Class 9 Exam  >  Class 9 Notes  >  Social Studies (SST) Class 9  >  Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper Term I - 1 (With Solutions)

Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper Term I - 1 (With Solutions) | Social Studies (SST) Class 9 PDF Download

Class - IX
Time: 90
Max. Marks: 40

General Instructions:

1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case-based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map-based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.

Section - A

Q.1: The main activity of the village of Palampur is:
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Farming
(c) Dairy farming
(d) Cattle rearing 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Farming is the main activity of the village of Palampur.


Q.2: The full form of GNP is:
(a) Gross National Performance
(b) Green National Project
(c) Gross National Product
(d) Green Nation People
 

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Full form of GNP is Gross National Product. Gross national product is the market value of all the products and services produced in one year by labour and property supplied by the citizens of a country.


Q.3: Which Pakistan General led a military coup in October 1999?
(a) Nawaz Sharif
(b) None of these
(c) Ayub Khan
(d) Parvez Musharraf
 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
In Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf led a military coup in October 1999.


Q.4: Nelson Mandela remained in prison for treason for about:
(a) 26 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 27 years
(d) 25 years 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Nelson Mandela spent the next 27 years in South Africa’s most dreaded prison, Robben Island.


Q.5: Two Treatises of Government was written by:
(a) Rousseau
(b) Montesquieu
(c) John Locke
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Two Treatises of Government was written by John Locke. In this, he has sought to refute the doctrine of the divine and absolute right monarch.


Q.6: Passive citizens of France were:
(a) Only men above 25 years
(b) Only propertied women
(c) Only propertied men
(d) Men and women who didn't vote 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage were given the status of active citizens, that is, they were entitled to vote. The remaining men and all women were classed as passive citizens.


Q.7: The region that is renewed every year is ideal for intensive agriculture
(a) Kankar
(b) Bhabar
(c) Khadar
(d) Terai 

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.8: People of Palampur sell milk in the nearby large village named
(a) Siliguri
(b) Raiganj
(c) Pitampura
(d) Shahpur 

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.9: Quarrying and mining are included in the:
(a) Government sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Primary sector 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Quarrying and mining are included in the primary sector.


Q.10: The famous political party of Mexico was:
(a) Revolutionary party
(b) Chinese Communist party
(c) Institutional Revolutionary party
(d) People’s party
 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
In Mexico, until 2000 every election was won by a party called PRI (Institutional Revolutionary Party)


Q.11: Who did not have the right to vote in Saudi Arabia?
(a) Non-residents
(b) Propertied men
(c) Non-propertied men
(d) Women 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
There are many instances of denial of equal right to vote. For example: In Saudi Arabia, women did not have the right to vote. Women were previously forbidden from voting in all elections or being elected to any political office, but in 2011 King Abdullah allowed women to vote in the 2015 local municipal elections and be appointed to the Consultative Assembly.


Q.12: Marseilles is a:
(a) Militia
(b) National anthem of France
(c) Representative of the third estate
(d) Political club
 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Marseilles, composed by the poet Roget de L’Isle. It was sung for the first time by volunteers from Marseilles as they marched into Paris and so got its name. The Marseillaise is now the national anthem of France.


Q.13: Directory means:
(a) An executive made up of five members
(b) Addresses of the Legislative Council
(c) List of names
(d) Formed by the military dictator 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
A new constitution was introduced which denied the vote to non-propertied sections of society. It provided for two elected legislative councils. These then appointed a Directory, an executive made up of five members.


Q.14: Which of the following continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
(a) North America and Europe
(b) Europe and Africa
(c) Asia and South Africa
(d) Australia and South America 

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.15: Two major factors of production are:
(a) Labour and land
(b) Land and capital
(c) Land and technology
(d) Capital and labour
 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Land and capital are two major factors of production.


Q.16: An activity performed for profit or for services provided can be termed as:
(a) Formal activity
(b) Market activity
(c) Professional activity
(d) Non-market activity 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Activity performed for pay or profit is called Market activity. These include production of goods or services including government service.


Q.17: Which party of Zimbabwe helped its country to gain independence?
(a) None of these
(b) Zimbabwe party
(c) Popular party
(d) ZANU-PF
 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in 1980. Since then the country has been ruled by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle.


Q.18: Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated in:
(a) Battle of Paris
(b) Battle of Ecuador
(c) Battle of Plassey
(d) Battle of Waterloo 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Napoleon Bonaparte was finally defeated at Waterloo in 1815.


Q.19: Why Bastille was hated by people?
(a) It stood for the despotic power of the clergy.
(b) It stood for the despotic power of the citizens.
(c) It stood for the despotic power of the military.
(d) It stood for the despotic power of the king.
 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Bastille was hated by all, because it stood for the despotic power of the king. The fortress was demolished and its stone fragments were sold in the markets to all those who wished to keep a souvenir of its destruction.


Q.20: The easternmost longitude of India is
(a) 97° 25' E
(b) 77° 6' E
(c) 82° 32' E
(d) 68° 7' E 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The Easternmost longitude of India is 97° 25' E.


Q.21: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a significant step towards providing education to all children in the age group:
(a) 6-14 years
(b) 5-10 years
(c) 10-15 years
(d) 5-14 years
 

Correct Answer is Option (a)
It aims to provide compulsory and free elementary education to all children between the age of 6-14 years.


Q.22: What capital is needed to set up a jaggery manufacturing unit?
(a) Physical capital
(b) Working capital
(c) Fixed Capital
(d) Recurring capital 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Working capital is needed to set up a jaggery manufacturing unit.


Q.23: When people appear to be employed, this kind of unemployment is called:
(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Educated unemployment
(d) All of these 

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Disguised unemployment: In this situation, more people are engaged in work than required. They all appear to be employed. It is also called Hidden unemployment.


Q.24: During which period did China record its worst famines in the world's history?
(a) 1935-39
(b) 1952-55
(c) 1958-61
(d) 1943-46

Correct Answer is Option (c)
China’s famine of 1958-1961 was the worst recorded famine in world history. Nearly three crore people died in this famine.


Section - B

Q.25: Which one of these is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy?
(a) Transportation
(b) Agriculture
(c) Service
(d) Industries

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Agriculture is the most labor absorbing sector of the economy. 


Q.26: The storming of the Bastille occurred on the morning of?
(a) 26 January 1789
(b) 15 July 1789
(c) 14 July 1789
(d) 15 August 1789

Correct Answer is Option (c)
On the morning of 14 July 1789, the city of Paris was in a state of alarm. The king had commanded troops to move into the city. Rumors spread that he would soon order the army to open fire upon the citizens. Some 7,000 men and women gathered in front of the town hall and decided to form a people’s militia. They broke into a number of government buildings in search of arms.


Q.27: What is the Old Regime?
(a) The society and institutions of France before 1789
(b) The period when the storming of the Bastille occurred
(c) The period when the French society divided into a different estate.
(d) The society and institutions of France after 1789

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The term Old Regime is usually used to describe the society and institutions of France before 1789.


Q.28: The Northern Plain has been formed by:
(a) Red Soil
(b) Black Soil
(c) Alluvial Soil
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.29: If more than two crops are grown on the same piece of land during a year, it is called:
(a) Green Revolution
(b) Modern Farming
(c) Subsistence Farming
(d) Multiple Cropping

Correct Answer is Option (d)
If more than two crops are grown on the same piece of land during a year, it is called: Multiple Cropping


Q.30: Which work, done mostly by women, is not considered in the National Income
(a) Household work
(b) Work done in a private company
(c) Teaching work in schools
(d) Own business work

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Women are not paid for the services or household work delivered in the family. So, household work is not considered in the National Income.


Q.31: What are the features of democracy?
(a) One person, one vote, one value
(b) Free and fair electoral competition
(c) Major decisions by elected leaders
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)
These all are the features of a good democracy. Without these features one country cannot be a good democratic country.


Q.32: Whom did Louis XVI get married to?
(a) Olympe de Gouges
(b) Marie Antoinette
(c) Marie de Medicis
(d) Nanine Vallain

Correct Answer is Option (b)
In 1774, Louis XVI of the Bourbon family of kings ascended the throne of France. He was 20 years old and married to the Austrian princess Marie Antoinette.


Q.33: Assertion (A): A chain of events followed in France and people in the city and countryside were rioting.
Reason (R): Most of them were protesting against the high price of bread.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Followed by the demolition of Bastille in July 1789, France saw more rioting both in Paris and the countryside. Most people were protesting against the high price of bread. It was the beginning of a chain of events that ultimately led to the execution of the king in France, though most people at the time did not anticipate this outcome.


Q.34: Which of the following is not the reason for empty treasure?
(a) Food supplies to the ordinary citizens.
(b) The cost of maintaining an extravagant court.
(c) To meet its regular expenses.
(d) Long years of war.

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Long years of war had drained the financial resources of France. Added to this was the cost of maintaining an extravagant court at the immense palace of Versailles. To meet its regular expenses, such as the cost of maintaining an army, the court, running government offices or universities, the state was forced to increase taxes.


Q.35: The eastward extension of the Central Highlands are known as:
(a) Maikal range and Mahadev hills
(b) Chota Nagpur plateau
(c) Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand
(d) Aravali range

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The Central Highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the east. The eastward extensions of this plateau are locally known as the Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand.


Q.36: Raw material and money in hand are called:
(a) Fixed Capital
(b) Human Capital
(c) Working Capital
(d) Variable Capital

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Raw material and money in hand are called Working Capital.


Q.37: 1st estate comprised of which group?
(a) Monarchs
(b) Big businessmen
(c) Nobility
(d) Clergy

Correct Answer is Option (d)
1st estate comprised of Clergy


Q.38: 2nd estate comprised of which group?
(a) Clergy
(b) Lawyers
(c) Big businessmen
(d) Nobility

Correct Answer is Option (d)
2nd estate comprised of Nobility


Q.39: Assertion (A): Under Louis XVI, the Third Estate demanded voting in the Estates-General should be conducted by the assembly as a whole.
Reason (R): They followed the democratic principles of the Social Contract Theory.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Voting in the Estates-General in the past had been conducted according to the principle that each estate had one vote. This time too Louis XVI was determined to continue the same practice. But members of the third estate demanded that voting now be conducted by the assembly as a whole, where each member would have one vote. This was one of the democratic principles put forward by philosophers like Rousseau in his book The Social Contract. When the king rejected this proposal, members of the third estate walked out of the assembly in protest.


Q.40: 3rd estate comprised of which group?
(a) Big businessmen
(b) Nobility
(c) Monarchs
(d) Clergy

Correct Answer is Option (a)
3rd estate comprised of Big businessmen


Q.41: The region that lies above the floodplain of the rivers and presents a terrace-like feature is known as
(a) Bhangar
(b) Bhabar
(c) Khadar
(d) Terai

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Q.42: Which Kharif crop is grown during the rainy season?
(a) Millets
(b) Jawar
(c) Sugar
(d) Rice

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Jowar Kharif crop is grown during the rainy season


Q.43: In the secondary sector which of the following is the most labour absorbing?
(a) Mining
(b) Quarrying
(c) Trade
(d) Small scale manufacturing

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Small scale manufacturing is the most labour absorbing sector of the secondary sector.


Q.44: What is the name of the Chinese parliament?
(a) National Congress
(b) National People's Congress
(c) Congress
(d) Communist Congress

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Chinese parliament is called Quanguo Renmin Daibiao Dahui(National People's Congress)


Q.45: Assertion (A): The makers of the Constitution saw it as a sacred, static and unalterable law.
Reason (R): The Constitution has to be in accordance with people’s aspirations and changes in society.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The Constitution of India is a very long and detailed document. Therefore it needs to be amended quite regularly to keep it updated. Those who crafted the Indian Constitution felt that it has to be in accordance with people’s aspirations and changes in society. They did not see it as a sacred, static and unalterable law. So, they made provisions to incorporate changes from time to time. These changes are called constitutional amendments.


Q.46: What was the unit of currency in France, that was discontinued in 1794?
(a) Livre
(b) Taille
(c) Pound
(d) Tithe

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Livre was the unit of currency in France, discontinued in 1794


Section - C

Question No. 47 to 52 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
The landmass of India has an area of 3.28 million square km. India’s total area accounts for about 2.4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world. India is the seventh-largest country in the world. India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km and the total length of the coastline of the mainland, including Andaman and Nicobar, and Lakshadweep is 7,516.6 km. India is bounded by the young fold mountains in the northwest, north, and northeast. South of about 22° north latitude, it begins to taper and extends towards the Indian Ocean, dividing it into two seas, the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on its east. The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland is about 30°. Despite this fact, the east-west extent appears to be smaller than the north-south extent. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a time lag of two hours. Hence, time along the Standard Meridian of India passing through Mirzapur is taken as the standard time for the whole country. The latitudinal extent influences the duration of day and night, as one moves from south to north.
Q.47: What is being indicated in the given graph?
Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper Term I - 1 (With Solutions) | Social Studies (SST) Class 9

(a) Largest countries of the world
(b) Populated countries of the world
(c) Smallest countries in the world
(d) Developed countries of the world 

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Q.48: What is the Standard Meridian of India?
(a) 68°7’ E
(b) 37°4’ E
(c) 82°30' E
(d) 97°25’ E 

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.49: In the northwest, north, and northeast, India is surrounded by ________.
(a) Islands
(b) Oceans
(c) Mountains
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.50: Identify the incorrect option with respect to India:
(a) India’s mainland latitudinal and longitudinal extents are around 30 degrees.
(b) India’s latitudinal extent influences the duration of day and night, as one moves from south to north.
(c) India appears to be smaller in the north-south direction than in the east-west direction.
(d) India is the world's seventh-largest country.

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The east-west extent appears to be smaller than the north-south extent. i.e India appears to be smaller in the east-west direction than in the north-south direction.


Q.51: Assertion (A): The east-west extent appears to be smaller than the north-south extent.
Reason (R): There is a variation in latitudinal and longitudinal extensions of the Indian landmass.
(a) A is incorrect but R is correct
(b) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct but R is incorrect 

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland is almost equal (about 30°).


Q.52: Find the common link in each group and fill in the blank accordingly. Duration of the day: Latitude:: ________: Longitude
(a) Rainfall of a place
(b) Duration of night
(c) Time of a place
(d) Climate of a place

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Question No. 53 to 58 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
In Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf led a military coup in October 1999. He overthrew a democratically elected government and declared himself the ‘Chief Executive’ of the country. Later he changed his designation to President and in 2002 held a referendum in the country that granted him a five-year extension. Pakistani media, human rights organizations, and democracy activists said that the referendum was based on malpractices and fraud. In August 2002 he issued a ‘Legal Framework Order’ that amended the Constitution of Pakistan. According to this Order, the President can dismiss the national and provincial assemblies. The work of the civilian cabinet is supervised by a National Security Council which is dominated by military officers. After passing this law, elections were held to the national and provincial assemblies. So Pakistan has had elections, elected representatives have some powers. But the final power rested with military officers and General Musharraf himself. Clearly, there are many reasons why Pakistan under General Musharraf should not be called a democracy. People may have elected their representatives to the national and provincial assemblies but those elected representatives were not really the rulers. They cannot make the final decisions. The power to take final decisions rested with army officials and with General Musharraf, and none of them were elected by the people. This happens in many dictatorships and monarchies. They formally have an elected parliament and government but the real power is with those who are not elected. In a few countries, the real power was with some external powers and not with locally elected representatives.
This cannot be called people’s rule.
Q.53: What is the meaning of Referendum?
(i) Direct vote in which the entire electorate is asked to either accept or reject a particular proposal
(ii) A form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people
(iii) A system where the majority of elected representatives are allowed to take decisions on behalf of all the people
(iv) All of these
(a) Option (iii)
(b) Option (iv)
(c) Option (ii)
(d) Option (i)

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Direct vote in which the entire electorate is asked to either accept or reject a particular proposal


Q.54: Assertion (A): Pakistan is not considered a democratic country even after having elections
Reason (R): Despite elections to the national and provincial assemblies, the final powers rested with General Musharraf and military officers.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Q.55: After the passage of the ________, elections were held to the national and state assemblies.
(a) Referendum
(b) Legal Framework Order
(c) Both (Military rule) and (Legal Framework Order)
(d) Military rule 

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.56: Does the given source explain the significance of the which feature of democracy?
(a) Democracy must be based on a free and fair election
(b) In a democracy, the final decision-making power must rest with those elected by the people
(c) In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote
(d) Democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens' rights

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.57: Fill in the blank accordingly in the context of final power. Monarchy : ________ :: ________ : Elected Representative
(a) Kings; Monarchy
(b) External Body; Oligarchy
(c) King; Democracy
(d) Local Representative; Dictatorship 

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Monarchy: King:: Democracy: Elected representative


Q.58: Consider the following changes in Pakistan after August 2002. Choose the incorrect one:
(a) The President could dismiss the national and provincial assemblies.
(b) Elected representatives had the ultimate powers.
(c) National Security Council supervised the civilian cabinet.
(d) Military officers dominated the National Security Council.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The final power rested with military officers and General Musharraf himself.


Section - D

Q.59: On the given map of India, A is marked as the latest Union Territory formed after the bifurcation of an existing state which has also become a UT.
Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper Term I - 1 (With Solutions) | Social Studies (SST) Class 9

(a) Telangana 
(b) Jammu & Kashmir 
(c) Ladakh 
(d) Chandigarh

Correct Answer is Option (c)
On 31 October 2019, Jammu and Kashmir state was split into two new Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.


Q.60: On the physical map, A is marked as the northern part of the Western Coastal Plain, it is also called the Mumbai-Goa coast. Identify it from the following options.
Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper Term I - 1 (With Solutions) | Social Studies (SST) Class 9

(a) Kannad Plain
(b) Malabar Coast
(c) Coromandel Coast
(d) Konkan Coast

Correct Answer is Option (d)

The document Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper Term I - 1 (With Solutions) | Social Studies (SST) Class 9 is a part of the Class 9 Course Social Studies (SST) Class 9.
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1. What is the importance of sample question papers in Class 9 SST?
Ans. Sample question papers in Class 9 SST are important as they help students understand the exam pattern, marking scheme, and types of questions that can be expected in the actual exam. They serve as a practice tool to assess students' knowledge and preparation level.
2. How can sample question papers help in preparing for the Class 9 SST exam?
Ans. Sample question papers provide students with an opportunity to practice solving different types of questions, understand the concepts better, and identify areas where they need improvement. By solving these papers, students can build confidence and develop effective exam strategies.
3. Are the solutions provided in the sample question papers accurate and reliable?
Ans. Yes, the solutions provided in the sample question papers are accurate and reliable. They are prepared by subject experts who have deep knowledge of the subject and the exam pattern. These solutions help students understand the correct approach to solving the questions and also provide explanations where necessary.
4. Can sample question papers be used as the sole study material for the Class 9 SST exam?
Ans. No, sample question papers should not be used as the sole study material for the Class 9 SST exam. While they are a valuable resource for practice and self-assessment, students should also refer to their textbooks, notes, and other study materials for a comprehensive understanding of the subject. Sample question papers should be used in conjunction with other learning resources.
5. How should students make the best use of sample question papers for the Class 9 SST exam?
Ans. To make the best use of sample question papers for the Class 9 SST exam, students should first attempt the questions on their own without referring to the solutions. After completing the paper, they can compare their answers with the provided solutions and identify their mistakes. They should then analyze the areas where they made errors and revise those topics accordingly. Regular practice with sample question papers can significantly improve students' performance in the actual exam.
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