Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper- 3 (With Solutions) PDF Download

Social Science
Time : 3 Hours
M.M.: 80

General Instructions :
1. Question paper comprises five Sections - A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A : Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B : Question no. 17 to 22 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
4. Section C : Question no. 23 to 26 are Source Based Questions, carrying 4 marks each.
5. Section D : Question no. 27 to 31 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E : Question no. 32 is Map Based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
8. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section - A

Q.1. Identify the following image :    (1 Mark)

Ans: Lenin addressing workers in April 1917.

Q.2. What was the main objective of the drafted Constitution of 1791?    (1 Mark)
Ans. The main objective was to limit the powers of the monarch.

OR
What term was given for the mass persecution of the Jews?
Ans. Holocaust

Q.3. If you want to visit Lakshadweep during your winter holidays, which water body would you have to cross?    (1 Mark)
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) the Arabian Sea
(c) the Red Sea
(d) the Andaman Sea
Ans. (b) the Arabian Sea

Q.4. In what form of government, the citizens have no right to decision-making?    (1 Mark)
Ans. Non-Democratic form of government.

Q.5. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question:
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option: (1)
Assertion (A): Hitler was empowered to sideline Parliament and rule by decree.
Reason (R): The Enabling Act of 1935 established democracy in Germany.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct, but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct.
Ans. c

Q.6. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt the Constitution of India?    (1 Mark)
(a) 26th November 1949
(b) 26th December 1948
(c) 26th January 1950
(d) 26th June 1947
Ans. (a) 26th November 1949.

Q.7. Choose the correct option from column A and B.    (1 Mark)

Ans. (b) Sunderbans (1989) - West Bengal

Q.8. Fill in the blank :    (1 Mark)
The radicals wanted a nation in which government was based on the _________of a country’s population.
(a) Minority
(b) Majority
(c) Equality
(d) All the above
Ans. Majority

Q.9. Choose the correct option from column A and B.    (1 Mark)

Ans. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan - Universalization of Secondary education.

Q.10. Fill in the blank :    (1 Mark)
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Indian Constitution on _____________.
Ans. 26th November 1949

OR
The process by which a candidate tries to persuade the voter to vote for him is called _________.
Ans. Campaigning

Q.11. Identify the forest’s name by reading the information given below:    (1 Mark)
(a) These forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats and the island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman Nicobar, upper parts of Assam and Tamil Nadu coast.
(b) They have 200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season.
(c) The trees reach a great height up to 60 metres or even above.
Ans. Tropical Evergreen Forests.

Q.12. What is Disguised Unemployment? (1)
(a) It is a state in which a person is willing and able to work at prevailing wages, but his productivity is very high.
(b) It is a state in which a person is willing and able to work at prevailing wages, but his productivity is zero.
(c) It is a state in which a person is willing and able to work at prevailing wages, but his productivity is low.
(d) It is a state in which a person has work only for a few months in a year.
Ans. b

Q.13. Fill in the blank :    (1 Mark)
_________ is an essential input for the growth of a person.
(a) Wealth
(b) Knowledge
(c) Education
(d) Success
Ans. c

Q.14. Give the full form of REGP. (1)
(a) Rural Employment Generation Programme.
(b) Rural Employed Generation Programme.
(c) Rural Employment Generating Programme.
(d) Rural Employment Generation Programme.
Ans. a

Q.15. Fill in the blank:    (1)
Relief in a region includes the _________and the ___________ type found there.
(a) weather, climate
(b) water, soil
(c) land, soil
(d) water, air
Ans. c

Q.16. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question:   (1 Mark)
Directions For the Question: In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes below:
Assertion (A): Evergreen forests are found in the Western Ghats, Lakshadweep Islands, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, upper parts of Assam and on Tamil Nadu coast.
Reason (R): As the region is warm and wet throughout the year, it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds – trees, shrubs and creepers, giving it a multilayered structure.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.
Ans. a

Section - B

Q.17. Describe any three changes that took place in the year 1904 in Russia.    (3 Mark)
Ans. Three changes in Russia in 1904 were :
(i) Prices of essential goods raised so quickly that real wages declined by 20%.
(ii) The membership of the workers’ association rose dramatically.
(iii) Four Assembly of Russian Workers were dismissed at the Putilov Iron Works.
(iv) Over 110,000 workers in St. Petersburg went on strike demanding a reduction in working hours to eight hours, increasing wages and improving working conditions.

OR
Explain Stalin’s measures to solve the problem of acute shortages of grains?
Ans. (i) Stalin confiscated supplies to prevent rich peasants and landlords from indulging in black marketing.
(ii) Kulaks were raided.
(iii) Collective farms system known as Kolkhoz was introduced.
(iv) Party members supervised and enforced grain collection.

Q.18. Explain Lenin’s ‘April Theses’. What were its effects on the party members?    (3 Mark)
Ans. Demands of ‘April Theses' were :
(i) Lenin returned to Russia from exile and felt that it was time for the Soviets to take overpower. He declared that war is brought to a close, land be transferred to the peasants, and banks nationalised. He also argued to rename Bolshevik Party as Communist Party.
(ii) Started planning on the uprising against the government with the army’s support.
(iii) Military Revolutionary Committee was scheduled to seize power and bring the city under control.
(iv) Initially, the members were surprised and thought that the time was not suitable for the socialist revolution, but the subsequent months’ developments changed their attitude.

OR
State one different idea of liberals, radicals and conservatives.
Ans. Different ideas were as follows:
(i) Liberals believed in changing society and thought that only propertied men should have the right to vote.
(ii) Radicals believed in the majority rule and supported women’s right to vote.
(iii) Conservatives approved both liberals and radicals. They accepted the change, though, even that the past has to be respected.

Q.19. Differentiate between convergent plates and divergent plates.    (3 Mark)
Ans.

Q.20. Explain any three salient features of democracy.    (3 Mark)
Ans. Salient features of democracy:
(i) Rulers elected by the people take all the significant decisions.
(ii) Elections offer people a choice and fair opportunity to change the current rulers. This choice and opportunity are available to all people on an equal basis.
(iii) This choice’s exercise leads to a government limited by the constitution’s basic rules and citizens’ rights.

Q.21. Write any three effects of economic growth on the people of India.    (3 Mark)
Ans. (i) Over 30 years lasting up to the early 1980s, there was little per capita income growth and not much poverty reduction.
(ii) Official poverty estimates, which were about 45 per cent in the early 1950s, remained the same even in the early eighties.
(iii) Since the 1980s, India’s economic growth has been the fastest globally.
(iv) The growth rates jumped from about 3.5 per cent a year in the 1970s to about 6 per cent during the 1980s and 1990s.
(v) The higher growth rates have helped significantly in the reduction of poverty.

Q.22. Distinguish between market and non-market activities with three points of distinction.    (3 Mark)
Ans.

Section - C

Q.23. Read the source given below and answer the following questions :    (4 Mark)
In May 1945, Germany surrendered to the Allies. Anticipating what was coming, Hitler, his propaganda minister Goebbels and his entire family committed suicide collectively in his Berlin bunker in April. At the end of the war, an International Military Tribunal at Nuremberg was set up to prosecute Nazi war criminals for Crimes against Peace, War Crimes and Crimes Against Humanity. During the war, Germany’s conduct, especially those that came to be called Crimes Against Humanity, raised tough moral and ethical questions and invited worldwide condemnation. What were these acts?

Under the shadow of the Second World War, Germany had waged a genocidal war/which resulted in the mass murder of selected groups of innocent civilians of Europe. The number of people killed included 6 million Jews, 200,000 Gypsies, 1 million Polish civilians, 70,000 Germans considered mentally and physically disabled, and innumerable political opponents. Nazis devised an unprecedented means of killing people, that is, by gassing them in various killing centres like Auschwitz. The Nuremberg Tribunal sentenced only eleven, leading Nazis to death. Many others were imprisoned for life. The retribution did come, yet the punishment of the Nazis was far short of the brutality and extent of their crimes. The Allies did not want to be as harsh on defeated Germany as they had been after the First World War.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
23.1. When did Germany surrender to the Allies?
(a) In July 1945
(b) In May 1945
(c) In March 1945
(d) In June 1945
Ans. b

23.2. Killing on a large scale of people leading to destruction is called :
(a) Accidental War
(b) Suicidal War
(c) Genocidal War
(d) Artificial War
Ans. c

23.3. In 1941, Allied power of the UK and France were also joined by the :

(a) USSR and Japan
(b) Japan and China
(c) Italy and Germany
(d) USSR and USA
Ans. d

23.4. Which category of people was the biggest victim of the Nazis?
(a) Gipsies
(b) Jews
(c) Polish Civilians
(d) Mentally and physically disabled Germans
Ans. b 

Q.24. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:    (4 Mark)

India occupies an important strategic position in South Asia. India has 28 states and eight Union Territories. India shares its land boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan in the northwest, China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan in the north and Myanmar and Bangladesh in the east. Our southern neighbours across the sea consist of the two island countries, Sri Lanka and the Maldives. Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar, while the Maldives Islands are situated to the south of the Lakshadweep Islands. India has had strong geographical and historical links with its neighbours.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

24.1. Who are India’s neighbours in the north-west?
(a) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(b) Pakistan and China
(c) Myanmar and Bangladesh
(d) Afghanistan and Bhutan
Ans. a

24.2. Which two states of India share their land boundary with Bangladesh?(a) Rajasthan and Assam
(b) West Bengal and Jharkhand
(c) West Bengal and Assam
(d) Assam and Uttar Pradesh
Ans. c

24.3. What do we call a narrow channel of the sea which separates two landmasses?(a) Strait
(b) Gulf
(c) Peninsula
(d) Delta
Ans. a

24.4. My friend hails from a country that does not share a land boundary with India. Identify the country.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Tajikistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Ans. b

Q.25. Read the source given below and answer the following questions:
The rule of law and respect for rights Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in 1980. Since then, the country has been ruled by ZANU-PF, which led to the freedom struggle. Its leader, Robert Mugabe, ruled the country since independence. Elections were held regularly and consistently won by ZANU-PF. President Mugabe was popular but also used unfair practices in elections. Over the years, his government changed the constitution several times to increase the President’s powers and make him less accountable. Opposition party workers were harassed, and their meetings disrupted. Public protests and demonstrations against the government were declared illegal. There was a law that limited the right to criticise the President. The government-controlled television and radio and gave only the ruling party's version. There were independent newspapers, but the government harassed those journalists who went against it. The government ignored some court judgments that went against it and pressured judges. He was forced out of office in 2017.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

25.1. ZANU-PF was Zimbabwe's ____________________ Party. (1)
(a) Democratic Party
(b) Political Party
(c) Ruling Party
(d) Opposition Party
Ans. c

25.2. Who was Robert Mugabe? (1)
(a) Prime-Minister
(b) President
(c) Vice-President
(d) Governor-general
Ans. b

25.3. Which nation justifies the example that 'popular governments can be undemocratic'? (1)
(a) China
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) Pakistan
Ans. c

25.4. Whom did the Zimbabwe Government harass? (1)
(a) The Publishers
(b) The Reporters
(c) The Journalists
(d) The Editors
Ans. c

Q.26. Read the source given below and answer the following questions:   (4 Mark)

Vulnerability to poverty is a measure, which describes the greater probability of particular communities (say, members of a backward caste) or individuals (such as a widow or a physically disabled person) of becoming or remaining week in the coming years. Vulnerability is determined by the options available to different communities for finding an alternative living in terms of assets, education, health and job opportunities. Further, it is analysed based on the more significant risks these groups face at natural disasters (earthquakes, tsunami), terrorism, etc. Additional analysis is made of their social and economic ability to handle these risks. Vulnerability describes the greater probability of being more adversely affected than other people when a lousy time comes for everybody, whether a flood or an earthquake or simply a fall in jobs’ availability.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
26.1. Vulnerability is a measure to 
(a) Comfortable living
(b) Luxurious living
(c) Poverty
(d) Standard living
Ans. c

26.2. The group most vulnerable to people are:
(a) General Category
(b) Scheduled Castes and Tribes
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans. b

26.3. Vulnerable family members are:
(a) older adults
(b) Women
(c) Girl Child
(d) All of the above
Ans. d

26.4. Vulnerability is determined by the availability of options for
(a) Employment
(b) Education
(c) Healthcare
(b) All of the above
Ans. d

Section - D

Q.27. Describe any five significant events that led to the French Revolution’s outbreak.    (5 Mark)
Ans. Five important events that triggered the French Revolution were:
(i) Meeting of the Estates-General: Members of the Third Estate comprising peasants, artisans and women were denied entry to the Assembly, which Louis XVI called on 5th May 1789, to propose new taxes.
(ii) Demand for Universal Adult Franchise: Members of the Third Estate demanded each member’s power to vote. When the King rejected the demand, the Third Estate members walked out of the Assembly in protest.
(iii) Meeting of the newly formed National Assembly: The third Estate assembled in an indoor tennis court of Versailles and declared themselves the ‘National Assembly’. They believed in ending the feudal privileges of the nobles and clergy.
(iv) A revolt by the Peasants: When the countryside rumours spread that the ripe corns would be destroyed by hired bands of brigands who were on their way to eliminate the mature crops, peasants in several districts seized hoes and attacked the residences of their manors. They looted, hoarded grain and burnt down documents containing manorial dues records.
(v) Fall of Bastille Prison: The severe winters increased the price of bread hoarded in the market. Angry women attacked the shops. At the same time, the king ordered troops to move into Paris. On 14th July 1789, the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille.

OR
Explain Russia’s five socioeconomic conditions at the beginning of the twentieth century.
Ans. Socio-economic conditions of Russia :
(i) Social inequality was very prominent among the working class.
(ii) Economically, Russia was going through a challenging period.
(iii) The population had doubled, and the economic conditions turned from bad to worse.
(iv) Most people were agriculturists.
(v) Industries were found in pockets, and craftsmen undertook much of the production.
(vi) Most industries were the private properties of industrialists.
(vii) Workers were divided based on their occupation and skills.
(viii) Women made up 31 per cent of the factory labour, but they were paid less than men.(ix) Like workers, peasants, too, were divided.

Q.28. Describe any five features of Montane Forests of India.    (5 Mark)
Ans.
(i) In mountain areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to a corresponding change in natural vegetation, thus making a succession of natural vegetation belts.
(ii) The wet temperate type of forests is found between a height of 1000 and 2000 metres.
(iii) Evergreen broadleaf trees such as oaks and chestnuts predominate.
(iv) Between 1500 and 3000 metres, temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar are found.
(v) These forests cover the southern slopes of the Himalayas, places at high altitude in the south and North-east India.
(vi) At higher elevations, temperate grasslands are typical.
(vii) At high altitudes, generally more than 3600 metres above sea level, temperate forests and greens give way to the Alpine vegetation.
(viii) Silver fir, junipers, pines, and birches are the forest’s common trees.
(ix) These get progressively stunted as they approach the snow-line, ultimately merging into the Alpine grasslands.
(x) At higher altitudes, mosses and lichens form part of tundra vegetation.
(xi) The common animals found in these forests are Kashmir stag, spotted deer, wild sheep, jackrabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels, shaggy horn wild ibex, bear, rare red panda, sheep and goats with thick hair.

OR
Name two coastal strips of the Peninsular Plateau in India. Describe two characteristics of each.
Ans. Two coastal strips are:
(i) The Western coastal strip
(ii) The Eastern coastal strip

Characteristics of the Western Coastal strip:
(i) It is sandwiched between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.
(ii) It is a narrow plain.

Characteristics of the Eastern Coastal strip:
(i) This part is along the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) It is a broader plain.

Q.29. Describe the election procedure of the two houses of the Indian Parliament. List three areas where Lok Sabha enjoys supreme powers.    (5 Mark)
Ans. Election Procedure of the two houses of Parliament:
(i) The Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people and enjoys real power on behalf of the people.
(ii) The Rajya Sabha is elected indirectly and mainly looks after the interest of the regions or federal units.
The Lok Sabha enjoys supreme powers:
(i) If there is a joint session of the two houses, then the Lok Sabha will prevail due to its numerical supremacy.
(ii) In money matters, the Lok Sabha is supreme as the Rajya Sabha can only delay a money bill for 14 days or give suggestions.
(iii) The Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers through a ‘no-confidence motion’.

Q.30. What do you understand by-election? Explain the nomination process as practised in Indian elections.    (5 Mark)
Ans. Election: It is a process by which representatives get elected, further making policies and ruling our country.
Nomination Process:
(i) Party tickets are given.
(ii) The nomination form is filled.
(iii) Security amount is deposited.
(iv) Nomination papers are scrutinised.

Q.31. NREGA 2005 is an important anti-poverty programme. Explain.    (5 Mark)
Ans. NREGA stands for National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.

Following things were included in the scheme:
(i) It aims at providing 100 days of assured employment every year to every rural household.
(ii) It initially started for 625 districts, but later on, it was extended to all districts of India.
(iii) One-third of the proposed jobs were reserved for women.
(iv) The central government established National Employment Guarantee Funds, and the state government established State Employment Guarantee Funds for implementation of the scheme.
(v) If an applicant is not provided employment within 15 days, he/she will be entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.

OR
Give a brief account of inter-state disparities of poverty in India.
Ans. (i) Proportion of poor people is not the same in every state.
(ii) In 20 states and union territories, the poverty ratio is less than the national average.
(iii) In the states of Odisha, Bihar, Assam, Tripura and Uttar Pradesh, poverty is a severe problem. Along with rural poverty, urban poverty is also high in these states.
(iv) In the states like Kerala, Jammu and Kashmir, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, there is a significant decline in poverty.
(v) States like Punjab and Haryana have succeeded in reducing poverty with high agricultural growth rates.
(vi) In West Bengal, land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty.

Section - E

Q.32. (A) 1. On the given political map of the world, locate and label: Belgium
2. Identify the nation that was an allied power during World War II.

(B) 1. On the given political map of India, locate and label the following:
(i) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(ii) Konkan
2. Identify the river on the map.

Ans. (A) 1. Ref. to map work
2. The U.S.A.

(B) 1. Ref. to map work

2. River Tapi