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Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper- 10 (With Solutions) PDF Download

SECTION - A

Q.1. Match the following items given in Column I with those in Column II.

Column IColumn II
A. Narmada
1. The Northern Plain
B. Brahmaputra2. The Coastal Plain
C. Luni3. The Peninsular Plateau
D. Krishna 4. The Indian Desert

Ans. (A) - 3, (B) - 1, (C) - 4, (D) - 2

Q.2. Study the picture and answer the question that follows.
Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper- 10 (With Solutions)
Who is the person being saluted by the crowd in this picture?
(a) Robespierre (b) VI Lenin (c) Joseph Stalin (d) Adolf Hitler
Ans. (d) Adolf Hitler

Q.3. What is the procedure to remove the Judge of Supreme Court?
(а) By an impeachment motion passed separately by two-thirds members of the two Houses of Parliament.
(b) By the President of India.
(c) By Prime Minister of India
(d) None of the above
Ans.
(a) By an impeachment motion passed separately by two-thirds members of the two Houses of Parliament.

Q.4. When did Bastar Rebellion take place?
OR
Why Auschwitz was a notorous during the Nazi Perio?
Ans.
The Bastar Rebellion took place in 1910.
OR
Auschwitz was notorius during Nazi period because it was a pilling centre used by Nazis by gassing Jewish people.

Q.5. What is the root of all social ills, according to the socialists of mid-nineteenth century  Europe?
Ans.
Socialists of mid-nineteenth century believed that private property was the root of all social evils of that time.

Q.6. ________ was finally abolished in French colonies in 1848.
Ans.
Slavery

Q.7. By which method, West Bengal has reduced rural poverty?
OR
Suggest any two anti-poverty measures.
Ans.
By proper implementation of land reforms West Bengal has reduced rural poverty.
Or
wo anti-poverty measures are:
(i) Promotion of economic growth.
(ii) Targeted anti-poverty programmes.

Q.8. When did the women in France win the Right to Vote?
OR
When did Napoleon crown himself as Emperor of France?
Ans.
The women in France won the Right to Vote in the year 1946.
Or
Napoleon Bonaparte crowned himself as the Emperor of France in 1804.

Q.9. A (i) ________is a form of government in which rulers are elected by the (ii) _______.
Ans.
(i) democracy, (ii) people

Q.10. ......... system was introduced in Java by the Dutch colonies to control the forest land.
Or
............. is the local name of shifting cultivation of South-East Asia.
Ans.
Blandongdiensten
Or
Lading

Q.11. Synagogue is the place of worship of
(a) Christians (b) Buddhists (c) Jews (d) Parsis
Ans.
(c) Jew

Q.12. The British thought that the forests were unproductive.
Ans.
True.

Q.13. Which of the following statement defines Biome?
(a) It is a major community of plants and animals having similar life forms.
(b) They have similar morphological features.
(c) They are existing under similar environmental conditions,
(d) All of the above
Ans.
(d) All of the above

Q.14. Indemocratic countries, the ........... can make new laws, change existing laws, or abolish existing laws and make new ones in their place.
OR
The two Houses of Parliament in India are known as the ......... (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
Ans.
Parliament
OR
Council of States

Q.15. As the economic growth could not benefit the poor, the government adopted targeted anti-poverty programme to eliminate poverty.
Ans. 
True.

Q.16.  ... is the destruction of trees and forests for human habitation and use.
OR
..... biosphere reserves have been setup in our country to protect flora and fauna.
Ans.
Deforestation Or Eighteen

Q.17. Find the incorrect option:
Some valid reasons for saying that there is very little chance of a famine occurring in a democratic country are as follows:
(a) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.
(b) People are free to believe in, practise and propagate arty religion they desire.
(c) The Press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.
(d) The Government fears that it will be defeated in the next elections.
Ans.
(b) People are free to believe in, practise and propagate any religion they desire.

Q.18. Which communities of South Africa fought against apartheid?
Ans.
The blacks, coloured and Indians fought against the apartheid system.

Q.19. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Republic protects minority against the power of majority.
Reason (R) Republic like India has a written Constitution of basic rights for all.
Options
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Ans.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q.20. Food insecure people are disproportionately large in some regions of the country, such as economically backward states with high incidence of poverty, tribal and remote areas, regions more prone to natural disasters etc. In fact, the states of Uttar Pradesh (eastern and south-eastern parts), Bihar Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra account for the largest number of food insecure people in the country.
Analyse the information given above and consider one of the following as the correct option:
(a) Indian states having food insecurity
(b) People having food insecurity
(c) Food insecure regions of India
(d) Food insecurity
Ans.
(c) Food insecure regions of India

SECTION - B 

Q.21. How is representative democracy significant in the contemporary world?
Or
What is the relationship between fair and free election and democracy?
Ans.
Representative democracy is a ifomn of government founded on the principle of elected individuals representing the people as opposed to autocracy and direct democracy. The representatives form an independent ruling body charged with the responsibility of acting in the public interest. Today, representative democracies are much more common than direct democracies. Representative democracy usually has a Parliament. The members of Parliament are elected through Universal Adult Franchise. This democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.
Due to above reasons, representative democracy is significant in the contemporary world.
OR
In democracy, holding elections of any kind is not sufficient. For example, in China, only those who are members of the Chinese Communist Party or eight smaller parties allied to it are allowed to contest elections. But the genera! election for a country must offer a real choice between political alternatives.
In democracy, people must have the choice to remove the existing rulers, if they wish so. Thus in a democracy those currently in power have a fair chance of losing if there is free and fair election. Democracy is based on political equality which claims that each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.

Q.22. The government under General Pervez Musharraf in Pakistan cannot be called a democracy. Why?
OR
Write three difficulties faced by the people in a non-democratic country.
Ans.
The reasons for not calling the government under General Pervez Musharraf in Pakistan a democracy were as follows:
(i) General Pervez Musharraf overthrew a popularly elected government by a military coup in October, 1999 and became the Chief Executive of Pakistan. He changed his designation to President and in 2002 held a referendum granting him a five year extension.
(ii) In August, 2002, he issued a ‘Legal Framework Order' which gave powers to the President to dismiss the national or provincial assemblies. The work of the civilian cabinet was supervised by a National Security Council which was dominated by military officers.
(iii) There were elected representatives, but the final power rested with the military officers and General Musharraf himself. None of them were elected by the people of Pakistan.
OR
Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers i are elected by the people. But in a non-democratic government, the ruler captures the power by his own strength or he gains it by heredity. In the non-democratic form of government people face many difficulties. These are as follows:
(i) In a non-democratic country, all the people are at the mercy of the dictator or the military rulers. They may or may not respond to the people's need.
(ii) In non-democratic country, the people are not allowed to criticise the government. By doing this, peopld may face imprisonment, harassment etc.
(iii) In a non-democratic country, no opposition is tolerated, so the question of opposition party or trade unions does not arise.

Q.23. Describe the features of Central Highlands.
Ans.
(a) The part of the Peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river covering a major area of the Malwa plateau is known as the Central Highlands.
(b) The Vindhyan range is bounded by the Central Highlands on the south and the Aravalis on the northwest. The further westward extension gradually merges with the sandy and rocky desert of Rajasthan.
(c) The flow of the rivers draining this region, namely, the Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa and the Ken is from southwest to northwest, thus indicating the slope.
(d) The Central Highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the east.
(e) The eastward extensions of this plateau are locally known as the Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand.
(f) The Chotanagpur plateau marks the further eastward extension, drained by the Damodar river.

Q.24. Why does unemployment have a detrimental effect on the overall growth of an economy?
Ans.
Unemployment has detrimental impact on the overall growth of an economy for the following reasons:
(i) Unemployment tends to increase economic overload as the dependence of the unemployed on the working population increases.
(ii) Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower resource. People who are an asset for the economy turn into liability.
(iii) Unemployment adversely affects the quality of life of people, as they have to live at subsistence level, which leads to poor health and even increase in school dropouts.

Q.25. How is the popular participation of voters in India made elections democratic?
Ans. 
A way to check the quality of election process is to see whether people participate in it with enthusiasm. If the election process is not free and fair, people wili not participate in it. The following points describe that popular participation of voters in India makes elections democratic:
(i) People’s participation in election is usually measured by voter turn out figures. In India, the turn out has either remained stable or actually gone up. In India, the poor, illiterate and under privileged people vote in larger proportion as compared to rich and privileged sections.
(ii) Common people in Incia attach a lot of importance to elections. They feel that through elections, they can bring pressure on pol tical parties to adopt policies and programmes favourable to them.
(iii) The interest of voters in election related activities has been increasing over the years. During the 2004 elections, more than one-third voters took part in campaign related activities.

Q.26. Why was the government under General Musharraf not democratic?
Ans. 
The reasons for not calling government in Pakistan a democracy are as follows:
(i) General Parvez Musharraf overthrew a popularly elected government by a military coup in October 1999 and became the Chief Executive of the country. He changed his designation to President and in 2002 held a referendum granting him a five-year extension.
(ii) In August 2002, he issued a 'Legal Framework Order’ which gave powers to the President to dismiss the national or provincial assemblies.
(iii) The work of the civilian cabinet was supervised by a National Security Council which is dominated by military officers.
(iv) There were elected representatives but the final power rested with the military officers and General Musharraf himself and none of them were elected by the people.

Q.27. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: The Rationing System in India
The introduction of Rationing in India dates back to the 1940s against the backdrop of the Bengal Famine. The Rationing System was revived in the wake of an acute food shortage during the 1960s, prior to the Green Revolution.
Source B: Introduction of Food Intervention Programmes
In the wake of the high incidence of poverty levels, as reported by the NSSO in the mid 1970s, three important food intervention programmes were introduced: Public Distribution System (PDS) for food grains, Intergrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Food For Work (FFW). Over the years, several new programmes have been 
launched and some have been restructured with the growing experience of administering the programmes.
Source C : Enhancement of Food Security
At present, there are several Poverty Alleviation Programmes (PAPs), mostly in rural areas, which have an explicit food component also. While some of the programmes such as PDS, mid-day meals, etc., are exclusively food security programmes, most of the PAPs also enhance food security. Employment programmes greatly contribute to food security by increasing the income of the poor.
Questions
(a) When was the Rationing System introduced in India? (Source A : The Rationing System in India)
(b) Suggest the important food intervention programmes introduced by the government to combat poverty. (Source B : Introduction o f Food Intervention Programmes)
(c) Name some programmes which enhance food security. (Source C : Enhancement o f Food Security)
Ans.
(a) Rationing System was introduced in India in 1940s against the backdrop of the Bengal Famine in 1943.
(b) The Government has declared some programmes, like Public Distribution System (PDS) , Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Food for Work (FFW) to combat poverty.
(c) Some programmes like Poverty Alleviation Programmes (PAPs), Public Distribution System (PDS), Mid-Day Meals, Employment programmes, etc., enhance food security.

Q.28. Should the freedom of expression be extended to persons who are spreading wrong and narrow minded views? Justify your answer with suitable arguments.
Ans.
No, the freedom of expression should not be extended to those who are spreading wrong and narrow minded ideas, since it is harmful for the society and democracy.
Sometimes wrong and narrow minded views can lead to widespread violence and conflicts in the society. For selfish motives many people can misuse freedom of expression. They may spread rumours or mislead people thereby leading to many conflicts and disruption of peace, harmony in the society.
There should be obligation on such people so that this freedom not get affected.

SECTION - C

Q.29. Define Preamble. Explain any five major ideals enshrined in Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
OR
Define Constitution. Why India as a democracy needs a Constitution?
Ans.
Preamble is an introductory statement in Constitution, which states the reasons and guiding values of the Constitution. The Preamble is the soul of Indian Constitution, which contains the philosophy on which the entire Constitution has been built.
The major ideals enshrined in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution are as follows:
(i) We the People of India The Constitution has been drawn Up and enacted by the people through their representatives and not handed to them by a king or any outside power.
(ii) Sovereign People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters.
(iii) Socialist Wealth is generated socially and should be shared equally by society.
(iv) Secular Citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion.
(v) Democratic A form of government where people enjoy equal rights, elect their rulers and hold them accountable.
OR
The Constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory and also the relationship between the people and the government.
We, as citizen of a democratic country need the Constitution for the following reasons:
(i) It specifies how the government wilt be constituted and who will have power to take which decisions.
(ii) It lays down the limits of the power of the government and tells us what are the rights of the citizens.
(iii) It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kinds of people to live together.
(iv) It expresses the aspiration of the people about creating a good society.
(v) It safeguards the interests of minoritites, backward classes, poor and weaker sections of society.

Q.30. The management of forests by the British in Bastar and the Dutch in Java were similar in many respects. What were these similarities?
OR
How did the Criminal Tribes Act and the Grazing tax change the lives of the pastoralists?
Ans.
The similarities in the management of forests by the British in Bastar and the Dutch in Java were as follows:
(i) The forests of both places were owned by the state.
(ii) Both banned the villagers from practising shifting cultivation.
(iii) Both enacted forest laws to control the forests and put restrictions on the customary rights of the locals. They were prohibited from entering the forests, from grazing cattle, or from cutting wood or taking forest produce without permission.
(iv) Villagers were punished for entering forests and collecting forest products without permit.
(v) The villagers were permitted to stay in the forests on the condition that they would offer free labour for the forest department in cutting and transportation of cut trees andjprotecting the woodlands from fire. In India, the British called this as ‘Forest Villages1, whereas in Java, the Dutch called it the ‘blandongdiensten system'.
(vi) Both followed a system of forestry which was known as scientific forestry. They enacted laws which permitted them to exploit forest trees for timber, to build ships and railways to protect and further their imperial interests.
Or
The Criminal Tribes Act and the Grazing tax changed the lives of the pastoralists as follows:
(i) Criminal Tribes Act The British colonial government were suspicious of nomadic people and distrusted them due to their continuous movement. They were not easily traceable and were unlike rural people in villages who were easy to identify and control.
As they wanted to rule over a settled population, the colonial power viewed nomadic tribes as criminal. Thus, the Criminal Tribes Act was passed in 1871. The passing of this act ruined the lives of the pastoralists, who were now forced to live in notified settlements and were disallowed from moving out without ai government permit.
(ii) Grazing Tax The British colonial government introduced this tax in the mid-nineteenth century to increase iits revenue income. Tax was imposed on land, on canal water, on salt, on trade goods and even on animals. Between the 1850s and 1880s, tax collection was auctioned to private contractors. These tax collectors charged higher tax from the pastoralists in order to make some private profit.
This tax proved to be a burden on pastoralists, as they could not afford to pay tax on cattle per head, and the only means to enter a grazing tract was by payment. All this led to tremendous losses for them.

Q.31. Describe briefly the powers and position of the Prime Minister.
OR
Explain the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Ans.
(a) Powers: (i) He chairs the Cabinet meetings.
(ii) He coordinates the work of different departments.
(iii) His decisions are final in case disagreements arise between the departments.
(iv) He exercises general supervision of various ministries.
(v) All ministers work under his leadership.
(vi) Prime Minister distributes and redistributes work to the ministers.
(vii) He has the power to dismiss ministers.
(viii) When the Prime Minister quits, the entire ministry quits.
(b) Position of the Prime Minister:
(i) Prime Minister is the most powerful in the parliamentary form of government in India. That is the reason that it is called as Prime Ministerial form of government,
(ii) While the President is head of the state, the Prime Minister is the real head of the government.
(iii) He controls the party and through the party controls the cabinet and the parliament. As a leader of the party, he influences the decisions and debates in the Parliament.
(iv) Elections are fought on the basis of popularity of Prime Ministers and other top leaders.
OR
(i) Meaning: Rights are like guarantees and must, therefore, be enforced. As such under the Constitution, people can approach the Supreme Court or the High Court of a state for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies. Dr. BR Ambedkar called this right, ‘the heart and soul’ of the Constitution because we can seek remedy through courts for the violation of our rights.
(ii) When do we approach courts: If any act of the Legislature or Executive takes away or limits any of the Fundamental Rights, we can challenge them in courts. The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to issue directions or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. The courts can issue writs of habeas-corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. Thus, these writs enable the citizens to secure their Fundamental Rights.

Q.32. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
During October-November, with the apparent movement of the Sun towards the South, the monsoon trough or the low pressure trough over the Northern plains becomes weaker. This is gradually replaced by a high pressure system. The South-West monsoon winds weaken and start withdrawing gradually. By the beginning of October, the monsoon withdraws from the Northern plains. The months of October-November form a period of transition from hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. The retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.
While day temperature remain high, nights are cool and pleasant. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive during the day. This is commonly known as 'October Heat’. In the second half of October, the Mercury begins to fall rapidly in Northern India. The low-pressure conditions over North-Western India, get transferred to the Bay of Bengal by early November. This shift is associated with the occurrence of cyclonic depressions, which originate over the Andaman Sea. These cyclones generally cross the Eastern coasts of India cause heavy and widespread rain. These tropical cyclones are often very destructive.
Questions
(a) By which month does the monsoon withdraw from the Northern Plains?
(b) What is commonly known as 'October Heat'?
(c) How does the tropical cyclone originate in November?
Ans. 
(a) By the beginning of October, the monsoon withdraws from the Northern plains.
(b) The months of October-November form a period of transition from hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. Day temperature remain high, nights are cool and pleasant. The land is still moist, but day temperatures are still high and have humidity. This appressive weather during day time is known as ‘October Heat’.
(c) By early November, the low pressure conditions over North-Western India are transferred to the Bay of Bengal. It is associated with the occurrence of cyclonic depression originated in Andaman sea. This cyclone crosses the Eastern coasts of India and causes heavy rainfall.

Q.33. Explain the use of saltwater lakes in India with particular reference to Sambhar and Chilika Lakes.
Ans.
India has many lakes. These lakes differ from each other in size and ether characteristics. Some are fresh wafer lakes, some contain water only in rainy season, some are lagoons in the coastal areas.
The uses of salt water lakes i.e. the Sambhar lake and the Chilika lake are as follows:
(i) The Sambhar Lake It is India’s largest saline lake and has made Rajasthan the third largest salt producing state in India. It produces about 2 lakh tonnes of clean salt every year. Salt is produced by evaporation of brine.
This lake is also recognised as a wetland of international importance because it is a key wintering area for flamingos and other birds that migrate from Northern Asia.
(ii) The Chilika Lake Chilika lake in Odisha is the largest brackish water lake in India. It is the winter ground for migratory birds of the Indian sub-continent.
The lake is home to a number of threatened species of plants and animals.
It is an ecosystem with large fishery resources sustaining 150000 fishermen living nearby. It is a very popular tourist destination ard also an area for prawn culture.

Q.34. Explain National Food for Work Programme.
OR
A section of people in India are still without food. Explain.
Ans. 
(a) National Food for Work Programme was launched on November 14, 2004 in 150 most backward districts of the country with the objective of intensifying the generation of supplementary wage employment.
(b) The programme is open to all rural poor who are in need of wage employment and desire to do manual unskilled work.
(c) It is implemented as a 100 per cent centrally sponsored scheme and the foodgrains are provided to States free of cost.
(d) The Collector is the nodal officer at the district level and has the overall responsibility of planning, implementation, coordination, monitoring and supervision.
(e) For 2004-05, ₹2,020 crore had been allocated for the programme in addition to 20 lakh tonnes of foodgrains.
OR
It is true that a section of people in India are still without food due to causes as mentioned below:
(i) Instances of hunger are prevalent despite overflowing granaries with some rotting away and some being eaten by rats.
(ii) The Public Distribution System has proved to be ineffective.
(iii) The average consumption of PDS grain at the all-India level is only 1 kg per person per month. The average consumption figure is as low as less than 300 grams per person per month in the states, of Bihar, Odisha and Uttar Pradesh.
(iv) People prone to food insecurity do not get food grains in time due to corruption.
(v) The Places like Kalahandi and Kashipur in Orissa, famine like conditions have been existing for many years and where some starvation deaths have also been reported. Starvation deaths are also reported in Baran district of Rajasthan, Palamau district of Jharkhand and many other remote areas during the recent years.

SECTION - D

Q.35. (a) Locate and label two places in the following map of Europe in 1914.
(i) Germany (ii) Austria-Hungry
Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper- 10 (With Solutions)
Ans. The answer map is given below:
Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper- 10 (With Solutions)
(b) Identify and write the names of any four of the following on the given map.
(i) A type of forest
(ii) The state having highest sex ratio
(iii) River of the Himalayan river system
(iv) National Park in Odisha
(v) Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala
(iv) A Water Lake
Class 9 SST: Sample Question Paper- 10 (With Solutions) 

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1. What is the importance of sample question papers for Class 9 SST?
Ans. Sample question papers for Class 9 SST are important as they help students to understand the exam pattern, marking scheme, and the types of questions that can be asked in the actual exam. They also provide an opportunity for students to practice and assess their preparation level.
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Ans. Sample question papers can help in exam preparation by providing a clear idea of the important topics, types of questions, and their difficulty level. By solving these papers, students can identify their strengths and weaknesses and work on them accordingly. It also helps in improving time management skills and building confidence for the actual exam.
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Ans. Yes, the solutions provided in the sample question papers are generally accurate. However, it is always advisable for students to cross-check the solutions with their textbooks or consult their teachers if they have any doubts or discrepancies in the provided solutions.
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Ans. While sample question papers are helpful for exam preparation, they should not be considered as the sole study material. It is important for students to refer to their textbooks, notes, and other study resources to gain a comprehensive understanding of the subject. Sample question papers can be used as a supplement to enhance learning and practice.
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Ans. Students should utilize the sample question papers effectively by first understanding the exam pattern and marking scheme. They should then attempt to solve the papers within the given time limit to practice time management. After solving the papers, students should evaluate their performance, identify their weak areas, and work on them. Regular practice of sample question papers can significantly improve their preparation for the Class 9 SST exam.
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