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GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

General Awareness

Q1: Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: During a lunar eclipse, the shadow of Earth falls on the Moon. 
Statement 2: During a lunar eclipse, the Sun, Earth and the Moon are aligned in a straight line. 

(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

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Ans: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct because during a lunar eclipse, the Earth's shadow indeed falls on the Moon.
  • Statement 2 is also correct as it describes the alignment of the Sun, Earth, and Moon during a lunar eclipse, which is in a straight line.
  • Since both statements are true, the correct answer is option (a)
  • This phenomenon occurs when the Earth is positioned directly between the Sun and the Moon, blocking sunlight from reaching the Moon.

Q2: What is the chemical composition of dry ice, which is mainly used as a cooling agent and is colder than regular ice made from frozen water, leaving no residue?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Iron oxide

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Ans: (b)

  • Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide, which is why its chemical composition is carbon dioxide.
  • It is much colder than regular ice, making it effective for cooling purposes.
  • Unlike regular ice, dry ice does not leave any residue when it sublimates, meaning it turns directly from solid to gas.
  • This property makes it useful in various applications, such as in shipping perishable goods.

Q3: _________ is an instrument that records the vibrations produced by an earthquake. This device is also utilized in petroleum exploration and for monitoring volcanic activity.
(a) Barometer
(b) Seismograph
(c) Anemometer
(d) Thermometer

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Ans: (b)

  • Seismograph is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to detect and record the vibrations from earthquakes.
  • This instrument helps scientists understand the magnitude and location of seismic events.
  • Additionally, it is valuable in petroleum exploration and in monitoring volcanic activity, making it versatile.
  • Other options like barometer and anemometer serve different purposes, such as measuring air pressure and wind speed, respectively.

Q4: This was India's first unmanned Earth satellite developed by ISRO. This satellite was launched on April, 1975 from Kapustin Yar, Russia. Identify it.
(a) SLV-3
(b) Aryabhata
(c) PSLV-C37
(d) Falcon-9

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Ans: (b)

  • Aryabhata was India's first unmanned Earth satellite, marking a significant achievement for ISRO.
  • It was launched in April 1975 from Kapustin Yar, Russia.
  • This satellite played a crucial role in advancing India's space technology and research.
  • The other options, such as SLV-3, PSLV-C37, and Falcon-9, refer to different missions or satellites, but not the first unmanned satellite.

Q5: This National Park in the United States features a geyser known as 'Old Faithful', renowned for its regular eruptions occurring approximately every 44 to 125 minutes throughout the year. What is the name of this National Park?
(a) Zion National Park
(b) Yellowstone National Park
(c) Yosemite National Park
(d) Grand Canyon National Park

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Ans: (b)

  • Yellowstone National Park is famous for the geyser 'Old Faithful', which erupts consistently.
  • The eruptions happen roughly every 44 to 125 minutes, making it a reliable natural spectacle.
  • This park is located primarily in Wyoming and is the first national park in the world.
  • Visitors come from all over to witness this natural wonder, which is a key highlight of Yellowstone.

Q6: This is a razor-toothed carnivorous fish of South American rivers and lakes belonging to family Serrasalmidae. Most of its species are scavengers but are classified as omnivores. Identify it.
(a) Piranha
(b) Blobfish
(c) Oscar fish
(d) Blue tang

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Ans: (a)

  • Piranhas are known for their sharp teeth and are primarily found in the rivers and lakes of South America.
  • While many species of piranhas are scavengers, they are generally classified as omnivores because they eat both plants and animals.
  • This fish is famous for its aggressive feeding behavior, especially in groups.
  • Other options like Blobfish, Oscar fish, and Blue tang do not belong to the same family or have the same characteristics as piranhas.

Q7: Which of these is large intestine?
(a)

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6
(b)
GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6
(c)
GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6
(d)
GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6
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Ans: (a)
Large intestine absorbs vitamins and propels feces towards rectum.

Q8: Who was the inaugural player to claim the first Wimbledon Championship trophy?
(a) John Isner
(b) Pete Sampras
(c) Spencer Gore
(d) Roger Federer

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Ans: (c)

  • Spencer Gore was the first player to win the Wimbledon Championship trophy in 1877.
  • This event marked the beginning of the prestigious tennis tournament, which is now one of the four Grand Slam events.
  • Gore's victory is significant as it set the stage for the future of tennis at Wimbledon.
  • Understanding the history of Wimbledon helps appreciate its importance in the sport today.

Q9: Unscramble the letters to identify the name of a medication derived from the bark of cinchona trees, commonly used to treat malaria.
(a) CLIARGB
(b) POUMIC
(c) IIUNENQD
(d) TOAINRPE

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Ans: (c)

  • IIUNENQD unscrambles to Quinine, which is a well-known drug.
  • This medication is specifically extracted from the bark of cinchona trees.
  • Quinine has been historically significant in the treatment of malaria, a disease caused by parasites transmitted through mosquito bites.
  • Other options do not correspond to any recognized drug used for malaria treatment.

Q10: Fill in the blanks with the correct terms and choose the right option. P. The mass per unit volume of a substance is referred to as (i). Q. The solubility of gases in water 
(ii) as the temperature rises.
(a) (i) - Density, (ii) - Increases
(b) (i) - Pressure, (ii) - Decreases
(c) (i) - Force, (ii) - Increases
(d) (i) - Density, (ii) - Decreases

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Ans: (d)

  • Density is defined as the mass of a substance divided by its volume, making it a key property in understanding materials.
  • As for the solubility of gases, it generally decreases when the temperature increases, meaning gases are less likely to dissolve in warmer water.
  • Thus, the correct answers are (i) - Density and (ii) - Decreases.
  • This reflects the relationship between temperature and gas solubility in liquids.

Q11: Read the following statements and identify the incorrect one.
(a) Recycling results in a higher use of raw materials.
(b) Recycling helps reduce the landfill space used for waste disposal.
(c) Recycling contributes to a cleaner and healthier environment.
(d) None of these

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Ans: (a)

  • Recycling is meant to reduce the need for new raw materials, not increase it. Therefore, option A is incorrect.
  • Option B is correct because recycling indeed helps in saving landfill space by reducing the amount of waste that needs to be disposed of.
  • Option C is also correct as recycling leads to a cleaner and healthier environment by minimizing pollution and waste.
  • Option D states that none of the options are incorrect, which is not true since option A is incorrect.

Q12: When did the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occur, where British soldiers opened fire on a large group of unarmed Indians in a public area?
(a) August, 1919
(b) May, 1920
(c) August, 1927
(d) April, 1919

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Ans: (d)

  • The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre happened on April 13, 1919, when British troops fired on a peaceful gathering of unarmed Indians.
  • This tragic event is a significant part of Indian history, highlighting the struggle against British colonial rule.
  • The incident led to widespread outrage and is remembered as a pivotal moment in the fight for Indian independence.
  • April 1919 is crucial as it marks a turning point in the Indian freedom movement.

Q13: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(a) The Sebum glands produce sebum which prevents our skin from getting too dry.
(b) The Adrenal gland is located just above the heart.
(c) Vitamin A is needed for good eyesight.
(d) Vitamin D is produced in the body when skin is exposed to sunlight.

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Ans: (b)
The Adrenal gland is located just above the kidneys.

Q14: He received the Hans Christian Andersen Literature Award in 2014 and his book 'Midnight's Children' won the Booker Prize in 1981. Who is he?
(a) Neil Gaiman
(b) Salman Rushdie
(c) Lord Byron
(d) J.R.R. Tolkien

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Ans: (b)

  • Salman Rushdie is a renowned author known for his significant contributions to literature.
  • He was honored with the Hans Christian Andersen Literature Award in 2014, recognizing his impact on the literary world.
  • His famous novel, 'Midnight's Children', won the prestigious Booker Prize in 1981, showcasing his talent and creativity.
  • These achievements highlight his importance in contemporary literature.

Q15: This large cactus has an accordion-like pleated structure and grows larger when it absorbs water. Its bloom is recognized as the state wildflower of Arizona. What is it?
(a) Peyote
(b) Prickly pear
(c) Saguaro
(d) Ocotillo

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is Saguaro. This cactus is known for its unique accordion-like pleats that allow it to expand when it absorbs water, making it well-suited for the desert environment.
  • Additionally, the Saguaro flower is the official state wildflower of Arizona, highlighting its significance in the region.
  • Other options like Peyote and Prickly pear are different types of cacti, but they do not have the same characteristics as the Saguaro.
  • Understanding these features helps in identifying the Saguaro cactus easily.

Q16: What is the name of NASA's initiative aimed at landing the first woman and the first person of color on the Moon, utilizing advanced technologies to explore a greater portion of the lunar surface than ever before?
(a) Artemis Program
(b) Space Exploration Program
(c) Skylab
(d) Gemini Program

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Ans: (a)

  • NASA's Artemis Program is designed to achieve the historic goal of landing the first woman and the first person of color on the Moon.
  • This mission focuses on using innovative technologies to enhance our exploration capabilities.
  • It aims to explore more of the lunar surface than any previous missions.
  • The Artemis Program represents a significant step in space exploration and inclusivity in science.

Q17: What does the French expression "au fait" signify?
(a) Having a good knowledge of something
(b) On the contrary
(c) Clever comment
(d) Make a good comment

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Ans: (a)

  • Au fait is a French term that translates to being well-informed or knowledgeable about a particular subject.
  • It indicates that someone is familiar with the details or nuances of a topic.
  • The other options do not accurately reflect the meaning of the phrase.
  • Thus, the correct answer is A, as it captures the essence of being knowledgeable.

Q18: Read the following statements carefully and identify the one that is incorrect.
(a) Political maps display cities, towns, villages, various countries, and states along with their borders.
(b) Mountains, plateaus, and plains are depicted on political maps.
(c) The three key elements of maps are distance, direction, and symbol.
(d) Scale represents the ratio between the distance indicated on the map and the actual distance on the ground.

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Ans: (b)

  • Explanation: The statement in option B is incorrect because mountains, plateaus, and plains are typically shown on thematic maps, not political maps. Political maps focus on boundaries and locations of places, while thematic maps provide specific information about a particular theme, such as physical features. The other options correctly describe the functions and components of maps.

Q19: Select the accurate statement about the Moon.
(a) There is no air on the Moon.
(b) The Moon requires approximately 365 days to finish one lunar cycle.
(c) The gravity of the Moon is much stronger than that of Earth.
(d) The Moon experiences extreme temperatures, with the highest and lowest being and respectively.

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Ans: (a)

  • Air is not present on the Moon, which means that humans cannot breathe there without special equipment.
  • The Moon does not take 365 days for a lunar cycle; it actually takes about 29.5 days to complete one cycle from new moon to new moon.
  • The Moon's gravity is much weaker than Earth's, about 1/6th of Earth's gravity.
  • While the Moon does have extreme temperatures, the specific values are not provided in the options.

Q20: Singhbhum tribals of Bihar district initiated a protest when the government planned to substitute the natural sal forest with teak. This movement was referred to as "Greed Game Political Populism". It subsequently expanded to Jharkhand and Odisha. What is the name of this movement? Select the correct option.
(a) Save Silent Valley Movement
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Jungle Bachao Andolan
(d) Appiko Movement

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Ans: (c)

  • The movement is known as the Jungle Bachao Andolan. This name reflects the aim of the tribals to protect their forests.
  • It started in Singhbhum, Bihar, and was a response to the government's decision to replace natural sal forests.
  • The term "Greed Game Political Populism" highlights the political motives behind the deforestation.
  • This movement gained traction and spread to neighboring states like Jharkhand and Odisha.

Q21: Noh and Kabuki are traditional theatrical forms of which country?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Russia
(d) India

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Ans: (b)

  • Noh and Kabuki are both unique and historic forms of theater that originated in Japan.
  • Noh is known for its slow, stylized movements and use of masks, while Kabuki is famous for its elaborate costumes and dynamic performances.
  • These art forms reflect the rich cultural heritage and artistic traditions of Japan.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Japan, as it is the country where both Noh and Kabuki originated.

Q22: Who was the designated mascot for UEFA EURO 2020?
(a) Skillzy
(b) Super Victor
(c) Slavek
(d) Trix and Flix

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Ans: (a)

  • Skillzy was chosen as the official mascot for UEFA EURO 2020, representing the spirit of the tournament.
  • This mascot is designed to embody the excitement and energy of football, appealing to fans of all ages.
  • Skillzy is a character that promotes skills and creativity in football, making it relatable to young players.
  • The selection of a mascot like Skillzy helps to engage audiences and create a festive atmosphere around the event.

Q23: A dead language is defined as one that is no longer the native language of any community, even if it is still used. Which of the following is considered a dead language?
(a) Mandarin
(b) Bosnian
(c) Latin
(d) Quechua

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Ans: (c)

  • Latin is classified as a dead language because it is no longer spoken as a native language by any community.
  • While it is still used in certain contexts, such as in the Catholic Church and in scientific terminology, it does not have native speakers.
  • In contrast, languages like Mandarin, Bosnian, and Quechua are actively spoken by communities today.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Latin, as it fits the definition of a dead language.

Q24: Identify the correct name of the Marvel superhero, created by writer Stan Lee and artist Jack Kirby, who changes into a green-skinned, muscular being with immense physical strength.
(a) Iron Man
(b) Hulk
(c) Thor
(d) Captain America

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Ans: (b)

  • Hulk is the superhero in question, known for his transformation into a powerful green-skinned giant.
  • He was created by Stan Lee and Jack Kirby, two iconic figures in comic book history.
  • The character is famous for his incredible physical strength and is a key member of the Avengers.
  • Unlike other superheroes, Hulk's power increases with his anger, making him one of the strongest characters in the Marvel universe.

Q25: What is the term for a person who performs acrobatics on tightropes?
(a) Chirographer
(b) Chiropodist
(c) Funambulist
(d) Orthodontist

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Ans: (c)

  • Funambulist refers to someone who walks on a tightrope or performs acrobatics on ropes. This term comes from the Latin words for "rope" and "to walk."
  • The other options are incorrect: A chirographer is related to handwriting, a chiropodist is a foot specialist, and an orthodontist deals with teeth alignment.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Funambulist, as it specifically describes the skill of walking on ropes.

Q26: The highest civilian award in India is (a) Bharat Ratna
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Param Vir Chakra
(d) Padma Shri

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Ans: (a)

  • Bharat Ratna is recognized as the most prestigious civilian award in India.
  • It is awarded for exceptional service towards the advancement of art, literature, and science, as well as for public service.
  • Other options like Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri are also significant awards but are not the highest.
  • The Param Vir Chakra is a military honor, not a civilian award.

Q27: What organ is affected by cirrhosis?
(a) Spleen
(b) Heart
(c) Liver
(d) Pancreas

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Ans: (c)

  • Cirrhosis is primarily a disease of the Liver, which is crucial for many bodily functions.
  • This condition involves the gradual replacement of healthy liver tissue with scar tissue, impairing its ability to function.
  • Common causes include chronic alcohol abuse, viral hepatitis, and fatty liver disease.
  • Recognizing cirrhosis early can help manage symptoms and prevent further liver damage.

Q28: The ozone hole is located in the: [2019]
(a) Troposphere Over the Arctic
(b) Stratosphere Over the Antarctica
(c) Stratosphere Over the Arctic
(d) Troposphere Over the Antarctica

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Ans: (b)
The ozone layer is present in the stratosphere over Antarctica. Ozone prevents the harmful ultra-violet radiations of the Sun from reaching the Earth.

Q29: Match the types of animals given in column (A) with the correct option of column (B)
GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6

(a) 1-iii;  2-i;  3-iv;  4-ii 
(b) 1-iv;  2-iii;  3-ii;  4-i 
(c) 1-ii;  2-i;  3-iv;  4-iii 
(d) 1-ii;  2-iv;  3-i;  4-iii

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Ans: (d)
Aerial animals spend some part of their time in air, amphibians can live both in water and on land, aquatic animals live in water and arboreal animals spend majority of their time on trees.

Q30: Select the false statement regarding email.
(a) Email can be sent to more than one recipient at a time.
(b) Recipient's name can be concealed from others by adding their names in Cc.
(c) Photos and documents can be easily shared through email.
(d) None of these

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Ans: (b)

  • Recipient's name can be concealed from others by adding their names in Cc is incorrect because Cc stands for "carbon copy," which means all recipients can see who else received the email. To hide recipients, you should use Bcc (blind carbon copy).
  • Email is a versatile tool that allows sending messages to multiple people at once, making it efficient for communication.
  • Sharing photos and documents via email is straightforward, as attachments can be easily included.
  • Understanding the difference between Cc and Bcc is crucial for maintaining privacy in email communications.

Current Affairs

Q31: Who claimed the men's singles championship at the 2022 French Open Tennis Tournament?
(a) Rafael Nadal
(b) Novak Djokovic
(c) Roger Federer
(d) Alexander Zverev

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Ans: (a)

  • Rafael Nadal emerged victorious in the men's singles at the 2022 French Open, adding to his impressive record at this tournament.
  • This win marked Nadal's 14th title at the French Open, showcasing his dominance on clay courts.
  • His performance was characterized by exceptional skill and resilience, defeating strong competitors along the way.
  • Nadal's achievement further solidified his status as one of the greatest tennis players in history.

Q32: What was the focus of World Environment Day 2022?
(a) Ecosystem Restoration
(b) Only One Earth
(c) Time for Nature
(d) Climate Change

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Ans: (b)

  • World Environment Day 2022 centered around the theme "Only One Earth," emphasizing the need for sustainable living.
  • This theme highlights the importance of protecting our planet and its resources.
  • It encourages individuals and communities to take action towards environmental conservation.
  • By focusing on this theme, the event aimed to raise awareness about the fragility of our ecosystem.

Q33: Which country achieved its first medal at the IBSA Judo Grand Prix 2022?
(a) Japan
(b) Brazil
(c) India
(d) United States of America

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Ans: (c)

  • India made history by winning its first ever medal at the IBSA Judo Grand Prix 2022.
  • This event is significant as it showcases the growth of judo in India.
  • The achievement highlights the hard work and dedication of Indian athletes in the sport.
  • Winning a medal at such a prestigious event boosts the morale of the entire sports community in India.

Q34: In which country was the ISSF Junior World Cup 2022 conducted?
(a) Germany
(b) Spain
(c) Italy
(d) England

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Ans: (a)

  • ISSF Junior World Cup 2022 took place in Germany, making it a significant event for young shooters.
  • This competition is part of the International Shooting Sport Federation events, showcasing talent from various countries.
  • Germany was chosen for its excellent facilities and history in hosting international shooting events.
  • Other options like France, Italy, and England are notable countries but did not host this particular event.

Q35: Who is the present Minister of Tribal Affairs in India?
(a) Arjun Munda
(b) Nitin Gadkari
(c) Narendra Singh Tomar
(d) Amit Shah

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Ans: (a)

  • Arjun Munda is the current Minister of Tribal Affairs in India, responsible for the welfare and development of tribal communities.
  • The role involves implementing policies and programs aimed at improving the living standards of tribal people.
  • Other options like Nitin Gadkari and Narendra Singh Tomar hold different ministerial positions, but not Tribal Affairs.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Arjun Munda, as he is actively serving in this role.

Q36: World Health Day is celebrated annually on which date?
(a) June
(b) February
(c) April
(d) March

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Ans: (c)

  • World Health Day is recognized every year on April 7. This day aims to raise awareness about global health issues.
  • The observance was established by the World Health Organization (WHO) to promote health and well-being.
  • Each year, a specific theme is chosen to focus on a particular health concern.
  • It serves as a reminder for individuals and communities to prioritize their health.

Q37: Who among the following was awarded the Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM) in 2022?
(a) SM Shrinagesh
(b) KS Thimayya
(c) KV Krishna Rao
(d) Neeraj Chopra

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Ans: (d)

  • Neeraj Chopra is the recipient of the Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM) for the year 2022.
  • This award is given to recognize exceptional service in the armed forces.
  • Neeraj Chopra is well-known for his achievements in javelin throw, making him a celebrated athlete.
  • His contributions have not only brought him personal accolades but have also enhanced India's reputation in sports.

Q38: Who is the present Chief Minister of Maharashtra?
(a) Devendra Fadnavis
(b) Eknath Shinde
(c) Uddhav Thackeray
(d) Sharad Pawar

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Ans: (b)

  • Eknath Shinde is the current Chief Minister of Maharashtra, having taken office in June 2022.
  • The role of the Chief Minister is crucial as they lead the state government and make important decisions.
  • Devendra Fadnavis and Uddhav Thackeray are former Chief Ministers, but they are not in office now.
  • Understanding the political landscape is important, as it helps in knowing who is in charge of the state's administration.

Q39: Which nation was the host for the 2022 Women's FIH Hockey World Cup?
(a) India and Bangladesh
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Canada
(d) Spain and Netherlands

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Ans: (d)

  • Spain and Netherlands were the co-hosts for the 2022 Women's FIH Hockey World Cup, showcasing their facilities and support for women's sports.
  • This event highlighted the global nature of hockey, bringing together teams from around the world to compete at a high level.
  • Hosting such a prestigious tournament helps to promote hockey and encourages more participation in the sport.
  • Both countries have a strong hockey tradition, making them ideal hosts for this international event.

Q40: Who won the Pulitzer Prize in 2022 for fiction with the book 'The Netanyahus'?
(a) Joshua Cohen
(b) Deborah Chasman
(c) Hilton Als
(d) Martin Riker

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Ans: (a)

  • Joshua Cohen is recognized for his outstanding work in fiction, specifically for his book titled 'The Netanyahus'.
  • The Pulitzer Prize is a prestigious award that honors excellence in various fields, including literature.
  • Winning this award highlights the significance and impact of Cohen's writing in the literary world.
  • Other options listed are notable individuals, but they did not win the Pulitzer Prize in this category for the specified year.

Life Skills

Q41: A low self-esteem can diminish the quality of an individual's life in various aspects. Which of the following is not a factor contributing to low self-esteem?
(a) Medical or mental health problem
(b) Stressful life events
(c) Comparison to others
(d) Self reliance

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Self-reliance refers to the ability to depend on oneself and make independent decisions. It is generally considered a positive trait.
  • In contrast, medical or mental health problems, stressful life events, and comparison to others can negatively impact a person's self-esteem.
  • These factors can lead to feelings of inadequacy and low self-worth, while self-reliance promotes confidence and self-assurance.
  • Thus, self-reliance is not a cause of low self-esteem, making it the correct answer.

Q42: Which of the following statements accurately describe the benefits of active listening?
(i) It helps to build connections. 
(ii) It helps to increase your knowledge and understanding of various topics. 
(iii) It helps to avoid missing critical information. 
(iv) It leads to errors and ineffective decisions. 
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Active listening is a crucial skill that enhances communication. It helps to build connections with others, making interactions more meaningful.
  • By engaging in active listening, you can increase your knowledge and understanding of various topics, as you are more focused on what is being said.
  • This practice also ensures that you do not miss critical information, which is essential for effective decision-making.
  • However, it does not lead to errors or ineffective decisions, which is why option (iv) is incorrect.

Q43: Who is credited with the quote, "The true sign of intelligence is not knowledge but imagination"? 
(a) Albert Einstein
(b) Chanakya
(c) Stephen Hawking
(d) Mark Twain

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Albert Einstein is the person who is known for this insightful quote. It emphasizes that true intelligence is more about creativity and imagination rather than just having information.
  • This quote suggests that while knowledge is important, the ability to think creatively and imagine new possibilities is what truly defines intelligence.
  • Einstein, a renowned physicist, often highlighted the significance of imagination in scientific discovery and innovation.
  • Thus, the correct answer is A, as it reflects Einstein's belief in the power of imagination over mere knowledge.

Q44: Which of these moral stories show that the character in the story was discontentful?
(a) King Midas and the Golden Touch
(b) Woodcutter and the Axe
(c) The Ant and The Grasshopper
(d) The Rabbit and The Tortoise

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a) 
In the story, King Midas got golden touch as the wish. In his greed, he wanted to turn everything he touches into gold. He came to senses when he was not able to eat or drink anything and touch his daughter. 

Q45: You are an excellent cricket player and have served as the captain of your school cricket team. How should you respond if your coach appoints one of your teammates as captain to enhance their leadership skills?
(a) Respect your coach's decision and encourage your new captain.
(b) Disagree with your coach and demand to be made captain.
(c) Quit the team.
(d) None of these.

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Respecting your coach's decision is important as it shows maturity and teamwork.
  • By encouraging your new captain, you help foster a positive team environment.
  • Arguing or leaving the team would not be constructive and could harm team morale.
  • Supporting your coach's choice can also help you develop your own leadership skills.

Achievers Section

Q46: Who were the first living organisms to be born on the Earth?
(a) Plants
(b) Animals
(c) Human beings
(d) All of these

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)
It is believed by the scientists that life originated on the Earth in the form of a micro-organism plant.

Q47: How many years are taken by our solar system to rotate around the Milky Way?
(a) 100 million
(b) 150 million
(c) 225 million
(d) 350 million

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)
Our solar system is also revolving around the center of the Milky Way galaxy.

Q48: Primary rocks are formed by __________ .
(a) cooling and solidification of lava (b) compression of sand into layers
(c) change in properties of parent rock
(d) all of the above

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Primary rocks are also known as igneous rocks.

Q49: Read the given statements carefully and select the correct option.
Statement 1: The number 465982 when rounded off to nearest thousands gives 460000.
Statement 2: The sum of greatest and smallest 4-digit number that can be formed from the digits 7, 0, 5, and 3 (using each digit only once) is 10587.

(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Statement 1 is false because when rounding 465982 to the nearest thousand, it actually becomes 466000, not 460000.
  • Statement 2 is also false because the greatest 4-digit number from the digits 7, 0, 5, and 3 is 7530, and the smallest is 3057. Their sum is 10587, which is correct.
  • However, since statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true, the correct answer is option (d)

Q50: Circulation of blood was discovered by __________ -
(a) Robert Hook
(b) William Harvey
(c) Lord Wellington
(d) Prince Charles II

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -1 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Blood circulation was discovered by William Harvey in 1628. He showed how arteries and veins makes a complete circuit for blood circulation.

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