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CBSE Sample Question paper - 02 Economics, Class 12 | Sample Papers for Class 12 Commerce PDF Download

Sample Question Paper (Set 2)
Subject: ECONOMICS (030)
Class XII (2016-17)


Time: 3 Hours, Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions:
All questions in both sections are compulsory. However, there is internal choice in
some questions.
Marks for questions are indicated against each question.
Question No.1-5 and 16-20 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each.
They are required to be answered in one sentence.
Question No.6-8 and 21-23 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.
Question No.9-11 and 24-26 are also short answer questions carrying 4 marks each.
Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.
Question No.12-15 and 27-30 are long answer questions carrying 6 marks each.
Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each
Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as
far as possible.


Section A: Microeconomics

Q1. When is a consumer said to be rational? (1)
Ans. A consumer is said to be ‘rational’ when he aims sat maximizing his utility from the consumption of the given commodity, within his money income.

Q2. Define normative economics, with a suitable example. (1)
Ans.
Economics as a ‘normative science’ deals with situations of value judgments or condition of ‘what ought to be’.
E.g. India should create more employment opportunities.

Q3. State the meaning of `quantity demanded of a commodity. (1)
Ans.
Quantity demanded is that quantity of a commodity which a consumer is willing and able to buy at a particular price and a given point of time.

Q4. If a firm’s production department data says that the total variable cost for producing 8 units and 10 units of output is 2,500 and 3,000 respectively, marginal cost of 10th unit
will be (1)
a. Rs 100
b.Rs 150
c.Rs 500
d.Rs 250
Ans.
(d) 250

Q5. State any one assumption for the construction of the curve that shows the possibilities of potential production of two goods in an economy. (1)
Ans.
Increasing marginal opportunity cost or any other valid assumption.

Q6. State the behavior of Marginal Physical Product, under Returns to a Factor. (3)
Ans.
i. MPP initially rises to its maximum
ii. MPP then decreases (stays positive) to become zero
iii. MPP becomes negative

Q7. Using appropriate schedules, briefly describe the determination of market equilibrium. (3)
Ans. 

Price (in K)

Demand (in units)

Supply (in units)

1

16

4

2

14

6

3

12

8

4

10

10

5

8

12

6

6

14

Schedule
Explanation – in the above schedule the market equilibrium is established at price of Rs 4 where the quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal, with equilibrium quantity of 10 units.
(Any other valid schedule with explanation is also correct).

Q8. “In a hypothetical market of mobile phones, the brand AWAAZ was leading the market share. Its nearest competitor VAARTA suddenly changed its strategy by
bringing in a new model of the mobile phone at a relatively lesser price. In response, AWAAZ too slashed its price.” (3)
Based on the above information, identify the form of market represented and discuss any one feature of the market.

Or
Discuss the primary reason for ‘indeterminateness of demand curve’ under the
oligopoly form of market.

Ans. The market in the question is ‘Oligopoly’. Explanation of any one Feature, say Price Rigidity.
Price rigidity is the tendency of oligopolistic firms to stick to the ongoing price of the product, with a view to avoid any sort of price war.
OR
Indeterminateness of Demand Curve: In an Oligopoly form of market no single firm can predict its prospective sales with perfection. This is because any given change in the price/output decision by a rival firm would initiate a series of actions, reactions and counter actions by others. Therefore, there is no certain nature and position of demand curve under this form of market for a firm.

Q9. a. Arrange the following coefficients of price elasticity of demand in ascending order: (4)
-0.7, -0.3, -1.1, -0.8
b. Comment upon the degree of elasticity of demand for Good X, using the total outlay method, if the price of X falls from ₹18 per unit to ₹13 per unit and its quantity
demanded rises from 50 units to 100 units.
Ans.
(a) Ascending order: -0.3, -0.7, -0.8, -1.1. (minus sign only represents the inverse relation between price and quantity demanded)
(b)

Price (in Rs.)

Quantity (in units)

Total outlay (in Rs.)

18

50

 

13

100

 

CONCLUSION: The given data shows an inverse relation between Px and Total outlay, thus as per the total expenditure method, Ed > 1.

Q10. Identify which of the following is not true for the Indifference Curves. Give valid reasons for choice of your answer: (4)
a. Lower indifference curve represents lower level of satisfaction.
b. Two regular convex to origin indifference curves can intersect each other.
c. Indifference curve must be convex to origin at the point of tangency with the budget line at the consumer’s equilibrium.
d. Indifference curves are drawn under the ordinal approach to consumer equilibrium.
OR
A consumer has total money income of Rs 250 to be spent on two goods X and Y with prices of ₹25 and ₹10 per unit respectively. On the basis of the information given, answer the following questions:
a. Give the equation of the budget line for the consumer.
b. What is the value of slope of the budget line?
c. How many units can the consumer buy if he is to spend all his money income on good X?
d. How does the budget line change if there is a fall in price of good Y?
Ans.
Out of the given options, (B) is incorrect. Indifference Curves have a property that two ICs cannot intersect.
Suppose, there are any two ICs intersecting each other. As per the figure
A = C (on IC1)
D= E (on IC2)
But if we see the peculiarity of point B (the point of intersection), this would result into absurd situation of A=C=B & D=C=B, which is not possible, as they are violating the basic definition of the Indifference Curves.
CBSE Sample Question paper - 02 Economics, Class 12 | Sample Papers for Class 12 Commerce
OR
(a) PxQx + PyQy = M

25 Qx + 10 Qy = 250
(b) Slope of Budget Line = (-) Px/Py = (-) 25/10 = (-) 2.5
(c) If Qy is to be Zero
25 Qx + 10 Qy = 250
25 Qx + 10(0) = 250
Qx = 250/25 = 10 units
(d) If Py falls the consumer will be able to buy more of good Y in the same money income pushing the Y-intercept of the Budget Line away from origin, keeping the X-intercept constant. (shifts outwards)

Q11. Explain the concept of marginal opportunity cost using a numerical example. (4)
Ans.
The marginal opportunity cost can be defined as the ratio of number of units of a good sacrificed to produce an additional unit of another good. It is also known as Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT).
Marginal opportunity cost of a good in terms of the other good can be estimated as:
CBSE Sample Question paper - 02 Economics, Class 12 | Sample Papers for Class 12 Commerce
Marginal opportunity signifies the rate of sacrifice of good Y

Combinations

GoodX

GoodY

MOC

A

1

20

-

B

2

18

2

C

3

15

3

D

4

11

4

Example: In the given schedule, if we want to move from combination A to combination B, we will produce one additional unit of X, but we will have to forgo 2 units of Y. The marginal opportunity cost of X in terms of Y at this stage is 2 units, similarly for other combinations too can be worked out.

Q12. Define Price Floor. What is the common purpose of fixation of floor price by the government? Explain any one likely consequence of this nature of intervention by the government. (6)
OR
Define Price Ceiling. What is the common purpose for the price ceiling imposed by the government? Explain any one likely consequence of this nature of intervention by the government in the price determination process.
Ans.

PRICE FLOOR
A price floor is the lowest legal price of a commodity at which it can be sold, fixed by the government. Price floors are used by the government to prevent prices from being too low. The main reason for imposing the price floor policy is the welfare of the producers / farmers.
E.g. the minimum wages, minimum support price.
Consequence:
Buffer Stock: In order to maintain the minimum support price, the government may have to build buffer stocks to enable producers to dispose of their surplus stocks. The government purchases the surplus stocks available with the f a r me r s /producers; these stocks are released in case the production of the supported commodity suffers.
OR
PRICE CEILING
Price ceiling means the maximum limit that the government imposes on the price of a commodity. Price ceilings are used by the government to prevent prices from being too high.

The main reason for imposing price ceilings is to protect the interests of the consumers in situations in which they are not able to afford needed commodities. For example, during the recent rise in the prices of pulses.
Consequence:
Shortages of the commodity and Rationing: In case of price ceiling the quantity actually supplied in the market will shrink; as a result, a large chunk of consumer’s demand will go unsatisfied. To deal with such a situation the government may resort to rationing of the commodity.

Q13. (6)

CBSE Sample Question paper - 02 Economics, Class 12 | Sample Papers for Class 12 Commerce
a) Apply the geometric method to determine the elasticity of supply at point L on the supply curve SS given above.
b) Justify the statement, ‘In economics, normal profits are always a part of total cost’.
Ans. (a) 

CBSE Sample Question paper - 02 Economics, Class 12 | Sample Papers for Class 12 Commerce
Draw a perpendicular from point L on the axis, say at OQ,
The intercept of the supply curve coincides with the origin.
Therefore, Is at point L = OQ/OQ= 1

(b) The given statement is correct.
Normal profit is defined as the minimum reward that is just sufficient to keep the entrepreneur supplying his factor service Since total cost includes payment made to primary inputs: land, labour, capital and enterprise, total cost includes rent, wages, interest and (normal) profits.

Q14. A consumer, Mr. Aman is in state of equilibrium consuming two goods X and Y, with given prices Px and Py. Explain what will happen if: (6)
a. MUx / Px is greater than MUy / Py.
b. Py falls
Ans.

(a) If MUx/Px > MUy/Py, then it means that satisfaction of Mr. Aman, derived from spending a rupee on Good X is greater than the satisfaction derived from spending a rupee on Good Y. Mr. Aman, will reallocate his income by substituting Good X for Good Y. As the consumption of Good X increases the marginal utility derived from it goes on diminishing and reverse proposition occurs for Good Y, this process will continue till MUx/Px becomes equal to MUy/Py.

(b) If Py falls, MUx/Px < MUy/Py, then it means that satisfaction derived from spending a rupee on Good X is lesser than the satisfaction derived from spending a rupee on Good Y. Mr. Aman will reallocate his income by substituting Good Y for Good X. As the consumption of Good Y increases the marginal utility derived from it goes on diminishing and reverse proposition occurs for Good X, this process will continue till MUx/Px becomes equal to MUy/Py.

Q15. State, with valid reasons, which of the following statement are true or false: (6)
a. Average Revenue curve under the Perfect Competition is a downward sloping curve.
b. AFC curve is a rectangular hyperbola curve.
c. When MR is falling but positive, TR will also be falling and positive.
Ans.
a) False: Since the firm under Perfect Competition is a price taker, AR curve will be a straight line parallel to X-axis.
b) True: Since TFC remains unchanged / constant.
c) False: When MR is falling but positive, TR will be rising. (brief explanation of each)

Section B: Macroeconomics

Q16. Supply of money refers to quantity of money (1)
a. As on 31st March
b. During any specified period of time
c. As on any point of time
d. During a fiscal year
Ans. 
(c) as on any point of time

Q17. Define nominal flow. (1)
Ans.
Nominal Flow/Money Flow is the flow of factor payments and payments for goods and services between households & firms.

Q18. Primary deficit is equal to: (1)
i) Fiscal Deficit Less Interest Payments
ii) Revenue Deficit less borrowings
iii) Borrowings less interest payments
iv) Borrowings less Fiscal Deficit.
Ans. (i) Fiscal deficit less interest payments

19. Which of the following is not a Quantitative Method of credit control? (1)
i) Open Market Operation
ii) Margin Requirements
iii) Variable Reserve Ratio
iv) Bank Rate Policy
Ans.
(iii) Margin Requirements

Q20. What are ‘subsidies’? (1)
Ans. Subsidies are the ‘economic assistance’ given by the government to the firms and households, with a motive of general welfare.

Q21. Explain how ‘Depreciation of currency’ promotes exports of a country? (3)
Ans
. When price of foreign currency in terms of domestic currency rises in the foreign exchange market it is termed as depreciation of domestic currency. Any depreciation of home currency results in increase in exports of the country since it increases the global competitiveness of the goods i.e. foreign countries can purchase more quantity of goods and services with the same amount of foreign currency from the domestic country. As a result,
exports of the domestic country rise.

Q22. If in an economy: (3)
a) Consumption function is given by C = 100 + 0.75 Y, and
b) Autonomous investment is Rs150 crores.
Estimate (i) Equilibrium level of income and (ii) Consumption and Savings at the equilibrium level of income.
OR
Explain how the economy achieves equilibrium level of income using Consumption + Investment (C+I) approach.
Ans.
C = 100 + 0.75 Y (3)
I = 150
(i) At equilibrium level of income:
Y = C + I
Y=100 + 0.75 Y + 150
Y - 0.75 Y = 250
Y = 250/0.25 = 1,000(in ₹crores)
(ii) C =100 + 0.75 Y = 100+0.75(1000) = 100 + 750 = 850 (in ₹crores)
Y = C + S or S= Y-C = 1,000-850 = 150 (in Rs crores)
OR
C + I approach
Aggregate demand, given by C + I, is the planned demand by the various sectors of the economy. Whether this planned demand is realized or not depends on amount of goods and services (aggregate output or Y) produced in the economy. Thus, it is only when planned expenditure is equal to the aggregate output does the economy achieve equilibrium. i.e. AD=Y
If AD>Y, inventory level with producers falls and they increase output. This happens till AD=Y Opposite happens if AD<Y

Q23. State under what conditions in the following statements may be true: (3)
a. GNDI is equal to GNP at market prices.
b. Domestic Income is greater than National Income
c. Value of output is equal to Value Added.
Ans.

(a) When net current transfer from abroad are zero.
(b) When Net Factor Income from Abroad is negative.
(c) When intermediate consumption is zero.

Q24. `GDP as an index of welfare may understate or overstate well fare. ` (4) Explain the statement using examples of a positive and a negative externality.
Ans.
GDP doesn’t account for externalities Positive Externality: e.g.: saving commuting time due to construction of a fly-over, increases welfare, GDP as an index understates welfare. Negative Externalities: e.g.: Pollution from factories, decreases welfare, GDP overstates welfare.

Q25. Define Balance of Payments. Discuss briefly the components of current account. (4)
Ans.
Balance of payments is defined as the statement of accounts of a country’s inflows and outflows of foreign exchange in a fiscal year.

Components of Current Account:
i) Visible: refer to the merchandise/goods exported from or imported by a country. Exports which results inflows for the country are placed on the credit side whereas Imports are placed on the debit side as they result into outflow of foreign exchange from the country.
ii) Invisibles: refer to the different types of services and transfers that take place between nations. They give rise to monetary receipts and payments for the nation.

Q26. Explain the concepts of Real GDP and Nominal GDP, using a suitable numerical example. (4)
OR
State the various precautions of Product Method that should be kept in mind while estimating national income.
Ans.

1. Real GDP: when GDP is measured at constant prices or the base year’s prices is
known as Real GDP. GDP at constant prices will only increase when there is an increase in
the flow of goods and services in the economy.
2. Nominal GDP: when GDP is measured at the prevailing or the current year’s prices is
known as Nominal GDP. GDP at current prices may increase even if there is no increase
inflow of goods and services in the economy.
Any suitable numerical example.
OR
Precautions of Product Method:
1. Avoid double counting
2. Production for self-consumption should be included
3. Sale of second hand goods is not to be included
4. Production from illegal activities is not to be included
5. Value of services rendered by housewives/family members is not to be included (any four)

Q27. a) “Fiscal deficit is necessarily inflationary in nature”. Do you agree? Support your answer with valid reasons. (6)
b) Elaborate ‘Economic Growth’ as an objective of government budget.
Ans.

(a) The term fiscal deficit is the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts (excluding borrowing).
Such borrowings are generally financed by issuing new currency which may lead to inflation. However, if the borrowings are for infrastructural development this may lead to capacity building and may not be inflationary.

(b) The term ‘Economic Growth’ refers to a sustained increase in the real GDP of the economy OR an absolute/net increase in the total volume of goods and services produced by an economy. This is an essential objective of the government budget as the budget can be a very effective instrument for targeting the economic growth. Can be achieved by providing tax rebates, infrastructural stimulation etc.

Q28. What is the range of values of investment multiplier? Clarify the relation of investment multiplier with marginal propensity to consume (MPC) and with marginal
propensity to save (MPS). (6)
Ans.

Range of Investment Multiplier = one to infinity.
Relation: if MPC rises, investment multiplier: positive relation, whereas if MPS rises, investment multiplier falls: inverse relation.
(Relation to be supported by numerical examples or explanation)

Q29. Discuss how the central bank plays the role of `controller of credit` in an economy? (6)
OR
Using a numerical example elaborate the credit creation process as handled by the commercial banks.
Ans.

This is the most crucial function played by any central bank in the modern times. Central Banks are supposed to regulate and control the volume and direction of the credit by using the
i) Quantitative techniques – are those techniques which influence the quantum of credit in the economy like open market operations, bank rate policy, repo and reverse repo rate policy etc.
ii) Qualitative techniques - or selective credit control techniques are the ones which influence the direction of credit in the economy like margin requirements and moral suasion. (brief explanation of each)
OR
Creation of credit is one of the crucial functions performed by a commercial bank in modern times. The commercial bank is responsible for putting money (produced/created by central bank) in circulation through the process of credit creation or the lending process.

Numerical Illustration, may be based on the following assumptions:
i. There is only one bank in the economy.
ii. Initial deposits are say Rs10,000 crores and the legal reserve requirement proposed by the
central bank is 10%.
iii. Credit Creation = Initial deposits x 1 ____ = 10,000 / 0.1
LRR
= Rs1,00,000 crores.
Students may provide a schedule for deriving the same.

Q30. Compute (a) National Income and (b) Personal Disposable Income. (6)

S.No.

Items

Amount

In^ Crores)

i)

Mixed Income of Self Employed

2,500

ii)

Net Factor Income from Abroad

(-) 50

iii)

Rent

500

iv)

Private Income

4,000

v)

Consumption of Fixed Capital

400

vi)

Corporation Tax

700

vii)

Profits

300

viii)

Net Retained Earnings of Private Enterprises

500

ix)

Compensation of Employees

1,600

x)

Net Indirect Taxes

500

xi)

Net Current Transfers from Abroad

150

xii)

Net Exports

(-) 40

xiii)

Interest

500

xiv)

Direct Taxes Paid by Households

300

Ans.
(i) National Income= (ix) + [(iii) + (xiii) +(vii)] + (i) +(ii)
=1600 + (500 + 500 +300) + 2500+ (-50)
= Rs5350 crores
(ii) Personal Disposal Income= (iv) - (vi) – (viii) – (xiv)
= 4000 - 700 – 500 – 300
= Rs2500 crores

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FAQs on CBSE Sample Question paper - 02 Economics, Class 12 - Sample Papers for Class 12 Commerce

1. What is the CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12?
Ans. The CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12 is a model question paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) to give students an idea of the format and types of questions that may be asked in the Economics exam for Class 12.
2. How can I access the CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12?
Ans. The CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12 can be accessed through the official website of CBSE (cbse.nic.in) or through various educational websites and online platforms that provide study materials and resources for CBSE students.
3. Why should I practice the CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12?
Ans. Practicing the CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12 helps students familiarize themselves with the exam pattern, marking scheme, and the types of questions that may appear in the actual exam. It allows students to assess their knowledge and understanding of the subject and identify areas that require further improvement.
4. Can the CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12 help me in scoring better marks?
Ans. Yes, the CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12 can definitely help you in scoring better marks. By practicing these sample papers, you get a chance to understand the exam pattern and the important topics that are frequently asked. It also helps you manage your time effectively during the exam and boosts your confidence.
5. Are the questions in the CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12 similar to the actual exam?
Ans. The questions in the CBSE sample question paper for Economics Class 12 are designed to be similar to the actual exam in terms of difficulty level, format, and content. However, the specific questions in the actual exam may differ from the sample paper. Nonetheless, practicing the sample paper will give you a good idea of the type of questions that can be expected in the exam.
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