Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper Term II - 1 (With Solutions) | Social Studies (SST) Class 9 PDF Download

Class: IX

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E. 
• All questions are compulsory. 
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words. 
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words. 
• Section-C: Q uestion no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words. 
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions. 
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks). 
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted. 
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Q.1. Describe the views of Radicals.

The views of Radicals are as follows: 
(i) The Radicals wanted to bring about immediate social change in Russia.
(ii) They wanted to form a government based on the majority of country ’s population.
(iii) They were against private properties.

Q.2. How does relief affect the flora and fauna of any region?

Relief include both land and soil which vastly effects the flora and fauna of  a region.      

• Land affects the natural vegetation directly. The fertility of land determines the quality of vegetation. The plains are mostly fertile leading to the growth of crops on it, while grassland and woodlands are developed over uneven land.      
• Soil also plays a vital role in determining the flora and fauna of an area. Dry and sandy soil of deserts supports plants like cactus and thorny bushes while marshy lands, swamps and deltas are suitable for the growth of mangroves.

Q.3. Describe any two important features of the Mahanadi Basin.

(i) The Mahanadi rises in Chhattisgarh. It flows through Odisha, for 860 km till it falls into the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) It’s basin is shared by Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha.

Q.4. According to our Election Laws, which two things should be kept in mind during the election campaign?

During the Election Campaign the focus should be: 
(i) No party or candidate should try to bribe or threaten voters.
(ii) No one should use or exploit government resources.

 Q.5. (a) List any two main problems faced by the poor people.
(b) Who are the poorest of the poor?  

(a) Two main problems faced by poor people are: 
(i) Lack of food and shelter.
(ii) Lack of clean water and sanitation facilities.  
(b) Women, children, especially the girl child and elder people in a poor family are regarded as the poorest of the poor because they are systematically denied equal access to resources available to the family.  

Q.6. Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating hatred for Jews.

Films were made to create hatred for the Jews. The film, ‘The Eternal Jew ’, showed the Jews with flowing beards and dressed in kaftans. The Jews were referred to as vermin, rats and pests. Nazi propaganda compared the Jews to rodents.
Orthodox Jews were stereotyped as killers of Christ and money lenders. Stereotypes about Jews were even popularised media. Visual images, radio, posters, leaflets etc. were used. Children were taught to hate the Jews. The Nazi propaganda against the Jews was so effective that people felt anger and hatred surge inside them when they saw someone who looked like a Jew.

Q.7. A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option: Each one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you, which one would you choose and why?

If the choice was given to me, I would choose to have a majority in Lok Sabha because of the following reasons: 

• The members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the voters of the country and represents the will of the people. 
• Money Bills can originate only in the Lok Sabha. 
• Lastly, the leader of political party which is in majority in Lok Sabha will be appointed as the Prime Minister, i.e., the most powerful person of the country.

Under what conditions can a State of Emergency be declared in India? Explain

A State of Emergency can be declared under the following conditions:
(i) In case of external aggression or armed rebellion.
(ii) If the government machinery of a state breaks down.
(iii) If there is a threat to the financial stability of the country. Under these circumstances the President can impose a State of Emergency and this is called President’s Rule.

Q.8. What are the main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005?

The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides assured employment of 100 days in a year to every rural household in 200 districts. Later, the scheme will be extended to 600 districts. One-third of the proposed jobs would be reserved for women.
The central government will also establish National Employment Guarantee Funds. Similarly, state governments will establish State Employment Guarantee Funds for the implementation of the scheme.           

• The Act assures 100 days of employment every year to every rural household. 
• It is also aimed at sustainable development to address the cause of drought, deforestation and soil erosion. 
• The share of SCs, STs and women is 23 percent, 17 percent and 53 per cent respectively. 
• Under this, the average wage has increased from ₹ 65 in 2006-07 to ₹ 132 in 2013-14. 
• The wage rate for unskilled manuals workers has been revised recently in March 2018, state-wise. 
• The scheme provided employment to 220 cores person-days of employment to 4.78 cores household. 

Q.9. Describe the procedure for nomination of candidates for election in India. 

(i) Any one, who can be a voter, can also become a candidate in elections. Political parties nominate their candidates who get party symbol and support. Party‘s nomination is often called ‘Party Ticket‘.
(ii) Every person who wishes to contest an election has to fill a ‘Nomination form‘ and give some money as a ‘security deposit‘.
(iii) Recently, a new system of declaration has been introduced on direction from the Supreme Court. Every candidate has to make a legal declaration, giving full details of:

• Se rious criminal cases pending against the candidate,
• De tails of the assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family, and
• Ed ucational qualifications of the candidate.

(iv) This information has to be made public.
(v) This provides an opportunity to the voters to make their decision based on the information provided by candidates. 

Explain the composition of the Union Council of Ministers. 

The Union Council of Ministers comprises of the three categories of Ministers. These are:
(i) Cabinet Ministers: They constitute the inner ring of the Council of Ministers. These are the top level leaders of the ruling party/parties who are in charge of the important ministries. They usually meet to take decisions in the name of the Council of Ministers.
(ii) Ministers of State with Independent Charge: They are usually in charge of smaller ministries. They participate in the cabinet meetings only when they are invited. 

(iii) Ministers of State: They are attached to and are required to assist the Cabinet Ministers.
(iv) It is headed by the Prime Minister.
(v) Council of Ministers is the official name for the body that includes all the Ministers. It usually has  60 to 80 Ministers of different ranks.

Q.10. Describe the global poverty trends.

Number of people living in extreme poverty has fallen from 25 percent in the year 1990 to 21 percent in the year 2001.
(i) Poverty has declined substantially in China and South East Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth.
(ii) The number of poor has fallen from 606 million in 1981 to 212 million in 2001.
(iii) In some countries of South Asia (India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh and Bhutan), the fall has been marginal.
(iv) In Sub-Saharan Africa, poverty actually rose from 41 percent in 1981 to 46 percent in 2001. Poverty has declined in most regions of the World like China, East Asia and Pacific, South Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean. Poverty in China, East Asia and Pacific regions has declined more rapidly than in South Asia. The rapid decline in poverty in China, East Asia and Pacific is associated with rapid economic growth and huge investments in Human Resource Development in these regions.
The Poverty ratio for India as per the World Bank standard appears higher than our National estimate of 26%. In the United Nations Millennium Summit held in September 2002, leaders from 189 countries signed a declaration pledging to reduce the number of people living below $1 a day to half of its 1990 figure by 2015.

Do you think that present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate? 

The present methodology of poverty estimation does not look appropriate. It only takes one factor in view and that is the economic factor. Moreover, it considers about a “minimum” subsistence level of living rather than a “reasonable” level of living.

Poverty has many dimensions. It is no longer confined to economic factors alone. With development, the definitions of what constitutes poverty also changes. Its concept has broadened to Human Poverty.
A few persons may have been able to feed themselves but if they are without education, without shelter, without health-care, without job security, without self-confidence, without social equality, they are considered poor.

If poverty is to be removed in real sense and the people are to be brought above the poverty line, then not only that we need to increase their income but also, we have to provide the people with education, shelter, healthcare, job-security, respect and dignity. 

Q.11. Read the following paragraph and questions that follow: 
The year 1904 was a particularly bad one for Russian workers. Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that real wages declined by 20 percent. The membership of Workers’ Associations rose dramatically. When four members of the Assembly of Russian Workers, which had been formed in 1904, were dismissed at the Putilov Iron Works, there was a call for industrial action. Over the next few days over 110,000 workers in St. Petersburg went on strike demanding a reduction in the working day to eight hours, an increase in wages and improvement in working conditions. When the procession of workers led by Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace it was attacked by the police and the Cossacks. Over 100 workers were killed and about 300 wounded. The incident, known as Bloody Sunday, started a series of events that became known as the 1905 revolution. Strikes took place all over the country and Universities closed down when student bodies staged walkouts, complaining about the lack of civil liberties. Lawyers, doctors, engineers and other middle-class workers established the Union of Unions and demanded a Constituent Assembly.
(i) In the year 1904, real wages of Russian Workers declined by ______.  
(ii) At St. Petersburg, 11000 workers in the strike were demanding a reduction upto what duration in the working hours? 
(iii) What is Bloody Sunday?

(i) 20%
(ii) Eight hours
(iii) The procession of workers led by Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace where it was attacked by the police and the Cossacks. Over 100 workers were killed and about 300  wounded. The incident, known as Bloody Sunday, started a series of events that came to be known as the 1905 Revolution.

Q.12. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: 
Our country India is one of the 12 mega bio-diversity countries of the world. With about 47,000 plant species, India occupies tenth place in the world and fourth in Asia in plant diversity. There are about 15,000 flowering plants in India, which account for 6 per cent in the world’s total number of flowering plants. The country has many non-flowering plants, such as ferns, algae and fungi. India also has approximately 90,000 species of animals, as well as, a rich variety of fish in its fresh and marine waters.
Natural vegetation refers to a plant community, which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time. This is termed as virgin vegetation. Thus, cultivated crops and fruits, orchards form part of vegetation, but not natural vegetation.
(i) India occupies ______ place in the world and ______ place in Asia in plant diversity. 
(ii) What is meant by Exotic Plants? 
(iii) What is the meaning of Natural Vegetation?

(i) India occupies tenth place in the world and fourth place in Asia in plant diversity.

(ii) Plants that have come from outside India are termed as Exotic Plants.
(iii) Natural vegetation refers to a plant community, which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time.

Q.13. On the given outline World Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it. 
(a) This country along with England, Russia and USA formed Allied Powers in World War I.

(a) France

(b) Locate and label the following items on the given outline map of India: 
(i) Pulicat Lake 
(ii) Corbett National Park

Gir National Park

(i) Pulicat lake (ii) Corbett National park OR Gir National Park