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GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

General Awareness

Q1: Which breed of dog is considered the smallest in the world?
(a) Pug
(b) German Shepherd
(c) Chihuahua
(d) Beagle

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Ans: (c)

  • Chihuahua is recognized as the smallest dog breed globally, typically weighing between 2 to 6 pounds.
  • They are known for their tiny size, large eyes, and lively personality.
  • Unlike larger breeds, Chihuahuas are compact and can easily fit in a handbag.
  • This breed is often very loyal and can be quite protective of their owners despite their small stature.

Q2: Which of the following grains does not contain gluten?
(a) Buckwheat
(b) Quinoa
(c) Sorghum
(d) All of these

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Ans: (d)

  • All the grains listed - Buckwheat, Quinoa, and Sorghum - are naturally gluten-free. This makes them suitable for people with gluten intolerance or celiac disease.
  • Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye, but none of these grains contain it.
  • Choosing gluten-free grains can help maintain a healthy diet without the adverse effects of gluten.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is that all of these grains are gluten-free.

Q3: The alteration in the inheritable characteristics of flora and fauna across multiple generations is referred to as
(a) Domestication
(b) Evolution
(c) Gestation
(d) Extinction

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Ans: (b)

  • Evolution is the process that explains how species change over time through variations in their traits.
  • This change occurs due to factors like natural selection, where certain traits become more common in a population because they provide some advantage.
  • Unlike domestication, which is the process of adapting wild plants and animals for human use, evolution is a natural process.
  • Gestation refers to the period of development of an embryo, and extinction is the end of a species.

Q4: Gnawing creatures such as squirrels and beavers possess _______.
(a) Chisel-like incisors
(b) Well developed canines
(c) Sharp premolars
(d) Chisel-shaped molars

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Ans: (a)

  • Gnawing animals like squirrels and beavers are known for their unique teeth structure.
  • They have chisel-like incisors that are perfect for cutting through tough materials like wood.
  • Other types of teeth, such as canines or premolars, are not as effective for their gnawing needs.
  • This specialized dental feature helps them in their natural behavior of gnawing and chewing on various objects.

Q5: The 'Pacific Ring of Fire' is characterised by
(a) Forest fires
(b) Oil drill in oceans
(c) Volcanoes and earthquakes
(d) Floods

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Ans: (c)

  • The 'Pacific Ring of Fire' is a region in the Pacific Ocean known for its high level of seismic activity.
  • This area is famous for its numerous volcanoes and frequent earthquakes, making option C the correct choice.
  • It is not related to forest fires, oil drilling, or droughts, which are not characteristic of this geological zone.
  • Understanding this helps in recognizing the importance of the Ring of Fire in terms of natural disasters and geological studies.

Q6: The initial agreement to prohibit the release of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere was established in 
(a) Geneva
(b) Montreal
(c) Vienna
(d) Toronto 

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Ans: (b)

  • Montreal Protocol is the key international agreement aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out substances that deplete it, including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
  • This protocol was signed in Montreal, Canada, in 1987, marking a significant step in environmental protection.
  • The agreement has been successful in reducing the emissions of harmful substances, leading to a gradual recovery of the ozone layer.
  • Other cities mentioned, like Geneva and Vienna, are important in international diplomacy but are not the location of this specific protocol.

Q7: In which year did India conduct its first successful nuclear test, known as Operation Smiling Buddha?
(a) 1970
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1950

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Ans: (b)

  • Operation Smiling Buddha refers to India's first successful nuclear test.
  • This test took place in 1974, marking a significant milestone in India's nuclear program.
  • The test demonstrated India's capability in nuclear technology and was a pivotal moment in its defense strategy.
  • Understanding this event is crucial for grasping India's position in global nuclear politics.

Q8: Which country boasts the largest number of UNESCO World Heritage sites?
(a) Italy
(b) India
(c) Spain
(d) Nepal

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Ans: (a)

  • Italy is recognized for having the most UNESCO World Heritage sites, showcasing its rich cultural and historical significance.
  • UNESCO World Heritage sites are places of outstanding cultural or natural importance to the common heritage of humanity.
  • Italy's sites include famous landmarks like the Colosseum and the historic city of Venice.
  • Other countries like India and France also have numerous sites, but Italy leads the list.

Q9: Who is the playwright of the renowned work 'The Merchant of Venice'?
(a) Danielle Steel
(b) Agatha Christie
(c) William Shakespeare
(d) Mark Twain

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Ans: (c)

  • 'The Merchant of Venice' is a classic play that is widely studied and performed.
  • The correct author is William Shakespeare, who is known for his significant contributions to English literature.
  • Shakespeare's works often explore themes of love, justice, and mercy, which are central to this play.
  • Other authors listed, like Danielle Steel and Agatha Christie, are famous for different genres, but not for this particular play.

Q10: Which of the following is the primary reason for the discoloration of the Taj Mahal?
(a) Acid rain
(b) Ozone layer depletion
(c) Greenhouse effect
(d) None of these

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Ans: (a)

  • Acid rain is the main factor that leads to the discoloration of the Taj Mahal. It occurs when pollutants in the air mix with rainwater, creating acidic conditions that can damage the marble.
  • This damage results in a yellowish tint on the surface of the monument, affecting its beauty.
  • While ozone layer depletion and the greenhouse effect are environmental issues, they do not directly cause the discoloration of the Taj Mahal.
  • Thus, the correct answer is A, as it specifically addresses the issue of discoloration.

Q11: This activity may result in ____________________ .

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6

(a) Floods
(b) Cyclones
(c) Earthquakes
(d) All of these

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Ans: (a)
Cyclones may result in floods.

Q12: Which of the following represents a magnet that is not permanent?
(a) Ferrite
(b) Lodestone
(c) Alnico
(d) Electromagnet

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Ans: (d)

  • Electromagnets are magnets that can be turned on and off, making them temporary. They are created by running an electric current through a coil of wire, which generates a magnetic field.
  • In contrast, materials like Ferrite, Lodestone, and Alnico are known as permanent magnets, meaning they maintain their magnetism without the need for an electric current.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Electromagnet, as it is the only option that describes a temporary magnet.

Q13: Which NASA spacecraft conducted a detailed exploration of Saturn and its moons?
(a) Cassini
(b) Voyager
(c) Messenger
(d) Jason

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Ans: (a)

  • Cassini was the NASA spacecraft that orbited Saturn, providing valuable data about the planet, its rings, and its moons.
  • It launched in 1997 and spent over 13 years studying Saturn, making it one of the most significant missions in planetary science.
  • The mission revealed many details about Saturn's atmosphere, its complex ring system, and the diverse characteristics of its moons.
  • Cassini's findings have greatly enhanced our understanding of the Saturnian system and its unique features.

Q14: Which of the following describes a neutron star that is both highly magnetized and rotates rapidly?
(a) Pulsar
(b) Black hole
(c) Supernova
(d) Quasar

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Ans: (a)

  • Pulsars are a type of neutron star that emit beams of radiation due to their strong magnetic fields and rapid rotation.
  • They are formed from the remnants of a supernova explosion and are known for their precise and regular pulsing signals.
  • Unlike black holes, which have such strong gravity that nothing can escape, pulsars can be observed from Earth.
  • In summary, a pulsar is a highly magnetized rotating neutron star, making option A the correct answer.

Q15: Who is recognized for having the world record for the highest number of spacewalks (16) and for spending over 82 hours outside in space?
(a) Alexei Leonov
(b) Edward Higgins White II
(c) Anatoly Solovyev
(d) John Glenn

Ans: (c)

  • Anatoly Solovyev is the astronaut who holds the record for the most spacewalks, totaling 16.
  • He has spent more than 82 hours outside in space, which is a significant achievement in the field of space exploration.
  • Spacewalks are crucial for tasks like repairing satellites and conducting experiments outside the spacecraft.
  • His extensive experience and contributions have made him a notable figure in aeronautics and space missions.

Q16: Which planet takes the longest time to orbit the Sun?
(a) Uranus
(b) Jupiter
(c) Saturn
(d) Neptune

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Ans: (d)

  • Neptune has the longest period of revolution among the planets, taking about 165 Earth years to complete one orbit around the Sun.
  • In comparison, other planets like Uranus, Jupiter, and Saturn have shorter orbital periods.
  • This means that while Neptune is far from the Sun, it moves slowly in its orbit, resulting in a longer year.
  • Understanding the distance from the Sun and the speed of orbit helps explain why Neptune takes so long to revolve.

Q17: Which of the following is a classic outfit typically worn by men in Scotland?
(a) Safari
(b) Kilt
(c) Tracht
(d) Herero

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Ans: (b)

  • Kilt is the correct answer as it is a traditional Scottish garment, often made of wool and featuring a tartan pattern.
  • This garment is usually knee-length and is associated with Scottish heritage and culture.
  • While Safari, Tracht, and Herero refer to clothing from different cultures, they are not specific to Scotland.
  • The kilt is often worn during formal events, celebrations, and cultural festivals in Scotland.

Q18: Which planet is known for its many moons?
(a) Earth
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Venus

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Ans: (c)
Jupiter has the second largest number of moons, that is, 95.

Q19: Which water body divides the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands?
(a) The Ten Degree Channel
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) The Nine Degree Channel
(d) Palk Strait

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Ans: (a)

  • The Ten Degree Channel is the correct answer as it is the body of water that separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands.
  • The Gulf of Mannar is located to the south of India and does not separate these islands.
  • The Nine Degree Channel is located further south and does not separate the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • Palk Strait is situated between India and Sri Lanka, making it irrelevant to this question.

Q20: The first 'Bharat Ratna' was awarded to A. C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(c) CV Raman
(d) All of these

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Ans: (d)

  • The 'Bharat Ratna' is India's highest civilian award, and it was first given in 1954.
  • It was awarded to three individuals: C. Rajagopalachari, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and CV Raman, recognizing their significant contributions to the nation.
  • Since all three were honored together, the correct answer is "All of these".
  • This award highlights the importance of their achievements in various fields, including politics and science.

Q21: Which color is typically used to represent plateaus on a physical map?
(a) Green
(b) Yellow
(c) Blue
(d) Orange

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Ans: (b)

  • Plateaus are elevated flat areas, and on physical maps, they are usually depicted in yellow to indicate their height and terrain.
  • This color helps differentiate them from other landforms like mountains and valleys.
  • Understanding map colors is essential for interpreting geographical features accurately.
  • In contrast, other colors like green often represent lowlands or plains, while blue indicates water bodies.

Q22: Who was Ashoka's grandfather?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Bindusara
(c) Siddhartha
(d) Swami Vivekananda

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Ans: (a)

  • Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Maurya Empire and the grandfather of Ashoka.
  • He established a strong empire in ancient India, which laid the foundation for Ashoka's reign.
  • Bindusara was Ashoka's father, while Siddhartha refers to the Buddha.
  • Ramakrishna Paramahansa is a modern spiritual leader and not related to Ashoka's lineage.

Q23: Who was the head of the African National Congress and the first black President of South Africa?
(a) Jacob Zuma
(b) Martin Luther King, Jr.
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) Desmond Tutu

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Ans: (c)

  • Nelson Mandela was a prominent leader of the African National Congress (ANC), which fought against apartheid in South Africa.
  • He became the first black President of South Africa in 1994, marking a significant change in the country's history.
  • Mandela's leadership and dedication to equality and justice made him a global symbol of resistance against oppression.
  • His efforts helped to dismantle the apartheid system and promote reconciliation in South Africa.

Q24: 'Ask not what your country can do for you, ask what you can do for your country'. This well-known quote was stated by
(a) Abraham Lincoln
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) John F. Kennedy
(d) Nelson Mandela

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Ans: (c)

  • John F. Kennedy delivered this quote during his inaugural address in 1961, emphasizing the importance of civic responsibility.
  • The quote encourages individuals to think about how they can contribute to their nation rather than focusing solely on what they can receive.
  • This message promotes a sense of duty and service towards one's country, which is vital for a healthy society.
  • Overall, it inspires people to take action and be proactive in making their country better.

Q25: The image shows a particular folk dance of India. Identify it.

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6(a) Bihu
(b) Lavani
(c) Dandiya
(d) Bhangra

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Ans: (d)
It is the folk dance of Punjab.


Q26: This picture shows __________________ .

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6

(a) water pollution
(b) soil pollution
(c) air pollution
(d) all of these
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Ans: (c)
The car is emitting harmful gases into the air.

Q27: Who has the highest number of Grand Slam titles in Women's Singles history?
(a) Margaret Court
(b) Steffi Graf
(c) Martina Navratilova
(d) Serena Williams

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Ans: (a)

  • Margaret Court holds the record for the most Grand Slam titles in Women's Singles, with a total of 24 championships.
  • She achieved this remarkable feat during her career, which spanned from the 1960s to the early 1970s.
  • While other players like Steffi Graf and Martina Navratilova have also won many titles, none have surpassed Court's total.
  • This record remains a significant milestone in the history of women's tennis.

Q28: Which common material used by human beings is obtained from sand? 
(a) Rubber
(b) Glass
(c) Flax
(d) Wool

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Ans: (b)
Rubber and flax are obtained from plants and wool is obtained from sheep.

Q29: Two numbers are in a certain ratio. If 9 is taken away from both numbers, the new ratio changes. What are the numbers?
(a) 35 and 49
(b) 30 and 42
(c) 30 and 35
(d) 38 and 45

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Ans: (b)

  • Let the two numbers be represented as 30x and 42x based on their ratio.
  • When we subtract 9 from both numbers, we get (30x - 9) and (42x - 9).
  • The new ratio is given, and we can set up the equation: (30x - 9)/(42x - 9) = new ratio.
  • Solving this equation leads us to find that the original numbers are 30 and 42.

Q30: Kiwi fruit is a rich source of _______________ .
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Iron
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Proteins

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Ans: (c)
The kiwi fruit is especially rich in Vitamin C and Vitamin K.

Current Affairs

Q31: Who is the present Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy
(b) K. Chandrashekar Rao
(c) Basavaraj Bommai
(d) None of these

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Ans: (a)

  • Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy is the current Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, having taken office in May 2019.
  • He is the leader of the Yuvajana Sramika Rythu Congress Party (YSRCP).
  • His government focuses on various welfare schemes aimed at improving the lives of the people in the state.
  • Understanding the political landscape is important, as it influences local governance and development.

Q32: Who received the Governor of the Year Award at the Central Banking Awards 2023 held in London?
(a) Shaktikanta Das
(b) Urjit Patel
(c) Raghuram G. Rajan
(d) Nirmala Sitharaman

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Ans: (a)

  • Shaktikanta Das was recognized for his exceptional leadership and contributions to the financial sector.
  • The Governor of the Year Award is a prestigious accolade that highlights the achievements of central bank governors.
  • This award was presented at the Central Banking Awards 2023, which took place in London.
  • Das's efforts in maintaining economic stability and promoting growth were key factors in receiving this honor.

Q33: International Day of Forests is celebrated annually on March 21. What was the theme for the 2023 International Day of Forests?
(a) Forests and Health
(b) Forests and Sustainable Production and Consumption
(c) Forests Restoration: A Path to Recovery and Well Being
(d) Forests and Biodiversity

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Ans: (a)

  • International Day of Forests highlights the importance of forests for our planet.
  • In 2023, the theme was Forests and Health, emphasizing the connection between forests and human well-being.
  • Forests provide essential resources and contribute to better health by improving air quality and offering recreational spaces.
  • This theme encourages awareness about the role of forests in maintaining a healthy environment.

Q34: Which Indian state achieved the highest position in the medal tally during the Khelo India Youth Games 2023?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala
(d) Haryana

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Ans: (b)

  • Maharashtra emerged as the leading state in the medal tally, showcasing its strong performance in various sports.
  • The Khelo India Youth Games aim to promote sports among the youth, and Maharashtra's success reflects its commitment to sports development.
  • Other states like Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, and Haryana also participated, but Maharashtra outperformed them.
  • This achievement highlights the importance of sports in fostering talent and encouraging healthy competition among young athletes.

Q35: When is World Sickle Cell Awareness Day celebrated each year?
(a) March 12
(b) April 14
(c) June 19
(d) October 16

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Ans: (c)

  • World Sickle Cell Awareness Day is recognized every year on June 19. This day aims to raise awareness about sickle cell disease and its impact on individuals and families.
  • The observance encourages education and understanding of the condition, which affects the shape of red blood cells, leading to various health issues.
  • By promoting awareness, the day seeks to improve the quality of life for those affected and support research for better treatments.
  • It is important to recognize this day to foster community support and advocacy for those living with sickle cell disease.

Q36: Who has been awarded the title of Femina Miss India World 2023?
(a) Shreya Poonja
(b) Nandini Gupta
(c) Suman Rao
(d) Sini Shetty

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Ans: (b)

  • Nandini Gupta has been recognized as the winner of the Femina Miss India World 2023 title.
  • This prestigious title is awarded annually to a young woman who exemplifies beauty, intelligence, and grace.
  • The competition showcases contestants from various regions, and Nandini stood out among them.
  • Her achievement highlights her hard work and dedication in the pageant world.

Q37: Who led the victorious team in IPL 2023?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Hardik Pandya
(c) Rohit Sharma
(d) M.S. Dhoni

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Ans: (d)

  • M.S. Dhoni was the captain of the team that won IPL 2023.
  • He is well-known for his leadership skills and has a successful history in the IPL.
  • The victory in 2023 added to his legacy as one of the greatest captains in cricket.
  • Dhoni's experience and strategic thinking played a crucial role in leading his team to success.

Q38: Which Indian state has achieved the distinction of being the first to implement a water metro system?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Delhi
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala

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Ans: (d)

  • Kerala has made history by becoming the first Indian state to launch a water metro system, enhancing its public transport options.
  • This initiative aims to improve connectivity and promote eco-friendly transportation.
  • The water metro will facilitate travel across various water bodies, making it easier for people to commute.
  • Overall, this project is a significant step towards modernizing transport in the state.

Q39: Who is the recipient of the International Booker Prize 2023?
(a) Ismail Kadare
(b) Han Kang, Deborah Smith
(c) Georgi Gospodinov, Angela Rodel
(d) Lydia Davis

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Ans: (c)

  • Georgi Gospodinov and Angela Rodel won the International Booker Prize in 2023 for their remarkable work.
  • This prize is awarded for outstanding works of fiction translated into English, highlighting the importance of translation in literature.
  • Their win emphasizes the value of cultural exchange and the impact of translated literature on a global scale.
  • Understanding different perspectives through translated works enriches our reading experience.

Q40: What is the title of the historic sceptre placed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the newly built Parliament building?
(a) Sengol
(b) Orb
(c) Oboe
(d) Harp

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Ans: (a)

  • Sengol is the name of the historic sceptre that was installed in the new Parliament building by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
  • This sceptre symbolizes the transfer of power and has significant cultural importance in Indian history.
  • The installation of Sengol reflects a connection to India's heritage and its historical governance.
  • It serves as a reminder of the rich traditions that are part of India's democratic framework.

Life Skills

Q41: Select the false statement about dining etiquette.
(a) It is disrespectful to use a cell phone at the dining table.
(b) At the end of a meal, place the napkin on the left side of the plate.
(c) We should never ask others at the dining table to pass something; instead, we should try to reach across the table to get what we need.
(d) We should wait until everyone is served before starting to eat.

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Ans: (c)

  • Dining etiquette is important for showing respect to others at the table.
  • Using a cell phone during meals is considered disrespectful.
  • Placing the napkin on the left side of the plate is a common practice.
  • It is polite to ask others to pass items rather than reaching across, as it shows consideration.
  • Waiting for everyone to be served before eating is a sign of good manners.

Q42: When you find it difficult to reach a goal, rather than believing it is impossible, you should consider that (a) I am not clever enough
(b) I need to put more efforts and give more time
(c) Others are far more intelligent than me
(d) I should quit

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • When facing challenges in achieving a goal, it's important to maintain a positive mindset.
  • Instead of thinking negatively, like feeling you are not clever enough or that others are smarter, focus on the idea that you can improve by putting in more effort and time.
  • This approach encourages growth and persistence, which are key to overcoming obstacles.
  • Believing in the need for more effort rather than giving up is crucial for success.

Q43: A good sportsperson 
(a) Is respectful to his/her team as well as the opposite team in any situation
(b) Has a positive mindset
(c) Motivates his/her teammates
(d) All of these.

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Ans: (d)

  • All of these options highlight important qualities of a good sportsperson.
  • Being respectful to both teammates and opponents shows good sportsmanship.
  • A positive attitude helps in overcoming challenges and inspires others.
  • Additionally, motivating teammates fosters teamwork and enhances performance.

Q44: You have learned about a new social media platform, but you do not meet the age requirement to register. What action should you take?
(a) You will wait until you attain the correct age.
(b) You will provide a false age on the site and register.
(c) You will attempt to register on the site using your parents' information.
(d) None of these

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Waiting until you reach the appropriate age is the best and most responsible choice. This ensures you comply with the site's rules.
  • Providing a false age or using your parents' details can lead to serious consequences, including being banned from the site.
  • It's important to respect the age limits set by social media platforms, as they are in place for safety and legal reasons.
  • By waiting, you can enjoy the platform when you are legally allowed to do so, ensuring a better experience.

Q45: Your friend borrowed your expensive bicycle and accidentally damaged it badly. You should
(a) Ask him to buy you a similar bicycle or pay for it
(b) Shout at him and make sure he feels bad
(c) Say it's okay, he need not worry or feel bad about it
(d) End your friendship with him

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Understanding the situation: Accidents happen, and it's important to be understanding when a friend makes a mistake.
  • Choosing kindness: Saying "it's okay" shows that you value the friendship more than the material item.
  • Maintaining relationships: Being supportive can strengthen your bond rather than create conflict.
  • Encouraging honesty: This approach allows your friend to feel comfortable being honest about mistakes in the future.

Achievers Section

Q46: Select the accurate statements.
I. The Ashes is a test cricket series played between Australia and West Indies. 
II. India was the first country to host Asian Games. 
III. Geet Sethi was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title. 
IV. Jules Rimet is considered as the creator of Football World Cup. 

(a) II and III only
(b) II and IV only
(c) I, III and IV only
(d) I, II, III and IV

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Statement I is incorrect because The Ashes is a test cricket series played between Australia and England, not West Indies.
  • Statement II is correct; India was indeed the first country to host the Asian Games.
  • Statement III is also correct; Geet Sethi was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title.
  • Statement IV is incorrect; while Jules Rimet is associated with the Football World Cup, he is not the creator of it.

Thus, the correct answer is option B, which includes only the correct statements II and III.

Q47: Plants that have adapted to adjust with desert conditions are called ____________.
(a) Saprophytes
(b) Homophytes
(c) Xerophytes
(d) Mesophytes

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)
In Latin, ‘xero’ stands for ‘barren’ or ‘uncultivable’.

Q48: Generally, the satellites travel at a speed of 18,000 miles per hour. This means that they can travel entire circumference of the Earth about __________ times in a day.
(a) 10
(b) 14
(c) 20
(d) 35

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)
The artificial satellites can travel the entire circumference of the Earth around 14 times in a day.

Q49: What is the primary focus of a chart-based question?
(a) Data representation
(b) Historical events
(c) Literary analysis
(d) Scientific theories

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Chart-based questions primarily deal with the representation of data. They require you to interpret information presented in a visual format, such as graphs or tables.
  • Understanding how to read and analyze these charts is crucial for extracting meaningful insights.
  • Options B, C, and D focus on different subjects that do not relate to the essence of chart-based questions.
  • Thus, the correct answer is A, as it directly addresses the nature of the question.

Q50: Which of these has fossils of three dinosaur skeletons?
(a) Archaeological Survey of India
(b) United Nations Organisation
(c) The Australian Fossil and Mineral Museum
(d) The Jurassic Museum

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)
The Australian Fossil and Mineral Museum is the largest museum of its kind in the world.

The document GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 | GK Olympiad for Class 6 is a part of the Class 6 Course GK Olympiad for Class 6.
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FAQs on GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -3 - GK Olympiad for Class 6

$1. What is the purpose of a GK Olympiad for Class 6 students?
Ans. The purpose of a GK Olympiad for Class 6 students is to enhance their general knowledge and awareness of various subjects, including history, geography, science, and current affairs. It encourages students to think critically and improve their analytical skills while competing with peers.
$2. How can students prepare effectively for the GK Olympiad?
Ans. Students can prepare effectively for the GK Olympiad by regularly reading general knowledge books, newspapers, and magazines. They can also practice sample papers and previous years' question papers to familiarize themselves with the exam format. Joining study groups or attending coaching classes can also be beneficial.
$3. What type of questions are typically included in the GK Olympiad?
Ans. The GK Olympiad typically includes multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blanks, and true/false statements covering a wide range of topics such as world history, famous personalities, scientific discoveries, and current events. The questions are designed to test both knowledge and comprehension.
$4. What are the benefits of participating in the GK Olympiad for students?
Ans. Participating in the GK Olympiad provides numerous benefits, including improved general knowledge, enhanced academic performance, and better preparation for future competitive exams. It also boosts confidence and encourages a spirit of healthy competition among students.
$5. Is the GK Olympiad exam difficult for Class 6 students?
Ans. The difficulty level of the GK Olympiad for Class 6 students is generally moderate. The questions are designed to assess the knowledge level of students at this grade, making it accessible for most. With proper preparation and study, students can perform well in the exam.
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