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Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question. ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is father of B’. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is son of B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is mother of B’. ‘A & B’ means ‘A is husband of B’. How is P related to T in the given expression? P % Q + R @ S & T
(a) Mother
(b) Sister
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Mother-in-law

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Ans: (d)

  • From the expression, P % Q indicates that P is the mother of Q.
  • Next, Q + R shows that Q is the son of R, making R the father of Q.
  • Then, R @ S means R is the father of S, so S is the child of R.
  • Finally, S & T indicates that S is the husband of T, making P the mother-in-law of T.

Q2: Introducing a boy, a girl said, He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle. How is the boy related to the girl?
(a) Uncle
(b) Brother

(c) Son-in-law
(d) Nephew

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Ans: (b)
The father of the boy's uncle is the grandfather of the boy and the daughter of the grandfather is the sister of the father.
So, the boy is the brother of the girl.

Q3: If 'A' represents '+', 'B' represents '–', 'C' represents '×', and 'D' represents '÷', what is the result of 28 B 14 D 2 C 7 A 24 = ?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

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Ans: (d)

  • First, replace the letters with their corresponding operations: 28 – 14 ÷ 2 × 7 + 24.
  • Next, follow the order of operations: division and multiplication first, then addition and subtraction.
  • Calculate 14 ÷ 2 = 7, then 7 × 7 = 49.
  • Now, perform the operations from left to right: 28 – 49 + 24 = -21 + 24 = 3.

Q4: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 4

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Ans: (d)
The line segment rotates through 90o and moves to the adjacent portion of the rhombus in an anti-clockwise direction in first, third, fifth, ... steps. The other symbol moves to the adjacent portion of the rhombus in an anti-clockwise direction and also gets replaced by a new symbol in second, fourth, sixth, ... steps.

Q5: In the provided letter sequence, certain letters are absent and are listed in the options below. Choose the correct option. DB__ADB__AD__C__DB__A
(a) CCBCA
(b) CCBAC
(c) CBCAC
(d) CACBC

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Ans: (b)

  • The sequence starts with DB and continues with ADB. The missing letters follow a pattern.
  • After ADB, the next part is AD, which suggests the next letter should be C to maintain the sequence.
  • Continuing this logic, the next letters should be DB and then A again, leading to the option CCBAC fitting perfectly.
  • Thus, the correct answer is CCBAC, which matches the missing letters in the sequence.

Q6: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1

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Ans: (b)
Only in fig. (5), the arrowhead along the circumference of the circle indicates motion in the anti-clockwise direction.

Q7: 11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001
(a) 1010
(b) 101
(c) 110
(d) 111

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Ans: (b)
The pattern is -1, x10 + 1, -1, x10 + 1, -1, x10 + 1, ...
So, missing term = 10 x 10 + 1 = 101

Q8: Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2

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Ans: (a)
The upper part of the figure gets vertically inverted.

Q9: Arrange the following words in a logical order and choose the right option.

  1. Patient
  2. Recover
  3. Doctor
  4. Treatment
  5. Diagnosis 

(a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
(b) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(d) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

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Ans: (b)

  • The logical sequence starts with the Patient (1) who visits the Doctor (3).
  • Next, the Doctor makes a Diagnosis (5) of the patient's condition.
  • Following the diagnosis, the Treatment (4) is provided.
  • Finally, the Patient (1) can Recover (2) after receiving the treatment.

Q10: Sahil is looking towards the South. After making a right turn, he walks 20 m. Then he makes another right turn and walks 30 m. Following that, he turns right once more and walks 60 m. What is the distance from Sahil's current position to the starting point? 
(a) 50 m
(b) 30 m
(c) 40 m
(d) None of these 

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Ans: (a)

  • Sahil starts facing South and turns right, which means he is now facing West.
  • He walks 20 m towards the West.
  • After another right turn, he faces North and walks 30 m.
  • Finally, he turns right again to face East and walks 60 m.
  • To find the distance from the starting point, we can visualize his path: he moves 20 m West, then 30 m North, and finally 60 m East. This results in a net movement of 40 m East and 30 m North.
  • Using the Pythagorean theorem, the distance from the starting point is calculated as sqrt((40)^2 + (30)^2) = 50 m.

Science Section

Q11: A stone is thrown straight up with an initial speed of 25 m/s from the top of a tower. It strikes the ground after a while with a final speed of 90 m/s. What is the total time taken by the stone during this journey? (Take g = 10 m/s²)
(a) 5.75 s
(b) 5.0 s
(c) 6.5 s
(d) 11.5 s

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Ans: (d)

  • To find the total time taken, we can use the formula: v = u + at, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration (which is -g here), and t is the time.
  • Here, the initial velocity (u) is 25 m/s, the final velocity (v) is -90 m/s (downward), and g is 10 m/s².
  • Rearranging the formula gives us: t = (v - u) / a. Plugging in the values: t = (90 - 25) / 10 = 6.5 s.
  • However, since the stone goes up and then comes down, we need to consider the total time for both the upward and downward journey, which results in a total time of 11.5 s.

Q12: Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Isotopes are electrically neutral.
Statement 2: Atoms of different elements with the same number of neutrons but different atomic and mass numbers are known as isotopes.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. 
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct. 
(c) Both the statements are correct. 
(d) Both the statements are incorrect. 

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Ans: (a)
Atoms of different elements with same number of neutrons but different atomic and mass numbers are known as isotones.

Q13: A helicopter of mass 2000 kg ascends with a vertical acceleration of 15 m/s². The total mass of the crew and passengers is 500 kg. Identify the correct statements from the options below. (Assume g = 10 m/s²) (i) The force exerted on the floor of the helicopter by the crew and passengers is 1.25 × 10⁴ N, directed downwards. (ii) The rotor's action on the surrounding air is 6.25 × 10⁴ N, directed downwards. (iii) The force acting on the helicopter from the surrounding air is 6.25 × 10⁴ N, directed upwards.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

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Ans: (d)

  • To find the force on the floor of the helicopter: The total weight of the crew and passengers is calculated as 500 kg × 10 m/s² = 5000 N. The helicopter's weight is 2000 kg × 10 m/s² = 20000 N. The total force is the weight plus the force due to acceleration: 20000 N + (2000 kg × 15 m/s²) = 20000 N + 30000 N = 50000 N. The force on the floor is 50000 N + 5000 N = 55000 N, which is 1.25 × 10⁴ N.
  • The action of the rotor: The rotor pushes down on the air with a force equal to the total weight of the helicopter and the additional force due to acceleration, which is 6.25 × 10⁴ N downwards.
  • The force from the air: According to Newton's third law, the air pushes back with an equal and opposite force of 6.25 × 10⁴ N upwards.
  • Conclusion: All three statements are correct, making option (d) the right choice.

Q14: A solution contains 60 g of common salt in 240 g of water. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by mass percentage of solvent:
(a) 88% 
(b) 80% 
(c) 49% 
(d) 69% 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Mass by mass percent of solvent
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9

Q15: A source can generate waves with a wavelength of 100 mm in medium X and a wavelength of 0.25 cm in medium Y. Given that the wave velocity in medium X is 80 m/s, what is the wave velocity in medium Y?
(a) 2 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 6 m/s
(d) 8 m/s

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Ans: (a)

  • To find the velocity of waves in medium Y, we can use the formula: velocity = frequency × wavelength.
  • First, convert the wavelengths to the same unit: 100 mm = 0.1 m and 0.25 cm = 0.0025 m.
  • Calculate the frequency in medium X: frequency = velocity / wavelength = 80 m/s / 0.1 m = 800 Hz.
  • Now, use this frequency to find the velocity in medium Y: velocity = frequency × wavelength = 800 Hz × 0.0025 m = 2 m/s.

Q16: When a conducting sphere A on an insulating stand is brought close to a positively charged light sphere B suspended from a nylon thread, sphere B is drawn towards A. Which of the following statements about sphere A is accurate?
(a) Sphere A is neutral.
(b) Sphere A is positively charged.
(c) Sphere A is negatively charged.
(d) Sphere A is either negatively charged or neutral.

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Ans: (d)

  • Sphere A's behavior indicates that it must have a charge that can attract the positively charged sphere B.
  • If sphere A were neutral, it wouldn't attract sphere B.
  • Since sphere B is positively charged, sphere A must be either negatively charged (which would attract it) or neutral (which would not repel it).
  • Thus, the correct conclusion is that sphere A is either negatively charged or neutral.

Q17: Pressure at a point within a liquid is not influenced by 
(a) The type of liquid 
(b) Gravitational acceleration at that location 
(c) The form of the container
 (d) The depth of the point beneath the liquid's surface 

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Ans: (c)

  • Pressure in a liquid is determined by the depth of the liquid and the density of the liquid, but it does not depend on the shape of the container. This means that regardless of how the container is shaped, the pressure at a specific depth remains the same.
  • The nature of the liquid and the acceleration due to gravity do affect pressure, but the container's shape does not.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that pressure at a point inside a liquid does not depend on the shape of the container.

Q18: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: If the initial velocity is reduced to half, the stopping distance of a moving object decreases by a factor of 2 (assuming the same deceleration).
Statement 2: The stopping distance is related to the square of the initial velocity.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

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Ans: (d)

  • Statement 1 is false because reducing the initial velocity to half actually decreases the stopping distance by a factor of 4, not 2.
  • Statement 2 is true as it correctly states that stopping distance is proportional to the square of the initial velocity.
  • This means that if you halve the velocity, the stopping distance decreases by a factor of 4 (since (1/2)^2 = 1/4).
  • Thus, the correct option is (d) where statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.

Q19: Which among the following is the correct signal pathway from one neuron to another?
 I. Cell body 

II. Dendrites 
III. Axon
(a) II, I, III and II 
(b) I, III and II 
(c) III, II and I 
(d) II, III and I 

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Ans: (a)
The electrical impulses flow from the dendrites to the cell body and the axon. The axon transfers the signal through its dendrites onto the next cell.

Q20: Which of the following statements is/are accurate regarding the mass of the substance deposited at the cathode?
(i) It is inversely proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
(ii) It is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
(iii) It is directly proportional to the time for which electricity is passed through the electrolyte.
(iv) It is inversely proportional to the time for which electricity is passed through the electrolyte. 
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) (i) and (iii) only

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Ans: (b)

  • The mass of the substance deposited at the cathode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte, meaning that as more electricity flows, more substance is deposited.
  • It is also directly proportional to the time electricity is passed, indicating that longer time results in more deposition.
  • Thus, statements (ii) and (iii) are correct, while (i) and (iv) are incorrect.
  • In summary, the correct answer is (b) because both statements (ii) and (iii) accurately describe the relationship.

Q21: A body when floats in water, (1/4)th of its volume remains outside water. When it floats in another liquid, half of its volume remains outside the liquid. Then the density of the liquid is
(a) 3/4 gm/cc
(b) 4/3 gm/cc
(c) 3/2 gm/cc
(d) 8/3 gm/cc

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Ans: (c)

  • When an object floats, the weight of the liquid displaced equals the weight of the object.
  • In water, if 1/4 of the volume is above water, then 3/4 of the volume is submerged, indicating the density of the object is 3/4 gm/cc.
  • In the second liquid, if 1/2 of the volume is above, then 1/2 is submerged, meaning the density of the liquid can be calculated using the ratio of the submerged volumes.
  • Using the principle of buoyancy, the density of the liquid is found to be 3/2 gm/cc.

Q22: The atomic number of three elements A, B and C are 4, 9, 12 respectively. Which two elements show similar chemical properties?
(a) A and B 
(b) B and C 
(c) A and C 
(d) A, B and C 

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Ans: (c)
Elements A and C have the same number of valence electrons. Hence, they show the same chemical properties

Q23: Which of the following shows the correct increasing order of rigidity for the listed substances?
(a) Milk < Nitrogen < Book
(b) Stone < Oxygen < Oil
(c) Alcohol < Salt < Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen < Petrol < Wooden block

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Ans: (d)

  • The question asks for the increasing order of rigidity, which means we need to identify the substances from least rigid to most rigid.
  • Hydrogen is a gas and has very low rigidity, followed by Petrol, which is a liquid, and finally, a Wooden block, which is solid and more rigid.
  • In contrast, the other options do not follow this order correctly, as they mix different states of matter without proper comparison of rigidity.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (d) because it accurately reflects the increasing rigidity from gas to liquid to solid.

Q24: Soham, a class 9 student, combined iron filings and sulfur in a China dish and heated them strongly to create a residue. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of the residue?
(a) It cannot be separated into sulfur and iron filings by normal physical methods.
(b) Its properties are completely different from iron and sulfur.
(c) Its composition is the same throughout.
(d) Its appearance is different from iron and sulfur, but it shows chemical properties of both iron and sulfur.

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Ans: (d)

  • The residue formed by heating iron filings and sulfur is a new substance. It cannot be separated back into its original components using simple physical methods.
  • Its properties are distinct from those of iron and sulfur. This means it behaves differently than either of the original materials.
  • The composition of the residue is uniform throughout. This indicates that every part of the residue has the same makeup.
  • However, the statement that its appearance is different but shows chemical properties of both iron and sulfur is incorrect. The residue does not exhibit the chemical properties of the original substances.

Q25: Which of the following solutions has the highest mass by volume percentage?
(a) 10 g of sugar in 50 mL solution
(b) 25 g of potassium chloride in 100 mL solution
(c) 30 g of magnesium sulfate in 50 mL solution
(d) 60 g of sodium chloride in 200 mL solution

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Ans: (c)

  • To find the mass by volume percentage, we use the formula: (mass of solute / volume of solution) x 100.
  • For option (a): (10 g / 50 mL) x 100 = 20%.
  • For option (b): (25 g / 100 mL) x 100 = 25%.
  • For option (c): (30 g / 50 mL) x 100 = 60%.
  • For option (d): (60 g / 200 mL) x 100 = 30%.
  • Comparing these percentages, 30 g of magnesium sulfate in 50 mL gives the highest mass by volume percentage of 60%.

Q26: Even if the tip of a plant containing the apical meristem is removed, it will keep growing because of the presence of _____.
(a) lateral meristem 
(b) intercalary meristem 
(c) cambium 
(d) reformation of apical meristem 

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Ans: (b)
When the apical meristem is removed, various hormones insides the plant triggers the growth of a new bud using the intercalary meristem.

Q27: Which of the following statements are false? 
I. Carbonate ion is a polyatomic ion that carries a charge of –2. 
II. Sulfide ion is trivalent and positive. 
III. Argon and oxygen are monoatomic and diatomic gases respectively. 
IV. Ammonium ion is negatively charged and carries a single negative charge only.
(a) II and IV only
(b) I and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) III and IV only 

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Ans: (a)

  • Statement I is true; the carbonate ion does indeed have a charge of –2.
  • Statement II is false; the sulfide ion is actually divalent and carries a negative charge, not trivalent and positive.
  • Statement III is true; argon is a monoatomic gas while oxygen is diatomic.
  • Statement IV is false; the ammonium ion is positively charged, not negatively charged.
  • Thus, the incorrect statements are II and IV, making option a the correct answer.

Q28: Which among the following is the most common component of the plant cell wall?
(a) Cellulose 
(b) Fructose 
(c) Glucose 
(d) Mannose 

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Ans: (a)
The plant cell wall is made up of cellulose and hemicellulose and the most common component of the plant cell wall is cellulose.

Q29: Which among the following is true regarding kingdom Plantae?
(a) Plantae is classified based on various characters such as presence or absence of a well differentiated body, presence or absence of conductive tissue and finally the ability to bear seeds and whether the seeds are enclosed within fruits. 
(b) Thallophytes consists of plants that have a well-differentiated body. 
(c) Bryophytes have conductive tissue. 
(d) All of the above 

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Ans: (a)
Kingdom Plantae is divided into different classes, orders and families based on the following characters.

  • Presence or absence of well-differentiated cell body
  • Presence or absence of conductive tissue
  • Ability to bear seeds
  • Naked seeds or enclosed seeds (fruit)

Q30: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: If the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is gas, the colloid formed is a gel.
Statement 2: Jelly and butter are examples of gel.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. 
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct. 
(c) Both the statements are correct. 
(d) Both the statements are incorrect. 

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Ans: (b)
If the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is gas, the colloid formed is a aerosol

Q31: Which of the following situation is not possible?
(a) A body can have constant velocity and still have varying speed.
(b) A body can have zero velocity but yet possess acceleration.
(c) A body can be said to be at rest as well as in motion at the same time.
(d) Both a and b

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Ans: (a)
An object can have zero velocity and still be accelerating simultaneously. For example, when an object is projected vertically up, at the highest point its speed becomes zero whereas it is accelerating downwards with g. An object can be at rest with respect to one object and can be in motion with respect to one object and can be in motion with respect to another object.

Q32: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: When a fire brigade arrives, it pours water on the fire.
Statement 2: Water cools the combustible material so that its temperature is brought above its ignition temperature.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is true because fire brigades do indeed pour water on fires to extinguish them.
  • Statement 2 is false because water actually cools the combustible material to below its ignition temperature, not above it.
  • Thus, the correct option is that Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
  • This means that while the action of pouring water is correct, the explanation regarding temperature is incorrect.

Q33: Which of the given statements is not a function of the plasma membrane?
(a) It maintains the individuality of the cell.
(b) It is selectively permeable, therefore it prevents cell contents from mixing with the environment.
(c) Its junctions help to keep the cells together.
(d) It protects the cell from injury.

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Ans: (b)

  • Plasma membrane is crucial for maintaining the cell's identity and structure.
  • It is selectively permeable, allowing certain substances to pass while blocking others, but it is not completely impermeable.
  • It also has junctions that help in holding cells together and provides protection.
  • Thus, the statement that it is impermeable is incorrect, making option (b) the right answer.

Q34: Ananya was asked by her teacher to write a few points on phagocytosis. She wrote a few statements. However, one statement is incorrect. Identify the incorrect statement(s) and select the correct option.
I. It is the intake of extracellular particles.
II. It is a nutritive and defensive process.
III. Microfilaments play no role in it.
IV. Cell membrane grows around the particle as pseudopodia. 
(a) I and II only
(b) IV only
(c) II and III only
(d) III only

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Ans: (d)

  • Phagocytosis is a process where cells engulf and digest extracellular particles.
  • Statement I is correct as it describes the intake of particles.
  • Statement II is also correct because phagocytosis serves both a nutritive and defensive function for the cell.
  • Statement III is the incorrect one; microfilaments actually play a crucial role in the process.
  • Statement IV is correct as it describes how the cell membrane extends around the particle.

Q35: Which among the following is a complex permanent tissue in plants?
(a) Xylem
(b) Parenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Phloem

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Ans: (a)

  • Xylem is a type of complex permanent tissue in plants responsible for the transport of water and nutrients from the roots to the rest of the plant.
  • It consists of various cell types, including tracheids and vessel elements, which work together to perform this function.
  • Other options like Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma, and Phloem serve different roles; for instance, Phloem is involved in transporting sugars.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Xylem, as it is specifically classified as a complex permanent tissue.

Q36: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Each smooth muscle fiber is long, spindle-shaped, tapering, and uninucleate.
Statement 2: Smooth muscle fibers show transverse striations and occur in the walls of tubular organs.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct because smooth muscle fibers are indeed long, spindle-shaped, tapering, and have a single nucleus.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect as smooth muscle fibers do not have transverse striations; they are non-striated and are found in the walls of tubular organs.
  • Thus, the correct choice is that Statement 1 is true while Statement 2 is false.
  • This leads us to the conclusion that option (c) is the right answer.

Q37: Which among the following is not utilized in organic farming?
(a) Anabaena
(b) Clostridium botulinum
(c) Neem leaves
(d) Cyanobacteria

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Ans: (b)

  • Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium that produces toxins and is harmful, making it unsuitable for organic farming.
  • In contrast, Anabaena and Cyanobacteria are beneficial microorganisms that can enhance soil fertility.
  • Neem leaves are also commonly used in organic farming for their natural pest-repelling properties.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) because it is not safe or beneficial for organic practices.

Q38: Which of the following is a type of chemical reaction?
(a) Combustion
(b) Evaporation
(c) Melting
(d) Freezing

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Ans: (a)

  • Combustion is a chemical reaction that involves the burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen, producing heat and light.
  • In contrast, evaporation, melting, and freezing are physical changes, not chemical reactions.
  • Understanding the difference between chemical and physical changes is crucial in chemistry.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (a) Combustion, as it represents a true chemical reaction.

Q39: The husk of the coconut and the small gritty substance in the guava are made of which of these tissues?
(a) Parenchyma 
(b) Collenchyma 
(c) Tracheid 
(d) Sclerenchyma 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)
The husk of the coconut contains sclerenchyma cells. The gritty texture in guava is due to the presence of sclereids. Sclereids are reduced forms of sclerenchyma cells that are spherical.

Q40: An ion M2+ contains 10 electrons and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of that element M?
(a) 24 
(b) 32 
(c) 12 
(d) 14 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Number of electrons in M2+ ion = 10
Number of electrons in neutral M ion = 12
In a neutral atom, number of electrons is equal to the number protons.
Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons
= 12 + 12 = 24

Q41: Select the incorrect match. Name of National Park - Organism for which it is known
(a) Kanha National Park – Great Indian Bustard
(b) Sundarbans – Royal Bengal Tiger
(c) Desert National Park – Chinkara
(d) Corbett National Park – Tiger

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Kanha National Park is famous for its population of Barasingha, not the Great Indian Bustard.
  • The Sundarbans is indeed known for the Royal Bengal Tiger.
  • Desert National Park is recognized for the Chinkara, which is correct.
  • Corbett National Park is well-known for its Tiger population.

Q42: How many of the following cell organelles are found exclusively in plant cells? Ribosome, Vacuole, Mitochondria, Plastids, Lysosome
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Ribosomes are present in both plant and animal cells.
  • Vacuoles are found in both types of cells, but they are larger in plant cells.
  • Mitochondria are also present in both plant and animal cells.
  • Plastids, such as chloroplasts, are unique to plant cells.
  • Lysosomes are typically found in animal cells, not in plant cells.

Therefore, the only organelle that is present exclusively in plant cells is Plastids, making the total count 1.

Q43: ________ regulates calcium and phosphate balance in the body.
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pancreas
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Pineal gland

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Parathyroid gland plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of calcium and phosphate in the body.
  • It releases a hormone called parathyroid hormone (PTH) that increases calcium levels in the blood.
  • This gland is located behind the thyroid gland in the neck and is essential for bone health.
  • Without proper function of the parathyroid gland, the body can experience issues like weak bones or muscle spasms.

Q44: Which is the cell component that helps to maintain the structure and rigidity of a plant cell when the cell is immersed in both hypertonic and hypotonic solutions?
(a) Plasma membrane 
(b) Vacuole 
(c) Cytoplasm 
(d) Cell wall 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)
When a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the water inside the cell will come out and the cell will shrink and will get detached from the cell wall. Nevertheless, the cell wall will remain its structure, shape and rigidity.
When a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the water will enter into the cell and the cell will swell up. But the cell wall will exert pressure on the cell called the “turgor pressure” and will retain the original shape and structure of the cell.

Q45: The phenomenon of increase in concentration of nonbiodegradable organic compounds with each trophic level in a food chain is called
(a) Biological evolution
(b) Bioenlargement
(c) Biomagnification
(d) Biofixation

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Biomagnification refers to the process where the concentration of nonbiodegradable substances increases as you move up the food chain.
  • This happens because predators consume multiple prey, leading to a higher accumulation of these harmful compounds.
  • As a result, organisms at the top of the food chain, like eagles or humans, can have much higher levels of toxins compared to those at the bottom.
  • Understanding this concept is crucial for environmental protection and food safety.

Achievers Section

Q46: Graph below shows the velocity-time graph for three objects, moving in the same direction.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9Which of the following statement is correct about the above graph?
(a) Acceleration of C is greater than A 
(b) Acceleration of A is greater than C 
(c) Acceleration of B is less than A 
(d) Acceleration of C is less than B 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
The slope of velocity-time graph for C is greater than that for B. Hence, the acceleration of C is greater than that of A.

Q47: Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection. Which of the following is not a reason for the spread of the disease?
(a) Spread through consuming food and water contaminated by feces.
(b) Spread by inhaling aerosols released by another person.
(c) Spread by mosquitoes.
(d) None of the above

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection caused by injecting food or water contaminated by Vibrio cholera.

Q48: Read the given passage where a few words are italicized and select the correct statement regarding them. ""The term cell was coined by Robert Hooke in 1665. Cells that lack a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called prokaryotic cells whereas cells that have a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called eukaryotic cells. Bacterial cells are prokaryotic cells whereas animal cells are eukaryotic cells.""
(a) Robert Hooke must be replaced with Robert Brown.
(b) Prokaryotic should be interchanged with eukaryotic.
(c) Animal must not be changed as it is correctly mentioned.
(d) Bacterial must be replaced with plant.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Animal cells are correctly identified as eukaryotic cells in the passage.
  • The term prokaryotic refers to cells without a defined nucleus, which is accurately described.
  • Robert Hooke is the correct person associated with the term ""cell,"" so option (a) is incorrect.
  • Options (b) and (d) also misrepresent the definitions provided in the passage.

Q49: A particle weighs 80 N on the surface of the earth. At what height above the earth’s surface will its weight be 20 N? R = Radius of the earth 
(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) 3R
(d) 4R

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9

Q50: A man of mass 55 kg climbs up a flight of steps toreach the spring board. The spring board is 6 m above the water surface in a swimming pool as shown in the given figure.
He jumps up into air, 3 m above the spring board, before falling into water in the swimming pool. If the average resisting force exerted by water on the man is 1500 N, then the maximum depth of the man in water will be

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9(a) 2.1 m
(b) 3.3 m
(c) 4.2 m
(d) 5.6 m

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Step 1: Calculate the total height from which the man falls into the water
The man initially climbs to a height of 6 meters above the water surface and then jumps an additional 3 meters above the springboard. So, the total height (h) from which the man falls is:
h = 6 m + 3 m = 9 m
Step 2: Calculate the potential energy at the top of the jump
The potential energy (PE) of the man at the topmost point is given by the formula:
PE = m × g × h
where:
m = 55 kg (mass of the man)
g = 9.8 m/s2 (acceleration due to gravity)
h = 9 m
Substitute the values:
PE = 55 × 9.8 × 9 = 4851 J
Step 3: Calculate the work done by the water in stopping the man
The resisting force by the water acts over a certain distance d, which we need to find. The work done by the water (which stops the man) is equal to the mechanical energy he had when he hit the water.
The work done by the water is given by:
W = F × d
where:
F = 1500 N (the resisting force exerted by the water)
d is the depth to which the man sinks in the water.
Since the work done by the water is equal to the man’s mechanical energy, we can set:
1500 × d = 4851
Solve for d:
d = 4851 ÷ 1500 = 3.23 m

Step 4: Conclusion
The depth to which the man sinks in the water is approximately 3.23 meters. This is closest to option B (3.3 m).
Thus, the correct answer is B. 3.3 m.

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1. What topics are typically covered in the Class 9 Science Olympiad?
Ans. The Class 9 Science Olympiad generally covers various topics from the Class 9 science curriculum, including but not limited to, Matter, Motion, Force, Energy, Sound, Light, and the structure of the Atom. It may also include practical applications and experiments related to these concepts.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad?
Ans. To prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad, students should review their Class 9 science textbooks, practice previous years' papers, and take part in mock tests. Understanding key concepts, conducting experiments, and participating in group discussions can also enhance preparation.
3. What is the format of the Science Olympiad exam for Class 9?
Ans. The Science Olympiad exam for Class 9 typically consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering various scientific concepts. The exam is usually timed, and students are required to select the correct answer from the given options.
4. Are there any specific books or resources recommended for the Science Olympiad?
Ans. Yes, students can refer to their Class 9 science textbooks along with additional reference books such as NCERT solutions, Olympiad Success study materials, and previous year’s question papers. Online resources and practice quizzes can also be beneficial.
5. What is the importance of participating in the Science Olympiad for Class 9 students?
Ans. Participating in the Science Olympiad helps Class 9 students enhance their understanding of scientific concepts, develop problem-solving skills, and boosts their analytical thinking. It also encourages healthy competition and can improve their performance in future academic pursuits.
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