Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) 2012 GATE Paper with solution GATE Notes | EduRev

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GATE : Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF) 2012 GATE Paper with solution GATE Notes | EduRev

 Page 1


 
GATE 2012 Online Examination 
TF : TEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE  
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only 
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated 
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.  
 
2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the 
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view 
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the 
examination. 
 
3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the 
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on 
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button 
next to the selected option. 
 
 
4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other 
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a 
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.   
 
6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. 
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30.  For all 1 
mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark 
will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, 
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for 
wrong answer to the second question.  
 
9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the 
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided. 
 
10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination. 
________________________________________________________________________________________ 
 
DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet. 
 
Registration Number 
TF 
      
 
 
Name  
Signature  
 
Verified that the above entries are correct. 
                                    Invigilator’s signature: 
 
 
Page 2


 
GATE 2012 Online Examination 
TF : TEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE  
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only 
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated 
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.  
 
2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the 
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view 
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the 
examination. 
 
3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the 
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on 
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button 
next to the selected option. 
 
 
4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other 
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a 
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.   
 
6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. 
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30.  For all 1 
mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark 
will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, 
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for 
wrong answer to the second question.  
 
9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the 
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided. 
 
10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination. 
________________________________________________________________________________________ 
 
DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet. 
 
Registration Number 
TF 
      
 
 
Name  
Signature  
 
Verified that the above entries are correct. 
                                    Invigilator’s signature: 
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 2/9
 
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 
Q.1 The fibre which has a mineral origin is 
(A) Asbestos (B) Silk (C) Flax (D) Acrylic 
 
Q.2 The chemical that is used to convert soda cellulose to sodium cellulose xanthate in the manufacture 
of viscose rayon is 
(A) Carbon disulphide (B) Sodium xanthate 
(C) Sodium sulphide (D) Sodium hydroxide 
 
Q.3 The fibre that will float on water is 
(A) Nylon (B) Polyester (C) Acrylic (D) Polypropylene 
 
Q.4 The range of spinning speed (m/min) used in the manufacture of partially oriented polyester yarn is  
(A) 1000 - 1200  (B) 2000 - 2500 
(C) 2800 - 3500  (D) 4000 - 6000  
 
Q.5 Drawing of synthetic filament does not lead to an increase in 
(A) Crystallinity (B) Tenacity 
(C) Tensile modulus (D) Elongation at break 
 
Q.6 In a card, the wire point density is maximum on  
(A) Cylinder (B) Flat (C) Doffer (D) Licker-in 
 
Q.7 The spinning system that does not generate false twist during spinning is 
(A) Ring spinning (B) DREF 3 (C) Rotor spinning  (D) Air jet spinning  
 
Q.8 Most of the seed coat particles are removed in  
(A) Blow room (B) Card (C) Comber  (D) Draw frame  
 
Q.9 An eccentric top roller in a drafting system leads to  
(A) Change in draft with oscillation of nip line 
(B) Change in draft without oscillation of nip line 
(C) Neither change in draft nor oscillation of nip line 
(D) Oscillation of nip line only 
 
Q.10 The increase in traveller weight leads to an increase in  
(A) Yarn twist 
(B) Traveller lag 
(C) Balloon diameter 
(D) Yarn tension 
 
Q.11 Dog knot is preferred to weaver's knot during creeling because it is 
(A) Easier to make 
(B) Stronger  
(C) Smaller in size 
(D) Less prone to slippage 
 
Page 3


 
GATE 2012 Online Examination 
TF : TEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE  
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only 
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated 
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.  
 
2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the 
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view 
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the 
examination. 
 
3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the 
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on 
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button 
next to the selected option. 
 
 
4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other 
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a 
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.   
 
6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. 
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30.  For all 1 
mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark 
will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, 
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for 
wrong answer to the second question.  
 
9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the 
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided. 
 
10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination. 
________________________________________________________________________________________ 
 
DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet. 
 
Registration Number 
TF 
      
 
 
Name  
Signature  
 
Verified that the above entries are correct. 
                                    Invigilator’s signature: 
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 2/9
 
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 
Q.1 The fibre which has a mineral origin is 
(A) Asbestos (B) Silk (C) Flax (D) Acrylic 
 
Q.2 The chemical that is used to convert soda cellulose to sodium cellulose xanthate in the manufacture 
of viscose rayon is 
(A) Carbon disulphide (B) Sodium xanthate 
(C) Sodium sulphide (D) Sodium hydroxide 
 
Q.3 The fibre that will float on water is 
(A) Nylon (B) Polyester (C) Acrylic (D) Polypropylene 
 
Q.4 The range of spinning speed (m/min) used in the manufacture of partially oriented polyester yarn is  
(A) 1000 - 1200  (B) 2000 - 2500 
(C) 2800 - 3500  (D) 4000 - 6000  
 
Q.5 Drawing of synthetic filament does not lead to an increase in 
(A) Crystallinity (B) Tenacity 
(C) Tensile modulus (D) Elongation at break 
 
Q.6 In a card, the wire point density is maximum on  
(A) Cylinder (B) Flat (C) Doffer (D) Licker-in 
 
Q.7 The spinning system that does not generate false twist during spinning is 
(A) Ring spinning (B) DREF 3 (C) Rotor spinning  (D) Air jet spinning  
 
Q.8 Most of the seed coat particles are removed in  
(A) Blow room (B) Card (C) Comber  (D) Draw frame  
 
Q.9 An eccentric top roller in a drafting system leads to  
(A) Change in draft with oscillation of nip line 
(B) Change in draft without oscillation of nip line 
(C) Neither change in draft nor oscillation of nip line 
(D) Oscillation of nip line only 
 
Q.10 The increase in traveller weight leads to an increase in  
(A) Yarn twist 
(B) Traveller lag 
(C) Balloon diameter 
(D) Yarn tension 
 
Q.11 Dog knot is preferred to weaver's knot during creeling because it is 
(A) Easier to make 
(B) Stronger  
(C) Smaller in size 
(D) Less prone to slippage 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 3/9
Q.12 Size add-on does not depend on 
(A) Roller hardness 
(B) Drying cylinder temperature 
(C) Size paste concentration 
(D) Machine speed 
 
Q.13 Ball warping is mainly used in the manufacture of 
(A) Terry towel 
(B) Narrow fabric 
(C) Denim 
(D) 3D fabric 
 
Q.14 The factor that does not influence the propelling force for moving the weft yarn on air jet loom is 
(A) Coefficient of friction between air and yarn 
(B) Air velocity 
(C) Yarn strength 
(D) Yarn diameter 
 
Q.15 In the context of thermal bonding of nonwoven web, the statement which is not true is 
(A) A thermoplastic component has to be present in the web 
(B) Heat is applied until the thermoplastic component melts 
(C) The polymer flows by surface tension and capillary action to fibre cross over points 
(D) Chemical reaction takes place 
 
Q.16 A 51 mm long fibre has 6 % crimp. The crimped length of the fibre in mm is approximately 
(A) 44 (B) 46 (C) 48 (D) 50 
 
Q.17 On a mass based evenness tester, thin place in a yarn at -40 % setting is counted if mass per unit 
length is 
(A) 40 % of the mean mass per unit length 
(B) 60 % of the mean mass per unit length 
(C) 40 % of the mean mass per unit length or less 
(D) 60 % of the mean mass per unit length or less 
 
Q.18 Ratio of grab strength to strip strength is the highest when fabric extension (%) is 
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10  (D) 15 
 
Q.19 Bursting strength of a woven fabric with the same warp and weft yarns is the highest when the ratio 
of ends/cm and picks/cm is 
(A) 1.1 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.9 (D) 0.8 
 
Q.20 Fabric abrasion resistance cannot be assessed by the loss in 
(A) Strength (B) Thickness (C) Weight (D) Air permeability 
 
Q.21 Bleached cotton fabric was sent to a laboratory for determination of Copper Number, which is an 
estimate of the presence of  
(A) Hydroxyl groups (B) Carboxyl groups 
(C) Reducing groups (D) Oxidizing groups 
 
 
Page 4


 
GATE 2012 Online Examination 
TF : TEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE  
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only 
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated 
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.  
 
2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the 
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view 
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the 
examination. 
 
3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the 
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on 
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button 
next to the selected option. 
 
 
4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other 
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a 
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.   
 
6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. 
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30.  For all 1 
mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark 
will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, 
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for 
wrong answer to the second question.  
 
9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the 
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided. 
 
10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination. 
________________________________________________________________________________________ 
 
DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet. 
 
Registration Number 
TF 
      
 
 
Name  
Signature  
 
Verified that the above entries are correct. 
                                    Invigilator’s signature: 
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 2/9
 
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 
Q.1 The fibre which has a mineral origin is 
(A) Asbestos (B) Silk (C) Flax (D) Acrylic 
 
Q.2 The chemical that is used to convert soda cellulose to sodium cellulose xanthate in the manufacture 
of viscose rayon is 
(A) Carbon disulphide (B) Sodium xanthate 
(C) Sodium sulphide (D) Sodium hydroxide 
 
Q.3 The fibre that will float on water is 
(A) Nylon (B) Polyester (C) Acrylic (D) Polypropylene 
 
Q.4 The range of spinning speed (m/min) used in the manufacture of partially oriented polyester yarn is  
(A) 1000 - 1200  (B) 2000 - 2500 
(C) 2800 - 3500  (D) 4000 - 6000  
 
Q.5 Drawing of synthetic filament does not lead to an increase in 
(A) Crystallinity (B) Tenacity 
(C) Tensile modulus (D) Elongation at break 
 
Q.6 In a card, the wire point density is maximum on  
(A) Cylinder (B) Flat (C) Doffer (D) Licker-in 
 
Q.7 The spinning system that does not generate false twist during spinning is 
(A) Ring spinning (B) DREF 3 (C) Rotor spinning  (D) Air jet spinning  
 
Q.8 Most of the seed coat particles are removed in  
(A) Blow room (B) Card (C) Comber  (D) Draw frame  
 
Q.9 An eccentric top roller in a drafting system leads to  
(A) Change in draft with oscillation of nip line 
(B) Change in draft without oscillation of nip line 
(C) Neither change in draft nor oscillation of nip line 
(D) Oscillation of nip line only 
 
Q.10 The increase in traveller weight leads to an increase in  
(A) Yarn twist 
(B) Traveller lag 
(C) Balloon diameter 
(D) Yarn tension 
 
Q.11 Dog knot is preferred to weaver's knot during creeling because it is 
(A) Easier to make 
(B) Stronger  
(C) Smaller in size 
(D) Less prone to slippage 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 3/9
Q.12 Size add-on does not depend on 
(A) Roller hardness 
(B) Drying cylinder temperature 
(C) Size paste concentration 
(D) Machine speed 
 
Q.13 Ball warping is mainly used in the manufacture of 
(A) Terry towel 
(B) Narrow fabric 
(C) Denim 
(D) 3D fabric 
 
Q.14 The factor that does not influence the propelling force for moving the weft yarn on air jet loom is 
(A) Coefficient of friction between air and yarn 
(B) Air velocity 
(C) Yarn strength 
(D) Yarn diameter 
 
Q.15 In the context of thermal bonding of nonwoven web, the statement which is not true is 
(A) A thermoplastic component has to be present in the web 
(B) Heat is applied until the thermoplastic component melts 
(C) The polymer flows by surface tension and capillary action to fibre cross over points 
(D) Chemical reaction takes place 
 
Q.16 A 51 mm long fibre has 6 % crimp. The crimped length of the fibre in mm is approximately 
(A) 44 (B) 46 (C) 48 (D) 50 
 
Q.17 On a mass based evenness tester, thin place in a yarn at -40 % setting is counted if mass per unit 
length is 
(A) 40 % of the mean mass per unit length 
(B) 60 % of the mean mass per unit length 
(C) 40 % of the mean mass per unit length or less 
(D) 60 % of the mean mass per unit length or less 
 
Q.18 Ratio of grab strength to strip strength is the highest when fabric extension (%) is 
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10  (D) 15 
 
Q.19 Bursting strength of a woven fabric with the same warp and weft yarns is the highest when the ratio 
of ends/cm and picks/cm is 
(A) 1.1 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.9 (D) 0.8 
 
Q.20 Fabric abrasion resistance cannot be assessed by the loss in 
(A) Strength (B) Thickness (C) Weight (D) Air permeability 
 
Q.21 Bleached cotton fabric was sent to a laboratory for determination of Copper Number, which is an 
estimate of the presence of  
(A) Hydroxyl groups (B) Carboxyl groups 
(C) Reducing groups (D) Oxidizing groups 
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 4/9
Q.22 Malachite Green is an important dyestuff. The typical green colour is obtained when the dye 
molecule is  
(A) Nonionic 
(B) Cationic 
(C) Anionic 
(D) Made up of phenyl groups 
 
Q.23 A typical curve between equilibrium dye uptake and dyeing temperature goes through a maximum. 
After the maximum, the dye uptake decreases because 
(A) Kinetic energy increases rapidly  
(B) Pressure in the dye bath increases 
(C) Saturation value is reached 
(D) Dyeing is an exothermic process 
 
Q.24 The efficacy of the wash-n-wear treatment can be estimated by measuring its 
(A) Bending length 
(B) Tensile strength  
(C) Dye uptake 
(D) Crease recovery 
 
Q.25 Softener reduces the bending rigidity of fabrics by decreasing 
(A) Inter-fibre and inter-yarn friction 
(B) Modulus of the fibres 
(C) Glass transition temperature of the fibres 
(D) Packing coefficient of yarns 
 
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. 
Questions Q.26 to Q.30 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is 
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places. 
 
Q.26 The density of a given polyester filament sample is 1.38 g/cm
3
. Consider the density of fully 
crystalline polyester as 1.455 g/cm
3
 and that of fully amorphous polyester as 1.335 g/cm
3
. The 
percent crystallinity of the sample is ________. 
 
Q.27 Cleaning efficiency of the opening roller in a rotor spinning machine, having 56 mm diameter rotor,  
is 80 %. The yarn breaks when the trash deposition within the rotor groove crosses the threshold of 
1 mg/mm. If a sliver with 0.4 % trash is fed at 7.5 g/min, the number of end breaks  in 1 hr (to the 
nearest whole number) is ________. 
 
Q.28 In a projectile weaving machine the projectile travels a total distance of 250 cm at an average 
velocity of 25 m/s. If the time period during which it is in motion occupies half of the loom cycle, 
the maximum loom speed in picks per minute is ________. 
 
Q.29 A 225 denier viscose yarn has a breaking strength of 7.5 N. The yarn tenacity in cN/dtex is 
________. 
Page 5


 
GATE 2012 Online Examination 
TF : TEXTILE ENGINEERING AND FIBRE SCIENCE  
Duration: Three Hours                          Maximum Marks: 100 
Read the following instructions carefully. 
 
1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only 
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated 
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.  
 
2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the 
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view 
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the 
examination. 
 
3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the 
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on 
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button 
next to the selected option. 
 
 
4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours. 
 
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other 
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a 
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.   
 
6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks 
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The 
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first 
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then 
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 
 
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. 
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.   
 
8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. 
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30.  For all 1 
mark questions, ? mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ? mark 
will be deducted for each wrong answer.  However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, 
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for 
wrong answer to the second question.  
 
9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the 
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided. 
 
10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination. 
________________________________________________________________________________________ 
 
DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet. 
 
Registration Number 
TF 
      
 
 
Name  
Signature  
 
Verified that the above entries are correct. 
                                    Invigilator’s signature: 
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 2/9
 
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each. 
Q.1 The fibre which has a mineral origin is 
(A) Asbestos (B) Silk (C) Flax (D) Acrylic 
 
Q.2 The chemical that is used to convert soda cellulose to sodium cellulose xanthate in the manufacture 
of viscose rayon is 
(A) Carbon disulphide (B) Sodium xanthate 
(C) Sodium sulphide (D) Sodium hydroxide 
 
Q.3 The fibre that will float on water is 
(A) Nylon (B) Polyester (C) Acrylic (D) Polypropylene 
 
Q.4 The range of spinning speed (m/min) used in the manufacture of partially oriented polyester yarn is  
(A) 1000 - 1200  (B) 2000 - 2500 
(C) 2800 - 3500  (D) 4000 - 6000  
 
Q.5 Drawing of synthetic filament does not lead to an increase in 
(A) Crystallinity (B) Tenacity 
(C) Tensile modulus (D) Elongation at break 
 
Q.6 In a card, the wire point density is maximum on  
(A) Cylinder (B) Flat (C) Doffer (D) Licker-in 
 
Q.7 The spinning system that does not generate false twist during spinning is 
(A) Ring spinning (B) DREF 3 (C) Rotor spinning  (D) Air jet spinning  
 
Q.8 Most of the seed coat particles are removed in  
(A) Blow room (B) Card (C) Comber  (D) Draw frame  
 
Q.9 An eccentric top roller in a drafting system leads to  
(A) Change in draft with oscillation of nip line 
(B) Change in draft without oscillation of nip line 
(C) Neither change in draft nor oscillation of nip line 
(D) Oscillation of nip line only 
 
Q.10 The increase in traveller weight leads to an increase in  
(A) Yarn twist 
(B) Traveller lag 
(C) Balloon diameter 
(D) Yarn tension 
 
Q.11 Dog knot is preferred to weaver's knot during creeling because it is 
(A) Easier to make 
(B) Stronger  
(C) Smaller in size 
(D) Less prone to slippage 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 3/9
Q.12 Size add-on does not depend on 
(A) Roller hardness 
(B) Drying cylinder temperature 
(C) Size paste concentration 
(D) Machine speed 
 
Q.13 Ball warping is mainly used in the manufacture of 
(A) Terry towel 
(B) Narrow fabric 
(C) Denim 
(D) 3D fabric 
 
Q.14 The factor that does not influence the propelling force for moving the weft yarn on air jet loom is 
(A) Coefficient of friction between air and yarn 
(B) Air velocity 
(C) Yarn strength 
(D) Yarn diameter 
 
Q.15 In the context of thermal bonding of nonwoven web, the statement which is not true is 
(A) A thermoplastic component has to be present in the web 
(B) Heat is applied until the thermoplastic component melts 
(C) The polymer flows by surface tension and capillary action to fibre cross over points 
(D) Chemical reaction takes place 
 
Q.16 A 51 mm long fibre has 6 % crimp. The crimped length of the fibre in mm is approximately 
(A) 44 (B) 46 (C) 48 (D) 50 
 
Q.17 On a mass based evenness tester, thin place in a yarn at -40 % setting is counted if mass per unit 
length is 
(A) 40 % of the mean mass per unit length 
(B) 60 % of the mean mass per unit length 
(C) 40 % of the mean mass per unit length or less 
(D) 60 % of the mean mass per unit length or less 
 
Q.18 Ratio of grab strength to strip strength is the highest when fabric extension (%) is 
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10  (D) 15 
 
Q.19 Bursting strength of a woven fabric with the same warp and weft yarns is the highest when the ratio 
of ends/cm and picks/cm is 
(A) 1.1 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.9 (D) 0.8 
 
Q.20 Fabric abrasion resistance cannot be assessed by the loss in 
(A) Strength (B) Thickness (C) Weight (D) Air permeability 
 
Q.21 Bleached cotton fabric was sent to a laboratory for determination of Copper Number, which is an 
estimate of the presence of  
(A) Hydroxyl groups (B) Carboxyl groups 
(C) Reducing groups (D) Oxidizing groups 
 
 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 4/9
Q.22 Malachite Green is an important dyestuff. The typical green colour is obtained when the dye 
molecule is  
(A) Nonionic 
(B) Cationic 
(C) Anionic 
(D) Made up of phenyl groups 
 
Q.23 A typical curve between equilibrium dye uptake and dyeing temperature goes through a maximum. 
After the maximum, the dye uptake decreases because 
(A) Kinetic energy increases rapidly  
(B) Pressure in the dye bath increases 
(C) Saturation value is reached 
(D) Dyeing is an exothermic process 
 
Q.24 The efficacy of the wash-n-wear treatment can be estimated by measuring its 
(A) Bending length 
(B) Tensile strength  
(C) Dye uptake 
(D) Crease recovery 
 
Q.25 Softener reduces the bending rigidity of fabrics by decreasing 
(A) Inter-fibre and inter-yarn friction 
(B) Modulus of the fibres 
(C) Glass transition temperature of the fibres 
(D) Packing coefficient of yarns 
 
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. 
Questions Q.26 to Q.30 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is 
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places. 
 
Q.26 The density of a given polyester filament sample is 1.38 g/cm
3
. Consider the density of fully 
crystalline polyester as 1.455 g/cm
3
 and that of fully amorphous polyester as 1.335 g/cm
3
. The 
percent crystallinity of the sample is ________. 
 
Q.27 Cleaning efficiency of the opening roller in a rotor spinning machine, having 56 mm diameter rotor,  
is 80 %. The yarn breaks when the trash deposition within the rotor groove crosses the threshold of 
1 mg/mm. If a sliver with 0.4 % trash is fed at 7.5 g/min, the number of end breaks  in 1 hr (to the 
nearest whole number) is ________. 
 
Q.28 In a projectile weaving machine the projectile travels a total distance of 250 cm at an average 
velocity of 25 m/s. If the time period during which it is in motion occupies half of the loom cycle, 
the maximum loom speed in picks per minute is ________. 
 
Q.29 A 225 denier viscose yarn has a breaking strength of 7.5 N. The yarn tenacity in cN/dtex is 
________. 
2012                                                                                                                                                                  TEXTILE ENGG. & FIBRE SCIENCE –  TF   
TF 5/9
Q.30 In an experiment, 1 g each of the mercerized and unmercerized fabric samples are separately treated 
in 30 ml of 0.25N barium hydroxide solution for the required time. 10 ml of these solutions are 
drawn and titrated against 0.1N HCl solution. The volumes of HCl consumed at the end of these 
titrations are m for mercerized and u for unmercerized cases.  If  
Barium Activity Number (BAN) = [(b-m)/(b-u)]×100, 
where m=18 ml, u=20 ml and b is the volume of HCl consumed in the blank titration, then the BAN 
value for the above mercerized sample is ________. 
 
Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type. 
 
Q.31 Consider the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]  
 
[a] M is an orthogonal matrix, but not a skew-symmetric matrix. 
 
?
?
?
?
?
?
?
?
?
?
? ?
? - ? =
cos sin 0
sin cos 0
0 0 1
M 
 
[r] Because M
T
 = M
-1
 and M
T 
? -M. 
 
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the above Assertion [a] and Reason [r] 
(A) [a] is right [r] is wrong 
(B) [a] is right [r] is right 
(C) [a] is wrong [r] is right 
(D) [a] is wrong [r] is wrong 
 
Q.32 A beaker contains 50 cc of an aqueous dye solution of concentration c (w/v). 25 cc of this solution 
is removed and replaced by 25 cc of distilled water. This process is repeated five more times. The 
final concentration of the solution is 
(A) c (B) 
5
2
1
?
?
?
?
?
?
c (C) 
6
2
1
?
?
?
?
?
?
c (D) 
7
2
1
?
?
?
?
?
?
c 
 
Q.33 Assume that the rate of evaporation of moisture from a wet fabric during drying process is 
proportional to the amount of moisture present in the fabric. If 50 % of the moisture is evaporated 
in the first 5 minutes then the time (min) taken to evaporate 90 % of the moisture is approximately  
(A) 9 (B) 17 (C) 22 (D) 33 
 
Q.34 The number of neps in a carded web follows Poisson distribution with a mean of 100 per m
2
. The 
probability that there is no nep in an area of 645 cm
2
 is  
(A) e
-6.45
 (B) e
6.45
 (C) e
-645
 (D) e
645
 
 
Q.35 A yarn of 24 mm length has a varying cross-section. The values of the cross-sectional area of yarn 
(mm
2
), measured at equal intervals of 4 mm from one end are 
0.09,      0.12,      0.14,      0.15,      0.16,      0.13,      0.11 
The volume of yarn (mm
3
) estimated by using Simpson's 1/3 rule of numerical integration is 
(A) 2.40 (B) 2.80 (C) 3.20 (D) 3.36 
 
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