Class - X
TIME: 3 Hrs.
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. The question paper comprises five sections - A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A - Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B - Question no. 17 to 22 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
4. Section C - Question no. 23 to 26 are Source Based Questions, carrying 4 marks each.
5. Section D - Question no. 27 to 31 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E - Question no. 32 is Map-Based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
8. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Q.1. Which of the following treaty recognized Greece as an independent nation? (1 Mark)
(a) Treaty of Sevres
(b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Lausanne
(d) Treaty of Constantinople
Ans. (d) Treaty of Constantinople
Q.2. Fill in the blank :
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) is an example of the _______ industry in India. (1 Mark)
Ans. Information Technology
Green Revolution has helped _______ industry to expand in different parts of India.
Q.3. Fill in the blank : (1 Mark)
Barley: Rabi crop, cotton: kharif crop, _______: zaid crop.
(c) Soya bean
Ans. (d) Cucumber
Q.4. A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micronutrients and roughage is ___________. (1 Mark)
Ans. (d) Ragi
Q.5. Population of Sri Lankan Tamils is concentrated in ____________ region of Sri Lanka. (1 Mark)
(a) North and South
(b) North and East
(c) East and West
(d) South and East
Ans. (b) North and East
Q.6. Which administrative authority legislates on Residuary subjects? (1 Mark)
Ans. Union/ Centre
Which administrative authority legislates on the Union list?
Ans. Union/ Centre
Q.7. Most of the agricultural labourers like Mohan depend upon loans from the informal sector. Which of the following statements about this sector is correct? (1 Mark)
(a) There is govt. bodies to supervise the informal sector
(b) Moneylenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest
(c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high
(d) Moneylenders use fair means to get their money back
Ans. (c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high
Q.8. Which one of the following options describes ‘Collateral’? (1 Mark)
(a) Double coincidence of wants
(b) Certain products for barter
(c) Trade-in barter
(d) Asset as a guarantee for the loan
Ans. (d) Asset as a guarantee for the loan
Q.9. Read the given statements in the context of ‘globalization and choose the correct option : (1 Mark)
(a) It is the only way for the economic development of the country
(b) Interlinks only production-based activities in dispersed locations in the world
(c) It has always given only positive results in all the countries
(d) Leads to the spread of technology, cultures and diseases from one region to another
Ans. (d) Leads to the spread of technology, cultures and diseases from one region to another
Q.10. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option : (1 Mark)
Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals.
Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q.11. Find the incorrect option : (1 Mark)
(a) Fair globalization would create opportunities for all.
(b) MNCs are playing a major role in the globalization process.
(c) Globalization has led to an improvement in the living conditions of all the people.
(d) MNCs have increased their investment in India over the past 20 years.
Ans. (c) Globalization has led to an improvement in the living conditions of all the people.
Q.12. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
Dictatorship provides a method to resolve conflicts. (1 Mark)
Ans. Democracy provides a method to resolve conflicts.
Dictatorship is preferred over democracy everywhere except Pakistan.
Ans. Democracy is preferred over dictatorship everywhere except Pakistan.
Q.13. Which of the following leader is shown in this cartoon? (1 Mark)
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) I. K. Gujral
(c) H. D. Deve Gowda
(d) A. B. Vajpayee
Ans. (d) A. B. Vajpayee
Q.14. What is the major objective to develop Super Highways? (1 Mark)
Ans. To reduce the time and distance between the megacities of India.
Q.15. Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) is an example of _____ industry. (1 Mark)
Ans. Information Technology (IT)
Q.16. Which one of the following cities has emerged as the `electronic capital’ of India? (1 Mark)
Ans. (b) Bengaluru
Q.17. How is the ethnic composition of Belgium very complex? Explain. (3 marks)
(i) Of the country's total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks the Dutch language.
(ii) Another 40 per cent of people live in the Wallonia region and speak French.
(iii) Remaining 1 per cent of the Belgians speak German.
(iv) In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent of people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch-speaking.
Q.18. Why is the `tertiary sector ’ becoming important in India? Explain any three points. (3 marks)
(i) Development of services such as transport, trade and storage promote agriculture and industry.
(ii) Rise in income level.
(iii) Development of information and communication technology.
(iv) It provides a larger number of employees.
(v) Any other relevant point.
The tertiary sector or the service sector composes almost 50% of India's population. The young generation studies hard, get good marks and then simply hunt for a good and secure job. The reasons why this sector is gaining importance can be summed up in the following points :
(i) The need for the tertiary sector is increasing as there is more need for services like financial institutions, educational institutions, etc. in the Indian economy.
(ii) The tertiary sector accounts for most of the national and per capita income of India.
(iii) The tertiary sector created huge employment even for the uneducated and unskilled workers.
(iv) The tertiary sector is responsible to distribute its services and goods to different consumers.
How does the public sector contribute to the economic development of the nation? Explain.
Ans. Contribution of Public Sector to Economic Development:
(i) In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services.
(ii) The purpose of the public sector is not just to earn profits, but also to provide facilities to the public in different ways.
(iii) There are several things needed by society as a whole, some of these need to spend large sums of money which is beyond the capacity of the private sector and so they are provided by the public sector.
(iv) The government supports and encourages industrial activities providing affordable electricity. In the same way, to promote agricultural activities, government purchases their products on MSP and provide a subsidy for the poor on these products.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Q.19. Suggest any three ways to maintain Body Mass Index (BMI). (3 marks)
Ans. Three ways to maintain Body Mass Index are:
(i) It is a measure of body fat based on height and weight that applies to adult men and women.
(ii) A healthy BMI can be maintained by taking healthy and nutritional food.
(iii) A person should exercise regularly for 60-90 minutes most days of the week.
(iv) One should stay well hydrated by drinking at least 1.5-2 litters of water daily.
Q.20. How has the Napoleonic Code exported to the regions under French control? Explain with examples. (3 marks)
Ans. Napoleonic Code exported to the regions under French Control:
(i) Simplified administrative divisions.
(ii) Abolished feudal system.
(iii) Freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
(iv) In towns, guild restrictions were removed.
(v) Transport and communication system improved.
(i) Napoleonic Code, alternatively called as 'French Civil Code of 1804', defined the concept of equality before the law.
(ii) The code helped decimate the feudal system that was plaguing Europe during the French revolution. It did away with all privileges based on birth and established equality before the law.
(iii) This code consists of revolutionary principles which uphold the ideas of liberty, fraternity and equality. At many places, the code simplified the administrative divisions, abolished feudal systems and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
(iv) The code helped in removing the guild restrictions from the towns which was in fact a great relief for the citizens.
(v) The code aimed to simplify all the laws and bring them into a system. The civil code gave post-revolutionary France its first coherent set of laws concerning property, colonial affairs, the family, and individual rights.
(vi) The code improved the transport and communication systems, standardised weights and measures and introduced a common national currency which was appreciated by the peasants, partisan workers and businessmen of France.
Explain any three provisions of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815.
Ans. Provisions of Treaty of Vienna (1815):
(i) Bourbon dynasty was restored to power in France.
(ii) France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(iii) The kingdom of Netherlands was set up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south.
(iv) Prussia was given new territories on its western frontiers.
(v) Austria was given control of northern Italy.
(vi) Russia was given a part of Poland and Prussia was given a part of Saxony.
Q.21. Discuss the various stages of the Non- cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi. (3 marks)
Ans. Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages:
1st Stage - Surrender of titles that the government awarded.
2nd Stage - Boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative, councils, schools, and foreign goods.
3rd Stage - Then, in case the government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched.
Q.22. “Manufacturing sector is considered as the backbone of economic development of the country ”. Support the statement with examples. (3 marks)
Ans. The economic strength of a country lies in the development of manufacturing industries because :
(i) Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture which forms the backbone of our economy.
(ii) It reduces the heavy dependence of people on the agriculture sector and creates jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
(iii) It is necessary for the removal of unemployment and poverty.
(iv) It brings down regional disparities.
(v) Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and enhances prosperity.
(vi) It brings much needed foreign exchange.
Q.23. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family –should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
23.1 Which of the following statements correctly describes European conservative ideology? (1 Mark)
A. Preservation of beliefs introduced by Napoleon
B. Preservation of two sects of Christianity
C. Preservation of socialist ideology in the economic sphere
D. Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
23.2 Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815 from the following options? (1 Mark)
A. To declare competition of German unification
B. To restore conservative regime in Europe
C. To declare war against France
D. To start the process of Italian Unification
23.3. What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option. (1 Mark)
A. To re-establish peace and stability in Europe
B. To establish socialism in Europe
C. To introduce democracy in France
D. To set up a new Parliament in Austria
23.4 How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option. (1 Mark)
A. With the restoration of the Bourbon Dynasty
B. Austria was not given control of Northern Italy
C. Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
D. By giving power to the German confederation
Q.24. Read the text given below and answer the following questions.
Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors. Industrial development is a precondition for the eradication of unemployment and poverty in our country. This was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and brings in much needed foreign exchange. Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of a higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible. Agriculture and industry are not exclusive to each other. They move hand in hand. For instance, the agro-industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
24.1. Manufacturing industries fall in _________ and agriculture in ___________ . (1 Mark)
A. Primary, Secondary Sector
B. Secondary, Tertiary Sector
C. Primary, Tertiary Sector
D. Secondary, Primary Sector
24.2. Manufacturing provides job opportunities to reduce dependence on agriculture. Identify which sector the following jobs belong to (1 Mark)
Choose the correct option –
A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
C. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-2
D. a-4, b-1, c-4, d-3
24.3. Which of the following options does not help in modernising agriculture? (1 Mark)
A. Manufacturing farm equipment
B. Providing unskilled labour force
C. Supplying fertilizers and pesticides
D. Producing tube well pumps and sprinklers
24.4. In order to attract foreign manufacturing firms, a country needs to develop - (1 Mark)
A. Agrarian facilities
B. Cultivable lands
C. Media facilities
D. Infrastructure facilities
Q.25. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects them all. Therefore, the most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. Some people think that democracy produces less effective government. It is, of course, true that non-democratic rulers are very quick and efficient in decision making and implementation, whereas, democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. So, some delay is bound to take place. But, because it has followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more effective. Moreover, when citizens want to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures, they can find this out. They have the right and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency. This factor is often missing from a non-democratic government. There is another aspect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives: a democratic government is a legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive, or clean. But a democratic government is the people’s own government.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
25.1. People’s right to choose their own rulers is called the – (1 Mark)
A. Right to Initiate
B. Right to Plebiscite
C. Right to Vote
D. Right to Referendum
25.2. Which of the following options helps in promoting transparency in governance? (1 Mark)
A. Right to education
B. Right to information
C. Right against exploitation
D. Right to speech and expression
25.3. __________________________ make/s the government legitimate. (1 Mark)
A. Credibility of politicians
B. People’s movements
C. Free and fair elections
D. Holding of powers
25.4. Decisions in a democracy are more acceptable to the people because they are - (1 Mark)
A. Taken swiftly and implemented quickly
B. Taken by giving privileges to the people
C. Taken through elites’ votes
D. Taken after following due processes
Q.26. Read the source given below and answer the following questions -
Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2004, Ford Motors was selling 27,000 cars in the Indian markets, while 24,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico and Brazil. The company wanted to develop Ford India as a component supplying a base for its other plants across the globe.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
26.1. The passage given above relates to which of the following options? (1 Mark)
A. Increased employment
B. Foreign investment
C. Foreign collaboration
D. International competition
26.2. According to the given passage, Ford Motors can be termed as a Multi-National Company based on which of the following options? (1 Mark)
A. Production of different types of automobiles
B. Largest automobile manufacturer in the world
C. Because of largescale exports of cars across the globe
D. Industrial and commercial ventures across the globe
26.3. By setting up their production plants in India, Ford Motors wanted to – (1 Mark)
A. Collaborate with a leading Indian Automobile company
B. Satisfy the demands of American, African and Indian markets
C. Tap the benefits of low-cost production and a large market
D. Take over small automobile manufacturing units in India
26.4. ‘Ford Motors' wish to develop Ford India as a component supplying a base for its other plants across the globe is evidence of - (1 Mark)
A. Promoting local industries of India
B. Merging trade from different countries
C. Supplying jobs to factory workers in India
D. Interlinking of production across countries
Q.27. Describe the incident and impact of the Jallianwala Bagh. (5 Mark)
Ans. Incident and Impact of the Jallianwala Bagh :
On 13th April 1919, a large crowd gathered in Jallianwala Bagh.
Some of them had come to protest against the government's new repressive measures and others had come to attend the Baisakhi fair.
General Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds to create a feeling of terror.
(i) As the news spread, crowd took to the streets in North Indian towns.
(ii) There were strikes, clashes with police.
(iii) Attacks on government buildings.
(iv) The government responded with brutal repression to terrorise people.
(v) Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses on the ground.
(vi) People were flogged and villages were bombed.
(vii) The British violated the freedom of speech and expression.
Why was the `Salt March’ considered an effective symbol of resistance against colonialism? Explain.
Ans. Salt March :
(i) Salt was consumed by all the sections of the society.
(ii) It was the most essential item of food.
(iii) The tax on salt and the government monopoly overproduction.
(iv) Gandhiji found salt as a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.
(v) On 31 January 1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands.
(vi) The idea was to make the demands wide-ranging so that all classes within Indian society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign.
(vii) The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
Q.28. Name the two most important cereal crops grown in India. Describe the conditions required to grow these two crops. (5 Mark)
Ans. The main cereal crops: Rice & Wheat
Conditions for growing rice :
(i) High temperature above 25°C.
(ii) High humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cms.
(iii) Important Kharif crop.
Conditions for growing wheat :
(i) Rainfall 50-75 cms.
(ii) Low temperature with bright sunshine.
(iii) Important Rabi crop.
Rice and wheat are the two most important cereal crops grown in India.
(i) Rice: This crop is grown well in a hot and moist climate. The geographical conditions required for rice cultivation are :
Temperature: 16°C - 27°C and rainfall 100 cm to 200 cm are ideal for rice growing. But rainfall during harvest time is harmful. Annual coverage temperature around 24°C is ideal.
Soil: Rice is grown well on the alluvial soil or on the fertile river basins. It is also growing n in mixed soil or loamy and clayey soil.
Land: Plain lands or gentle slopes are suitable for the production of rice. Because stagnancy of water is a must for the cultivation of rice. Plenty of cheap labour is also required for the production of rice. HYV seeds, plenty of chemical manure, irrigation water, can produce more rice, and
(ii) Wheat: Wheat is the 2 most important food crop of India. It is the crop of the temperate region. In India, it is grown in winter. It is more dependent on climate than soil. The geographical conditions required for wheat cultivation are mentioned below :
Temperature: Wheat requires 14 °C to 18 °C temperature. High temperature is harmful for the cultivation of wheat.
Rainfall: 50 cm to 100 cm rainfall is required for wheat cultivation. In the primary stage, cold moisture-rich climate and at the time of harvesting, bright hot climate is required.
Soil: Fertile alluvial soil or mixed soil is ideal for wheat cultivation.
Land: Plain lands or gentle slopes are ideal for wheat cultivation.
Plenty of labour along with fertilizers, irrigation facilities, HYV seeds like Heera, Moti, RR-8 Kaly-an, etc. and mechanized farming is good for wheat production. Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat followed by Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Bihar.
Q.29. Explain with examples the accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony. (5 Mark)
Ans. The accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony:
(i) The path of accommodation was adopted in Belgium.
(ii) Dutch and French-speaking ministers got an equal share in the Central Government.
(iii) Many powers of the Central Government have been given to the State Government.
(iv) The State Government was not subordinate to the Central Government.
(v) Brussels has a separate government in which both communities have equal representation.
(vi) There is a third kind of government called Community Government elected by the people belonging to Dutch, French and German no matter where they live.
The main elements of the power-sharing model evolved in Belgium are :
(i) Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the Central Government. Some special laws require the support of the majority of members from each linguistic group. Thus, no single community can make decisions unilaterally.
(ii) Many powers of the central government have been given to State Governments of the two regions of the country. The State Governments are not subordinated to the Central Government.
(iii) Brussels has a separate government in which both communities have equal representation. The French-speaking people accepted equal representation in Brussels because the Dutch-speaking community has accepted equal representation in the Central Government.
(iv) Apart from the central and the state governments, there is a third kind of government called the Community Government.
(v) The community government is elected by people belonging to one language community—Dutch, French and German-speaking. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language issues.
Q.30. Describe the necessity of political parties in democratic countries. (5 Mark)
Ans. "Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy" because :
(i) Without political parties, democracies cannot exist.
(ii) If we do not have political parties, in such a situation every candidate in elections will be independent.
(iii) No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.
(iv) The government may be formed but its utility will remain uncertain.
(v) Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in their locality.
(vi) But no one will be responsible for how the country will run.
(vii) The role of an opposition party in a democracy necessitates the existence of political parties.
(viii) As societies become large and complex, they also need some agencies to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government, that's why political parties are needed.
Describe the efforts to reform political parties in India.
Ans. Effective measures to reform political parties are :
(i) A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties.
(ii) It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of their members.
(iii) It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets, about 1/3rd to its women candidates.
(iv) There should be a quota for women in the decision making bodies of the party.
(v) There should be state funding of elections.
(vi) The government should give parties money to support their election expenses in kind: petrol, paper, telephone, etc., or in cash.
(vii) Vote casting should be made compulsory in each election.
(viii) Data regarding caste and religion, OBC, SC, ST should not be utilized during the election period in any form.
Q.31. Why do multinational corporations (MNCs) set up their offices and factories in certain areas only? Explain any five reasons. (5 Mark)
Ans. Offices and factories of MNC's.
(i) Availability of raw material.
(ii) Availability of skilled and unskilled labour at low costs.
(iii) Availability of other factors of production is assured like electricity, etc.
(iv) Smaller companies are available.
(v) Where government policies are favourable to investors.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
Following are five reasons why multinational corporations set up their offices and factories in certain areas only:
(i) MNCs set up their companies in areas where they get cheap labour.
(ii) A large industry or a company means far more productivity, so, they need more labour and it will be just their benefit to get cheap labour.
(iii) They select areas with a high level of resources so that they can cut off the rate of transportations to an extent.
(iv) By choosing an area that is full of natural resources they can easily set up plants.
(v) By this, they can also provide their products to their consumers more efficiently and with more profit while cutting the costs involved in this.
In recent years how our markets have been transformed? Explain with examples.
Ans. Markets have been transformed in recent years :
(i) We have a wide choice of goods and services before us.
(ii) The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by the
leading manufacturers of the world are within our reach now.
(iii) Example: every season new models of automobiles can be seen on Indian roads.
(iv) Today, Indians are buying cars produced by nearly all the top companies in the world.
(v) A similar explosion of brands can be seen for many other goods; from shirts to televisions to processed fruit juices.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION
32.1 Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them
A. Indian National Congress session at this place in 1927
B. Mahatma Gandhi organized a Satyagraha Movement at this place for indigo planters (2 Marks)
32.2 On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable Symbols.
a. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam
b. Namrup Thermal Plant
c. Bengaluru Software Technology Park
d. Vishakhapatnam Port
e. Naraura Nuclear Power Plant (3 Marks)
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.
Attempt any FIVE questions.
32.1 Name the State where the session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1920. (1 Marks)
32.2 Name the State where the movement of Indigo planters was started. (1 Marks)
32.3 Name the State where the Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred. (1 Marks)
32.4 Name the State where Sardar Sarovar Dam is located. (1 Marks)
32.5 Name the State where Bhilai Iron and Steel plant is located. (1 Marks)
32.6 Name the State where Pune Software Technology Park is located. (1 Marks)
32.7 Name the State where Kochi ‘Sea Port’ is located. (1 Marks)