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GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

General Awareness

Q1: Which gas significantly impacts the capacity of human blood to transport oxygen throughout the body?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Sulphur monoxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Oxygen dioxide

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Ans: (c)

  • Carbon monoxide is a harmful gas that binds with hemoglobin in the blood more effectively than oxygen does.
  • This binding reduces the blood's ability to carry oxygen to vital organs and tissues.
  • While nitrogen and sulphur monoxide are present in the atmosphere, they do not significantly affect oxygen transport.
  • Understanding the dangers of carbon monoxide is crucial for health and safety, especially in enclosed spaces.

Q2: The boundary between the Earth's crust and the mantle is referred to as _______.
(a) Epicentre
(b) Aquifer
(c) Moho
(d) Lithosphere

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Ans: (c)

  • The boundary known as Moho separates the Earth's crust from the mantle.
  • This layer is significant because it marks a change in composition and properties of the materials beneath the crust.
  • The term Moho comes from the name of the Croatian seismologist Andrija Mohorovičić, who discovered this boundary.
  • Understanding the Moho helps scientists learn more about the structure of the Earth and how it behaves.

Q3: In which layer of the atmosphere is the ozone layer located?
(a) Thermosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere

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Ans: (d)

  • The ozone layer is primarily found in the stratosphere, which is the second layer of the Earth's atmosphere.
  • This layer is crucial because it absorbs the majority of the sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
  • The stratosphere lies above the troposphere and below the mesosphere, making it a key component of our atmosphere.
  • Without the ozone layer in the stratosphere, life on Earth would be significantly affected due to increased UV exposure.

Q4: Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
(a) Caterpillar
(b) Dragonfly
(c) Earthworm
(d) Jellyfish

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Ans: (c)

  • Metamorphosis is a biological process where an animal undergoes significant changes in its form and structure during its life cycle.
  • Among the options, a caterpillar and a dragonfly both undergo metamorphosis, transforming into butterflies and adult dragonflies, respectively.
  • An earthworm, however, does not go through such drastic changes; it remains relatively the same throughout its life.
  • Jellyfish also undergo a form of metamorphosis, but it is not as pronounced as in insects.

Q5: Which nation is referred to as ‘The Emerald of the Equator’?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Myanmar
(c) Malaysia
(d) China

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Ans: (a)

  • Indonesia is known as ‘The Emerald of the Equator’ due to its lush green landscapes and rich biodiversity.
  • This nickname highlights the country's tropical rainforests and natural beauty.
  • It is located right on the equator, which contributes to its fertile land and vibrant ecosystems.
  • Other options like Myanmar, Malaysia, and China do not have this specific nickname associated with them.

Q6: Which of the following options represents a group of autotrophs only?
(a) Nepenthes, Cuscuta, algae
(b) Algae, tomato, banana
(c) Mushroom, algae, Cuscuta
(d) Spinach, algae, mushroom

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Ans: (b)

  • Autotrophs are organisms that can produce their own food, typically through photosynthesis.
  • In option (b), algae, tomato, and banana are all autotrophs, as they can make their own food using sunlight.
  • Other options include organisms like Cuscuta and Mushroom, which are not autotrophs; they rely on other organisms for nutrition.
  • Thus, option (b) is the only one that contains only autotrophs.

Q7: Which of the following elements is found in a liquid state at room temperature?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Bromine
(c) Sulphur
(d) Nitrogen

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Ans: (b)

  • Bromine is unique among the options as it is the only element that is a liquid at room temperature.
  • Aluminium, Sulphur, and Nitrogen are all solid or gaseous at room temperature.
  • This property of Bromine makes it important in various chemical applications.
  • Understanding the states of matter at room temperature helps in identifying the characteristics of different elements.

Q8: Who is credited with the discovery of the smallpox vaccine?
(a) Edward Jenner
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Alexander Fleming
(d) Robert Koch

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Ans: (a)

  • Edward Jenner is recognized as the pioneer of the smallpox vaccine, which was the first successful vaccine ever developed.
  • He conducted experiments in the late 18th century that demonstrated the effectiveness of using cowpox material to create immunity against smallpox.
  • This groundbreaking work laid the foundation for the field of immunology and vaccination.
  • Other scientists like Louis Pasteur and Alexander Fleming made significant contributions to microbiology and antibiotics, but they were not involved in smallpox vaccination.

Q9: Which type of friction is considered the strongest?
(a) Fluid friction
(b) Static friction
(c) Rolling friction
(d) Sliding friction

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Ans: (b)

  • Static friction is the type of friction that prevents an object from starting to move. It is stronger than other types of friction because it must overcome the initial resistance between two surfaces that are not moving relative to each other.
  • In contrast, fluid friction occurs when an object moves through a fluid, rolling friction happens when an object rolls over a surface, and sliding friction is when two surfaces slide against each other.
  • Static friction is crucial in everyday situations, like when you push a heavy box and it doesn't move until you apply enough force to overcome this friction.
  • Thus, static friction is the most powerful among the options given.

Q10: Which of the following types of operating systems enables interaction with your computer using both text and graphics?
(a) CUI
(b) GUI
(c) XUI
(d) None of these

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Ans: (b)

  • GUI stands for Graphical User Interface, which allows users to interact with the computer through visual elements like windows, icons, and menus.
  • In contrast, CUI (Character User Interface) relies solely on text commands, making it less user-friendly for those unfamiliar with command-line operations.
  • XUI is not a standard term widely recognized in operating systems, and "None of these" does not apply since GUI is a valid option.
  • Thus, the correct answer is GUI, as it combines both text and graphics for a more intuitive user experience.

Q11: _________ is the only floating National Park in the world.
(a) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(b) Yellowstone National Park
(c) Komodo National Park
(d) Yosemite National Park

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Ans: (a)

  • Keibul Lamjao National Park is located in India and is unique because it is the only national park that floats on water.
  • This park is situated on the Loktak Lake, which is known for its floating phumdis (vegetation).
  • Other options like Yellowstone and Komodo are famous parks, but they are not floating.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Keibul Lamjao National Park, as it stands out for its floating characteristic.

Q12: Who among the following are the members of the Ashtadiggajas?
1. Allasani Peddanna
2. Nandi Thimmana
3. Tenali Rama
4. Dhurjathy
Choose the correct answer:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of these

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Ans: (d)
The eight Astadiggajas were Tenali Ramakrishna, Allasani Peddana, Dhurjati, Nandi Thimmana, Madayyagari Mallana, and Ayyalaraju Ramabhadrudu.

Q13: Which of the following nations is not part of NATO?
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Belgium
(d) Greece

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Ans: (a)

  • The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance consisting of various member countries.
  • Among the options, Japan is the only country that is not a member of NATO.
  • Canada, Belgium, and Greece are all part of this alliance.

Q14: ‘Sirius’, the brightest star in the night sky is located in which constellation?
(a) Ursa Major
(b) Ursa Minor
(c) Canis Major
(d) Orion

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Ans: (c)

  • Sirius is known as the brightest star visible from Earth, and it is part of the Canis Major constellation.
  • This constellation is often referred to as the Greater Dog, which is fitting since Sirius is also known as the Dog Star.
  • While Ursa Major and Ursa Minor are well-known constellations, they do not contain Sirius.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Canis Major, where Sirius is prominently located.

Q15: Which of the following structures was constructed by Mughal Emperor Akbar?
(a) Buland Darwaza
(b) Qutub Minar
(c) Bibi ka Maqbara
(d) Red Fort

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Ans: (a)

  • Buland Darwaza is a grand gateway built by Akbar in 1576 to commemorate his victory over Gujarat.
  • It is located in Fatehpur Sikri, which was the capital of Akbar's empire.
  • Other options like Qutub Minar and Red Fort were built by different rulers.
  • Thus, Buland Darwaza is the correct answer as it directly relates to Akbar's reign.

Q16: Which is the tiniest sovereign nation globally?
(a) South Korea
(b) Japan
(c) Vatican City
(d) Greece

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Ans: (c)

  • The Vatican City is recognized as the smallest independent country in the world.
  • It is an enclave located within Rome, Italy, and serves as the spiritual and administrative center of the Roman Catholic Church.
  • Covering just about 44 hectares (110 acres), it is significantly smaller than any other country.
  • In contrast, countries like South Korea, Japan, and Greece are much larger in size.

Q17: _______ is the largest gulf in the world.
(a) Gulf of Mexico
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Gulf of Khambhat
(d) Gulf of Alaska

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Ans: (a)

  • Gulf of Mexico is recognized as the largest gulf globally, covering a vast area.
  • It is located between the United States, Mexico, and Cuba.
  • This gulf plays a significant role in marine biodiversity and is crucial for shipping and fishing industries.
  • Other options like Gulf of Mannar and Gulf of Alaska are notable but do not match the size of the Gulf of Mexico.

Q18: ________ is the largest living lizard in the world.
(a) Heloderma
(b) Draco
(c) Komodo dragon
(d) Thorny dragon

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Ans: (c)

  • The Komodo dragon is recognized as the largest living lizard on the planet, reaching lengths of up to 10 feet.
  • It is native to the islands of Indonesia, particularly the Komodo Island.
  • Unlike other lizards, the Komodo dragon has a powerful bite and can consume large prey.
  • Other options like Heloderma and Draco are not as large, making them incorrect choices.

Q19: In which year did the British divide Bengal?
(a) 1859
(b) 1920
(c) 1905
(d) 1896

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Ans: (c)

  • The British divided Bengal in 1905 as part of their administrative strategy.
  • This division aimed to weaken the growing nationalist movement by creating religious divisions.
  • The split was met with significant opposition and was reversed in 1911 due to public outcry.
  • Understanding this event is crucial as it highlights the political tactics used during colonial rule.

Q20: Which of the following is an industry in the private sector in India?
(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company Ltd.
(b) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
(c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(d) NTPC Limited

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Ans: (a)

  • Tata Iron and Steel Company Ltd. is a well-known private sector company in India, primarily involved in the production of steel.
  • In contrast, Indian Oil Corporation Ltd., Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, and NTPC Limited are all public sector enterprises.
  • This means they are owned and operated by the government.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (a) Tata Iron and Steel Company Ltd., as it represents the private sector.

Q21: In _______, the majority of students in public schools start their day by reciting the "Pledge of Allegiance".
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) India
(d) Germany

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Ans: (a)

  • USA is known for its tradition where students in government schools recite the "Pledge of Allegiance" at the beginning of the school day.
  • This practice is a way to promote patriotism and a sense of national identity among children.
  • Other countries, like Canada, India, and Germany, have different customs and do not typically have a similar pledge recitation in schools.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (a) USA, as it specifically refers to this practice.

Q22: What is the term for the fear of dolls?
(a) Cryophobia
(b) Pediophobia
(c) Trypophobia
(d) Acrophobia

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Ans: (b)

  • Pediophobia is the specific term used to describe the fear of dolls.
  • People with this fear may feel anxious or scared when they see dolls, which can be due to various reasons, including past experiences or cultural influences.
  • Other options like Cryophobia refers to the fear of ice, Trypophobia is the fear of holes, and Acrophobia is the fear of heights.
  • Understanding these terms helps in recognizing different types of phobias and their unique characteristics.

Q23: Which of the following titles has won the Booker Prize?
(a) Malgudi Days
(b) The Glass Palace
(c) The God of Small Things
(d) The Inheritance of Loss

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Ans: (c)

  • The God of Small Things is the correct answer as it is a celebrated novel by Arundhati Roy that won the Booker Prize in 1997.
  • The other options, while notable, do not hold the same distinction of winning this prestigious award.
  • Understanding the significance of the Booker Prize helps in recognizing the impact of literature on society.
  • Books that win this prize often explore deep themes and showcase exceptional storytelling.

Q24: Homer’s epic poems Iliad and Odyssey are the oldest known literary sources of __________ mythology.
(a) Latin
(b) Greek
(c) Anglo - Saxon
(d) Roman

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Ans: (b)

  • The Iliad and Odyssey are ancient Greek poems attributed to Homer.
  • These works are foundational texts of Greek mythology, detailing the tales of gods, heroes, and epic battles.
  • Latin and Roman mythologies are influenced by Greek mythology but are not the original sources.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Greek, as it directly relates to the origins of these epic tales.

Q25: ‘Dabu’ is a traditional hand block printing technique that employs mud resist dyeing. In which of the following states is it primarily practiced?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat

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Ans: (b)

  • Dabu is a unique printing method that involves using mud to resist dye, creating beautiful patterns.
  • This technique is predominantly found in Rajasthan, where artisans have perfected it over generations.
  • While other states have their own textile traditions, Rajasthan is specifically known for this mud resist dyeing technique.
  • Understanding the cultural significance of such techniques helps appreciate the rich heritage of Indian textiles.

Q26: Which Indian film was the first to receive an Oscar nomination?
(a) Alam Ara
(b) Mother India
(c) Lagaan
(d) Swades

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Ans: (b)

  • Mother India is recognized as the first Indian film to be nominated for an Oscar in the Best Foreign Language Film category.
  • This film, released in 1957, is a significant part of Indian cinema and showcases the struggles of a rural woman.
  • It highlights themes of sacrifice, strength, and resilience, making it a classic.
  • Other films like Alam Ara, Lagaan, and Swades also gained recognition, but they were not the first to be nominated.

Q27: Who is a well-known player of the sarod?
(a) Amjad Ali Khan
(b) Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
(c) Ravi Shankar
(d) Satish Vyas

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Ans: (a)

  • Amjad Ali Khan is recognized as a master of the sarod, a traditional Indian string instrument.
  • He has contributed significantly to Indian classical music and is celebrated for his performances.
  • Other options like Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia and Shivkumar Sharma are known for different instruments, such as the flute and the santoor, respectively.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Amjad Ali Khan, the prominent sarod player.

Q28: The Ezra Cup is a well-known tournament. Which sport is it linked to?
(a) Polo
(b) Hockey
(c) Cricket
(d) Tennis

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Ans: (a)

  • The Ezra Cup is a prestigious tournament primarily associated with Polo.
  • This tournament showcases the skills and competition in the sport of polo, which involves teams on horseback.
  • While other sports like hockey, cricket, and tennis are popular, they are not related to the Ezra Cup.
  • Understanding the specific sport linked to a tournament is crucial for sports enthusiasts.

Q29: The expense of farming a square plot at ₹ 25 per square meter totals ₹ 22,500. What is the cost of enclosing the square plot at ₹ 5 per meter?
(a) ₹ 500
(b) ₹ 450
(c) ₹ 600
(d) ₹ 650

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Ans: (c)

  • The area of the square field can be calculated by dividing the total cost of cultivation by the cost per square meter: 22500 / 25 = 900 sq. m.
  • To find the side length of the square, take the square root of the area: √900 = 30 meters.
  • The perimeter of the square field, which is the total length of fencing needed, is calculated as: 4 x side length = 4 x 30 = 120 meters.
  • Finally, the cost of fencing is determined by multiplying the perimeter by the cost per meter: 120 x 5 = ₹ 600.

Q30: Which of the following is not classified as a dwarf planet?
(a) Eris
(b) Haumea
(c) Makemake
(d) Venus

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Ans: (d)

  • Venus is a planet, not a dwarf planet, which is why it is the correct answer.
  • Dwarf planets include Eris, Haumea, and Makemake, all of which are recognized as such.
  • Dwarf planets are celestial bodies that orbit the Sun and are not large enough to clear their orbit of other debris.
  • In contrast, Venus is a full-fledged planet with a significant atmosphere and size.

Current Affairs

Q31: What was the theme for National Youth Day in 2022?
(a) It’s all in the Mind
(b) Youth for a Sustainable Future
(c) Sankalp Se Siddhi
(d) Transforming Education

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Ans: (a)

  • National Youth Day is celebrated in India on January 12th, honoring the birthday of Swami Vivekananda.
  • In 2022, the theme was “It’s all in the Mind”, focusing on the importance of mental health and positive thinking among the youth.
  • This theme encourages young people to harness their mental strength to overcome challenges.
  • It aims to inspire the youth to develop a positive mindset for personal and societal growth.

Q32: How many Indian cricketers were included in the 2022 edition of Wisden’s ‘Five Cricketers of the Year’ list?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5

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Ans: (c)

  • Wisden’s ‘Five Cricketers of the Year’ is an annual list that recognizes outstanding performances in cricket.
  • In the 2022 edition, only 2 Indian cricketers made it to this prestigious list.
  • This highlights the competitive nature of international cricket and the achievements of players from various countries.
  • Understanding such lists helps fans appreciate the talent and skill present in the sport.

Q33: Which team emerged victorious in the Men’s Hockey Asia Cup 2022?
(a) South Korea
(b) Japan
(c) India
(d) Pakistan

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Ans: (a)

  • South Korea claimed the title in the Men’s Hockey Asia Cup 2022, showcasing their strong performance throughout the tournament.
  • The tournament featured several competitive teams, but South Korea stood out with their skill and teamwork.
  • Japan, India, and Pakistan also participated, but they could not match South Korea's excellence in this event.
  • This victory adds to South Korea's rich history in hockey, reinforcing their status as a leading team in Asia.

Q34: Which country emerged as India's leading trading partner in the year 2021-22?
(a) USA
(b) Nepal
(c) Japan
(d) Saudi Arabia

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Ans: (a)

  • In 2021-22, the USA surpassed all other nations to become India's top trading partner.
  • This shift indicates a strong economic relationship between the two countries.
  • Trade with the USA includes various sectors, enhancing bilateral ties.
  • Other countries like Nepal, Japan, and Saudi Arabia also trade with India, but not at the same level as the USA.

Q35: Who has recently been designated as the new G-20 Sherpa for India?
(a) Parameswaran Iyer
(b) Suman Bery
(c) Amitabh Kant
(d) Raghuram Rajan

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Ans: (c)

  • Amitabh Kant has been appointed as the new G-20 Sherpa for India, representing the country in important international discussions.
  • The role of a G-20 Sherpa is crucial as it involves coordinating and preparing for the G-20 summit, which includes leaders from major economies.
  • This appointment highlights India's commitment to playing a significant role in global economic governance.
  • Amitabh Kant has previously held important positions, making him a suitable choice for this responsibility.

Q36: Which Indian state introduced a new health and wellness application named ‘AAYU’ in May 2022?
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Karnataka

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Ans: (d)

  • Karnataka launched the health and wellness app ‘AAYU’ to promote better health services.
  • This initiative aims to provide easy access to health information and services for the residents.
  • The app is part of the state's efforts to enhance public health and wellness.
  • By using this app, users can benefit from various health-related resources and support.

Q37: How many Indian languages were incorporated into 'Google Translate' in May of this year?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 8

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Ans: (d)

  • In May of this year, Google added a total of 8 Indian languages to its translation service.
  • This expansion reflects Google's commitment to making information accessible in various regional languages.
  • By including more languages, Google aims to enhance communication and understanding among diverse populations.
  • Such initiatives are crucial for promoting linguistic diversity and ensuring that more people can use technology in their native languages.

Q38: It is a native two-seat flying training aircraft created and developed by CSIR-NAL. This year, it has successfully finished sea-level trials. Can you identify it?
(a) HANSA-NG
(b) Ghatak
(c) Rustom
(d) Lakshya

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Ans: (a)

  • HANSA-NG is the correct answer as it is the aircraft designed for training purposes.
  • This aircraft is significant because it is developed by CSIR-NAL, showcasing indigenous technology.
  • Completing sea-level trials indicates that it has been tested for performance at normal atmospheric conditions.
  • The other options, while they may be aircraft, do not fit the description provided in the question.

Q39: Deoghar International Airport, which was recently inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, is situated in _________.
(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Bihar
(d) Jharkhand

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Ans: (d)

  • Deoghar International Airport is a new airport that was opened to enhance connectivity.
  • It is located in Jharkhand, a state in eastern India.
  • This airport aims to boost tourism and economic development in the region.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi's inauguration highlights its significance for the local community.

Q40: When is the International Day of Forests celebrated each year?
(a) 21st March
(b) 21st February
(c) 5th June

(d) 5th July

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Ans: (a)

  • The International Day of Forests is observed on 21st March every year.
  • This day aims to raise awareness about the importance of forests and the need for their sustainable management.
  • It encourages global efforts to protect and restore forests, which are vital for the environment and biodiversity.
  • Celebrating this day helps highlight the benefits that forests provide to humanity and the planet.

Life Skills

Q41: ________ is the ability of an individual to appreciate the strengths and weaknesses of oneself.
(a) Self sufficiency
(b) Self esteem
(c) Self discipline
(d) Self awareness

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Ans: (d)

  • Self awareness is the correct answer because it refers to the ability to recognize and understand your own emotions, strengths, and weaknesses.
  • This skill helps individuals to reflect on their behavior and make informed decisions.
  • Being self-aware allows for personal growth and better relationships with others.
  • In contrast, self sufficiency, self esteem, and self discipline focus on different aspects of personal development.

Q42: How should you respond if a person neglects to introduce you while you are in a group of unfamiliar individuals?
(a) Take offence
(b) Keep quiet and do not introduce yourself
(c) Interrupt the conversation
(d) Wait for a suitable moment to introduce yourself

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Ans: (d)

  • It's important to remain calm and not take it personally if someone forgets to introduce you.
  • Instead of feeling offended or interrupting, it's best to wait for the right moment.
  • When the opportunity arises, you can introduce yourself politely, which shows confidence.
  • This approach helps maintain a positive atmosphere and allows for smoother social interactions.

Q43: When dining at a restaurant, where is the proper place to set your soupspoon after finishing your soup?
(a) On the table
(b) On the plate of the person sitting to your right
(c) On the right side of the service plate on which the soup bowl is placed
(d) None of these

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Correct etiquette dictates that after finishing your soup, the soupspoon should be placed on the right side of the service plate. This indicates to the staff that you have completed your meal.
  • Placing it on the table or on someone else's plate is considered improper.
  • This practice helps maintain a clean and organized dining area and signals to the waitstaff that they can clear your dish.
  • Following these dining rules enhances the overall dining experience for everyone involved.

Q44: How does exercise help in reducing stress?
(a) Suppressing immunity
(b) Raising levels of endorphins (happy hormones)
(c) Deteriorating aerobic capacity
(d) Reducing stamina.

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Exercise is known to be a natural way to combat stress. One of the key benefits is that it helps in raising levels of endorphins, which are often referred to as the "happy hormones." These hormones promote a sense of well-being and happiness.
  • Unlike the option that suggests suppressing immunity, exercise actually boosts the immune system, making it more effective.
  • Additionally, exercise does not deteriorate aerobic capacity; rather, it improves it, enhancing overall fitness.
  • Finally, while exercise can lead to fatigue, it generally increases energy levels in the long run, rather than decreasing them.

Q45: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the benefits of effective listening?
(a) It demonstrates appreciation and respect for others.
(b) It helps you gain more acquaintances.
(c) It enhances your communication skills.
(d) All of these

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Effective listening is crucial as it shows appreciation and respect for the speaker, making them feel valued.
  • By being a good listener, you can build stronger relationships and potentially gain more friends.
  • Moreover, it contributes to becoming an effective communicator, as understanding others leads to better responses.
  • Thus, all the statements highlight the advantages of good listening skills.

Achievers Section

Q46: Select the accurate statement(s).
(a) The Earth Summit took place in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
(b) The first world conference to highlight the environment was the United Nations Conference on the Environment in Stockholm in 1972.
(c) Kyoto Protocol pertains to air pollution.
(d) All of the above statements 
are correct.

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The Earth Summit indeed occurred in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, making statement (i) true.
  • Statement (ii) is also correct as the 1972 United Nations Conference in Stockholm was the first to focus on the environment.
  • However, statement (iii) is incorrect because the Kyoto Protocol is related to greenhouse gas emissions, not water pollution.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c), which includes only statements (i) and (ii).

Q47: “Black Pagoda” is located in which state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Odisha
(d) Andhra Pradesh

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)
Konark Sun Temple in Odisha is known as Black Pagoda.

Q48: Select the incorrect pairing.
(a) Size of an adult goal post in football – 24 ft. × 8 ft.
(b) Distance between the popping crease and the stumps on a cricket pitch – 4 feet
(c) Indira Gandhi Cup – Boxing
(d) Location of the first Commonwealth Games – London

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Size of an adult goal post in football is indeed 24 ft. × 8 ft., which is correct.
  • The distance between the popping crease and the stumps on a cricket pitch is accurately 4 feet.
  • The Indira Gandhi Cup is associated with boxing, making that match correct.
  • However, the first Commonwealth Games were held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada, not London, making option (d) the incorrect match.

Q49: Name the country whose official currency is Bitcoin.
(a) El Salvador
(b) Central African Republic
(c) Latvia
(d) Both (a) and (b)

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)
El Salvador has acquired a total of 400 Bitcoins is the currency of bitcoin and it will continue to do so since it now views crypto currencies as legal cash. 

Q50: Identify the following: 

  • It is a type of computer network with similar capabilities and configurations. 
  • In this type of computer network, computer systems are connected to each other over the internet without any central server.

(a) Peer-to-peer network
(b) Client network
(c) Synchronous network
(d) Asynchronous network

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Peer-to-peer network is a type of network where all computers have equal status and can communicate directly with each other.
  • In this setup, there is no central server managing the connections, which allows for direct sharing of resources.
  • This type of network is often used for file sharing and collaboration among users.
  • It contrasts with client-server networks, where a central server provides resources to client machines.
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