Q1: Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (a) They protect the body from environmental allergens. (b) They alleviate the body's pain and inflammation. (c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body. (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Solution:
Ans: (d)
The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types(T cells) of lymphocytes present in our blood, i.e., B-lymphocytes (B cells) and T lymphocytes .
The B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to fight with them. These proteins are called antibodies. The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B cells produce them.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q2: Consider the following statements:
Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (d)
Nanoparticles occur naturally in the environment in large volumes. They exist in the natural world and are also created as a result of human activities. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
The cosmetic industry is attaining the benefits of nanotechnology by developing nanoparticles for the enhanced performance and bioavailability of active components in cosmetics, sunscreens, anti-aging creams, moisturizers, and perfumes. The cosmetics are formulated by using different types of metal and metal oxide nanoparticles such as silver nanoparticles (AgNPs), gold nanoparticles (AuNPs) and titanium dioxide nanoparticles (TiO2 NPs), zinc oxide nanoparticles, (ZnO NPs), iron oxide nanoparticles, (Fe2O3 NPs) and carbon-based NPs [16-18].
The nanoparticles such as titanium dioxide (TiO2), zinc oxide (ZnO) are substantially used, since these nanoparticles are non-oily, easily absorbed.
TiO2 is essentially a UV filter (UVA and UVB filter) hence widely used in sunscreens and moisturizers as well. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Humans have evolved to cope with most naturally occurring nanoparticles. However, some nanoparticles, generated as a result of certain human activities such as tobacco smoking and fires, account for many premature deaths as a result of lung damage. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q3: Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
assess the age of a plant or animal.
distinguish among species that look alike.
identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (d)
The novel technique of identifying biological specimens using short DNA sequences from either nuclear or organelle genomes is called DNA barcoding. DNA barcoding has many applications in various fields like preserving natural resources, protecting endangered species, controlling agriculture pests, identifying disease vectors, monitoring water quality, authentication of natural health products and identification of medicinal plants.
Species identification of endangered wildlife (hence, distinguishes among species that look alike), quarantine pests, and disease vectors (identifying undesirable animals/plants) are just a few areas in which DNA barcoding is enabling researchers, enforcement agents, and consumers to make informed decisions in much shorter time frames.
Statement 2 and statement 3 are correct, Hence, option (d) is correct (by elimination).
Q4: Consider the following:
Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen oxide
Ozone
Sulfur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
Solution:
Ans: (b)
Acid rain is a byproduct of a variety of human activities that emit the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere. Burning of fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
SO2 and NO2 after oxidation and reaction with water are major contributors to acid rain, because polluted air usually contains particulate matter that catalyse the oxidation. 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2H2O (l) → 2H2SO4 (aq) 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)+ 2H2O (l) → 4HNO3 (aq)
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q5: With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (a)
Polyethylene terephthalate (PET or PETE), a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of the polyester family of polymers. PET is spun into fibres for permanent-press fabrics and blow-molded into disposable beverage bottles.
They are often used in durable-press blends with other fibres such as rayon, wool, and cotton, reinforcing the inherent properties of those fibres while contributing to the ability of the fabric to recover from wrinkling.
PET is the most widely recycled plastic PET bottles and containers are commonly melted down and spun into fibres for fibrefill or carpets. PET can be recycled into its original uses, and methods have been devised for breaking the polymer down into its chemical precursors for resynthesizing into PET.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Q6: Consider the following:
Aarogya Setu
CoWIN
DigiLocker
DIKSHA
Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution:
Ans: (d)
Aarogya Setu has been transparent, privacy and security and in line with India's policy on Open Source Software, the source code of Aarogya Setu has now been made open source.
CoWin platform is being made open source, available to any and all countries. The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi addressed the CoWin Global Conclave as India offered the CoWIN platform as a digital public good to the world to combat Covid-19.
DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) is a national platform for school education, an initiative of National Council for Education Research and Training (NCERT), Ministry of Education.
DIKSHA was developed based on the core principles of open architecture, open access, open licensing diversity, choice and autonomy as outlined in the Strategy and Approach Paper for the National Teacher Platform released by the former Hon' Minister for Human Resources Development Shri Prakash Javdekar in May, 2017.
DIKSHA itself was launched by the Hon' Vice President of India on Sept 5th, 2017 and has since been adopted by 35 states/UTs across as well as CBSE and NCERT and by crores of learners and teachers. DIKSHA is built using Sunbird ED, a fully functional solution building block available as open-source software under MIT license and is part of Sunbird, a "Made in India, Made for the World" digital public good (DPG).
DigiLocker isa key initiative under Digital India, the Government of India's flagship program aimed at transforming India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. Targeted at the idea of paperless governance,
DigiLocker is a platform for issuance and verification of documents & certificates in a digital way, thus eliminating the use of physical documents.
The platform uses several open source technologies to deliver a mass solution and contributes back to the ever-growing community.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q7: With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:
Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
In Web 3.0 world, there can blockchain based social networks.
Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (d)
Web 3.0:
Web 3.0 is a decentralized internet to be run on blockchain technology, which would be different from the versions in use, Web 1.0 and Web 2.0. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Significance of Web 3.0:
Decentralized and Fair Internet: Web3 will deliver a decentralized and fair internet where users control their own data. Hence statement 1 is correct. Eliminates Intermediaries: With block chain, the time and place of the transaction are recorded permanently.
Thus, Web3 enables peer to peer (seller to buyer) transactions by eliminating the role of the intermediary. This concept can be extended to
Decentralization and Transparency: The spirit of Web3 is Decentralized Autonomous Organization (DAO).
DAO is all about the business rules and governing rules in any transaction are transparently available for anyone to see and software will be written conforming to these rules.
With DAO, there is no need for a central authority to authenticate or validate.
Web3, short for web 3.0, is a vision of the future of the Internet. It's operated by users collectively, rather than a corporation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q8: With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements:
SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (d) SaaS is a method of software delivery that allows data to be accessed from any device with an internet connection and a web browser eg. mobile or computer. Hence statement 2 is correct.
In this web-based model, software vendors host and maintain the servers, databases, and the code that makes up an application.
Users can customise the user interface and change data fields. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The common form of SaaS use is a web-based email service such as Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail, with these services, you access your account over the Internet, often from a web browser. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q9: Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media? (a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. (b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. (d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Solution:
Ans: (c) A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) is a warhead delivery system that uses a low earth orbit towards its target destination. Just before reaching the target, it deorbits through a retrograde engine burn.
The Soviet Union first developed FOBS as a nuclear-weapons delivery system in the 1960s. It was one of the first Soviet efforts to use space to deliver nuclear weapons.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q10: Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned? (a) Cloud Services (b) Quantum Computing (c) Visible Light Communication Technologies (d) Wireless Communication Technologies
Solution:
Ans: (b) Quantum computers compute in 'qubits' (or quantum bits). They exploit the properties of quantum mechanics, the science that governs how matter behaves on the atomic scale. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q11: Consider the following communication technologies:
Closed-circuit Television
Radio Frequency Identification
Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (d)
Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low. The definition 'Short Range Device' may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:
Access control (including door and gate openers)
Alarms and movement detectors
Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones
Industrial control
Local Area Networks
Medical implants
Metering devices
Remote control
Radio frequency identification (RFID)
Road Transport Telematics
Telemetry.
Hence, option (d) is correct
Q12: Consider the following statements:
Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (d)
In medicine, biofilms form on medical implants and within human tissue as in cystic fibrosis; in industry they cover equip ment surfaces. Biofilms protect their inhabitants from various adverse environmental conditions including biocides and anti biotics. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Biofilms can form quickly in food industry environments. Particularities regarding attachment and composition of biofilms formed in food and food processing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Environments are presented and genes involved in biofilm production are mentioned.
Microbial cells within biofilms have shown 10-1000 times more antibiotics resistance than the planktonic cells. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q13: Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (c)
Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live in your body. Bacteria is usually viewed in a negative light as something that makes you sick. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Acidophilus is a probiotic bacteria that naturally occurs in the human gut and other parts of the body.This bacteria helps the digestive system break down sugars, such as lactose, into lactic acid. Trillions of bacteria and other micro-organisms live in every person's gut.
There are several ways you can take a probiotic supplement. They come in a variety of forms, including in Foods,Drinks,Capsules or pills,Powders,Liquids. Hence, statement 2 is not correct but statement 3 is correct.
Q14: In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:
The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (b)
COVISHIELD vaccine is based on the platform which uses a recombinant, replication- deficient chimpanzee adenovirus vector encoding the SARS-CoV-2 Spike (S) glycoprotein. Following administration, the genetic material of part of coronavirus is expressed which stimulates an immune response. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Sputnik V is the world's first registered vaccine based on a well-studied human adenovirus vector platform. It has been approved for use in 71 countries with a total population of 4 billion people. The vaccine is named after the first Soviet space satellite. The vaccine's efficacy is 97.6%, based on the analysis of data on the incidence of coronavirus among Russians vaccinated with both vaccine components between December 5, 2020 and March 31, 2021. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Covaxin is an inactivated viral vaccine. This vaccine is developed with Whole-Virion Inactivated Vero Cell-derived technology. They contain inactivated viruses, which cannot infect a person but still can teach the immune system to prepare a defence mechanism against the active virus. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q15: If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?
GPS and navigation systems could fail.
Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
Power grids could be damaged.
Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Solution:
Ans: (c)
The Sun emitted a strong solar flare on Tuesday, May 10, 2022, peaking at 9:55 a.m. EDT. NASA's Solar Dynamics Observatory, which watches the Sun constantly, captured an image of the event. Solar flares are powerful bursts of energy.
The storms can often be observed as beautiful aurorae in our night sky, but they can also cause major disturbances in Earth's power grids and navigation systems.
A massive solar flare erupted from the Sun's surface, disrupting radio waves, telecommunication networks, and power systems by triggering an intense magnetic storm.
Scientists have found evidence of an extreme solar 'tsunami' deep within the Earth's ice through analyses of ice cores from Greenland and Antarctica.
A magnetic dam is formed which is storing a big mass of plasma. At the end of a solar cycle, this magnetic dam can break, releasing huge amounts of plasma cascading like a tsunami towards the poles.
Therefore, statements 1, 3, 4, 6 & 7 are correct. Hence option (c) is correct.
Q16: Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide? (a) Cotton (b) Rice (c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat
Solution:
Ans: (b) Paddy (Rice) is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide. Presently paddy production is facing major challenges which include scarcity of irrigation water and ongoing climate change. Modification of current cropping techniques can increase yields, save water and reduce greenhouse gas emissions. Hence option (b) is correct.
Q17: "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:
Reduced seed requirement
Reduced methane production
Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution:
Ans: (d) The "Rice Intensification System" of agriculture, in which the paddy fields are alternately cleaved and dried, the main objective of this method is less requirement of seed, less production of methane and less consumption of electricity. Hence option (d) is correct.
FAQs on UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions 2022: Science & Technology
1. What is the significance of Science and Technology in the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. Science and Technology is an important topic in the UPSC Prelims exam as it helps in understanding the advancements, innovations, and their impact on society. It covers a wide range of topics including space technology, biotechnology, information technology, and more. The questions related to Science and Technology in the exam test the candidate's knowledge about these developments and their applications.
2. How can I prepare for the Science and Technology section of the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. To prepare for the Science and Technology section of the UPSC Prelims exam, candidates should focus on understanding the basic concepts of various scientific and technological advancements. They should regularly read newspapers, magazines, and online sources to stay updated with the latest developments in these fields. Additionally, referring to standard textbooks on Science and Technology and practicing previous year question papers can also help in effective preparation.
3. What are some important topics to study in Science and Technology for the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. Some important topics to study in Science and Technology for the UPSC Prelims exam include: - Space technology and its applications - Biotechnology and genetic engineering - Information technology and its impact on society - Energy resources and conservation - Nanotechnology and its applications - Environmental science and conservation - Robotics and artificial intelligence - Health and medical advancements
4. Are there any specific government initiatives or programs related to Science and Technology that I should be aware of for the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. Yes, there are several government initiatives and programs related to Science and Technology that candidates should be aware of for the UPSC Prelims exam. Some important ones include: - Make in India: A program to promote domestic manufacturing and technological advancements in the country. - Digital India: An initiative to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. - Swachh Bharat Mission: A campaign for clean India that includes technological solutions for waste management and sanitation. - Atal Innovation Mission: A government initiative to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship among students. - National Biotechnology Development Strategy: A roadmap for the growth of the biotechnology sector in India.
5. Can you give some tips to effectively answer Science and Technology questions in the UPSC Prelims exam?
Ans. To effectively answer Science and Technology questions in the UPSC Prelims exam, candidates should follow these tips: - Read the questions carefully and understand what is being asked. - Pay attention to keywords in the question as they can help in narrowing down the options. - Eliminate the options that are clearly incorrect before making a final choice. - Use the process of elimination if you are unsure about the correct answer. - Refer to diagrams, graphs, or tables provided in the question to gather additional information. - Keep track of time and allocate sufficient time to each question. - Practice previous year question papers to get familiar with the pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
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