by normal physical methods.
(b) Its properties are completely different from iron and sulfur.
(c) Its composition is the same throughout.
(d) Its appearance is different from iron and sulfur, but it shows chemical properties of both iron and sulfur.
Ans: (d)
Q25: Which of the following solutions has the highest mass by volume percentage?
(a) 10 g of sugar in 50 mL solution
(b) 25 g of potassium chloride in 100 mL solution
(c) 30 g of magnesium sulfate in 50 mL solution
(d) 60 g of sodium chloride in 200 mL solution
Ans: (c)
Q26: Even if the tip of a plant containing the apical meristem is removed, it will keep growing because of the presence of _____.
(a) lateral meristem
(b) intercalary meristem
(c) cambium
(d) reformation of apical meristem
Ans: (b)
When the apical meristem is removed, various hormones insides the plant triggers the growth of a new bud using the intercalary meristem.
Q27: Which of the following statements are false?
I. Carbonate ion is a polyatomic ion that carries a charge of –2.
II. Sulfide ion is trivalent and positive.
III. Argon and oxygen are monoatomic and diatomic gases respectively.
IV. Ammonium ion is negatively charged and carries a single negative charge only.
(a) II and IV only
(b) I and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) III and IV only
Ans: (a)
Q28: Which among the following is the most common component of the plant cell wall?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Fructose
(c) Glucose
(d) Mannose
Ans: (a)
The plant cell wall is made up of cellulose and hemicellulose and the most common component of the plant cell wall is cellulose.
Q29: Which among the following is true regarding kingdom Plantae?
(a) Plantae is classified based on various characters such as presence or absence of a well differentiated body, presence or absence of conductive tissue and finally the ability to bear seeds and whether the seeds are enclosed within fruits.
(b) Thallophytes consists of plants that have a well-differentiated body.
(c) Bryophytes have conductive tissue.
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Kingdom Plantae is divided into different classes, orders and families based on the following characters.
Q30: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: If the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is gas, the colloid formed is a gel.
Statement 2: Jelly and butter are examples of gel.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Ans: (b)
If the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is gas, the colloid formed is a aerosol
Q31: Which of the following situation is not possible?
(a) A body can have constant velocity and still have varying speed.
(b) A body can have zero velocity but yet possess acceleration.
(c) A body can be said to be at rest as well as in motion at the same time.
(d) Both a and b
Ans: (a)
An object can have zero velocity and still be accelerating simultaneously. For example, when an object is projected vertically up, at the highest point its speed becomes zero whereas it is accelerating downwards with g. An object can be at rest with respect to one object and can be in motion with respect to one object and can be in motion with respect to another object.
Q32: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: When a fire brigade arrives, it pours water on the fire.
Statement 2: Water cools the combustible material so that its temperature is brought above its ignition temperature.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
Ans: (c)
Q33: Which of the given statements is not a function of the plasma membrane?
(a) It maintains the individuality of the cell.
(b) It is selectively permeable, therefore it prevents cell contents from mixing with the environment.
(c) Its junctions help to keep the cells together.
(d) It protects the cell from injury.
Ans: (b)
Q34: Ananya was asked by her teacher to write a few points on phagocytosis. She wrote a few statements. However, one statement is incorrect. Identify the incorrect statement(s) and select the correct option.
I. It is the intake of extracellular particles.
II. It is a nutritive and defensive process.
III. Microfilaments play no role in it.
IV. Cell membrane grows around the particle as pseudopodia.
(a) I and II only
(b) IV only
(c) II and III only
(d) III only
Ans: (d)
Q35: Which among the following is a complex permanent tissue in plants?
(a) Xylem
(b) Parenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Phloem
Ans: (a)
Q36: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Each smooth muscle fiber is long, spindle-shaped, tapering, and uninucleate.
Statement 2: Smooth muscle fibers show transverse striations and occur in the walls of tubular organs.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Ans: (c)
Q37: Which among the following is not utilized in organic farming?
(a) Anabaena
(b) Clostridium botulinum
(c) Neem leaves
(d) Cyanobacteria
Ans: (b)
Q38: Which of the following is a type of chemical reaction?
(a) Combustion
(b) Evaporation
(c) Melting
(d) Freezing
Ans: (a)
Q39: The husk of the coconut and the small gritty substance in the guava are made of which of these tissues?
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Tracheid
(d) Sclerenchyma
Ans: (d)
The husk of the coconut contains sclerenchyma cells. The gritty texture in guava is due to the presence of sclereids. Sclereids are reduced forms of sclerenchyma cells that are spherical.
Q40: An ion M2+ contains 10 electrons and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of that element M?
(a) 24
(b) 32
(c) 12
(d) 14
Ans: (a)
Number of electrons in M2+ ion = 10
Number of electrons in neutral M ion = 12
In a neutral atom, number of electrons is equal to the number protons.
Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons
= 12 + 12 = 24
Q41: Select the incorrect match. Name of National Park - Organism for which it is known
(a) Kanha National Park – Great Indian Bustard
(b) Sundarbans – Royal Bengal Tiger
(c) Desert National Park – Chinkara
(d) Corbett National Park – Tiger
Ans: (a)
Q42: How many of the following cell organelles are found exclusively in plant cells? Ribosome, Vacuole, Mitochondria, Plastids, Lysosome
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: (a)
Therefore, the only organelle that is present exclusively in plant cells is Plastids, making the total count 1.
Q43: ________ regulates calcium and phosphate balance in the body.
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pancreas
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Pineal gland
Ans: (c)
Q44: Which is the cell component that helps to maintain the structure and rigidity of a plant cell when the cell is immersed in both hypertonic and hypotonic solutions?
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Vacuole
(c) Cytoplasm
(d) Cell wall
Ans: (d)
When a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the water inside the cell will come out and the cell will shrink and will get detached from the cell wall. Nevertheless, the cell wall will remain its structure, shape and rigidity.
When a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the water will enter into the cell and the cell will swell up. But the cell wall will exert pressure on the cell called the “turgor pressure” and will retain the original shape and structure of the cell.
Q45: The phenomenon of increase in concentration of nonbiodegradable organic compounds with each trophic level in a food chain is called
(a) Biological evolution
(b) Bioenlargement
(c) Biomagnification
(d) Biofixation
Ans: (c)
Q46: Graph below shows the velocity-time graph for three objects, moving in the same direction.
Which of the following statement is correct about the above graph?
(a) Acceleration of C is greater than A
(b) Acceleration of A is greater than C
(c) Acceleration of B is less than A
(d) Acceleration of C is less than B
Ans: (a)
The slope of velocity-time graph for C is greater than that for B. Hence, the acceleration of C is greater than that of A.
Q47: Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection. Which of the following is not a reason for the spread of the disease?
(a) Spread through consuming food and water contaminated by feces.
(b) Spread by inhaling aerosols released by another person.
(c) Spread by mosquitoes.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection caused by injecting food or water contaminated by Vibrio cholera.
Q48: Read the given passage where a few words are italicized and select the correct statement regarding them. ""The term cell was coined by Robert Hooke in 1665. Cells that lack a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called prokaryotic cells whereas cells that have a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called eukaryotic cells. Bacterial cells are prokaryotic cells whereas animal cells are eukaryotic cells.""
(a) Robert Hooke must be replaced with Robert Brown.
(b) Prokaryotic should be interchanged with eukaryotic.
(c) Animal must not be changed as it is correctly mentioned.
(d) Bacterial must be replaced with plant.
Ans: (c)
Q49: A particle weighs 80 N on the surface of the earth. At what height above the earth’s surface will its weight be 20 N? R = Radius of the earth
(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) 3R
(d) 4R
Ans: (a)
Q50: A man of mass 55 kg climbs up a flight of steps toreach the spring board. The spring board is 6 m above the water surface in a swimming pool as shown in the given figure.
He jumps up into air, 3 m above the spring board, before falling into water in the swimming pool. If the average resisting force exerted by water on the man is 1500 N, then the maximum depth of the man in water will be
(a) 2.1 m
(b) 3.3 m
(c) 4.2 m
(d) 5.6 m
Ans: (b)
Step 1: Calculate the total height from which the man falls into the water
The man initially climbs to a height of 6 meters above the water surface and then jumps an additional 3 meters above the springboard. So, the total height (h) from which the man falls is:
h = 6 m + 3 m = 9 m
Step 2: Calculate the potential energy at the top of the jump
The potential energy (PE) of the man at the topmost point is given by the formula:
PE = m × g × h
where:
m = 55 kg (mass of the man)
g = 9.8 m/s2 (acceleration due to gravity)
h = 9 m
Substitute the values:
PE = 55 × 9.8 × 9 = 4851 J
Step 3: Calculate the work done by the water in stopping the man
The resisting force by the water acts over a certain distance d, which we need to find. The work done by the water (which stops the man) is equal to the mechanical energy he had when he hit the water.
The work done by the water is given by:
W = F × d
where:
F = 1500 N (the resisting force exerted by the water)
d is the depth to which the man sinks in the water.
Since the work done by the water is equal to the man’s mechanical energy, we can set:
1500 × d = 4851
Solve for d:
d = 4851 ÷ 1500 = 3.23 m
Step 4: Conclusion
The depth to which the man sinks in the water is approximately 3.23 meters. This is closest to option B (3.3 m).
Thus, the correct answer is B. 3.3 m.
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