UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims): Parliament | Indian Polity for UPSC CSE PDF Download

Q.1. Rajyasabha has equal powers with Loksabha in     (2020-I)
(a) The matter of creating new all India services
(b) Amending the Constitution
(c) The removal of the government
(d) Making cut motions

Correct Answer is Option (b)

• Article 312: With regards to the creation of All India Services, Rajya Sabha has special powers such that if Rajya Sabha is passing a resolution by a majority of 2/3rd of the members present and voting, Parliament may, by law, create one or more All India Services in national interest. So A is wrong.
• Article 75(3) hold the government collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, in this regards, Lok Sabha has greater power as compared to Rajya Sabha. So C is wrong.
• Cut Motions, which are meant to reduce the amount allocated to the ministries in the demand for grants, can be made only in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations with regards to the cut motion. So d is wrong. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either house of the Parliament and both the houses have equal powers in respect to the Constitutional Amendment Bill. So b is right.

Q.2. Consider the following statements:    (2019-I)

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (a)
If 'Office of Profit' was well defined in Constitution, then there wouldn't have been controversies related to AAP-MLAs' disqualification (2018-Jan), and Kejriwal & Co. wouldn't have been running from pillar to post between EC and SC to prevent their disqualification. So, #3 is wrong, and by elimination we are left with Answer A:1 and 2 only.

Q.3. Consider the following statements: (2018-I)

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)

• First statement is correct. the 1st Amendment to the constitution (1951) had inserted new Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule, thus securing the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws by, among other things, specifying that they could not be challenged on the grounds that they violated the Fundamental Rights. Subsequent governments have added other progressive laws in the same, to give them immunity from litigation. Government add the acts in the 9th schedule, 'via parliament' so first statement is right. 
• In I.R. Coelho case(2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule. So statement#2 is WRONG

Q.4. Consider the following statements:    (2018-I)

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognized for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)

• The results of the first general election did not surprise anyone…Congress party won 364 of the 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha and finished way ahead of any other challenger. The Communist Party of India that came next in terms of seats won only 16 seats. [NCERT Class12: Politics in India since Independence, p30]. So, statement#1 is wrong
• In the remaining options b and c, both contain statement#2, so as such we've to accept it as true, and no need to waste time finding proofs, Nonetheless, to satiate the curiosity: It was Ram Subhag Singh- who became the first leader of opposition in Lok Sabha in 1969. Ref: Indian Express
• In each House of Parliament, there is the 'Leader of the Opposition'. The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognized as the leader of the Opposition in that House. maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552 so minimum 10% doesn't translate to 75 in any case. Hence statement#3 is wrong, by elimination, we get Answer (b)

Q.5. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?    (2018-I)
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India

Correct Answer is Option (c)

• Article 110(1)(A): a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision related to relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
• Article 110(1)(c): the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund.
• Article 110(1)(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) depending on how you interpret these provisions, it is difficult to outline any of the given statement as a wrong statement. But, UPSC has kept ‘C’ as the official answer.

Q.6. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through.    (2017-I)

1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion, etc. and Supplementary questions can be asked during the question hour. Therefore, all three are correct.

Q.7. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:    (2017-I)

1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Private member's bill as a bill introduced by any member of the parliament who's not a minister. Hence first statement is wrong.

• The Indian Express report in 2016 says only 14 private members bill have been passed since 1952. So statement 2 is also wrong.

Q.8. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by    (2017-I)
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.

Correct Answer is Option (c)
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

Q.9. Consider the following statements:    (2017-I)

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)
India has first past the post system wherein a candidate who wins the election may not (need to) get majority (50%+1) votes. Statement #1 is wrong.
Up to the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party. Meaning it's an 'informal consensus' among political parties, and not Constitutional provision. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.

Q.10. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the    (2016-I)
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Correct Answer is Option (d)
If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-third of its members present and voting.

Q.11. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:    (2015-I)

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The department of economic affairs under the ministry of finance is responsible for the preparation of union Budget that is presented to the parliament.

• Consolidated fund of India is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited.
• No money can be appropriated (issued or drawn) out of the consolidated fund of India without the authorization from the parliament of India.

Public account of India is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly in the nature of banking transactions.

Q.12. Consider the following statements:     (2015-I)

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)
A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill. Rajya Sabha can discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants ( which is the exclusive privilage of the Lok-Sabha.

Q.13. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by     (2015-I)
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses

Correct Answer is Option (a)

• In India, if a bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting. Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill.
• If the bill in dispute is passed by a majority of the total number of member both the houses present and voting in the joint sitting, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the houses.

Q.14. Consider the following statements regarding a No- Confidence Motion in India:    (2014 - I)

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Article 75 says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Loksabha. In other words, Lok Sabha can remove them by passing a no-confidence motion. But the word “no confidence motion” itself is not mentioned in Constitution. It comes from Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules. Rajya Sabha cannot pass or remove council of ministers by passing no-confidence motion. No confidence motion can be introduced, only in Lok Sabha.

Q.15. Consider the following statements:     (2013 - I)

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)
An amendment to the constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in either house of the parliament. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of at least half of the states.

Q.16. Consider the following statements:     (2013 - I)

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (b)

• The first statement is not correct because its talks about chairman as well as the deputy chairman. The Vice- President of India is ex-officer Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha also chooses from amongst its members, a Deputy Chairman.
• President: Elected members of parliament (MPs from Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha). Elected members of State legislative members, including that if NCT of Delhi and Pondicherry. 
• Vice President: Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of the parliament. The second statement is correct.

Q.17. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?    (2013 - I)
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Correct Answer is Option (a)
When a money bill returns to the Loksabha with amendments made by the Rajyasabha, it is open to Loksabha to accept or to reject any or all of the recommendations. When the Loksabha chooses to accept or decline the money bill with or without the recommendation, the money bill is deemed passed in both houses.

Q.18. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties      (2013 - I)
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Parliament has exclusive power to make law with respect to any of the matters enumerated with the Union List. According to entry no 14 in the Union List it reads- ‘entering into treaties and agreements with foreign contries and implementing of treaties, agreement and convention with foreign countries’.

Q.19. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?      (2012 - I)
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Rajyasabha can pass a resolution empowering the parliament to make laws in the state list and to create one or more All India Services. This is a special power that has been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the constitution.

Q.20. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is    (2012 - I)
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Adjournment motion:

• It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
• It is regarded as an extraordinary device, because it interrupts the normal business of the house.
• It involves an element of censure against the government and Rajya Sabha cannot introduce Adjournment Motion.
• The discussion on adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

Q.21. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:    (2012 - I)

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Correct Answer is Option (b)
If the Lok Sabha Speaker wants to resign, the letter of his / her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. The Speaker is elected by the Lok-Sabha from amongst its Members. Usually the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok-Sabha.

Q.22. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of    (2012 - I)

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary Machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills of financial bills only and not to Money bills or constitutional amendment bills.

Q.23. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha ?    (2011 - I)
(a) The Budget is modified and presented again
(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
If annual union budget is not passed by the LOK SABHA, it is tantamount to no confidence motion. So the govt submits the resignation of his council of ministers.

Q.24. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from     (2011 - I)
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Parliament shall have power to authorise by law the withdrawal of moneys from the Consolidated Fund of India for the purposes for which the said grants are made

Q.25. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:    (2009)

1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily be a sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect as members of Rajya Sabha can become cabinet ministers. Statement 2 is incorrect as Cabinet secretariat is under the direct charge of the PM.

Q.26. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:   (2009)

1. Number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. Number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The number of ministeries at the Centre can vary based on factors such as volume of work, importance attached to different sectors, changes of orientation of policy etc. On 15 Aug, 1947, the number of ministries at the centre was 18.

Q.27. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:   (2009)

1. Number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. Number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The number of ministeries at the Centre can vary based on factors such as volume of work, importance attached to different sectors, changes of orientation of policy etc. On 15 Aug, 1947, the number of ministries at the centre was 18.

Q.28. Consider the following statements:     (2006)

1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under Article 249. Statement 2 is incorrect as resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed by both Houses of Parliament (not only LS).

Q.29. Consider the following statements:    (2004)

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Lok Sabha speaker is the presiding officer or head of Lok Sabha. He is the guardian of power and privileges of members and committees of Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses. "Adjournment" is a postponement of the sitting or proceedings of the House from one time to another specified for the reassembling of the House. During the course of a session, the Lok sabha may be adjourned from day to day or for more than a day. It may also be adjourned sine die which means the termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date being fixed for its next sitting.

Q.30. Which one of the following statements is not correct?   (2004)
(a) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence

Correct Answer is Option (a)
In case of a No-confidence motion, there is no need to set out the grounds on which it is based. No-Confidence motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha by the opposition and needs a support of not less than 50 members of LS for its introduction. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of no-confidence. Any member may give a written notice; the speaker shall read the motion of no-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favours that the motion be taken up. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the speaker allots a date for discussing the motion

Q.31. Which one of the following statements is correct?    (2003)
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections

Correct Answer is Option (c)
In Rajya Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President from the persons who have special knowledge in art, science, literature and social service. In Lok Sabha, 2 members are nominated by the President from the Anglo-Indian community (Art 331). A nominated member can vote only in the Vice-Presidential elections.

Q.32. Consider the following statements:    (2003)

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill

Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (d)
So far three joint sittings have been held, First was held on Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961, Second was held on Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978 and Third was held on Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002. The presiding officer of joint sitting is Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Q.33. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliamentary separately by special majority?    (2003)
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill

Correct Answer is Option (d)
According to Article 368 an amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House present and voting, it shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill

Q.34. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is:    (2002)
(a) ₹ 5,000 and ₹ 2,500
(b) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 2,500
(c) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 5,000
(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 7,500

Correct Answer is Option (c)
As per the given options the right answer is (c). As if now (2018); The security deposit for Lok Sabah election is Rs 25,000 while for on Assembly election it is Rs 10,000. A de feasted indicate who fails to secure move than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit.

Q.35. The term of the Lok Sabha:     (2002)
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The term of the LS can be extended by not more than one year at a time during the proclamation of national emergency under Article 352.

Q.36. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as:   (2000)
(a) decorum
(b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation
(d) yielding the floor

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Decorum means maintaining proper behaviour. Interpellation means formal right of a Parliament to submit formal question to the government. Crossing the floor means to vote against the party lines. Yielding the floor means the speaker giving part of his or her speaking time to another speaker. While this practice is allowed in some legislative bodies, it is not allowed in deliberative assemblies, unless specifically authorize

Q.37. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing international treaties:    (2000)
(a) with the consent of all the State
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State

Correct Answer is Option (d)
It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution.

Q.38. Which one of the following will fit in the place marked 'X'?    (1995)
(a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members
(c) Not more than 20 representative of Union Territories
(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of the Parliament

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution of India is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the states; up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President of India, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House.

Q.39.  Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?    (1995)
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature

Correct Answer is Option (d)
As Indian follows Universal Adult Suffrage elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature i. e., Las have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The State Legislature besides making laws also has one electoral power in electing the President of India. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly along with the elected members of Parliament are involved in this process.

Q.40.  Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council even though the Constitution? (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?    (1995)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer is Option (d)
There are only five states with bicameral legislature (Legislative assembly as well as Legislative Council) - UP, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Jammu & Kashmir

Q.41. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be:   (1995)
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 6

Correct Answer is Option (*)
In this question no data is provided for percentage of SC population. That's why the number of reserved seats for SCs cannot be predicted.
Allocation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha are made on the basis of proportion of Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the State concerned to that of the total population, vide provision contained in Article 330 of the Constitution of India read with Section 3 of the R. P. Act, 1950. Article 332 Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of the States:

• Seats shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, except the Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam, in the Legislative Assembly of every State.
• Seats shall be reserved also for the autonomous districts in the Legislative Assembly of the State of Assam.
• The number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of any State under clause (1) shall bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion to the total number of seats in the Assembly as the population of the Scheduled Castes in the State or of the Scheduled Tribes in the State or part of the State, as the case may be, in respect of which seats are so reserved, bears to the total population of the State.