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CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/Arts PDF Download

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:

  1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections – A, B, C, D and E.
  3. Section A – Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions carrying 1 mark each.
  4. Section B – Question number 18 and 19 are Source Based Questions carrying 3 marks each.
  5. Section C – Question number 2D to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
  6. Section D – Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
  7. Section E – Question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions.

Section – A

Q1. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided
below. 1
Assertion: Ozone is an important component of the atmosphere.
Reason: It prevents the earth as a shield from harmful UV rays.
Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
Ans: 
Option (B) is correct.
Ozone acts as a filter and absorbs the UV rays.

Q2. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of given codes: 1

CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/Arts

Options:
CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/ArtsAns: 
Option (B) is correct.

  • Population geography discusses different popula-tion-related concepts known as demographic studies.
  • Soil Geography studies soil and its related issues which is known as Pedology- soil science.
  • The study of climato-graphy is known as Meteorology.
  • And the study of social geography comes under sociology.


Q3. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its ……………… . 1
(A) Temperature
(B) Humidity
(C) Atmosphere
(D) None of these
Ans: 
Option (A) is correct.
Higher the temperature, more the capability of the air to hold moisture.

Q4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of the given options: 1
I. Terrestrial ecosystems can further be classified into ‘Homes’.
II. A biome can be defined as a total assemblage of plant and animal species interacting within specific conditions.
Options:
(A) Both statements are true
(B) Only statement I is true
(C) Only statement II is true
(D) Both statements are wrong
Ans: 
Option (A) is correct.
The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined by climate, therefore, a biome can be defined as a total assemblage of plant and animal species interacting within specific conditions.

Q5.Given below is a list of standard temperatures and distances related to them, identify which of the following pair
is not correctly matched. 1
CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/Arts

Ans: Option (A) is correct.
Standard temperature at sea level is 15.2°C.

Q6. The land-building forces are known as the: 1
(A) Endogenic forces
(B) Exogenic forces
(C) Geomorphic forces
(D) orogeny
Ans: 
Option (A) is correct.
The endogenic forces continuously elevate or build up parts of the earth’s surface leading to new land formations.

Q7. Thermal expansion and pressure release lead to: 1
(A) physical weathering
(B) hydration
(C) carbonation
(D) denudation
Ans: 
Option (A) is correct.
Physical or mechanical weathering processes depend on some applied forces. Most of the physical weathering processes are caused by thermal expansion and pressure release.

Q8. The consequence of erosion is: 1
(A) rock slide
(B) sliding mi
(C) deposition
(D) landslide
Ans: 
Option (C) is correct.
Deposition is a consequence of erosion. The erosional agents lose their velocity and hence energy on gentler slopes and the materials carried by them start to settle themselves.

Q9. Khadar and the Bhangar are divisions of: 1
(A) Alluvial plains
(B) Ganga plains
(C) Brahmaputra plains
(D) Northern plains
Ans: 
Option (A) is correct.
Khadar and Bhangar are the divisions of the Alluvial plains that are formed from the Himalayan river deposits.

Q10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options: 1
Statement I: Temperature decreases with height.
Statement II: January temperature of Agra is 16°C whereas it is only 4°C in Darjeeling.
(A) Only statement I is correct
(B) Only statement II is correct
(C) Both the statements are correct, and statement II correctly explains statement I
(D) Both the statements are true but not related with each other
Ans: 
Option (C) is correct.
In spite of being on same latitude, mountainous Darjeeling is cooler than Agra which is situated in plains and where thin air is there.

Q11. Arrange the following hills from North to South direction: 1
(i) Manipur Hills
(ii) Mizo Hills
(iii) Patkai Hills
(iv) Naga Hills
Options:
(A) i, ii, iv, iii
(B) ii, iii, i, iv
(C) iii, iv, i, ii
(D) iii, i, ii, iv
Ans: 
Option (C) is correct.
From North to South, hills can be arranged as Patkai Hills, Naga Hills, Manipur Hills, Mizo Hills.

Q12. This season is marked by a clear sky and a rise in temperature. 1
Above mentioned line is an important characteristic of which season?
(A) Cold weather
(B) Hot weather
(C) Southwest monsoon
(D) Retreating monsoon
Ans: 
Option (D) is correct.
It is the transition period between the summer and winter seasons when the southwest monsoon gradually becomes weaker and leaves the landmass.

Q13. Which one of the following is not a fact regarding South India? 1
(A) Diurnal range of temperature is less here.
(B) Annual range of temperature is less here.
(C) Temperature here is high throughout the year.
(D) Extreme climatic conditions are found here.
Ans: 
Option (D) is correct.
South India being surrounded by water bodies on three sides has a moderate climate, not extreme.

Q14. What causes rainfall on the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in the beginning of winters? 1
(A) South-West monsoon
(B) Temperate cyclones
(C) North-Eastern monsoon
(D) Local air circulation
Ans:
Option (C) is correct.
This winter rainfall is caused when the northeast wind takes a round in the Bay of Bengal and becomes moist to cause rainfall.

Study the following graph and answer questions no 15 to 17.
Q15.According to the graph, the correct sequence as per height (increasing): 1
(A) Thermosphere – Stratopause – Mesosphere
(B) Stratosphere – Mesopause – Mesosphere
(C) Mesosphere – Mesopause -Thermosphere
(D) Troposphere – Mesopause – Stratosphere
Ans: 
Option (C) is correct.
Mesosphere-60-70km, Mesopause-50-80 km and Thermosphere extends up to 600 km height.

Q16. According to the graph, the range (in km) of the mesosphere is: 1
(A) 40 – 50
(B) 80 – 120
(C) 50 – 80
(D) 30 – 90
Ans: 
Option (C) is correct.
Mesosphere extends from 50 km to 80 km.

Q17. According to the graph, tropopause lies between Stratosphere and ……………….. .
(A) Thermosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Tropopause
Ans: 
Option (C) is correct.
It is the upper limit of the troposphere.

Section – B

Question 18 & 19 are Source Based Questions.
Q18. Read the given Passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: 3
Rising from the height of 150 m above the river plains up to an elevation of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle known as the Peninsular Plateau. Delhi ridge in the northwest, (extension of Aravalis), the Rajmahal hills in the east, Gir range in the west and the Cardamom hills in the south constitute the outer extent of the Peninsular plateau. However, an extension of this is also seen in the northeast, in the form of the Shillong and Karbi-Anglong plateau. The Peninsular India is made up of a series of patland plateaus such as the Hazaribagh plateau, the Palamu plateau, the Ranchi plateau, the Malwa plateau, the Coimbatore plateau and the Karnataka plateau, etc.
This is one of the oldest and the most stable landmass of India. The general elevation of the plateau is from west to east, which is also proved by the pattern of the flow of rivers. Some of the important physiographic features of this region are tors, block mountains, rift valleys, spurs, bare rocky structures, series of hummocky hills and walllike quartzite dykes offering natural sites for water storage. The western and northwestern part of the plateau has an emphatic presence of black soil. This Peninsular Plateau has undergone recurrent phases of upliftment and submergence accompanied by crustal faulting and fractures. (The Bhima fault needs special mention, because of its recurrent seismic activities). These spatial variations have brought in elements of diversity in the relief of the Peninsular plateau. The northwestern part of the plateau has a complex relief of ravines and gorges. The ravines of Chambal, Bhind and Morena are some of the well-known examples.
a. Which part of India is made up of a series of Patland plateaus such as the Hazaribagh plateau, and the Palamu plateau?
b. Which soil has its emphatic presence in the western and northwestern part of the plateau?
c. What is the general elevation of the Peninsular Plateau in India?
Ans:

a. Peninsular India
b. Black soils
c. West to East

Q19. Observe the below-given map and answer the following. 3
CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/Artsa. Which type of vegetation is very less in India according to the above given map?b. Name the type of vegetation that occupy a maximum number of states compared to other types of vegetation.
c. Name two states where tropical thorn forest occupy maximum area.
Ans: 
a. Littoral and Swamp Forest
b. Tropical Deciduous Forests
c. Rajasthan and Gujarat

Section – C

Question numbers 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.
Q20. How does the continuous exchange of water takes place? 3
OR
Explain the process of evaporation. 3
Ans: 
The air contains water vapour. It varies from zero to four per cent by volume of the atmosphere and plays an important role in weather phenomena. Water is present in the atmosphere in three forms namely – gaseous, liquid and solid.
The moisture in the atmosphere is derived from water bodies through evaporation and from plants through transpiration.
Thus, there is a continuous exchange of water between the atmosphere, the oceans and the continents through the processes of evaporation, transpiration, condensation and precipitation.
OR
Evaporation is a process by which water is transformed from liquid to gaseous state. Heat is the main cause of evaporation. The temperature at which the water starts evaporating is referred to as the latent heat of vaporisation.
An increase in temperature increases the water absorption and retention capacity of the given parcel of air. Similarly, if the moisture content is low, the air has the potential of absorbing and retaining moisture.
The movement of air replaces the saturated layer with the unsaturated layer. Hence, the greater the movement of air, the greater is the evaporation.

Q21. Explain the Hypothesis known as the ‘sea floor spreading1 given by Hess. 3
Ans:

CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/ArtsHarry Hess argued that constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side. The ocean floor, thus spreads. The younger age of the oceanic crust as well as the fact that the spreading of one ocean does not cause the shrinking of the other, made Hess think about the consumption of the oceanic crust. He further maintained that the ocean floor that gets pushed due to volcanic eruptions at the crest, sinks down at the oceanic trenches and gets consumed.

Q22. Write the features of Central Highlands. 3
OR
On the basis of the prominent relief features, the Peninsular plateau can be divided into how many groups.
Ans: 
The features of the Central Highlands are:

  • They are bounded to the west by the Aravali range. The Satpura range is formed by a series of scarped plateaus on the South, generally at an elevation varying between 600 – 900 m above the mean sea level. This forms the northernmost boundary of the Deccan plateau.
  • This region has undergone metamorphic processes in its geological history, which can be corroborated by the presence of metamorphic rocks such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc.
  • The general elevation of the Central Highlands ranges between 700 – 1,000 m above the mean sea level and it slopes towards the North and northeastern directions.

OR
On the basis of the prominent relief features, the Peninsular plateau can be divided into three groups:
(i) The Deccan Plateau: This is bordered by the Western Ghats in the West, the Eastern Ghats in the East and the Satpura, Maikal range and Mahadeo hills in the North. Some of the important ranges include the Javadi Hills, the Palconda Range, the Nallamala Hills, the Mahendragiri Hills, etc. The Eastern and Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.
(ii) The Central Highlands: They are bounded to the West by the Aravali range. The Satpura range is formed by a series of scarped plateaus on the South, generally at an elevation varying between 600 – 900 m above the mean sea level.
(iii) The Northeastern Plateau: In fact, it is an extension of the main Peninsular Plateau. It is believed that due to the force exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian Plate at the time of the Himalayan origin, a huge fault was created between the Rajmahal Hills and the Meghalaya Plateau. The Meghalaya Plateau is further subdivided into three : (i) The Garo Hills; (ii) The Khasi Hills; (iii) The Jaintia Hills, named after the tribal groups inhabiting this region.

Q23. What do you understand by dwarf planets? 3
Ans: According to the International Astronomical Union (IAU) on August 24,2006, a planet is a celestial body that:

  1. Orbits the sun.
  2. Has sufficient mass so that it assumes a hydrostatic equilibrium (nearly round) shape.
  3. The non-satellite bodies fulfilling these two rules are called dwarf planets. Pluto is now considered a dwarf planet. Ceres, Eris, Makemake, and Haumea are some other dwarf planets.

Section – D

Question numbers 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.
Q24. Write a note on the physical features of the coastal plains. 5
Ans: 
On the basis of the location and active geomorpho- logical processes, it can be broadly divided into two:

  • The western coastal plain
  • The eastern coastal plains

The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plains. It is believed that the city of Dwaraka which was once a part of the Indian mainland situated along the west coast is submerged under water. Because of this submergence, it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast.
Extending from the Gujarat coast in the north to the Kerala coast in the south, the western coast may be divided into the following divisions – the Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat, Konkan coast in Maharashtra, Goa coast and Malabar coast in Karnataka and Kerala respectively. The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards the north and south. The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters), which are used for fishing, inland navigation and also due to its special attraction for tourists.
As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. There are well-developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward into the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbours.

Q25. Which modern theory is associated with the evolution of the earth? 5
Ans: 
(i) The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called the Expanding Universe Hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920, provided evidence that the universe is expanding. As time passes, galaxies move further and further apart. In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a “tiny ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density.
(ii) At the Big Bang, the ‘tiny ball’ exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. It is now generally accepted that the event of the Big Bang took place 13.7 billion years before the present. The expansion continues even to the present day.
(iii) As it grew, some energy was converted into matter. There was particularly rapid expansion within fractions of a second after the bang. Thereafter, the expansion has slowed down. Within the first three minutes of the Big Bang event, the first atom began to form.
(iv) Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, the temperature dropped to 4,500 K and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent. The expansion of the universe means an increase in space between the galaxies.

Q26. Explain the factors that affect the insolation of the surface of the earth. 5
OR
What do you know about the heat budget of the earth?
Ans: 
The factors that affect the insolation of the surface of the earth are:
(i) Rotation of the Earth on its axis: The fact that the Earth’s axis makes an angle of 661/2 with the plane of its orbit around the sun has a greater influence ’on the amount of insolation received at different latitudes.
(ii) Angle of inclination of the sun’s rays: The higher the latitude the less the angle they make with the surface of the earth resulting in slant sun’s rays. The area covered by vertical rays is always less than the slant rays. If more area is covered, the energy gets distributed and the net energy received per unit area decreases. Moreover, the slant rays are required to pass through greater depth of the atmosphere resulting in more absorption, scattering and diffusion.
(iii) Length of the day: The duration of the day affects the amount of solar radiation received at the surface of the earth. The longer length of the day ensures a larger supply of radiation which a particular area of the earth will receive. The latitude exercises the most dominant control over the length of the day.
(iv) Transparency of the atmosphere: The atmosphere is largely transparent to short-wave solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the near-infrared radiation.
(v) Configuration of land in terms of its aspect: The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 watts/m2 in the tropics to about 70 watts/m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. The Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Generally, at the same latitude, the insolation is more over the continent than over the ocean.
OR
B. Heat budget of the earth
CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/Arts(i) The earth as a whole does not accumulate or lose heat. It maintains its temperature. This can happen only if the amount of heat received in the form of insolation equals the amount lost by the earth through terrestrial radiation.
(ii) Only the remaining part reaches the earth’s surface. Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space even before reaching the Earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice-covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
(iii) The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface. The earth radiates back 51 units in the form of terrestrial radiation. Of these, 17 units are radiated to space directly and the remaining 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere (6 units absorbed directly by the atmosphere, 9 units through convection and turbulence and 19 units through latent heat of condensation). 48 units absorbed by the atmosphere (14 units from insolation +34 units from terrestrial radiation) are also radiated back into space.
(iv) Thus, the total radiation returning from the earth and the atmosphere respectively is 17 + 48 = 65 units which balances the total of 65 units received from the sun. This is termed the heat budget or heat balance of the earth.

Q27. ‘The size of India has endowed her with great physical diversity’. Explain. 5
OR
Explain the spatial variation in the rainfall throughout the country.
Ans: 
The size of India has endowed her with great physical diversity. Thus, you may appreciate the presence of lofty mountains in the north; large rivers such as Ganga, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari and Kaveri; green forested hills in the North East and South India; and the vast sandy expanse of Marusthali. Further appreciate that India is bounded by the Himalayas in the north, Hindukush and Sulaiman ranges in the northwest, Purvachal hills in the North-East and by the large expanse of the Indian ocean in the South, it forms a great geographic entity known as the Indian subcontinent. It includes the countries – Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and India.
The Himalayas, together with other ranges, have acted as a formidable physical barrier in the past. Except for a few mountains passes such as the Khyber, the Bolan, the Shipkila, the Nathula, the Bomdila, etc. it was difficult to cross it. It has contributed towards the evolving of a unique regional identity of the Indian subcontinent. Peninsular part of India extends towards the Indian Ocean. This has provided the country with a coastline of 6,100 km in the mainland and 7,517 km in the entire geographical coast of the mainland plus the island groups Andaman and Nicobar located in the Bay of Bengal and the Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea. Thus India, as a country, is a physically diverse land providing occurrence of varied resources.
OR
There is a great variation in rainfall throughout the country.
(i) While Cherrapunji and Mawsynram in the Khasi Hills of Meghalaya receive rainfall of over 1,080cm in a year, Jaisalmer in Rajasthan rarely gets more than 9 cm of rainfall during the same period.
(ii) Tura situated in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya may receive an amount of rainfall in a single day that is equal to 10 years of rainfall at Jaisalmer. While the annual precipitation is less than 10 cm in the North¬West Himalayas and the western deserts, it exceeds 400 cm in Meghalaya.
(iii) The highest rainfall occurs along the west coast, on the Western Ghats s well as in the sub-Himalayan areas in the North-West and the hills of Meghalaya, with rainfall exceeding 200 cm. In some parts of the Khasi and Jaintia hills, the rainfall exceeds 1,000 cm. in the Brahmaputra valley and the adjoining hills, rainfall is less than 200 cm.
(iv) Rainfall between 100 – 200 cm is received in southern parts of Gujarat, east Tamil Nadu, Northeastern Peninsular covering Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, eastern Madhya Pradesh, Northern Ganga Plain along the sub-Himalayas and the Cachar Valley and Manipur.
(v) Western Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, eastern Rajasthan, Gujarat and Deccan Plateau receives rainfall between 50 – 100 cm.

Q28. Explain the features of hot weather season. 5
OR
Explain the important features of the winter season of India.
Ans:

The features of the hot season are:
(i) April, May and June are the months of summer in north India. In most parts of India, temperatures recorded are between 30° – 32°C. In March, the highest day temperature of about 38°C occurs in the Deccan Plateau while in April, temperatures ranging between 38°C and 43°C are found in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

(ii) The hot weather season in South India is mild and not as intense as found in north India. The Peninsular situation of South India with the moderating effect of the oceans keeps the temperatures lower than that prevailing in North India. So, temperatures remain between 26°C and 32°C.

(iii) The mean daily minimum temperature during the summer months also remains quite high and rarely goes below 26°C.

(iv) The summer months are a period of excessive heat and falling air pressure in the northern half of the country. Because of the heating of the subcontinent, the ITCZ moves northwards occupying a position centred at 25°N in July. Roughly, this elongated low- pressure monsoon trough extends over the Thar desert in the northwest to Patna and Chotanagpur plateau in the east-southeast.

(v) The location of the ITCZ attracts a surface circulation of the winds which are south-westerly on the west coast as well as along the coast of West Bengal and Bangladesh. They are easterly or southeasterly over north Bengal and Bihar. It has been discussed earlier that these currents of south-westerly monsoon are in reality ‘displaced’ equatorial westerlies. The influx of these winds by mid-June brings about a change in the weather towards the rainy season.
OR
The important features of the winter season of India are:
(i) Usually, the cold weather season sets in by mid- November in northern India. December and January are the coldest months in the northern plain. The mean daily temperature remains below 21°C, over most parts of northern India.

(ii) The night temperature may be quite low, sometimes going below freezing point in Punjab and Rajasthan.

(iii) The Peninsular region of India, however, does not have any well-defined cold weather season. There
is hardly any seasonal change in the distribution pattern of the temperature in coastal areas because of the moderating influence of the sea and the proximity to the equator.

(iv) The isobars of 1019 mb and 1013 mb pass through northwest India and far south, respectively. As a result, winds start blowing from the northwestern high-pressure zone to the low-air-pressure zone over the Indian Ocean in the south.

(v) During the winters, the weather in India is pleasant. The pleasant weather conditions, however, at intervals, get disturbed by shallow cyclonic depres-sions originating over the east Mediterranean Sea and travelling eastwards across West Asia, Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan before they reach the northwestern parts of India.

Section – E

Question numbers 29 & 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub-parts each.
Q29. Locate and label any 5 of the following features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India. 5
CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/Arts(A) Konkan coast(B) Malabar coast
(C) Central highlands
(D) Coromandel coast
(E) Deccan plateau
(F) The Great Indian Desert
(G) Eastern ghats
Ans:

CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/Arts(A) Konkan coast(B) Malabar coast
(C) Central highlands
(D) Coromandel coast
(E) Deccan plateau
(F) The Great Indian Desert
(G) Eastern ghats (Any five)

Q30. In the given outline map of the world there are five items marked as A, B, C, D and E. Identify the features with the help of information given below and write their correct names on the map: 5
(A) Hotspot
(B) Major seaport of Asia
(C) Major plate
(D) Largest country in Asia
(E) Major airport of South America
(F) Most stable landmass of India

CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/ArtsAns:
CBSE Sample Question Paper (2023-24) - 3 | Geography Class 11 - Humanities/Arts(A) Queensland
(B) Beijing
(C) North American Plate
(D) Russia
(E) Santiago
(F) Peninsular Plateau

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